1.

Which of the following is a confirmatory test for syphilis:

RPR
FTA-ABS
VDRL
Wasserman
Test

Feedback

The FTA-ABS is not intended for use as a screening test. It should only be used to differentiate
between true positives, false positives, and in late or latent syphilis.

2. The most likely cause of an elevated potassium level in an apparently normal individual is:

Contamination
Hemolysis
Acute renal failure
Interfering
substances

Feedback

Hemolysis could result from improper specimen collection technique, or improper storage.

3. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:

Increased pCO2
Hypoventilation
Low pH
High pH

Feedback

Metabolic acidosis is the result of either: 1) accumulation of abnormal levels of organic acids,
often secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis, or lactic acidosis, 2) excessive loss of bicarbonate as
in severe diarrhea, or 3) reduced excretion of acids as in renal failure. All these conditions
result in a decrease in pH. The body compensates by hyperventilating, and lowering pCO2, in
an attempt to restore normal pH, resulting in a compensated or partially compensated
metabolic acidosis.

4. The Quelling test is useful for which of the following :

Differentiate between Staphylococcus and

Streptococcus
Serological typing of Streptococcus pneumonia
Isolation of various strains of Staphylococcus
Isolation of various strains of Streptococcus

Feedback

Capsular swelling results from the addition of specific capsular antibody to an isolate of the
organism. This test is generally not required for routine diagnosis.
1
5. The relative centrifugal force of a centrifuge may be affected by all except the following:

Time
Radius of
head
RPM

Feedback

The amount of time a sample is spun does not affect the relative centrifugal force

6. Standard precautions means that:

Known infectious patients must be handled with extraordinary care
Mask, gloves and gowns should be worn in all hospital patient's
rooms
All specimens must be handled as if they are hazardous and
infectious
Always wash your hands before drawing a patients blood sample
7. RDW is an indication of which of the following:

Variability of RBC
volume
Poikilocytosis
Macrocytosis
Microcytosis

Feedback

Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) is a mathematical expression of size variation used to
quantify anisocytosis. The higher the RDW, the greater the anisocytosis. RDW is increased in
iron deficiency, and tends to be normal in thalassemia. Increased RDW may be an early
indication of iron deficiency, where it may precede the onset of microcytosis.

8. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci are best characterized by which of the following:

Positive cAMP test

Optochin sensitivity
Bile esculin-
hydrolysis
Bacitracin
sensitivity

Feedback

Group B streptococci are characterized by a positive cAMP test. Streptococcus pneumoniae is

characterized by Optochin susceptibility Enterococci are positive by the bile-esculin test.

9. The turbidity of the bacterial inoculum of a standard disc diffusion (Kirby-Bauer)

susceptibility test is:
0.1 McFarland
Standard

2
 0.5 McFarland
Standard
1.0 McFarland
Standard
2.0 McFarland
Standard
10. Which of the following is not a common support medium used in electrophoresis
techniques:

Cellulose acetate
Agarose gel
Polyacrylamide
gel
Dextrose

Feedback

Cellulose acetate and agarose gels are most commonly used in the clinical laboratory

11. The normal range for urine pH is:

4.6 to 8.0
5.0 to 6.0
7.0 to 8.0
none of the above
12. Which of the following is not a likely cause of an abnormal thrombin time (TT):

Fibrin split
products
Heparin
Aspirin
Dysfibrinogenemi
a

Feedback

The thrombin time is performed by adding thrombin to citrated plasma. It is prolonged by

heparin, a deficiency or abnormality of fibrinogen and the presence of fibrin split products.
Aspirin affects primarily platelet function.

13. What is the eight hour occupational exposure limit for a chemical called?

Threshold limit
value
Threshold time
limit
Time limit value
Short term limit

14. Spherocytes are associated with which two of the following conditions:

Hereditary spherocytosis
3
 Autoimmune hemolytic
anemia
Thalassemia
Iron deficiency

Feedback

Spherocytes result from removal of small amounts of erythrocyte membrane, with resultant
reduction in surface to volume ratio. This may occur in the reticuloendothelial system, as in
hereditary sherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anemia, or may be due to direct injury of
red cells, as in patients with severe burns.

15. The generally accepted age range for homologous blood donation is:

21 – 65 years
17 – 65 years
15 – 65 years
Over the age of 14
years

Feedback

Prospective donors over 65 may be accepted at the discretion of the blood bank physician.
Many donor centers safely involve elderly donors in their collection programs.

16. Which of the following organisms in most frequently associated with endocarditis:

Viruses
Neisseria
Staphlyococci
Streptococci

Feedback

Various Streptococci are the most common causes of endocarditis, although many other
organisms have been implicated.

17. Ionized calcium is most commonly measured using which of the following method:

Flame photometry
Color complex formation between calcium and o-
cresolphthalein
Atomic absorption
Calcium ion selective electrodes

18. Match the clotting factor with its commonly associated name:
Factor II Prothrombi
n

4
 Factor I Fibrinogen

Factor V Proacceleri
n
19. The prozone effect ( when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in:

False positive
False negative
No reaction at all
Mixed field
reaction

Feedback

Prozone effect (due to antibody excess) will result in an initial false negative in spite of the
large amount of antibody in the serum, followed by a positive result as the specimen is diluted.

20. Which of the following tests on amniotic fluid would be included when assessing fetal
maturity:
Alpha fetoprotein and
bilirubin
L/S ratio and bilirubin
Alpha fetoprotein and L/S
ratio
Creatinine and L/S ratio
21. Therapeutic hemapheresis may be used to treat all of the following except:

Acute Guillian-Barre
syndrome
Paraproteinemia
HIV infections
Cryoglobulinemia

Feedback

Therapeutic Hemapheresis is the process of removing a harmful blood component, and

returned the remaining blood components to the patient. The examples sited above are
indications for plasmapheresis, in which plasma containing a harmful substance is removed
from the body, and replaced with FFP or other volume expanders, depending on the patient's
condition.

22. A smear that is prepared from equal parts of methylene blue and whole blood will be used
for:

WBC differential
Platelet estimates, RBC
count
Reticulocyte count

Feedback

Remaining nuclear fragments found in reticulocytes take up the methylene blue dye.

23. Gram positive organisms

5
 resist acetone-alcohol de colorization
are always decolorized by acetone-
alcohol
resist staining by crystal violet
readily stain with safranin in the Gram
stain

Feedback

Gram positive organisms resist decolorization with acetone-alcohol. Gram negative organisms
are decolorized, and subsequently stain with safranin.

24. Which of the following are not appropriate indications for the use of fresh frozen plasma:

Volume expansion
Severe bleeding in the presence of significantly elevated PT secondary to vitamin K
deficiency
Replacement component after plasma exchange in patients with TTP or HUS
Dilutional coagulopathy with significant active bleeding, and PT and PTT twice normal

Feedback

Since each unit of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) carries with it the risk of transmitting blood borne
pathogens, and other products which do not carry this risk are available, FFP should not be
used as a volume expander.

25. If a pipette is labeled (TC) " to contain " you would do the following:

Drain pipette, but not blow out

Drain contents then blow out or rinse
Drain to last mark on pipette
Do not consider the meniscus when
filling

Feedback

"TC" means the total volume contained in the pipette - you must blow out to remove total
contents.

26. The concentration of sodium chloride in an isotonic solution is :

8.5 %
0.85 %
0.08 %
1
molar

Feedback

Isotonic or normal saline is a 0.85 % solution of sodium chloride in water.

27. The positive square root of the variance of a set of values is called:

6
 Median value
Mean value
Standard deviation
Coefficient of
variation
28. Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B:
Core antigen
Surface
antigen
e antigen
Delta antigen
29. Which one of the following is not a true statement about Chlamydia:
Requires tissue culture for
growth
Is a true bacterium
Is an obligate intracellular
parasite
Has the nuclear structure of a
virus
30. Which of the following species are gram positive:
Streptococcu
s
Neisseria
Listeria
Lactobacillus
31. Which of the following media is commonly used when performing the Kirby-Bauer disk
diffusion
Chocolate agar
Mueller-Hinton
agar
Thayer-Martin
agar
MacConkey agar
32. Which of the following best defines "sensitivity":

The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a positive test
The percentage of patients without a disease who will have a negative
test
The percentage of patients with a disease who will have a negative test
The percentage of patients without a disease who will have a positive
test

Feedback

Sensitivity refers to the percentage or fraction of patients with a given disease in a given
population who will have a positive test.

33. What percentage solution of sodium hypochlorite (bleach) is recommended as a routine

7
 laboratory disinfectant:
5%
10
%
15
%
20
%
34. In HDN which of the following antigen-antibody reactions is occurring:
Maternal antibody against fetal
antibody
Maternal antigen against fetal antibody
Maternal antibody against fetal antigen
Maternal antigen against fetal antigen
35. Carbon dioxide is predominately found in blood in the form of:
Bound CO2
Bicarbonate ions
Sodium
carbonate
Pco2
36. What condition is indicated by the following blood gas results: Bicarbonate = 32 mmol/L
(Normal = 22 - 26 mmol/L); pCO2 = 65 mm Hg (Normal = 35 - 45 mmHg); pH = 7.28
(normal = 7.35 - 7.45)

Healthy condition
Uncompensated metabolic
acidosis
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory
acidosis

Feedback

The normal pH of blood is 7.40. In order for most metabolic processes to take place, the pH
must remain within a narrow range close to this value. The range is usually defined in adults as
7.35-7.45. If blood pH falls below 7.35, the blood becomes too acidic (acidosis). If blood rises
above 7.45, the blood is too alkaline (alkalosis).

As blood pH decreases, the kidneys will retain bicarbonate (HCO 3-) from the glomerular filtrate;
therefore, bicarbonate is increased. However, in this case, the increased HCO 3- could not
compensate for the markedly elevated pCO2 (the respiratory component) and the condition that
results is uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

37. In a normal CSF the protein concentration as compared to that in the serum is generally:

Less than
50%
Less than
30%
Less than
10%
Less than

8
 1%

Feedback

Normal ratio of serum to CSF Protein is about 200 to 1, or less than 1%. Elevation of CSF total
protein is a nonspecific finding, but usually indicates some type of disease involving the brain
or meninges.

38. Match the type of hepatitis with its route of transmission

Fecal and Oral Hepatitis

A
Parenteral Hepatitis
B
Parenteral Hepatitis
C

Feedback

Hepatitis A is spread through the fecal-oral route. Hepatitis B is most commonly spread through
parenteral means, but nonparenteral routes such as transmission through pregnancy, sexual
contact, and exposure to infected body fluids are also important. Hepatitis C is spread through
parenteral routes; pregnancy, sexual contact, and in households is possible, but much less
likely than with hepatitis B.

39. Which of the following staining methods would you use to demonstrate the metachromatic
granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae:

Acid fast
Gram
Trichrome
Methylene
blue

Feedback

Methylene blue stain can be used to visualize the metachromatic granules that are
characteristic of C. diphtheriae.

40. Which of the following are not considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract:

Lactobacillus
Clostridium
Peptostreptococcu
s
Shigella

Feedback

Shigella and Salmonella are not found as normal flora in the gastrointestinal tract.

41. All of the following cellular antigens are important to an immunohematologist except:
9
 Blood group antigens
Histocompatibility
antigens
Haptens
Autoantigens

Feedback

A hapten is an incomplete antigen.

42. Which one of the following statements about anti-A1 is false:

Anti-A1 is a naturally occurring antibody that is usually clinically

insignificant
Anti-A1 reactive at 37o C can sometimes destroy transfused A1 positive
cells
A1 and A2 occur in 80 and 20 percent of the population, respectively
A2 cells react with Dolichos biflorus lectin

Feedback

Dolichos biflorus lectin has anti-A1 specificity.

43. Which one of the following organisms do not usually stain with an acid-fast stain, or one of
its variants:
Mycobacterium
Cryptosporidium
Actinomyces
israelii
Nocardia
44. Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of
viral cultures:

4° C
-20° C,
-70° C
Room
temperature

Feedback

Cultures can be stored at either -20° or -70°, but -70° is preferred for long term storage.

45. Which of the following would be the most appropriate method to confirm a positive protein
from a urine dipstick:
Immunoelectropheresis
Heat precipitation
Sulfosalicylic acid

10
 precipitation
Protein electrophoresis
46. Circulating organic iodine is found primarily in the form of:

Triiodothyronine
Parathyroid
hormone
Thyroglobulin
Thyroxine

Feedback

Iodine circulates as thyroxine (T4) and to and to a lesser extent as Triiodothyronine (T3).

47. Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a marked rise in alkaline
phosphatase, jaundice, and a moderate rise in ALT:

Cardiovascular disease
Hemolytic anemia
Post-hepatic
obstruction
Renal failure

Feedback

Post-hepatic obstruction is characterized by a marked increase in conjugated bilirubin.

48. Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of acute cystitis:
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Staphylococcus
epidermidis
49. A fluorometer operates on which of the following principles:

Measures amount of light absorbed by a given compound

Measures changes in emitted wavelength of light after absorption by an
analyte
Measures amount of light scattered by the analyte in question
Measures light emitted at two or more wavelengths

50. Which of the following statement about synovial fluid is true:

Markedly elevated neutrophils always correspond to bacterial joint infection
Patients with gout involving joints will have markedly elevated neutrophils in their
synovial fluid
Fungal joint infections have synovial fluid with numerous lymphocytes
Tuberculous joint infections have synovial fluid with numerous plasma cells
51. Rheumatoid factor reacts with which the following :
Fc fragment of IgM

11
 Fab fragment of
IgM
Fab fragment of
IgG
Fc fragment of IgG
52. Gamma irradiation of cellular blood components is required in which of the following
situations:

Prevent post-transfusion purpura

Prevent Graft-Versus-Host (GVH) disease
Sterile components
Prevent non-cardiogenic pulmonary
edema

Feedback

Transfusion related Graft-Versus-Host disease is a rare condition usually following transfusion

of patients whose immune system is severely compromised. It occurs when T lymphocytes
present in the transfused unit replicate and attack the tissues of the recipient. Gamma
irradiation prevents this condition by inactivating T lymphocytes in the donor unit. Gamma
irradiation of cellular blood components is required when: 1.The donor is a blood relative of the
recipient, 2. intrauterine transfusions, 3. The recipient has a selected immunodeficiency
condition, 4. The recipient has received a bone marrow transplant.

53. Patients with which of the following conditions would benefit most from washed red cells:

Warm autoimmune hemolytic

anemia
Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Elevated serum potassium
Multiple red cell alloantibodies

Feedback

Washing not only reduces the number of leukocytes and platelets that are often responsible for
febrile reactions, but also eliminates anticoagulants, ammonia, lactic acid, and potassium.

54. Cryoglobulin testing can be used to:

Screen for rheumatoid arthritis,

Diagnose syphilis
Screen for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Help diagnose Raynaud's syndrome

Feedback

Cryoglobulin is an abnormal serum protein with a unique ability to precipitate when exposed to
cold temperatures. Cryoglobulin is present in Raynaud's syndrome.

55. Which is arranged from least mature to most mature:

Myeloblast, Myelocyte, Band, Neutrophil, Metamyelocyte, Promyelocyte, Stem
Cell
Stem Cell, Myeloblast, Promyelocyte, Myelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Band,
Neutrophil

12
 Stem Cell, Promyelocyte, Metamyelocyte, Neutrophil, Myeloblast, Myelocyte,
Band
Neutrophil, Band, Metamyelocyte, Myelocyte, Promyelocyte, Myeloblast, Stem
Cell
56. The measurement of total glycosylated hemoglobin A1c is an effective means of assessing
the average blood glucose levels:

Over the past 1-2

weeks
Over the past 2-3
months
Only the past 24 hours

Feedback

The concentration of hemoglobin A1c is directly proportional to the average plasma glucose
level that the RBCs are exposed to during their 120 day life span. The glycosylated
hemoglobins result from glycosylation of serine, asparagine, and hydroxylysine residues in
hemoglobin. There are three glycosylated hemoglobins: Hb A1a, Hb A1b, and Hb A1c, of which
Hb A1c constitutes 80%. Most methods measure total gycosylated hemoglobin, which has a
high degree of correlation to Hb A1c, and may be reported as such after making the
appropriate conversion.

57. Bacitracin susceptibility is useful for which two of the following:

Distinguishing Staphylococci from micrococci

Presumptive identification of Group A
streptococci
Identification of Haemophilus
Identification of Neisseria

Feedback

Staphylococci are resistant to bacitracin while micrococcus are sensitive. Group A beta-
hemolytic Streptococci are sensitive to bacitracin, while most other Groups are resistant.

58. Which of the following is the proper temperature to use when crossmatching in the
presence of a cold antibody:

37 degrees
Celsius
25 degrees
Celsius
15 degrees
Celsius
4 degrees Celsius

Feedback

Most antibodies that are inactive at 37 degrees Celsius, and active only below 37 degrees
Celsius (i.e. cold reactive antibodies), are of little clinical significance.

13
59. Match the virus with its disease:

Hepadnavirus Hepatitis

Arbovirus Encephalitis

Parvovirus Fifth disease

Paramyxovirus Measles-
Mumps
60. When a urine specimen cannot be cultured immediately it may be:
Stored at room temperature for up to 8
hours
Stored in freezer for up to 24 hours
Neisseria
Stored at 4° C for up to 24 hours
61. Platelet should be stored at what temperature:

1-6 degrees Celsius

10-16 degrees
Celsius
20-24 degrees
Celsius
34-37 degrees
Celsius

Feedback

Platelets should be stored at 20-24 degrees Celsius with continuous gentle agitation. They
should be infused within 4 hours after the seal on a platelet unit is broken.

62. The recommended temperature/time/pressure for routine steam sterilization of media is:
121° C for 8-10 minutes @ 10
psi
121° C for 12-15 minutes @
15 psi
220° C for 8-10 minutes @ 10
psi
220° C for 12-15 minutes @
15 psi
63. Which of the following casts might be found in the urine of a healthy individual after
strenuous exercise:

Epithelial cell
casts
Hyaline casts
Granular casts
Waxy casts

Feedback

Hyaline casts may be seen in healthy individuals particularly after exercise.

64. If a laboratory 's control range (using a 99.7 confidence interval) for a given assay is 20.0 to
50.0, what would its means and one standard deviation be:

14
 Mean = 35.0 SD =
15.0
Mean = 35.0 SD =
10.0
Mean = 40.0 SD =
7.5
Mean = 35.0 SD =
5.0

Feedback

The mean would be halfway between 20 and 50, or 35. The range for the assay is within 15
units of the mean, representing 3 SD (equal to 99.7% confidence interval). Therefore, 1 SD =
15/3 or 5.

65. If a potential donor has been transfused blood products, he must be deferred from blood
donation for:
1 month
3
months
6
months
1 year
66. An urticarial reaction is characterized by:

Rapid rise in
temperature
Difficulty breathing
Rash and hives
Blood in the urine

Feedback

Urticarial transfusion reactions occur in up to 1% of transfusions. They are manifested by hives,

rash, and itching. The transfusion may be resumed after successful administration of
antihistamines.

67. Which of the following cells when found upon microscopic examination of the urine would
be most indicative of kidney disease:

WBCs and bacteria

Tubular epithelial cells
Squamous epithelial
cells
RBCs

Feedback

Squamous epithelial cells are usually vaginal contaminants.

68. Which of the following statistical methods would be employed to determine how closely two
different methods compare with each other:

15
 Linear regression
Standard deviation
Coefficient of variation
Percent difference of
means

Feedback

Linear regression can be used to compare one method with another.

69. Elevation in CSF total protein may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
Brain tumors
Bacterial
meningitis
Parkinson's
disease
CVA
70. Which one of the following is not a system for incubation of anaerobic bacteria:
Candle jar
Glove box anaerobic chamber
Anaerobic jar - gaspak
Anaerobic jar - evacuation
replacement
71. A plastic anemia may be caused by all of the following except:

Infections
Chemical agent
Enzyme
deficiencies
Ionizing radiation

Feedback

Enzyme deficiencies are usually associated with hemolytic anemias.

72. Which of the following types of whole blood would be the least satisfactory to transfuse to a
type AB patient:

Group O
Group A
Group B
Group
AB

Feedback

Group O whole blood contains both anti-A and anti-B which could react with the recipient's
RBCs.

73. Bence-Jones proteinuria is associated with all of the following conditions except:

16
 Macroglobulinemi
a
Pernicious anemia
Multiple myeloma
Amyloidosis

Feedback

Macroglobulinemia, Multiple Myeloma, and Amyloidosis are all associated with abnormal
protein production and/or accumulation which can result in Bence-Jones proteins being
excreted in the urine.

74. The slide coagulase test is a rapid method for identifying which of the following organisms.

Staphylococcus hominis
Staphylococcus
pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Feedback

Since not all isolates of S. aureus are detected by the slide coagulase test, suspicious
organisms negative by the slide test must be confirmed by the tube coagulase test.

75. Which of the following streptococcus exhibits a positive bile solubility test:

S. pyogenes
S.
pneumoniae
S. agalactiae
S. mutans

Feedback

Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies dissolve with the additon of sodium deoxycholate (positive
bile sensitivity test) and are sensitive to Optochin- unlike other species of Streptococci.

76. Which of the following red blood cells contain the most H antigen:

Group A cells
Group B cells
Group O cells
Bombay
phenotype

Feedback

O cells contain only H antigen, while cells of the other ABO groups contain varying amount of H
antigen in addition to their group specific antigen(s). The classic Bombay phenotype is
characterized by the absence of A, B, and H antigens.

77. A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by:

17
 Decreased intake and absorption
Decreased intake and excretion
Increased intake and excretion
Increased excretion and decreased
absorption
78. Match the illustrations with the corresponding description of colony edges:

Irregular A

Entire B

Crenated C

79. ABO blood groups were discovered by:

Mendelson
Morgan
Wiener
Landsteine
r

Feedback

Landsteiner first identified the presence of the separate red cell antigens A and B in the early
1900's.

80. Which of the following parasites is not commonly found in the peripheral blood:

Loa loa
Brugia malayi
Dipetalonema
perstans
Onchocerca volvulus

Feedback

The microfiliariae of Onchocerca do not generally circulate in the peripheral blood. The
diagnosis is made by demonstrating the microfiliariae in teased skin snips.

81. If an Rh negative patient is administered a unit of R1R1 packed red cells, which one of the
following antibodies would be most likely to develop:

Anti-c,
Anti-E
Anti-D
Anti-e

Feedback

R1R1 (DCe/DCe) cells are positive for the D antigen, which is the most immunogenic antigen of
the Rh system, followed by c and E.

18
82. A decrease in which of the following in AIDS patients results in increased susceptibility to
infection:

CD 4+ cells
CD 8+ cells
HIV
antibodies
HIV antigens

Feedback

It is the CD 4+ cells that help aid our immune system in attacking foreign antigens by initiating
the body's response. CD 8+ also helps in the role of immunity by attaching to infected cells to
initiate cell destruction. A decrease in HIV antibodies would not leave the host more suseptible
to infection since the antibody is directed at the HIV virus only. Finally, a decrease in HIV
antigens will also not cause a host to become more suseptible to infections.

83. The primary site of reabsorption of glomerular filtrate is the:

Loop of Henle
Proximal convoluted
tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting duct
84. Which of these is arranged from least mature to most mature:
Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Stem
Cell
Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Prolymphocyte,
Lymphocyte
Stem Cell, Lymphoblast, Lymphocyte,
Prolymphocyte
Lymphocyte, Prolymphocyte, Lympoblast, Stem
Cell
85. MCV is calculated using which of the following parameters:

Hgb and RBC

RBC histogram
RBC and Hct
RBC and MCHC

Feedback

MCV = Hematocrit X 1000/RBC (in millions per microliter). The MCV is expressed in femtoliters
(cubic micrometers, 10-15 liters).

86. Which of the following would not be considered a normal part of a routine electrolyte panel:

Sodium
Potassium
Magnesiu
m
Chloride

19
Feedback

A routine electrolyte panel typically consists of sodium, potassium, choride, bicarbonate,

creatinine, glucose, and BUN.

87. Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum uric acid levels:

Cushing's
syndrome
Pancreatitis
Hyperthyroidism
Gout

Feedback

Gout is a disease manifested by the deposition of crystalline uric acid in joints and soft tissues,
with secondary inflammation and pain.

88. Which of the following additives should be used for the collection of a sample for blood gas
analysis:
Sodium citrate
EDTA
Sodium
oxalate
Heparin
89. What is the site used most frequently in the adult patient when performing a bone marrow
biopsy:

Vertebra
e
Sternum
Clavicle
Iliac crest

Feedback

Bone marrow specimens are usually obtained in adults from the posterior iliac crest. They may
also be obtained from the sternum.

90. The precursor of the platelet which is commonly only found in the bone marrow is:

Myeloblast
Metakarocyte
Megakaryocyte
Erythroblast

Feedback

Platelets are formed by the fragmentation of megakaryocyte cytoplasm.

20
91. Which of the following set of conditions would preclude HDN as a result of Rh
incompatibility:

Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-

positive
Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive
Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-
negative
Mother Rh unknown, baby Rh-positive

Feedback

If both parents are Rh negative, the baby would also be Rh negative.

92. Erythropoietin is produced in:

Bone
marrow
Liver
Lymphocyte
s
Kidneys

Feedback

Erythropoietin, which is produced in the kidneys, stimulates the production of red blood cells.

93. The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is found in which of the following genetic
models:

Landsteine
r
Wiener
Fisher
-Race
Rhesus

Feedback

Fisher and Race first proposed the existence of the three closely linked genes, and used the
DCE terminology to describe their theory.

94. Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite:

Proteus
Escherichi
a
Klebsiella
Rickettsia
e
95. An average adult would excrete approximately what volume of urine per 24 hours:

21
 3000
ml
1500
ml
750 ml
250 ml

Feedback

Normal adult urine volume is 800 to 1800 ml/24hours for males, and 600 to 1600 ml/24 hours
for females.

96. What minimum level of specific resistance (megohms@25o C) is required for a Type I water
system:

10.
0
5.0
2.0
0.1

Feedback

Specific resistance is the resistance in Ohms of a 1 cm long by 1 cm2 cross sectional column of
solution. Type I water is the purest, and therefore has the highest resistance. Type II water is
used for most routine laboratory determinations, and must have a specific resistance of at least
2.0. Type III water is the least pure; it must have a specific resistance of at least 0.1.

97. Which of the following group B antigens is generally associated with a mixed field reaction:

B
B3
B
m
Bx

Feedback

B3 is characterized by a weaker than usual reaction with anti-B and by a mixed field reaction
with the same reagent.

98. The most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOTâ) for infectious mononucleosis employs:

Horse erythrocytes
Sheep erythrocytes
Intact beef
erythrocytes
None of the above

Feedback

22
A positive spot test shows agglutination of horse erythrocytes when added to patient serum
previously absorbed with guinea pig kidney, but not when added to patient serum previously
absorbed with beef erythrocyte stroma. The test is generally simple, sensitive, and specific, but
false negative are common in young children with mononucleosis.

99. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is associated with all of the following clinical
conditions except:

Septicemia
Obstetric
emergencies
Intravascular
hemolysis
Thrombocytosis

Feedback

Platelet counts are decreased or normal during DIC.

100. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be associated with gas gangrene:
Clostridia histolyticum
Pseudomonas
aeruginosa
Clostridium perfringens
Escherichia coli
101. Which of the following would most likely occur as the result of hemodilution:

Low serum electrolytes

High serum electrolytes
Increased anion gap
Electrolyte concentrations would remain the
same

Feedback

A dilutional effect caused by the sample being hemodiluted, would not cause high serum
electrolytes since they have been diluted out. The anion gap could remain the same or
become decreased. Finally, the electrolyte concentrations could not remain the same, since
there will be a smaller amount in the sample to test due to the diluent.

102. Following a myocardial infarction which of the following enzymes will be the first to
become elevated:

CK
LDH
GG
T
AST

Feedback

23
GGT is elevated in liver disorders. CK rises before LDH. However myoglobin is the earliest
serum cardiac marker to rise after an infarction; it may be positive within two hours post MI. It
is not cardiac specific, and can be elevated in skeletal muscle trauma or rhabdomyolysis.

103. India Ink is used to:

Visualize flagella
Visualize shape
Visualize capsule
Visualize
cytoplasm

Feedback

India ink can aid in the visualization of the polysacchride capsules of yeast such as
Cryptococcus neoformans.

104. Match the organisms on the right with their appropriate type from the drop down box:

Protozoa Trypansoma,
Leischmania
Helminths Trichinella, Schistosoma

Protozoa Plasmodium

Helminths Ascaris, Cestodes

105. The most frequent genotype among Rho (D) -negative persons is:
r'
r
r'
r"
rr
r'r'
106. Which one tests should be used to monitor a patient's response to treatment for
syphilis:

TPI titer, FTA-

ABS titer
RPR titer
TPHA titer

Feedback

RPR titer should be performed every three months for one year; a fourfold increase in titer
indicates infection, reinfection, or failed treatment; a fourfold decrease in titer indicates
adequate treatment.

107. Which of the following anticoagulants will not produce a significant effect on calcium
levels in plasma:

EDTA
Heparin

24
 Oxalate
s
Citrates

Feedback

EDTA, Oxalates, and Citrates remove calcium from the blood, while heparin acts by forming a
complex with antithrombin III.

108. Which of the following kappa / lambda ratios is found in normal serum:
4 :
1
3 :
1
2 :
1
1 :
1
109. The A1 subgroup represents approximately what percentage of group A individuals:

25
%
55
%
75
%
95
%

Feedback

Approximately 80% of all people typed as group A or AB are agglutinated by anti- A1 sera.

110. The infective stage for all of the intestinal amoebae is the:

Trophozoit
e
Cyst
Larva
Egg

Feedback

The majority of the amoebae pass through two life cycle stages: a delicate feeding stage call a
trophozoite, and a nonfeeding infective cyst. Recovery of either form is considered diagnostic.

111. Which of the following is false about troponin:

It rises much sooner after an MI than CK-MB

It stays positive much longer than CK-MB
It is potentially more specific than CK-MB
Troponin T is often elevated in renal failure
patients

25
Feedback

Troponin is potentially more specific for myocardial damage than CK-MB and stays elevated
longer. It may eventually replace CK-MB as the standard marker of myocardial damage.
Troponin and CK-MB both tend to rise approximately 3 hours after a MI; however, troponins can
stay elevated up to 2 weeks as CK-MB tends to return to baseline around 36 hours.

112. What is the purpose of using methyl alcohol in the gram stain procedure:

Fix all gram positive organisms

Decolorize all gram positive
organisms
Decolorize all gram negative
organisms
Fix all gram negative organisms

Feedback

Gram positive organisms resist decolorization by methyl alcohol.

113. Match the differential/ selective enteric medium with its characteristic indicator,
fermentable, and bacteriostatic.

Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate phenol red, lactose, bile salts

Eosin methylene blue eosin Y and methylene blue, lactose, eosin Y and methylene
blue
Bismuth sulfite bismuth sulfite, glucose, brilliant green

Salmonella-shigella neutral red, lactose, bile salts

Feedback

XLD has a yellow fermenter and a red nonfermenter. MacConkey has a red fermenter and a
colorless nonfermenter. EMB has a black/red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter. HE has a
yellow fermenter and a green nonfermenter. BS has a Salmonella fermenter and a black
nonfermenter. SS has a red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter.

114. Nephelometry involves the measurement:

Light absorption
Light
transmission
Light scatter
Atomic
absorption

Feedback

Nephelometry is used to measure the light scattered by particles in a solution. It is useful for
measuring protein levels in fluids, and antigen-antibody complexes.

115. Which of the following procedures would you employ to monitor the precision of an
assay:

26
 Run assayed controls
Run blinded samples
Run by alternative
method
Run samples in duplicate

Feedback

Precision is a measure of reproducibility of a test when it is repeated several times under the
same conditions. It could be monitored by running samples in duplicate or triplicate.

116. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is chiefly responsible for the
degranulation of mast cells and basophils:

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE

Feedback

IgE levels are often increased in patients with allergic disease. IgE binds to the membranes of
mast cells and basophils, and if specific antigen is present to react with the IgE molecule,
degranulation of these cells occurs, releasing histamines, and other substances into the blood
or tissues.

117. The lecethin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) is used to assess:

Fetal neurological
development
Fetal lung maturity
Fetal viability
Fetal liver development

Feedback

An L/S ratio above 2:1 indicates mature lung development, whereas a ratio below 1.5:1
indicates pulmonary immaturity.

118. What additional fraction would be seen if plasma rather than serum was subjected to
electrophoresis:

Alpha-1 antitrypsin, Gamma

globulins
Alpha-2 macroglobulin
Fibrinogen

Feedback

Fibrinogen present in plasma would form a band between the beta and gamma globulins.

119. Which of the following is a routine staining technique used in the clinical laboratory:
Wright-Giemsa
27
 Gram
Romanowsky
All of the
above
120. Match the description with the appropriate illustration of colony elevations:

High Convex A

Flat B

Low Convex C

Plateau D

121. Which of the following is most commonly associated with febrile non-hemolytic
transfusion reactions:
Bacterial contamination of the
blood
I.V. tubing contaminants
Reaction to plasma proteins
Immune response to leukocytes
122. Which of the following is not a structural component of a typical virion:

Nucleoprotein core
Capsid shell
Lipid envelope
Icosahedral
symmetry

Feedback

An intact viral particle typically consists of a nucleoprotein core, capsomeres making up the
capsid, and a lipid envelope (absent in some viruses). The symmetry of a virus is usually
icosahedral, or helical.

123. Match urine color with substance that might have been responsible:
Phosphates Porphobilinogen Red to
White
brown
Bilirubin Yellow

Pseudomonas Blue to
green
124. The renal threshold is best described as:

Concentration at which a substance in the blood spills into

urine
Concentration at which reabsorption first occurs
Concentration at which kidney can no longer filter the blood
Concentration at which kidney failure begins

Feedback

28
The renal threshold is the maximum amount of a substance that the kidney can prevent from
entering into the urine.

125. An urticarial reaction is characterized by:

Rapid rise in
temperature
Difficulty breathing
Rash and hives
Blood in the urine

Feedback

Urticarial transfusion reactions occur in up to 1% of transfusions. They are manifested by hives,

rash, and itching. The transfusion may be resumed after successful administration of
antihistamines.

126. On sheep blood agar Haemophilus influenzae may exhibit satellite formation around all
but which of the following organisms:

Pseudomonas
Neisseria
Staphylococcu
s
Pneumococcus

Feedback

Neisseria, Staphylococcus, and Pneumococcus produce enough V factor to allow H. influenzae

to grow on blood agar near their colonies. This property is utilized in the "satellite test"
technique whereby minute colonies of Haemophilus are seen in the hemolytic zone surrounding
a streak of Staphylococcus aureus on sheep blood agar, providing a presumptive identification
of Haemophilus.

127. Adult Hematopoiesis occurs in:

Vertebrae
Skull
Proximal ends of long
bones
All of the above

Feedback

By the age of 18-20 years, active hematopoiesis is limited to the sternum, ribs, pelvis,
vertebrae, and skull.

128. A simple check which can be employed to verify that hemoglobin and hematocrit values
match would be:

Hematocrit X 3 =
hemoglobin

29
 Hemoglobin X 3 =
hematocrit
Hemoglobin / hematocrit =
3
Hemoglobin + hematocrit =
3

Feedback

The hematocrit is equal to approximately 3 times the hemoglobin level.

129. How close the assayed value of an analyte is to its actual value is a reflection of:

Precision of the assay

Reproducibility of the
assay
Sensitivity of the assay
Accuracy of the assay

Feedback

Accuracy is defined as how close an assayed value is to the actual value of an analyte.

130. The primary mechanism responsible for glomerular filtration is:

Osmotic gradient
Concentration of blood components
Rate of blood flow through the kidneys
Hydrostatic differential in glomerular
tufts

Feedback

The hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries of the glomerular tuft drives the filtrate across their
semipermeable membrane. The normal glomerular filtrate is similar in composition to the
plasma, with the exception that molecules with a molecular weight of greater than about
15,000 are not filtered.

131. Which of the following best describes a minor crossmatch:

Reaction of donor cells with recipient
serum
Reaction of donor cells with AHG
Reaction of recipient cells with AHG
Reaction of donor serum with recipient
cells
132. Fire requires what three elements?
heat, fuel, oxygen
paper, match, gasoline
heat, fuel, nitrogen
lighter fluid, charcoal,
grill
133. A 20 year-old female was admitted into the hospital complaining of 10 to 15 bloody
mucous stools per day, fever, gastrointestinal disturbances, abdominal pain, and nausea.
30
 The preliminary O & P report went out as "Probable Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites and
cysts, confirmation pending." This patient is most likely suffering from:
Traveler's diarrhea
Extraintestinal
amebiasis
Intestinal amebiasis
Giardiasis
134. Which of the following Rh antigens is found the highest frequency in the Caucasian
population:

C
E
c
e

Feedback

The e antigen is present in 98% of the Caucasian population.

135. What is another name used to designate a fully committed B-lymphocyte:

T-lymphocyte
Reactive
lymphocyte
Large lymphocyte
Plasma cell

Feedback

Plasma cells are the end stage of B lymphocyte maturation; they are not normally seen in
peripheral blood.

136. Serum calcitonin is typically elevated in which of the following conditions:

Medullary carcinoma of the

thyroid
Hyperthyroidism
Glioblastoma
Adrenal adenoma

Feedback

Serum calcitonin is normally produced by the C cells of the thyroid. It functions to reduce
serum calcium by inhibiting release of calcium from bone. It is a peptide with a molecular
weight of 3400, and has a half life of approximately 12 minutes. It is characteristically elevated
in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Since medullary carcinoma often occurs as an
autosomal disorder, family members of patients with this condition should be screened for
serum calcitonin.

137. Warfarin inhibits all the following coagulation Factors except:

Factor II
Factor IX
31
 Factor
VII
Factor XI

Feedback

Warfarin only inhibits vitamin K dependent factors; Factor XI is not vitamin K dependent.

138. Match the organism names from the drop down box to the name of the associated
condition listed below.
Plasmodium ovale Malaria

Trypanosoma cruzi Chagas' Disease

Cestodes Tapeworms

Trypanosoma rhodesienseSleeping
Sickness
139. Serum proteins can be separated by cellulose acetate electrophoresis into how many
basic fractions:

4
fractions
5
fractions
6
fractions
7
fractions

Feedback

The five basic fractions are albumin, alpha-1, alpha-2, beta, and gamma globulins.

140. Which of the following specimens would not be considered suitable for anaerobic
culture:

Drainage from a puncture

wound
Throat swab
Drainage from abdomen
Blood culture

Feedback

Anaerobes are predominant in the colon. Anaerobic habitats have reduced oxygen tension
usually resulting from the metabolic activity of aerobic organisms. Thus, anaerobic infections
are usually polymicrobial, with aerobes, facultative anaerobes, and obligate anaerobes all
contributing to the infection.

141. Which band on the following serum protein electrophoresis scan is not made up of a
mixture of proteins:
Beta

32
 Alpha -
1
Alpha -
2
Albumin
142. Which of the following is not necessary for bacteria to grow successfully on artificial
media:

Pure isolate
Proper
temperature
Proper Ph
Proper moisture

Feedback

A mixture of bacteria can easily grow together on media as long as the other factors are all
maintained correctly.

143. Why would a unit of group O blood never be administered to a Bombay patient:

Anti-A in donor
Anti-B in donor
Anti-H in donor
Anti-H in
recipient

Feedback

The classic Bombay phenotype (Oh) is characterized by the absence of A, B and H antigens, and
the presence of anti-H, which will react from 4o to 37o C. Bombay patients must therefore be
transfused only with blood from donors of the Bombay phenotype.

144. Total magnification of a microscope can be determined by:

Multiplying power of objective times the power of the ocular

Dividing the power of objective by the power of the ocular
Dividing the power of the ocular by the power of the
objective
Adding the power of the ocular and objective together X 10

145. IgM antibodies directed against red cells generally:

React best at 37 degrees
Celsius
Cause severe hemolytic
reactions
Are identified using the AHG
test
React best at room temperature
146. Identify the reaction seen in Illustration
Identity
33
 Nonidentity
Partial
identity
147. Which of the following organisms is not an aerobic organism:

Francisella
Bacteroides
Pseudomona
s
Neisseria

Feedback

Francisella tularensis is an aerobic gram-negative coccobaccillary organism requiring cystine or

cysteine to grow. It causes tuleremia, which can manifest as cutaneous papules and ulcers,
conjunctivitis, fever, myalgias, and lymphadenopathy. It can be diagnosed by culture on
appropriate media, or serology. Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic gram-negative rod which is
resistant to most penicillins. It can cause a variety of life threatening infections. Pseudomonas
aeruginosa is a stictly aerobic gram-negative motile bacillus; it causes a variety of infections
especially among patients who are immunocompromised for a variety of reasons, and it causes
wound infections in moist air.

148. Which of the following statements about Rickettsia is false:

They are obligate intracellular parasites

They are gram negative bacilli
Associated diseases are usually diagnosed by
serology
They are cultured in many hospital laboratories

Feedback

Various Rickettsial species cause typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Rickettsialpox, and Q
fever. Rickettsial organisms are cultured only by research and reference laboratories, and the
diagnosis is usually achieved by a combination of clinical findings, and acute and convalescent
serology. Early diagnosis of Rocky Mountain spotted fever can also be made by
immunoflourescence testing of a skin biopsy, where Rickettsia can often be found within
endothelial cells of capillary vessels.

149. Coarse basophilic stippling in all of the following EXCEPT:

Megaloblastic
anemias
Thalassemias
Lead poisoning
Hemolytic anemia

Feedback

34
Hemolytic anemia may be associated with fine basophilic stippling due to precipitated RNA in
polychromatophilic erythrocytes. It is not usually associated with coarse stippling. The other
conditions above have coarse stippling in the setting of abnormal hemoglobin synthesis.

150. Human chorionic gonadatropin (hCG) is used in the determination of:

Liver
function
Fetal
maturity
Pregnancy
Steroid
levels

151. Estrogen and progesterone markers are most commonly used to provide prognostic
information about:

Breast cancer
Uterine cancer
Menopause
Cervical cancer

Feedback

Patients with tumors positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors tend to respond
favorably to hormonal therapy, whereas those without generally do not. Patients with positive
estrogen and progesterone receptors also have a somewhat better prognosis.

152. Materials such as strong acids and bases are classified as:
Corrosives
Chemical
irritants
Flammable
liquids
Carcinogens
153. Elevation in conjugated bilirubin is most likely to be found in which of the following
conditions:

Transfusion
reactions
Erythroblastosis
fetalis
Cirrhosis of the liver
Biliary obstruction

Feedback

Posthepatic jaundice is the result of bile duct obstruction, not impaired hepatic function. It will
result in elevation of direct (conjugated) bilirubin.

154. Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing which of the following:
35
 Only T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte subsets
Erythropoietin, thrombopoietin and
leukopoietin
Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells
Daughter cells from only a single cell line

Feedback

Pluripotential stem cells are ultimately capable of differentiating into all types of leukocytes.

155. Match the differential/ selective enteric medium with its characteristic indicator,
fermentable, and bacteriostatic.

phenol red, lactose, bile salts

eosin Y and methylene blue, lactose, eosin Y and
methylene blue
bismuth sulfite, glucose, brilliant green
neutral red, lactose, bile salts

Feedback

XLD has a yellow fermenter and a red nonfermenter. MacConkey has a red fermenter and a
colorless nonfermenter. EMB has a black/red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter. HE has a
yellow fermenter and a green nonfermenter. BS has a Salmonella fermenter and a black
nonfermenter. SS has a red fermenter and a colorless nonfermenter.

156. What is the largest constituent of plasma nonprotein nitrogen:

Ammonia
Creatinin
e
Ketones
Urea

157. What principle(s) of flow cytometry are employed when performing

immunophenotyping:

Defraction gradients
Impedance
Defraction gradients and impedance
Flourescent antibody tagging and light
scatter

Feedback

Flow cytometry employs a combination of fluorescent antibody tagging of cells and analysis
with laser light scatter.

36
158. Which is arranged from least mature to most mature:
Stem Cell, Rubriblast, Prorubricyte, Rubricyte, Metarubricyte, Reticulocyte,
Erythrocyte
Stem Cell, Prorubricyte, Metarubricyte, Erythrocyte, Rubriblast, Rubricyte,
Reticulocyte
Erythrocyte, Reticulocyte, Metarubricyte, Rubricyte, Prorubricyte, Rubriblast,
Stem Cell
Rubricyte, Rubriblast, Stem Cell, Prorubricyte, Erythrocyte, Reticulocyte,
Metarubrictye
159. The term used to describe patients with absence of Rh antigens is:

Rhd
Rhnull
Rhmod
Rho

Feedback

Rhnull individuals have no Rh antigens. Rhmod individuals show reduced and varied reactivity with
Rh antigens.

160. Which is the best method for examination of synovial crystals:

Phase contrast
Darkfield microscopy
Brightfield
microscopy
Polarized light

Feedback

A polarizing microscope with a first order red compensator is used to identify identify crystals
in synovial fluid: Needle shaped monosodium urate crystals are strongly negatively
birefringent, while rhomboid calcium pyrophosphate crystals are weakly positively birefringent.

161. Which of the following antibodies is the most common cause of hemolytic disease of the
newborn:
Anti-
A
Anti-
B
Anti-
E
Anti-
D
162. Which of the following is not true about members of the Enterobacteriaceae:

Gram-negative
Oxidase positive

37
 Reduce nitrate to
nitrite
Ferment glucose

Feedback

Any oxidase-positive organism can be excluded from the Enterobacteriaceae. The other
characteristics are as a rule present in these organisms.

163. Match these autoimmune diseases with their corresponding serological markers:
Antimitochondrial
antibodies
Anticentromere antibodies
Antineutrophilic antibodies
Antimyocardial antibodies
164. Match each virus with its appropriate nucleic acid content:
Togavirus
Coronaviru
s
Herpesviru
s
Adenovirus
165. Which one of the following is not a benefit of using packed RBCs:
Decreasing the load of potential donor antibodies
Decreasing the risk of transfusion associated
infection
Decreasing plasma volume
More efficient use of the whole blood unit
166. Match the following terms with the statement that best describes each:
Membrane covering the brain under the skull
Fluid accumulation due to a malfunction of ability to form and
reabsorb fluid
Inflammation of the pleural membranes
Excess accumulation of fluid within any of the body's serous
cavities
167. The adult worms of which of the following reside in the intestine or its blood vessels:
Heterophyes heterophyes
Schistosoma mansoni
Clonorchis sinensis
Schistosoma
haematobium
168. Match the illustrations with the corresponding classification of bacteria:

38
 B
D
F

169. If a test is said to have a sensitivity of 95%, it will :

Miss 5 out of 100 negatives

Miss 5 out of 100 positives
Detect 5 out of 100
positives
Detect 5 out of 100
negatives

Feedback

A sensitivity of 95% means that 5 results out of a possible 100 that should have been detected
as positive by a method will have been reported as negative. These results are termed false
negatives.

170. Which one of the following are not associated with a polyclonal (broadbased) increase in
gamma globulins?

Liver disease
Chronic
inflammation
Immune reaction
Immunodeficiency

Feedback

Immunodeficiency would, of course, generally be associated with a decrease in serum

immunoglobulin levels, and an associated decreased gamma band.

171. Which of the following tests would be used to directly document the presence of a
specific organism in a clinical specimen:

ELISA test
Hemagglutination test
Hemagglutination inhibition
test
Direct fluorescent antibody
test

Feedback

A direct fluorescent antibody test (DFA) can be used, for example, to detect antigens of
Legionella, Bordetella, Neisseria, and Treponema in appropriate clinical specimens. However
DFA can detect only antigens, not antibodies.

39
172. That portion of an enzyme which is separated from its cofactor is called a(n):

Partial
enzyme
Isoenzyme
Coenzyme
Apoenzyme

Feedback

A partial enzyme is not an actual term used in the laboratory. An isoenzyme is a related
enzyme with a different chemical structure. Finally, a coenzyme is a non-protein molecule
(often a vitamin) that helps an enzyme become active.

173. Increases in the MB fraction of CK is associated with:

Liver disease
Bone disease
Muscle trauma
Mycardial
infarction

Feedback

The isoenzyme CK-MB is fairly cardiac specific. It is elevated within 6 to 8 hours of a myocardial
infarction, and remains elevated for about 2 to 3 days post infarction.

174. A normal hemoglobin molecule is comprised of the following:

Ferrous iron and four globin

chains
Four heme and four globin
chains
Four heme and one globin
chains
One heme and four globin
chains

Feedback

A normal hemoglobin molecule consists of a tetramer with a molecular weight of 64,500

daltons. The constituent monomers are each composed of one heme molecule, and one
polypeptide globin chain.

175. A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is most likely to be the result of which of the
following antibodies:

Lea
A
Jka

40
 B

Feedback

Jka (Kidd) antibodies are very dangerous; they disappear from circulation quickly and can cause
severe delayed transfusion reactions.

176. Increased excretion of creatinine would be expected in which of the following groups:

Elderly
males/females
Adult males
Adult females
Children/infants

Feedback

Diets high in meats, and extreme exercise will cause a significant increase in creatinine
excretion.

177. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that results in elevated urinary
levels of all but which of the following:

Cortisol
Free catecholamines
Metanephrines
Vanillylmandelic
acid

Feedback

Pheochromocytoma is an adrenal or extra adrenal neoplasm that secretes catecholamines.

Patients with pheochromocytoma often exhibit persistent and paroxysmal hypertension. The
single best screening test is urinary metanephrines. Urinary free catecholamines, and
vanillylmandelic acid are also elevated.

Acknowledgement

I m thank full to my God he give me

And also I thank full my friend Mr. Sami Khan he help me in down load, Thanks,

Muhammad Younis
41
Lab. Technician
NNP, Rabigh, KSA
00966-591-342865
[email protected]

42