UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 29, 2024 to January 04, 2025

1. Under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), developing countries are obliged to submit a detailed report on their efforts towards climate action.

2. It is an Annual Update Report.

3. India recently submitted its latest report reflecting the energy efficiency of its economic activities reduced by 36% between 2005 and 2020.

4. The report does not update national action plans to mitigate emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

— As part of its global climate commitments, India recently submitted its latest report detailing its greenhouse gas emission (GHG) inventory and its efforts to curb emissions.

— The research stated that the emissions intensity of its GDP, which represents the energy efficiency of its economic operations, decreased by 36% between 2005 and 2020. The study also examined the sources of emissions and the status of the climate action goals. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), developing nations are required to produce a full report on their efforts to combat climate change. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Biennial Update Report, or BUR, is a report filed as part of the requirements under the Paris Climate Agreement. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Important contributions to BURs include an analysis of the country’s national circumstances in terms of climate, socioeconomic variables, and forestry, as well as a complete inventory of national greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, sources, and natural sinks.

— It also includes essential updates on national action plans to reduce emissions, methodologies for measuring those efforts, and information on the financial, technological, and capacity-building assistance the country has received to battle climate change. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— India’s BUR-4 has updated the third national communication. It was submitted to the UNFCCC on December 30. The report includes the national GHG inventory for 2020 and concludes that India is on pace to accomplish its climate objectives.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the air-to-ground (ATG) technology and satellite-based connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. In-flight connectivity systems only use satellite-based connectivity.

2. Air-to-ground (ATG) technology requires special antennae while satellite-based connectivity does not require any antennae.

3. Currently, only Air India has the facility of Wi-Fi Internet connectivity services on board domestic and international flights.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

— Air India welcomed the new year by announcing the availability of Wi-Fi Internet access services on domestic and international flights operated by chosen aircraft in its fleet. This makes the airline the first in India to provide internet access on domestic flights.

— At present, the Wi-Fi is provided on the airline’s Airbus A350, Boeing 787-9, and selected Airbus A321neo aircraft. As part of an ongoing pilot program, the airline already provided Internet connectivity on foreign flights operated by these aircraft. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— In-flight communication systems rely on ground-based cellular towers, commonly known as air-to-ground (ATG) technology, and satellite-based connectivity. Both require the installation of special antennae and other equipment on the aircraft. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are not correct.

— In the former, an antenna, typically located around the plane’s belly, receives signals from the nearest tower on the ground, or ground receiver, to offer connectivity on board the aircraft. In some ways, this is analogous to how our devices use wireless Internet on the ground.

— The other alternative, which is rapidly gaining popularity, is satellite connectivity. Simply put, base stations broadcast the Internet to aeroplanes via satellites, which use antennae located on top of the aircraft fuselage. This type of connectivity provides larger coverage and is especially handy when the aircraft is flying over areas lacking ground towers.

How does in-flight Wi-Fi work?

— Multiple Wi-Fi antennae are positioned within the aircraft cabin and receive signals from passengers’ devices. Signals from these in-cabin antennae are sent to an on-board server. Until this point, the procedure is the same for both ATG and satellite-based connectivity.

— In the case of a satellite-based connection system, signals are delivered to a satellite via an antenna on top of the aircraft, which then relays them to a ground station or teleport. In response, signals are transmitted from the ground station to the satellite, which transmits them to the plane. Signals from the aircraft’s server are transmitted directly to on-land cellular towers via the antenna below the aircraft. The towers then reply by sending signals to the aircraft.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the freestyle chess, consider the following statements:

1. It is a chess variant popularised by the legendary Bobby Fischer way back in 1996.

2. In freestyle chess, the positions of chess pieces on the back ranks are fixed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— Carlsen and Nakamura accused FIDE of pressuring grandmasters who wished to compete in the Freestyle Chess Grand Slam Tour, claiming that they were on the point of withdrawing from FIDE events to participate in the freestyle competition. FIDE has disputed the claims.

— Bobby Fischer, the great chess player, popularised freestyle chess in 1996. It’s chess with a twist. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— In normal chess, the positions of chess pieces on the rear ranks are fixed: rooks are stationed in the corners, knights begin on the b and g files, and bishops on the c and f files. Both kings are on d file squares, but the queens begin on e squares. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— However, in freestyle chess, the placements of these pieces are randomly assigned at the start of the game, whereas the eight pawns in front of these pieces begin where they normally do. This format is intended to encourage innovation in participants. The unique starting position in each game eliminates all of the opening theories that champions like Fischer and Carlsen claim make chess exceedingly theoretical and bookish in the early stages.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 4

The Snickometer technology is used in:

(a) Cricket

(b) Baseball

(c) Tennis

(d) Golf

Explanation

— After 15 years of the Umpires Decision Review System (DRS) era in Test matches, technology has significantly decreased incorrect mistakes in the game. However, a storm occasionally develops, perhaps only to remind us that even scientific evidence is vulnerable to human interpretation, and that robots can be faulty as well.

— The incident involving opener Yashasvi Jaiswal in the second innings at the MCG, in which science failed but human judgement prevailed, demonstrates that technology in the game is still not foolproof, and explains why some members of the cricket fraternity remain sceptical of DRS and the accuracy of the tools that make it.

How do Snicko and Hot Spot work and differ?

— Alan Paskett, an English computer scientist, designed the Snickometer, which works on the idea of audio waveform pattern. It filters out ambient noise and amplifies the crucial signal – that is, the sound produced when the bat impacts the ball at a specific frequency – using a resonance filter and an oscilloscope to record and filter sound waves.

— Hot Spot makes use of technologies developed by French scientist Nicholas Bion for military applications. It is based on infrared thermal imaging of the area where the ball has touched the bat; thermal imaging cameras installed at both ends behind the bowler collect heat signatures formed when the ball contacts the bat (or pad or body).

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 5

With reference to the Optional Practical Training (OPT) programme, consider the following statements:

1. It allows international students in the US to secure work permanently.

2. International students who are enrolled full-time for at least one academic year in the US can apply for OPT.

3. A pre-completion OPT allows the student to work up to 20 hours a week.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Supporters of US President-elect Donald Trump’s ‘Make America Great Again’ (MAGA) campaign have targeted the Optional Practical Training (OPT) program, which is seen as a backdoor for international students seeking an H-1B visa.

— The OPT programme enables international students in the United States to find temporary work. This makes them stronger candidates for the H-1B visa, which allows skilled foreign nationals to work in the United States for an additional six years. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— According to US Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS), the OPT program allows overseas students in the United States on F-1 visas to work for up to 12 months in an area “directly related” to their major field of study.

— International students who are enrolled full-time for at least one academic year in the United States are eligible to apply for OPT. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— A pre-completion OPT allows the student to work up to 20 hours per week during the academic year and full-time outside of it. A post-completion OPT requires the student to work at least 20 hours per week, or full-time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Students with a degree in Science, Technology, Engineering, or Mathematics (STEM) can extend their post-completion OPT by an additional 24 months. This means they can work in the United States for a maximum of three years. USCIS lists degree programs that qualify for this extension.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Flame retardant plastics, consider the following statements:

1. Recycled parts from old electronics like TV casings are often used to make Flame retardant plastics or black household plastics.

2. Decabromodiphenyl Ether (DecaBDE) was one of the most commonly used flame retardants until the European Union banned its use in electronics in 2006.

3. Flame retardant plastics, particularly DecaBDE, have been linked to cancer and hormonal imbalance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

— Researchers examined numerous home goods made of black plastic to check if they contained residues of hazardous chemicals commonly present in recycled materials. Megan Liu, the study’s primary author and scientific and policy manager for the US-based environmental advocacy organisation Toxic-Free-Future, stated that 85% of the products tested had flame retardants.

— To avoid fires, plastics used in electronic and electrical equipment contain flame retardants.

— Decabromodiphenyl Ether (DecaBDE) was a widely used flame retardant until 2006, when the European Union banned its usage in electronics. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— Recycled pieces from obsolete electronics, such as TV casings, are frequently utilised to produce black home plastics, however these recycled items are not thoroughly tested for the inclusion of hazardous fire retardants. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Flame retardant plastics, notably DecaBDE, have been related to cancer, hormone imbalance, neurological damage, and reproductive dysfunction. It may be a package of concealed health concerns. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Similarly, another chemical molecule found in black plastic, 2,4,6-Tribromophenol, is “associated with thyroid disruption in humans and mice and has been detected in serum, breast milk, and placenta,” according to the study.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

With reference to the norovirus, consider the following statements:

1. It is a highly contagious virus sometimes called the ‘winter vomiting bug’.

2. It is not transmitted through contaminated food and water.

3. It is similar to diarrhoea-inducing rotavirus and infects people across age groups.

4. The norovirus infection is associated with intestinal inflammation and malnutrition.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

— Norovirus, a stomach infection, has caused concern in the United States, with over 90 cases reported in the first week of December.

— In India, norovirus has already harmed people in Kerala, albeit on a far lower scale than in the United States.

— Norovirus is a highly contagious virus popularly known as the ‘winter vomiting bug’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It can spread via contaminated food, water, and surfaces. The major route is oral-fecal. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— It is comparable to rotavirus, which causes diarrhoea, and infects people of all ages. Disease outbreaks are common aboard cruise ships, in nursing homes, dormitories, and other enclosed spaces. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Emerging data suggests that “norovirus infection is associated with intestinal inflammation, malnutrition, and may cause long-term morbidity” according to the WHO. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

— The first symptoms of norovirus are vomiting and/or diarrhoea, which appear one or two days after being exposed to the virus. Patients have nausea, stomach pain, fever, headaches, and body aches. In extreme circumstances, fluid loss can cause dehydration.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

With reference to the neutrinos, consider the following statements:

1. They are tiny particles and very similar to electrons.

2. They have a positive electric charge.

3. They were detected for the first time in 1959.

4. These are the most abundant subatomic particles.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

— Scientists are using two telescopes to detect high-energy neutrinos, commonly known as ghost particles, beneath the Mediterranean Sea.

— The two telescopes are part of the Cubic Kilometre Neutrino Telescope (KM3NeT). These telescopes are similar to the IceCube Neutrino Observatory, which can detect high-energy neutrinos from deep space but is located under solid ice in Antarctica rather than under water.

— Neutrinos are microscopic particles that are extremely similar to electrons but have no electric charge. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

— They were discovered for the first time in 1959, despite the fact that their existence had been predicted nearly three decades earlier in 1931. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— They are one of the universe’s fundamental particles and the second most abundant subatomic particle after photons. Neutrinos are so abundant that almost a billion of them pass through one cubic centimetre of space every second. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

— High-energy neutrinos can enable astrophysicists to examine dusty space systems and regions, such as the core of our Milky Way Galaxy. Dust absorbs and scatters visible light, making it difficult or impossible to examine things with optical telescopes.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

With reference to the Savitribai Phule, consider the following statements:

1. She advocated inter-caste marriages and widow remarriage.

2. She established the Satyashodhak Samaj.

3. During the 1877 famine, Savitribai offered her services to the people by setting up food camps, especially for children.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

— On her birth day on January 3, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to Savitribai Phule, who came from a disadvantaged group and is regarded as an iconic woman social reformer, hailing her as a pioneer in education and social reform.

— Savitribai Phule’s education began following her marriage. Her husband, Jyotirao Phule, reportedly educated her at home. Later, Jyotirao accepted Savitribai to a teacher training school in Pune.

— The Phules established additional schools for girls, Shudras, and Ati-Shudras (backward castes and Dalits, respectively) in Pune, causing dissatisfaction among Indian nationalists such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak. The resistance to the pair was so strong that Jyotirao’s father, Govindrao, was forced to expel them out of his home.

— Savitribai Phule also fought for inter-caste marriages, widow remarriage, and the abolition of child marriage, sati, and dowry systems, among other social causes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— On September 24, 1873, Jyotirao-Savitribai and other like-minded individuals founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (The Truth-Seeker’s Society). Savitribai was a very dedicated and enthusiastic Samaj activist. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— During the 1877 famine, Savitribai volunteered her services to the public by establishing 52 anna chattra (meal camps), primarily for children. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

He is known as the father of India’s space programme. He was 15 year old when he built a working model of a train engine with the help of two engineers, which is now housed at the Community Science Centre (CSC) in Ahmedabad. He completed his post-graduation at the Indian Institute of Science in Bengaluru under Dr CV Raman. In 1966, he took over as Atomic Energy Commission chairman. He is directly related to the first Indo-US space venture using technology for education and Krishi Darshan programme for farmers.

The above mentioned lines refer to:

(a) Dr. S. Somanath

(b) Dr. K Radhakrishnan

(c) Homi J. Bhabha

(d) Vikram Sarabhai

Explanation

— Vikram Sarabhai, the father of India’s space program, died on December 30, 1971, in Kovalam, Kerala, at the age of 52. Sarabhai founded 38 institutes that are currently at the forefront of space science, physics, management, and performing arts.

— He was 15 years old when he and two engineers collaborated to create a working model of a train engine, which is now housed at Ahmedabad’s Community Science Centre (CSC). Sarabhai established the CSC to provide other youngsters with the same experimental research opportunities that he enjoyed.

— He finished his post-graduate studies at the Indian Institute of Science in Bengaluru under Dr CV Raman, where he also met Dr Homi Bhabha, and later went to Cambridge to pursue a PhD in cosmic rays.

— In 1969, Sarabhai persuaded Parliament and the Planning Commission of the benefits of a “decade profile” for India’s nuclear effort. When Sarabhai became head of the Atomic Energy Commission following Homi Bhabha’s death in an aircraft crash in 1966, he initiated a communication with NASA that served as the foundation for the Satellite Instructional Television Experiment.

— Launched in 1975 from village Pij in Gujarat’s Kheda district, it would beam TV programs to villages and was the first Indo-US space venture to use technology for teaching. This is how the Krishi Darshan program for farmers on Doordarshan was conceived.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

Consider the following statements:

1. China has approved the construction of the world’s largest hydropower project on the Yarlung Tsangpo (or Zangbo) river in Tibet.

2. The Three Gorges Dam on the Yangtze in central China is the world’s largest hydropower project currently.

3. From Tibet, the Yarlung Tsangpo enters Assam, where it is known as the Siang.

Which of the above given statements is/are not true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Explanation

— On December 25, China approved the construction of the world’s largest hydropower project on the Yarlung Tsangpo (or Zangbo) river in Tibet. On completion, the 60,000 MW project will have the capacity to produce three times the amount of electricity as the world’s largest hydro project, the Three Gorges Dam on the Yangtze in central China.

— From Tibet, the Yarlung Tsangpo enters Arunachal Pradesh, where it is known as the Siang. In Assam, it is joined by tributaries such as Dibang and Lohit, and is called the Brahmaputra. The river then enters Bangladesh, and makes its way to the Bay of Bengal.

QUESTION 12

If Russian gas supply to Europe via Ukraine is stopped, which countries will be affected?

1. Austria

2. Slovakia

3. Moldova

Select the correct code :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 

(d) None of the above

Explanation

— Russian gas supplies sent to Europe via Ukraine for more than 40 years came to a stop on Wednesday (January 1) after Kyiv refused to renegotiate a five-year-old transit deal amid war with Moscow.

— Despite the ongoing war, Ukraine’s President Volodymyr Zelenskyy on December 19 said Kyiv might consider allowing the flow of gas if payments to Moscow were withheld until the fighting comes to a halt. While critics said that such a measure was not feasible, Russian President Vladimir Putin claimed that it was too late to renew the deal.

— As a result, the deal, which was signed in 2020 and applicable for five years, was not extended.

— On Wednesday, Russian energy giant Gazprom announced that gas supplies to Europe had been halted at 8 am local time.

— On the same day, Ukraine’s Energy Minister German Galushchenko said in a statement, “We stopped the transit of Russian gas. This is a historic event. Russia is losing its markets, it will suffer financial losses. Europe has already made the decision to abandon Russian gas.”

Which European countries will be affected?

— The biggest brunt will be borne by Eastern European countries — primarily Austria, Slovakia, and Moldova.

Therefore, (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

‘Rural Community Immigration Class’ was recently seen in news. This scheme belongs to:

(a) United States of America

(b) Canada

(c) United Kingdom

(d) Australia

Explanation

— Over the past year, changes in immigration and study visa rules have made it harder to secure Permanent Residency (PR) in Canada. PR remains the primary goal for the majority of students from India, particularly those from Punjab.

— Recently, Canada announced that the Post-Graduate Work Permits (PGWPs) of nearly 7.66 lakh international students are set to expire by the end of next year. Many fear they would have to leave the country if they can’t secure PR before their permits expire. However, Canada has introduced a new programme that offers fresh opportunities for such students to settle in the country.

QUESTION 14

Nestled in the Garhwal Himalayas in Uttarakhand, are four revered Hindu shrines or dhams — Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath — collectively known as Char Dham. During the winter months, the presiding deities of these temples are brought to shrines at lower altitudes. Which of the following pairs is not a correct statement with reference to the winter seats?

(a) Mukhba in Uttarkashi is the winter seat of Gangotri Dham

(b) Badkot in Uttarkashi is the winter seat of Yamunotri Dham

(c) Kedarnath winter abode is the Omkareshwar Temple in Rudraprayag’s Ukhimath

(d) Badrinath is at Pandukeshwar in Chamoli.

Explanation

— The Uttarakhand government on December 8 inaugurated the winter Char Dham circuit, aimed at drawing tourists to the state in the off-season winter months.

— The Char Dham yatra (pilgrimage) thus drives the state’s economy. But during the winter months, heavy snowfall leaves these shrines inaccessible, and their gates are shut.

— In fact, during the winter months, the presiding deities of these temples are brought to shrines at lower altitudes — Mukhba in Uttarkashi is the winter seat of Gangotri Dham; Kharsali in Uttarkashi is the winter seat of Yamunotri Dham; Kedarnath’s winter abode is the Omkareshwar Temple in Rudraprayag’s Ukhimath; and Badrinath’s is at Pandukeshwar in Chamoli.

Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. 

QUESTION 15

Consider the following statements:

1. Good Governance Index is the annual ranking of states and Union Territories (UTs) scheduled to be released during Good Governance Week (December 19 to December 25).

2. Gujarat has topped the Good Governance Index 2023 ranking.

Which of the above statements is/are not true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

— The Centre has decided not to release the Good Governance Index 2023, the biennial ranking of states and Union Territories (UTs) scheduled to be released during Good Governance Week (December 19 to December 25), and is now planning to publish the next edition in 2025, The Indian Express has learnt.

— Launched on December 25, 2019, the birth anniversary of late prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee which is observed as Good Governance Day, the index covers over 50 indicators across sectors, including agriculture, economic governance, public health, and citizen-centric governance. Tamil Nadu and Gujarat got first place among big states in the 2019 and 2021 rankings, respectively.

Therefore, (c) is the correct answer. 

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 22 to December 28, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 15 to December 21, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 08 to December 14, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | December 01 to December 07, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | November 24 to November 30, 2024

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