Biochemistry Question Bank V 1.0e: Multiple Choice Questions
Biochemistry Question Bank V 1.0e: Multiple Choice Questions
Biochemistry Question Bank V 1.0e: Multiple Choice Questions
14. Bacterial transformation was first discovered A. The solution would contain only Hb(O2)2
in the 1920's by B. The solution would contain roughly equal parts
of Hb, Hb(O2)2, and Hb(O2)4
A. Fred Griffith C. The solution would have mostly Hb(O2)2 with
D. Oswald Avery some Hb and Hb(O2)4
B. Fred Sanger D. The solution would be 1/2 Hb(O2)4 and 1/2 Hb.
E. Hershey and Barr E. None of the above
C. Fred Flintstone
19. What is the heme group?
15. The size of the genome of E. coli is roughly A. a lipid
D. a tetrapyrrole
A. 4,600 base pairs B. a protein
D. 4,600,000 base pairs E. a steroid
B. 46,000 base pairs C. a carbohydrate
E. 46,000,000 base pairs
C. 460,000 base pairs 20. 2,3 BPG binds to Hemoglobin in its "Tense" deoxy
form but not to the "Relaxed"
16. When you heat a solution of double-stranded form. Why can't it bind to "Relaxed" Hb?
DNA you can tell when the strands
A. the oxygen gets in the way C. reaction is very fast
D. it does bind B. strong binding
B. the heme iron is too bulky
D. "substrate" is an inhibitor
E. no negative charges
C. central cavity of tetramer too small 25. The difference between a Cerebroside and a
Ganglioside is that
21. Consider the simple chemical reaction, A -> B.
Suppose that at the start of the reaction, A is 11 M A. one is a sphingolipid, the other a phosphatidyl
and B is 1 M. At the end of the reaction, A is 6 M and lipid
B is 6 M. To calculate the Gibbs Free Energy at the B. one contains a fatty acid amide, the other a fatty
start of the reaction, we would have to solve: ester
C. one contains a sugar head group, the other an
A. G = 1 + RTln(1) oligosaccharide
D. G = 0 + RTln(1/11) D. one has sugar phosphate, the other simply a sugar
B. G = 0 + RTln(11)
E. none of the above 26. Eucaryotic cell membranes are strengthened by
C. G = 11 + RTln(12)
A. the cell wall
22. Is it possible for a reaction with a positive Gibbs D. polyunsaturated fats
Free Energy change to go forward? Note, this is not B. glycolipids
the Standard Free Energy change. E. all of the above
C. proteins like Spectrin
A. yes, they always go forward
C. sometimes forward 27. Cardiolipin is found in
B. no, they can never go forward
D. none of above A. the mitochondrial inner membrane
b. the lysosome
23. One difference between Competitive and Non- c. the nuclear membrane
competitive Inhibitors is that Competitive Inhibitors d. the endoplasmic reticulum
e. the eucaryotic cell membrane
A. bind at a distance from the active site
B. trap S in the active site 28. Primary Active Transport – fueled by (what) to
C. prevent S from binding at the active site transport (what)?
D. always change the Vmax
E. none of the above A. sugars, sugars
D. GDP, proteins
24. If a given substrate has a high Km with an enzyme B. ATP, ions
we usually assume C. cAMP, amino acids
E. none of the above
A. weak binding
29. The Acetylcholine Receptor is composed of how 33. The standard free energy change for transport
many subunits? of Glucose across a membrane would be
A. 1
D. 6 A. positive
B. 4 B. negative
E. 8 C. zero
C. 5
34. In a handout, research was described that
30. Potassium can not pass through the voltage provided the "Fountain of Youth" for fruit flies, by:
gated Sodium Channel because
A. cosmetic surgery
A. inactivation prevents it D. transfecting SOD and Catalase
D. K+ is too large B. getting plenty of sleep
B. too much Sodium gets in way E. sit-ups and aerobatics
E. none of the above C. antioxidant vitamins
C. K+ is too positive
35. We share our antibody-diversity generating
31. Protein Kinase C transfers a phosphate to system with
Serine in substrate proteins containing the
sequence RKGSLRQ. Like Protein Kinase A, PKC has a A. all plants and animals
regulatory domain with a pseudosubstrate D. all jawed vertebrates
sequence. Which of the following would be a good B. all higher animals
candidate for this sequence? E. mammals only
C. all deuterostomes including starfish etc.
A. RAGSLRQ
D. RKGSARQ 36. The human genome holds some 30,000 genes.
B RKASLRQ Roughly what percentage of these genes are
E. RKGSLAQ devoted to producing antibody diversity?
C. RKGALRQ
A. 0.001%
32. An inhibitor of the enzyme Acetylcholinesterase D. 1.0 %
could be used as B. 0.01%
E. 10 %
A. a sleeping pill C. 0.1%
D. antibiotic F. 100%
B. inhibitor of gastric acidity
E. nerve gas 37. The antigen binding site of IgG is composed of
C. anti-inflammatory
A. VH and VL
D. 2 VL
B. VH and CH B. diabetes
E. none of the above D. malaria
C. 2 VH
42. Glucose which has been oxidized to have a
38. The heavy chain of IgG is made up of beta carboxyl group at C-6 is called:
sandwich segments which are clearly visible in the
structure. How many beta sandwiches are there in A. Gluconate
one heavy chain? D. Fructose
B. Glucuronate
A. 12 E. Sedoheptulose
D. 3 C. Glucarate
B. 6
E. 2 43. D-Xylulose forms a glycoside when a substituent
C. 4 is added to which position?
F. 1
A. 1
39. If concentrations in a cell are [ATP] = 2 mM, D. 4
[ADP] = 0.2 mM, and [AMP] = 0.02 mM what is the B. 2
energy charge? E. 5
A. 2.22 C. 3
D. 0.946
B. 1.0 44. Interpret the "chair" structure shown below.
E. 0.803 What is the name of the sugar represented?
C. 0.992
A. alpha-D-Mannose
40. What would be a good example of a "Stage III" D. beta-D-Allose
process, in Krebs' analysis of catabolism? B. alpha-D-Glucose
E. beta-D-Ribose
A. Amylose hydrolysis C. alpha-D-Galactose
D. protein hydrolysis
B. Glycolysis 45. When insulin signals ingestion of food, GLUT-4
E. none of the above receptors are
C. Citric Acid Cycle
A. rapidly synthesized
41. You drink a glass of milk. An hour later you have D. translocated to outer membrane
intestinal cramps and other gut symptoms. Chances B. rapidly destroyed
are you have E. blocked by binding insulin
C. put into inactive mode
A. galactosemia
C. lactose intolerance
46. Aldolase forms a covalent connection between D. outer membrane
substrate and a residue of B. mito inner membrane
E. lumen of endoplasmic reticulum
A. lysine C. cytoplasm
D. glutamate
B. serine 51. How many "~P" or "ATP" are produced by the
E. alanine oxidation of one mole of Pyruvate in respiring
C. cysteine mitochondria?
A. Glucose-1-P A. 1
D. UDP-Glucose D. 11
B. Glucose-2-P B. 3
E. UDP-Galactose E. 25
C. Glucose-6-P C. 7
65. You can exhaust your supply of muscle glycogen 69. The complete oxidation of a molecule of
by Palmitate (16:0) in respiring mitochondria would
cause a net gain of how many ATP?
A. smoking a cigar
D. taking a final exam A. 131
B. walking to class D. 106
E. running a marathon B. 129
C. weight training one hour E. 38
C. 108
66. A glycogen molecule has hundreds or
thousands of non reducing ends, and 70. The Reductase used during catabolism of -even
fatty acids adds hydrogens at positions:
A. hundreds of non-reducing ends
B. one non-reducing end, free to react A. 1 and 2
C. one non-reducing end, attached to UDP D. 4 and 5
D. one non-reducing end, attached to Glycogenin B. 2 and 3
E. 2 and 5
67. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver who states C. 3 and 4
that he never drinks alcohol is biopsied. When the
glycogen biopsy is analyzed in the lab, breakdown 71. The fatty acid 20:3 cis 11, 14, 17, was derived
with the normal enzymes yields 95% Glucose-1-P and from a common dietary fatty acid. By comparing
numbers we can deduce that the metabolic source e. All of the above
for this fatty acid is probably:
a. It is a ring compound
a. In any solution
b. It is hydrophilic and ionic
b. At physiological pH, pH = 7.4
c. The nitrogen of the amino group is in a ring
c. In acidic solutions only
d. The carbon of the carboxyl group is in a ring
d. In alkaline solutions only
e. It has little effect on protein structure
78. Tyrosine and tryptophan are less hydrophobic 81. Basic amino acids are ______ (positive, negative) at
than phenylalanine because pH 7 and acidic R group amino
acids are ______ (positive, negative) at pH 7.
a. Phenylalanine has an indole group
b. Phenylalanine has no polar group in the side chain a. Negative; positive
c. Phenylalanine is a phenol b. Negative; negative
d. Tyrosine and tryptophan have smaller R groups c. Positive; negative
e. All of the above d. Positive; positive
79. The amino acids in polypeptide chains which 82. Arginine is the most basic of the 20 amino acids
contain sulfur (S) are because its side chain is _________ under most cell
conditions.
a. Cysteine, cystine, and methionine
b. Cystine a. Very highly charged
c. Methionine only b. Hydrophobic
d. Cysteine only c. Titrated
e. Cysteine and methionine d. Protonated
e. Negatively charged
80. Although the hydroxyl groups in serine and
threonine are uncharges, they can react within 83. At the isoelectric pH of an amino acid which has
active sites of some enzymes because two pKa values the net charge is
107. D-Galactose and D-Glucose are 110. A cerebroside is made up of Sphingosine plus
what?
A. 2 epimers
D. 5 epimers A. 2 fatty acids, glucose, phosphate
B. 3 epimers D. fatty acid, glucose
E. anomers B. fatty acid, glucose, phosphate
C. 4 epimers E. fatty acid, choline, phosphate
F. isomers C. ceramide, glucose
108. The disaccharide drawn at right is 111. Which lipid is represented here?
A. Lecithin
A. Sucrose C. Phosphatidyl Serine
D. Cellobiose B. Cardiolipin
B. Maltose D. Phosphatidyl Ethanolamine
E. Stachyose
C. Lactose 112. A common fatty acid is Linoleic Acid, which has
the structure
109. Sephadex is a brand named Dextran, used in gel
filtration columns. Chemically, Sephadex is poly A. 18:0
(what?) linked (how?). D. 18:2, Δ6, 9
B. 18:1 Δ7
A. Galactose, a 1,4 E. 18:2, Δ9, 12
D. Glucose a 1,6 C. 18:3 Δ9, 12, 15
B. Glucose, a 1,4 F. 16:1, Δ 8
116. Several cofactors including Coenzyme A, FAD,
113. One enzyme found in cobra venom is and NAD have what in common?
Phospholipase A2, which cleaves membrane
phosphatidyl lipids producing A. Nicotinamide
D. ADP moiety
A. Diacylglycerol B. Pantothenate
D. Triglycerides E. A selenium atom
B. Phosphatidate C. Flavine
E. Saponification
C. Lysolecithin 117. Which cofactor forms a Schiff Base with
substrate?
114. What is Anabolism?
A. Biotin
A. DNA repair D. Thiamine
D. All "energy reactions" in cell B. Lipoic Acid
B. building molecules E. Coenzyme A
E. none of the above C. Pyridoxal Phosphate
C. breaking down foods
118. The mechanism of G3PDH involves covalent
115. Glycolysis is part of which of "stage" of attachment of substrate to which amino acid at the
catabolism? enzyme's active site?
A. I A. Ser
C. III D. His
B. II B. Cys
D. not part of catabolism E. Glu
C. Lys
E. PG Kinase
119. What is the significance of Fru-2,6- C. Fructonase
bisphosphate in the cell?
122. The Citric Acid Cycle occurs where in
A. "I'm hungry" eukaryotic cells?
D. "Too much Calcium"
B. "not enough Glucose" A. the cytoplasm
E. "Too much AMP" D. the nucleus
C. "there's a lot of Glucose" B. the mitochondrial matrix
E. the mito. intermembrane space
120. The greatest difference between Aerobic and C. the lumen of the E.R.
Anaerobic fates of Pyruvate comes in the way
(what?) is utilized. 123. Unlike other species, organisms that have the
Glyoxylate Cycle can
A. ATP
D. NADH A. make fatty acids from glucose
B. Coenzyme A C. make glucose from fatty acids
E. Glyceraldehyde B. run the Citric Acid Cycle backward
C. Thiamine D. make Acetyl CoA from fatty
acids
121. Which Glycolysis enzyme has an unusually high
positive standard free energy change (in the 124. Citrate Synthase is allosterically inactivated
"forward" direction of Glycolysis)? by what 2 compounds?
144. The "fluid mosaic model" of membrane 147. The ratio of NADPH to NADP+ in cells is
structure concerns the fact that the lipid bilayer generally kept
membranes found in cells contain various
A. greater than one
A. polysaccharides C. less than one
D. transmembrane proteins B. about one
B. steroid dimers D. can't tell
E. none of the above
148. What is Anabolism?
A. Glucose-6-P, Alanine
A. DNA repair D. Gluconolactone
D. All "energy reactions" in cell B. Glucose and Lactose
B. building molecules E. Alanine and pyrimidines
E. none of the above C. Lactic Acid and Glucose
C. breaking down foods
152. The reducing end of Glycogen is attached to
149. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase is
A. glycogenin
A. inhibited by AMP, stimulated by F2,6BP D. a ribosome
B. stimulated by AMP, inhibited by F2,6BP B. the endoplasmic reticulum
C. inhibited by both AMP and F2,6BP E. Fructose
D. stimulated by both AMP and F2,6BP C. Phosphorylase a
E. none of the above
153. When normal glycogen is broken down by the
150. Which enzyme of Gluconeogenesis is found in usual enzymes, what percentage of glucose is
the mito. matrix? released as "free" glucose?
A. G6Pase A. 25%
D. Pyruvate Carboxylase D. 5%
B. FBPase B. 17%
E. PEPCK E. 1%
C. Aldolase C. 10%
F. none at all
151. The operation of the Cori Cycle is responsible
for the appearance of what in blood?
154. Branching enzyme produces branches by E. 6 Rib-5-P, 5 NADPH, 5 NADH
moving how many residues of glucose? C. 6 Rib-5-P
A. PKU A. Gout
D. gout D. Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome
B. Leukemia E. low Carbamoyl Phosphate
E. none of the above C. high NADPH levels
C. Phenylketonuria
169. Ribonucleotide Reductase makes use of an
166. The synthesis of Urea requires how many ~P, unusual cofactor:
high energy P-bonds?
A. biotin
A. 2 D. Thioredoxin
C. 6 B. FMNH2 E. Thiamine
B. 4 C. B-12
D. 8
170. The pyrimidine ring is built from carbamoyl
167. Drugs like Methotrexate prevent synthesis of aspartate and which amino acid?
DNA by binding to
A. asparagine
A. DNA Pol I D. threonine
D. Thymidylate Synthase B. alanine
B. DNA Pol III E. aspartate
E. Reverse Transcriptase C. glutamate
C. Dihydrofolate Reductase
171. During Pyrimidine biosynthesis, first the ring is
168. Conversion of Xanthylate (XMP) to Guanylate built and then it undergoes a "salvage" reaction
(GMP) is blocked by with PRPP. Which intermediate reacts with PRPP?
A. azaserine A. Uridine
D. low Aspartate D. Thymine
B. methotrexate B. Dihydroorotate
E. Guanine E. Ca++ regulates the contraction process by
C. Orotate allowing the myosin-ADP-Pi complex to interact with
actin filaments
172. If [ATP]= 10 mM, [ADP]= 6 mM, and [AMP] = 4 mM,
what is the energy charge in the cell? 174. Malignant hyperthermia occurs in 1:20,000
surgical procedures where muscle relaxants and
A. 26 general inhalation anesthetics are used. Malignant
D. 0.80 hyperthermia is caused by:
B. 1.0
E. 0.65 A. an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in
C . 0.88 muscle mitochondria by the anesthetics
F. 0.50 B. stimulation of Na+-K+ ATPase activity
C. the formation of stable myosin-actin
173. All of the following are true of skeletal crossbridges that cannot be broken by ATP
muscle contraction EXCEPT D. an elevated level of intracellular Ca++ that
promotes continuous muscle contraction with
A. ATP binds to myosin and causes myosin to detach associated increased ATP hydrolysis and oxidative
from actin phosphorylation
B. Myosin catalyzes the reversible hydrolysis of E. the depolymerization of F-actin to produce G-
ATP at the catalytic site but the products remain actin
tightly bound to the enzyme until actin binds and
displaces phosphate 175. Microtubules are involved in
C. The myosin-ADP-actin complex undergoes a
conformation change with release of ADP A. cell division
D. The power stroke in muscle contraction occurs B. ciliar and flagellar movement
when the myosin headpiece re-attaches to actin C. movement of secretory vesicles along axons
D. movement of organelles within cells
E. all of the above E. muscle waste, hypertension and a beard
176. Muscle proteolysis is accompanied by the 178. A patient with secondary aldosteronism will
release of ala and gln from muscle. What is the display
carbon source of these amino acids?
A. high serum Na+, high serum aldosterone and no
A. muscle protein, because it has a high content of serum renin
ala and gln B. high serum Na+, high serum renin, low serum
B. glucose aldosterone
C. creatinine C. hypertension and elevated serum renin
D. glycerol D. no serum ACTH, no serum aldosterone and high
E. acetoacetate serum Na+
E. masculinization and hypertension
177. A female patient with Cushings disease is
distinguishable by 179. A patient with Familial Hypercholesterolemia
has a defect in the clustering of LDL receptors in
A. low plasma ACTH, urinary 17a- coated pits. Incubation of this patient's fibroblasts
hydroxycorticosteroids > 100 mg/day and urinary with 125ILDL for 1 hour will result in
17-ketosteroids < 12 mg/day
B. high plasma ACTH, urinary 17a- A. most of the 125I-LDL being internalized in the
hydroxycorticosteroids > cells
100 mg/day and urinary 17-ketosteroids > 12 B. most of the 125I-LDL being degraded
mg/day C. most of the 125I-LDL being bound to the surface
C. high plasma angiotensin II, low urinary Na+ and of the cells
low urinary tetrahydroaldosterone D. most of the 125I-LDL being converted to 125I-
D. high plasma ACTH, urinary 17-ketosteroids > 17 VLDL
mg/day and urinary estrogen > 60 mg/day
E. most of the 125I-LDL undergoing lysosomal E. a decreased ability to convert VLDL to IDL
digestion
182. A person with an LDL-receptor deficiency was
180. In relation to hepatic cells from a normal treated with lovastatin. As a consequence of the
person on a low animal fat diet, hepatic cells from a action of this drug, the person should have
normal person on a prolonged high animal fat diet
will A. fewer LDL receptors in cell membranes
B. increased de novo cholesterol synthesis
A. contain higher amounts of cholesterol C. increased LCAT activity
B. contain a lower number of LDL receptors D. lower blood cholesterol levels
C. contain a less active HMG-reductase E. higher blood triacylglycerol levels
D. contain fewer mRNAs for the LDL receptor
E. all of the above are correct 183. A patient with hyperlipoproteinemia would be
most likely to benefit from a low-carbohydrate diet
181. A person with type IIA hyperlipoproteinemia if the lipoproteins that are elevated in the blood
(Familial Hypercholesterolemia) had a blood are
cholesterol level of 360 mg/dl (recommended
level below 200 mg/dl) and a blood triglyceride A. chylomicrons
(triacylglycerol) level of 140 mg/dl (recommended B. VLDL
level below 160 mg/dl). This person most likely has C. LDL
D. HDL2
A. a decreased ability for receptor-mediated E. HDL3
endocytosis of LDL
B. a decreased ability to degrade the 184. The liver does not accumulate excessive
triacylglycerols of chylomicrons amounts of cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids
C. an increased ability to produce VLDL because
D. an elevation of HDL in the blood
A. these bile acids are totally excreted from the E. the effects of excess DHEA and hypertension as
intestine well as high salt in the urine
B. high levels of cholic acid will block directly
HMGreductase Choose the single best answer for the following
C. high levels of these bile acids will block 7a- questions. 6
hydroxylase
D. these bile acids will be incorporated into VLDL 186. In a fasting person, glucagon will affect the
and passed into the plasma de novo synthesis of cholesterol in liver
E. excess levels of the precursors of cholesterol
will be converted instead into steroid hormones A. by bringing about the phosphorylation of
HMGreductase which deactivates this enzyme
185. A young female patient suffering from an B. by bringing about the phosphorylation of HMG-
adrenogenital syndrome characterized by an reductase which activates this enzyme
inactive 11b-hydroxylase will display C. by increasing the level of acetyl CoA
D. by increasing gluconeogenesis
A. the effects of excess glucocorticoids and E. by bringing about the dephosphorylation of
hypertension as well as high levels of HMGreductase which deactivates this enzyme
tetrahydrocortisol in the urine
B. the effects of excess androgens and 187. A new drug "zaragozic acid" is now available
hypertension as well as high levels of pregnanediol which blocks the squalene synthetase system and
and pregnanetriol in the urine therefore dramatically lowers the plasma
C. the effects of excess androgens and cholesterol levels in hypercholesterolemia
hypertension as well as high levels of patients. Lovastatin, which completely blocks
tetrahydroaldosterone in the urine HMG-reductase, lowered cholesterol plasma levels
D. the effects of excess androgens and high levels in these patients to a similar degree. Would you
of salt in the urine prefer to prescribe
A. lovastatin because it will cause an increase in
HMG-CoA which can be metabolized to ketone bodies 189. In a normal person, hypertension is prevented
B. lovastatin because it will permit the synthesis of because the kidney tubule cell contains
isoprene units
C. lovastatin because it will increase the synthesis A. only an aldosterone specific receptor
of squalene B. an inactive 21-hydroxylase
D. zaragozic acid because it will not block the C. a high affinity 11b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
synthesis of isoprene units and farnesyl D. 17b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
pyrophosphate E. peripheral aromatase
E. zaragozic acid because it will not prevent the
synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol, a vitamin D3 190. A postmenopausal patient presents with a
precursor breast tumor. Proteins in the cytosol from a
homogenate of a biopsy of this tumor display high
188. Lymphocytic leukemia can become resistant to affinity, specific binding of tritriated estradiol and
treatment by glucocorticoids or glucocorticoid tritriated progesterone. Treatment of this patient
drugs because with an antihormone such as tamoxifen is warranted
because
A. these cells can metabolize certain
glucocorticoids to inactive metabolites A. the tumor is hormone dependent (responsive)
B. these cells can lose the expression of the B. the tumor contains active estrogen receptor
glucocorticoid receptor C. an estrogen regulated gene is turned on
C. the glucocorticoid receptor may become mutated D. the patient is postmenopausal
so that the receptor complex no longer interacts E. all of the above are correct
properly with its responsive element
D. these cells may more actively convert cortisol 191. It is also reasonable to treat this patient with
to cortisone
E. all of the above are correct A. diethylstilbesterol (DES)
B. CGP-47,645 E. all of the above are correct
C. spironolactone
D. finasteride 194. Ovarian follicular growth in a patient is best
E. MER-25 measured by
192. A patient with prostate cancer responded best A. the level of plasma ACTH
when he was treated with a combination of B. the level of plasma LH
flutamide and finasteride. An analysis of this tumor C. the urinary level of 17-ketosteroids
before treatment would be expected to show the D. the urinary level of progesterone (pregnanediol)
presence of E. the urinary level of estriol
A. aromatase and lutenizing hormone (LH) receptor 195. A patient is having difficulty conceiving. An
B. desmolase and 17,20-lyase analysis of her plasma shows that the level of FSH
C. androgen receptor and 5a-reductase is low and the level of estrogen is constantly high.
D. only the androgen testosterone Her pituitary function is normal and, other than
E. both the androgen and glucocorticoid receptors hypersecretion of androstenes, her ovary is
Choose the single best answer for the following normal. Ovulation can be induced in this patient by
questions. 9 administering for a short period (5 days)
193. The nuclear DNA from this prostate tumor A. lutenizing hormone
would be expected to contain B. an antiestrogen
C. progesterone
A. mutated Zn-fingers D. RU-486
B. NF-kB E. prolactin
C. Ras-GTP Choose the single best answer for the following
D. the appropriate hormone response element (HRE) questions. 10
upstream of responsive genes
196. Important to the control of steroid hormone E. increased lipogenesis and increased glycogen
synthesis by ACTH, LH or FSH is the fact that synthesis in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle
A. high levels of cholesterol will downregulate 197. The acidosis of diabetic ketoacidosis results
the LDL receptor from which of the following?
B. phospholipase A2 hydrolyzes arachidonate from
membrane phospholipids A. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue resulting
C. desmolase resides in the mitochondria from increased lipoprotein lipase activity
D. all three of these polypeptides are bound by the B. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue resulting
same membrane receptor from increased hormone sensitive triglyceride
E. the steroid hormone secreted by the endocrine lipase activity
tissue cannot down regulate the secretion of C. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue resulting
ACTH, LH or FSH from increased monoglyceride lipase activity in
hepatocytes
196. Hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes D. increased glycolysis due to increased glycogen
mellitus results from which of the following? phosphorylase a activity in adipose tissue and
skeletal muscle
A. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue and skeletal E. increased glycolysis resulting from increased
muscle phosphofructokinase activity in liver and skeletal
B. increased hepatic gluconeogenesis and muscle
decreased
glycolysis in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle 198. Elevated levels in blood following severe
C. decreased proteolysis and increased lipolysis in crushing injury can lead to renal
adipose tissue damage
D. increased glycogen synthesis and decreased
glycogenolysis in adipose tissue and skeletal 199. Urinary levels are used as a marker for muscle
muscle proteolysis
203. An agonist binding to its membrane receptor
A. succinyl CoA brings about GDP.Ga,bg , + GTP -> Gb,g + GDP +
B. succinyl choline GTP.Ga which initiates
C. creatinine
D. 3-methyl histidine 204. An agonist binding to its membrane receptor
E. dystrophin brings about the activation of phospholipase A2
F. myoglobin which initiates
200. Low serum Ca++ (< 10 mg %) and normal serum 205. An agonist binding to its membrane receptor
phosphate will normally be accompanied by brings about the activation of tyrosine kinase which
initiates
201. Low serum phosphate and normal serum Ca++
will be normally accompanied by A. the metabolic formation of diacylglycerol which
activates protein kinase A
202. Analysis of serum from a patient with x-linked B. the activation of Ras and the hydrolysis of
hypophosphatemia will display arachidonate from position 2 of a phospholipid
C. the activation of Ras which ultimately brings
A. elevated serum levels of PTH, elevated serum about the phosphorylation of nuclear regulatory
levels of 1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3 proteins
B. elevated serum levels of PTH, low serum levels D. the binding of Ca++ to calmodulin which
of 1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3 activates cyclooxygenase
C. low serum levels of PTH, high serum levels of E. the metabolic formation of cAMP which activates
1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3 protein kinase C
D. low serum levels of PTH, low serum levels of F. the formation of and binding of cAMP to an
1a,25(OH)2 Vit D3 enzyme protein
E. none of the above G. the hydrolytic production of a substrate for
Cyclooxygenase.
E) It indicates that binding affinity increases as more
206. Which of the following statements about fetal sites are occupied
hemoglobin is not correct?
208. Which of the following correctly describes
A) Fetal hemoglobin has higher affinity for O2 than how CO2 interacts with hemoglobin?
maternal hemoglobin A
B) Fetal hemoglobin has fewer positive charged A) CO2 binds to heme Fe2+
amino acids at g-globin C-terminal B) CO2 binds to heme Fe3+
C) Fetal hemoglobin binds 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate C) CO2 binds to His F8
more strongly D) CO2 binds to His E7
D) The sigmoidal O2 binding curve of fetal E) CO2 binds to the N-terminal of a-globin
hemoglobin is shifted to the left
E) Fetal hemoglobin remains in R-state at lower pO2 209. Which of the following does not play a role in
the blood clotting cascade?
207. Which of the following statements about the
sigmoidal O2 binding curve of hemoglobin is not A) Fibrinogen
correct? B) Prothrombin
C) Protein kinase A
A) Transition from almost empty to almost full D) Factor Xa
occurs over a narrower range of pressures E) Factor VIII
B) It allows for more efficient release of O2 at pO2
found in peripheral tissues 210. Which of the following enzymes is directly
C) Hemoglobin has higher P50 than myoglobin, but involved in production of NADPH?
still reaches saturation at the same pO2 as
myoglobin A) Lactate dehydrogenase
D) It allows more O2 to bind to hemoglobin than to B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
myoglobin at any given pO2 C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase A) Phosphorylase a preferentially goes to the
E) Phosphofructokinase active R state
B) Phosphorylase a phosphorylates enzymes
211. Which of the following is responsible for involved in glycogen
activating Protein kinase A? metabolism
C) Phosphorylase a is converted to phosphorylase b
A) Cyclic AMP binds to R subunits of protein kinase A by phosphoprotein phosphatase 1
B) Cyclic AMP binds to C subunits of protein kinase D) Phosphorylase a is negatively regulated by
A glucose.
C) Cyclic AMP becomes available as phosphate E) Serine 14 of phosphorylase a is phosphorylated
donor
D) Cyclic AMP is hydrolyzed to 5'-AMP 214. Which hemoglobin form is expressed during
E) The proenzyme form is cut by proteolysis months 2-9 of pregnancy?
A) It binds O2 like normal hemoglobin B) It binds O2 225. What compound is exported from mitochondria
like fetal hemoglobin to provide substrate gluconeogenesis in the
C) It is unable to bind O2 D) It binds O2 like cytoplasm when lactate is the starting point?
myoglobin
E) It polymerizes into fibres in red blood cells A) Pyruvate
B) Malate
223. Which of the following properties is directly C) Oxaloacetate
related to the concentration of 5'-AMP as an D) PEP E) Acetyl CoA
indicator of energy status ?