VMC-Question Bank

VMC 311 : Systematic Veterinary
Bacteriology and Mycology (2+1)
STREPTOCOCCI
Fill up the blanks with suitable words
1. In Streptococci chain formation is due to the cocci dividing in _________
plane
2. Pyogenic Streptococci are ___________ and ______________.
3. ______________ toxin is employed in diagnosis of Scarlet fever.
4. Rebecca Lancefield identified 19 groups of Streptococci and named it as
_______.
5. Selective media for Streptococci is ______________________.
6. For demonstration of Streptococci haemolysis _______ agar is commonly
used.
7. Lancefield classification is mainly based on _____ antigen of the cell wall.
8. Strangles is caused by _____________.
Write True or False
1.
Streptococci are catalase and oxidase negative
2.
The capsule of Streptococci pyogenes is made up of polysaccharide.
3.
When Streptococci treated with penicillin, spheroplast form will occur.
4.
S. salivarius is an enterococci
5.
Beta haemolytic Streptococci produce complete haemolysis.
6.
The viridans Streptococci are beta haemolytic
7.
Beta haemolytic Streptococci are non pathogenic.
8.
Lancefield classified gamma haemolytic Streptococci based on the

nature of a carbohydrate antigen of the cell wall.
9.
Griffth typing of Streptococci is mainly based on agglutination test.
10. Enterococcus avium is the member of Lancefield group streptococci.

11. Streptolysin O is a oxygen and heat stable haemolysin
12. Streptolysin S is very potent cardiotoxic.

13. The toxin streptokinase gives Schultz -charlton reaction.
14. Streptodornases are deoxyribonucleases
15. Hyaluronidase favours the spread of streptococci infection along inter
cellular spaces.
Write short notes
1.
Dick test
2.
Griffth typing
3.
Viridans
4.
Beta haemolysis
5.
Serum opacity factor
6.
Strangles
7.
Hotis test
8.
Strangles
9.
Streptokinase
10. Scarlet fever

Write short answers
1. Different types of Streptococci haemolysis
2. Toxins of Streptococci
3. Lancefield group of Streptococci
4. List the virulence factors of streptococci
5. Mastitis streptococci
6. In what sorts of infection are alpha-type streptococci found? How
are they transmitted? What is their usual habitat?
7. Which streptococcal species are usually prevalent in mastitis in
cows?
8. Describe the appearance of alpha, beta, and gamma types of
streptococci in blood-agar plates.
9. List five extracellular products of streptococci. What are their

characteristics.
10. What is the relationship of pneumococci to streptococci? What is
their normal habitat? How do they resemble and differ from alphatype streptococci?
Write an essay of the following
1. Write in detail about morphology, biochemical characters, toxins,
pathogenesis and diagnosis of Strangles
2. Write in detail about classification of Streptococci with examples.
3. Morphology, cultural characteristics, extra cellular products and diseases
produced by Streptococcus.
STAPHYLOCCCUS
1. Botryomycosis in horse is caused by _________
2. Staphylococcus hyicus cause ____________ in pigs.
3. Selective media for staphylococci is _____________
4. Staphylococcus citreus produces ________ pigment on nutrient agar.
5. Hot cold lysis is mainly due to ___________ toxin of Staphylococcus.
6. The CAMP test is based on the partial haemolysis of the ______ toxin of
Staphylococci.
7. On Blood agar Staphylococcus releases V factor which favours the
growth of ______
organism.
8. To demonstrate coagulase test ________ plasma is commonly used.

9. Staphylococcus enterotoxins cause _________ in humans.
Write True or False
1. Staphylococci are catalase +ve and oxidase negative
2. Coagulase negative Staphylococci are pathogenic
3. S. aureus causes bumble foot in poultry.

4. The word staphyle means twisted or coiled bacilli.
5. Tick pyaemia in 2-4weeks old lambs is caused by S.aureus.
6. Coagulative staphylococci are arranged in grapes like structure.
7. Staphylococci are not able to grow in the media containing 7-10% NaCl.
8. S.aureus strains from dogs produce golden yellow colonies on nutrient agar.
9. S.aureus produces double haemolysis when blood agar plate is incubated at
37C.
10. All catalase positive Staphylococci are pathogenic.
11. Pathogenic Staphylococci coagulate rabbit plasma is the basis of coagulase
test.
12. Chemically the beta haemolysins of Staphylococci are phospholipase C.
13. Gamma hamolysins of S.aureus produces complete haemolysis.
14. Staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome in dogs is produced by enterotoxins.
15. Gangrenous mastitis in cattle is mainly due to alpha toxin of staphylococci
16. Oxidase
test is highly useful to
Streptococci.
Write short notes
1.
Botryomycosis
2.
Greasy pig disease
3.
Bumble foot
4.
Wing rot
5.
Double haemolysis
6.
Hot cold lysis phenomenon
7.
CAMP test
8.
Coagulase test
9.
Hyaluronidase
10. Enterotoxin
11. Dermonecrotoxin
differentiate
Staphylococci and
Write short answers

1) Haemolysins of Staphylococci
2) Antigens and Toxins of Staphylococci
3) Pathogenesis of Staphylococci
4) Role of toxins in staphylococcal pathogenesis
5) Name
several
extracellular
enzymes
produced
by
staphylococci.
Describe properties of each.

6) How are Staphylococci identified in case of epidemics?
7) What tests are employed for diagnosis of mastitis in cattle?
8) Elaborate on the different types of haemolysins produced by these
organisms?
9) Differentiate between a virulent staphylococcus and micrococcus
1) Enumerate the causative agents of bovine mastitis. Write in detail about
morphology, biochemical characters, toxins, pathogenesis and diagnosis of
gangrenous mastitis.
2) Describe about the antigenic nature, extra cellular products and diagnosis
of Staphylococcus aureus infection in animals.
3) Describe the morphology, habitat, cultural and biochemical characters of
different species of staphylococci. List out the various toxins and enzymes
produced by them.
CLOSTRIDIUM
1) Based on pathognesis clostridia
classified
into
_________,
_________ and ___________.

2) All
Clostridia
are
motile
except
_________
and
_____________________.
3) All
Clostridia
are
non
and___________________.
capsulated
except
________
4) Selective media for Clostridia is ___________.

5) Saccharolytic Clostridia are _______, _______ and___________.
6) Proteolytic Clostridia are __________ and _______________.
7) Based on the growth in Robertson cooked meat media Clostridia
classified into ______ and _______.
8) Clostridia produce acid and clot in _______medium.
9) On horse blood agar, Cl.tetani produces beta haemolysis due to the
production of ________.
10) In gelatin stab culture, Cl.tetani produces __________ type of
growth.
11) In Robertson cooked meat media Cl.tetani grows and produce
_______
12) ________ and ________ chemicals are commonly used to kill the
Cl.tetani spores.
13) Two types of Cl.tetani toxins are ________ and ________.
14) Western duck sickness is caused by _______________.
15) Based on the toxin production Cl.botulinum classified into ______
types.
16) Cl. botulinum toxin produces characteristic __________ appearance in
mice.
17) Lecithinase activity of ________ and _______ toxins of Cl.novyi
responsible for opacity of egg yolk.
18) Cl haemolyticum _____________ toxin is responsible for bacillary
haemoglobinuria in cattle.
19) On
egg
yolk
agar
Cl.novyi
type
produce
charactreristic
__________ and is mainly due to _______ toxin.

20) Braxy in sheep is caused by _____________.
21) Clostridum species ________ and ________ produces stormy
fermentation in litmus milk.
22) Malignant odema in cattle is caused by ____________.

23) Cl. chauvoei type B causes _________ in cattle.
24) Struck in sheep is caused by __________.
25) Lecithinase effect of Cl.welchi type A-E is mainly due to ________
toxin.
26) Cl.welchi ferments lactose and produce acid clot in litmus milk is
called as_________
Write True or False
1.
Clostridium are anaerobic, spore forming, spindle shaped bacteria
2.
Clostridia are motile with monotrichous flagella.
3.
Cl.odematiens is very strict anaerobe.
4.
In Robertsons media proteolytic clostridium turns the meat pink color

and produce gas.
5.
Soil is the natural habitat of Cl.tetani.
6.
Cl.tetani is very potent invasive clostridum
7.
Capsulated Cl.tetani giving the characteristic drum sticks appearance.
8.
Cl.tetani is a non-capsulated and motile bacillus.
9.
Stiff agar (3%) is commonly used to demonstrate swarming nature of

Cl.tetani
10. Cl. tetani is saccharolytic.

11. Cl.tetani spores are readily destroyed by 5% phenol or 0.1% mercuric
chloride solution.
12. Cl.tetani serological type VI possesses peritrichous flagella.
13. Tetanolysin is a very potent neurotoxin
14. Poultry are highly susceptible to tetanospasmin.
15. Ascending tetanus is more common in human and horses.
16. The species Cl.tetanomorphus and Cl.tetanoides produces drumstick
spores as like Cl.tetani.
17. Adminstration of ATS within 4hrs of infection can prevent tetanus.
18.
Botulinum toxins are very potent enterotoxins.
19. Botulism is mainly due to very rapid multiplication of bacteria at the

site of infection and production of toxin.
20. Cl.botulinum type C, D and E are non proteolytic.
21. Cl. botulinum type D causes Lamsiekte in cattle.
22. One mg of Cl.botulinum neurotoxin contains more than 120 million
mouse lethal doses.
23. Cl.botulinum produces spastic paralysis in animals.
24. Shaker foal syndrome in horses is caused by invasive type of
Cl.botulinum.
25. Cl.odematiens causes Bacillary haemoglobinuria in cattle
26. Black disease in cattle is caused by Cl.gigas.
27. Cl.novyi type D is very strong saccharolytic
28. Clostridium novyi type A is the only clostridial species produce both
lecithinase and lipase.
29. Vibrion septique causes Braxy in sheep
30. Malignant odema is aerobic cellulites.
31. Bradsot in sheep is more common in summer months.
32. Cl.septicum ferments salicin but not sucrose.
33. Cl.chauvoei ferments sucrose but not salicin
34. Black quarter in cattle is caused by Cl.febri.
35. Clostridial enterotoxaemias are caused by toxins of cl.welchi types B,C
and D.
36. The alpha toxins of Cl.perfringens type D causes pulpy kidney disease
in sheep.
37. Cl.perfringens is motile and non capsulated.
38. The generatoion time of Cl.perfringens at 45C is ten minute only.
39. Cl.welchi produces atleast 12 different toxins
40. A theta toxin of Cl.welchi mainly causes target haemolysis.
41. Cl.welchi epsilon toxin has both enterotoxic and neurotoxic property.
42.
Yellow lamb disease is caused by Cl.perfringens type C.
Write short notes

1)
Stromy clot fermentation
2)
Nagler's reaction
3)
Robertsons cooked meat media
4)
Wast - Waisp appearance
5)
Lockjaw
6)
Tetanospasmin
7)
Tetanolysin
8)
Braxy
9)
Bradsot
10)
Black disease
11)
Saccharolytic
12)
Western duck sickness
13)
Malignant odema
14)
Botulism
15)
Struck
Write short answers

1. Toxins of Cl.tetani
2. Difference between Cl.tetani and Cl.botulinum toxins
3. Toxins of Cl.perfringens
4. Gas gangrene
5. Demonstration and identification of clostridial toxins
6. Struck in sheep
7. Bacillary Haemoglobinuria
8. Black quarter
9. Classification of clostridia
10. Mention various species of clostridium and diseases they produce in
livestock.
1. Enumerate histotoxic clostridia and write in detail about morphology,
biochemical characters, pathogenesis, diagnosis and control of Black
quarter.
2. Define Gasgangrene, enumerate clostridia causing gasgangrene and
write in detail about morphology, biochemical characters, pathogenesis,
diagnosis and control of Cl.novyi
3. a).Classify and enumerate different species of clostridia and diseases
produced by them b). Describe the toxins of Cl.tetani and Cl.botulinum
4. Describe in detail the morphology, cultural characteristics, toxins and
pathogenesis of Clostridia of veterinary importance.
5. Name the disease and the organism causing histotoxic, neurotoxic,
enterotoxic and hepatotoxic clostridial infections in sheep. Describe in
detail the morphological details of the organism causing enterotoxic
infection in sheep.
6. Death of animals was reported from an area. Affected animals show hot
painful swelling in thigh region. In some animals ruptue of thigh muscle
and oozing of dark coloured fluid was noticed. How will you proceed with
the diagnosis and write in detail the diagnostic methods and control
strategies to be followed.
7. Enumerate the pathogenic organism belonging to the genus clostridum
and describe different types of toxins produced by them.
8. Write in detail the different toxins produced by Cl.chauvoei, Cl.septicum,
Cl.perfrigens, Cl.tetani and Cl.botulinum.
BACILLUS
10
1.
Bacillus anthracis capsule is rich in _______
2.
Sudan
Black
stain
is
commonly
used
to
demonstrate
_________ of B.anthracsis.
3.
In
gelatin
stab
growth
of
B.anthracis
resembles
________appearance.
4.
Womans
curling
hair
type
of
growth
is
characteristic
of
__________.
5.
Selective media for B.anthracis is ____________.
6.
In
duckering
__________
solution
at
40C
for
20mts
is
commonly used for wool disinfection.

7.
The extracellular toxins of B.anthracis are composed of _______,
________ and _________.

8.
In anthrax-affected animals the spleen revealed ________
consistency
9.
_______ phage is commonly used to identify anthrax bacillus
10. Laboratory
animals
__________
and
_______
are
highly
susceptible for anthrax.

11. Cutaneous anthrax is called as ____________
12. Selective media for anthracoids is _________________.
13. Capsulatd B.anthracis when stained with methylene blue will show
_______ and the reaction is known as _________.
14. Antibodies
that
are
produced
by
B.licheniformis
are
____________,
1)
B.polymyxa is ___________ and by B.bravis is ________
Write True or False

1. Box car bacillus is a motile organism.
2. B.anthracis is aerobic, motile by peritrichous flagella
3. Mcfadeyan reaction is useful to demonstrate anthrax spore
4. In case of B.anthracis, the sporulation is enhanced by anerobic conditions and
11
by CaCl2.
5. Normal heat fixation of blood smears is sufficient to kill the B.anthracis bacilli.
6. B.anthracis spores are readily destroyed by 5% phenol.
7. In anthrax lethal toxin alone is responsible for production of local odema and
shock.
8. Poultry are highly resistant to anthrax.
9. Acute fatal form of anthrax is very common in pigs.
10. The Sterne vaccine contained spores of a non-capsulated a virulent mutant
strain of B.anthracis.
11. Pulmonary anthrax is called as hide porter's disease.
12. Anthracoids are motile, non-capsulated and non-spore formers.
13. The edges of the colonies of B.anthracis appear irregular and are known as
medusa head colonies.
14. In bacillus, sporulation is inhibited by exposure to air.
15. The spores of Bacillus anthracis are wider than the vegetative form
16. Bacillus species are catalase positive.
Write short notes
1. String of pearls test.
2. Ascolis precipitation test.
3. Wool sorters disease
4. Hide porter's disease
5. Medusa head colonies
6. Duckering
7. Mcfadeyan reaction
8. Sterne vaccine
Write short answers
1. Toxins of anthrax bacillus
2. Pathogenesis of anthrax
3. Diagnosis and differential diagnosis of anthrax
12
4. Cultural characters of anthrax bacillus

5. Difference between B.anthracis and anthracoids.
6. Difference between B.anthracis and Clostridum spore.
7. Anthrax
1. Write in detail about morphology, cultural characters, biochemical characters,
pathogenesis, diagnosis, prevention and control of anthrax bacillus.
LISTERIA
1. Circling disease in cattle and sheep is caused by ___________.
2. When listeria grows on semisolid media _________ shaped growth is
occur.
3. Listeria exhibits characteristic _______ motility in 24hr broth culture,
incubated at 25C.
4. The haemolysin of L.monocytogenes is known as _____________.
5. Neural form of listeriosis is called as ___________________.
6. Listeriosis abortion typically occurs in ____________ trimester of
pregnancy.
7. Experimental animals for listeriosis are _________ and __________.
8. Isolation of listeria requires a process called ________________.
Write True or False
1. Listeria is motile at 37C
2. Listeria expresses flagellar protein only at higher temperature.
3. L.monocytogenes does not grow in media with 10% salt concentration.
4. Macconkey agar is the suitable media for listeria.
5. L.ivanovisi gives positive CAMP reaction, where as L.monocyotgenes gives
negative CAMP reaction with Staphylococcus aureus.
6. In listeria based on somatic and flagellar antigens sofar 16 serovars have
13
been identified.
7. Serotypes l/2a, l/2b and 4b account for most of the clinical cases of
listeriosis.
8. Silage is commonly implicated in outbreaks of listeriosis.
9. Blood agar with 0.5% potassium tellurite is a selective medium for listeria.
Write short notes
1. Cold enrichment
2. Anton's test
3. Tumbling motility
Write short answers
1. Circling disease
2. Pathogenesis of Listeria.
3. Morphology and biochemical characters of Listeria
4.
Differentiate
between
Listeria
monocytogenes
and
Eryeipelothrix
rhusiopathiae
1. Enumerate the organisms causing abortion in cattle and write in detail about
pathogenesis,
diagnosis and differential diagnosis of listeriosis in cattle.
ERYSIPELOTHRIX
1. Swine erysipelas is caused by __________
2.
Urticarial
form
of
erysipelas
infection
in
pig
is
called
as___________________.
3. In gelatin stab culture E.rhusiopathiae gives _________ type of growth.
4. Experimental animals for erysipelas for _______ and _________.
Write True or False
1. In TSI E. rhusiopathiae gives R/Y/H2S* reaction
14
2. E.rhusiopathiae is easily destroyed by salting and smoking of meat.

3. In swine erysipelas serotypes la, 1 b and 2 are most frequently implicated.
4. Vegetative endocarditis in pigs is caused by E.rhusiopathiae.
5. In Erysipelas infection the bacterium present in deeper parts of the skin.
Write short notes
1. Diamond skin disease
Write short answers
1. Specimens for erysipelas infection
2. Cultural characters of E.rhusiopathiae
CORYNEBACTERIUM
1. The renale group of corynebacteria are ___________, ________ and
_____________.
2. Caseous lymphadenitis in sheep is caused by __________.
3. Corynebacterium metachromatic granules are called as ____________.
4. To demonstrate corynebacterium granules ________ and ________
stains are commonly used.
5. On blood agar salmon pink pigmentation is produced by __________.
6. All corynebacteria ferment sugars except_________.
7. All corynebacteria are urease positive except ______________.
8. The major toxins of R.equi are __________ and _________.
9.
Corynebacterium
bovis
grow
very
well
in
media
enriched
with
______________.
Write True or False
1. Preisz-Nocard bacillus causes ulcerative lymphangitis in horses.
2. In corynebacterium a complete separation of the daughter cells results in
Chinese letter appearance.
3. Rhodococcus equi is capsulated and acid fast.
15
4. Corynebacterium renale groups are haemolytic.

5. In CAMP test, Rhodococcus equi inhibit the staphylococcal haemolysis.
6. On nutrient agar C.renale and C.pilosum produce yellow pigment colonies.
7. Corynebacterium bovis is a lipophilic.
Write short notes
1. Babes Ernst granules
2. Albert stain
3. Diptheroids
4. Schick test
5. Isolation and identification of Coryenbacteria
Write short answers
1. Ulcerative lymphangitis
2. Caseous lymphangitis
ACTINOMYCES
1. Actinimyces bovis causes _________ in Horses
2. The pale yellow granules of actinomyces lesions are refered as
_______________
3. Gram positive bacteria which able to grow as branching filaments
________________
Write True or False
1. Lumpy jaw in cattle is caused by Ray fungus
2. Actinomyces produce endospore or conidia; hence it is referred as ray
fungus.
3. Actinomyces grow very well in SDA.
4. Actinomyces bovis is a capnophilic
5. In CAMP test A.bovis gives very clear zone of compelte haemolysis.
6. A. pyogenes infection occur most frequently in heifer and dry cows
16
during summer months. Hence, it is named as summer mastitis.

7. Pitting of loeffler serum slope is characteristic of A.pyognes.
8. A.pyogens causes wooden tongue in cattle.
9. The causative agent of summer mastitis grow very well on blood agar
Write short notes
1 .Ray fungus
2. Lumpy jaw
3. Poll evil
4. Summer mastitis
Write Short answers
1. Cultural characters of Actinomyces bovis
2. Diagnosis of Actinomycosis in cattle.
3. Pathogenesis of Actinomycosis
NOCARDIA
1. To pathogenic species of Nocardia are ________ and __________.
2. Bovine farcy is cause by __________________.
Write True or False
1. Nocardia form vegetative or aerial hyphae
2. The genera Corynebacterium, Mycobacterium, Nocardia and Rhodococcus
have common
antigens
3. Nocardia is partially acid fast.
Write short notes
1. Bovine farcy
Write Short answers
1. Difference between Actinomyces and Nocardia.
17
MYCOBACTERIA
1. The cell walls of mycobacteria are rich in ______
2.
Runyan
classified
atypical
mycobacteria
into
__________
and
______________.
3. Slowly growing non-chromogenic mycobacteria are _______ and
_____________.
4. ________ is called as Timothy grass bacillus
5.
The
acid-fast
property
of
mycobacterium
was
discovered
by
______________.
6. M.paratuberculosis was first described by _____________.
7. Bundle of faggots is characteristic of _____________.
8. The generation time of M.tuberculosis is ________________.
9. In liquid media, virulent strains of M.tuberculosis are often arranged as
10.
Most
commonly
used
media
for
Mycobacteria
are
______
&____________.
11. In Lowenstein Jensen medium _____ dye is used as the selective agent.
12. LJ medium with high amount glycerol is useful for isolation of _____________
13. Luxurient growth of M.tuberculosis on LJ medium is known as ______
14. Isolation of Mycobacteria _______ and _______ siderophores are
required.
15. The mycobacterium may remain alive in droplet nuclei for ______ days.
16. The cell wall of the mycobacteria composed of ______, ______ and
______
17.
Haematogenous
spread
of
tubercle
results
_______
tuberculosis
18. In acid fast method ______ stain is commonly used.
19. Suitable specimens for tuberculosis are _____ and ________.
18
form
of
20. Commonly used decontaminating agents for tuberculosis specimens

are ______ and________.
Write True or False
1. Mycobacteria means fungus like bacteria
2. MOTT causes tuberculosis in man and animals
3. M.Phlei is non-cultivable mycobacteria
4. Tuberculus spinal lesions were found in Egyptian mummies
5. The term tubercle was coined by Francis sylvius.
6. Koch's postulates is based on tubercle bacillus
7. Leprosy bacillus is also known as Hansen bacillus.
8. Beaded apperance is characteristic of M.avium.
9. M.tuberculosis is motile and capsulated organism.
10. Fatty acids in culture media enhance the growth of M.tuberulosis.
11. The growth of M.bovis is inhibited by Glycerol.
12. Stone brink medium incorporated with sodium pyruvate is useful for
isolation of M.bovis.
13. The growth pattern of M. bovis in glycerol containing media is known as
eugonic.
14. The bacilli M.tuberculosis in sputum may remain alive for 20 -30hrs.
15. The virulence of mycobacteria depends on the total % of cell wall mycoli
acid.
16. Mycobacteria are not transmitted through genital tract.
17. Miliary tuberculosis is more common in deer.
18. In pigs, tuberculous lesions are mostly seen in vertebrate and long bones.
19. Digestion or liquefaction of mucus specimens for tuberculosis results in
destruction of
microorganism.
Write short notes
1.MOTT
19
2. Card factor
3. Koch's Postulates
4. Hansen bacillus
5. Timothy grass bacillus
6. Siderophores
7. Tubercle
8. Bundle of faggots
9. Eugonic/dysgonic
10. Milaiary tuberculosis
11. Stone brink medium
12. Short thermal test
13. PPD
14. Tuberculin
15. Antiformin
16. Acid fast stain
17. Mycolic acid.
18. DID
Write Short answers
1. Classification of Mycobacteria
2. Morphology and Cultural characters of Mycobacteria
3. Tuberculosis
4. Pathogenesis of Tuberculosis
5. Diagnosis of M.tuberculosis
6. Diagnosis of M.bovis
7. Different types of Tuberculin test
8. Specimens for tuberculosis infection.
9. Basis of acid fast staining
1. List the mycobacterial species associated with infection in animals. Describe
20
in detail the techniques for isolation, identification and classification of the

same.
2.
Classification,
morphology,
cultural
characters
and
diagnosis
of
M.tuberculosis
3. Briefly describe morphological, staining, cultural characters, pathogenicity,
diagnosis, differential diagnosis and control of tuberculosis in cattle and fowl.
ESCHERICHIA COLI
1. The presence of E.coli in water samples is a evidence of ______________.
2. White Scours in calves caused by _____________
3. Odema disease in pigs caused by _____________
4. On MacConkey agar E.coli produce ______ colonies.
5. E.coli produces characteristic metallic sheen colonies _______ agar.
6. The strains of E.coli are serotyped based on ______, _________ and
________ antigens.
7. ETEC produced ________ and _________ enterotoxins
8. EIEC released the siderophore named as _____________
Write True or False
1. Coliforms are non-lactose fermenters
2. E.coli causes watery mouth in neonatal lambs
3. Hjarre's disease in poultry is caused by Salmonella pullorum
4. E.coli is motile with peritrichous flagella
5. E.coli is very weak lactose fermenter
6. Pathogenic E.coli are non haemolytic
7. E.coli gives IMViC +,+,_,_.
8. F antigens are absent in E.coli
9. The endotoxin of E.coli plays a major role in coliform mastitis.
21
10. Shiga like toxins 2 is responsible for odema disease in pigs.

11. ETEC strain K88, K99 releases enterotoxins responsible for neonatal
colibacillosis.
Write short notes
1. White Scours
2. Watery mouth
3. Odema disease
4. Coliforms
5. Padding puppy syndrome
6. Hjarre's disease
7. Mushy yolk disease
8. IMViC
9. Colibacillosis
10. Colisepticaemia
11.Coligranuloma
12. MacConkey agar
13. Verotoxins
Write Short answers
1. Classification of Pathogenic E.coli
2. Toxins and virulence factors of E.coli
3. Pathogenicity of E.coli
4. Antigens of E.coli
1. Describe the morphology, cultural and biochemical characters and diagnosis
of Escherichia coli.
SALMONELLA
1. Samonella gallinarum causes ______ in all ages of chickens
2. Selective enriched media for salmonella are ______, ______ and
22
______
3. On MacConkey agar Salmonella are______________.
4. Vi antigen presents in _______, ______ and ______ species of
salmonella
5. H-O variation of Salmonella can be demonstrated by using _______
tube.
6. After repeated subculturing the S.typhi loses its Vi antigen, hence, it is
called as _______
7. Based on biochemical reaction Reeves classified salmonella into___________
and ______.
8.
Serological
classification
of
salmonella
was
done
by
________________________.
9. Media, which are commonly used for isolation of salmonella, are
____________ and _______________________.
Write True or False
1. Fowl typhoid is caused by S.pullorum
2. S.typhimurium causes fowl paratyphoid
3. S.enteritidis and S .typhimurium associated with food poisoning in humans
4. Among Salmonella, H-O variation is commonly occur in S.gallinarum
5. The species salmonella currently comprise about 2300 serotypes
6. Rappaport is highly suitable for salmonella of poultry and swine
7. The typical reaction of Salmonella in TSI agar is R/Y/ H 2S
8. The S.cholera suis produces H 2S abundantly in TSI.
9. The H antigen of S.pullorum is antigenic.
10. Vi antigen of salmonella is also called as Boivin antigen
11. Phase variation of salmonella is mainly due to flagellar antigens.
12. The phase I antigens of S.pullorum and S.gallinarum are g, m.
13. Vertical transmission is very common in salmonellosis in poultry
Write short notes
23
1. Bacillary white diarrhoea

2. Pullorum disease
3. Fowl typhoid
4. Selenite broth
5. TSI agar
6. Boivin antigen
7. Vi antigen
8. Kauffmann white scheme
9. V-W variation.
Write Short answers
1. Cultural characters of Salmonella
2. Classification of salmonella
3. Kauffmann -white scheme of Salmonella
4. Antigens and toxins of Salmonella
5. Antigenic variations of Salmonella
6. Salmonellosis in poultry.
7. Typing of salmonella organisms
1. Decribe the morphology, cultural, biochemical characters and diagnosis
of Salmonellae.
2. Write in detail about Salmonella infections in Poultry.
3. Write in detail about the morphology, cultural characteristics, antigenic
structure, pathogenesis and diagnosis of pullorum disease.
KLEBSIELLA
1. _________________ is called as Friedlander's bacillus.
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae produce __________ in pigs.
24
3. The characteristic feature of Klebsiella pneumoniae is __________.

4. On Macconkey agar, Klebsiella pneumoniae produce _______ colonies
Write True or False
1. The capsule of Friedlander's bacillus is made up of poly-D-glutamic acid
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae usually produce rough colonies
Write short answers
1. Friedlander's bacillus
2. Differentiate Klebsiella pneumoniae and E.coli based on biochemical
characters.
YERSINIA
1. Pseudotuberculosis in guineapigs caused by __________________.
2. Y.pestis causes __________ in man and rodents
3. Bubonic plaque is mainly spread through _______
4. Y.pseudotuberculosis are non motile at 37C but motile at ______________.
5. Y.pseudotuberculosis is classified based on ______antigen and Y.pestis is
classified based on _________.
Write True or False
1. In human pulmonary plaque spreads mainly through rat flea
2. Capsule of Y.pestis is more prominent in cultures.
3. Y.pestis grows very well in Macconkey's bile salt medium.
Write short answers
1. Pseudotuberculosis in guineapigs
2. Differentiate Yersinia and Pasteurella.
MOREXELLA
1. Bovine kerato conjuctivitis is caused by ____________.
2. Pink eye in cattle is caused by_____________.
25
3.
Morexella
bovis
arranged
in
pairs,
hence
they
are
referred
as
__________________.
4. Morexella generally found in _________ of cattle.
Write True or False
1. Morexella bovis required X and V factors for growth
2. On blood agar the causative agent of pink eye produce beta haemolysis
Write short answers
1. Bovine kerato conjuctivits
2. Pink eye
PASTEURELLA
1. P.multocida type A causes _______
2. Selective medium for P.multocida is _________________.
3. On nutrient agar P.multocida produces characteristic _________ odour.
4. Carter's classified P.multocida into five serotypes based on _____
antigens.
5. Classification of P. haemolytica biotypes based on the fermentation of
______
and___________.
Write True or False

1. Shipping fever in cattle is caused by P.haemolytica biotype A
2. P.multocida type D causes atrophic rhinitis in pigs.
3. New duck disease in ducks is caused by Rimerella anatipestifer.
4. The name Pasteurellacea was proposed by Pasteur.
5. When stained with gram's stain pasteurella exhibits bipolar character.
6. P.multocida is very strong haemolytic.
7. P.multocida grows very well on Macconkey agar
8. P.multocida type E : 6 cause haemorrhagic septicaemia in Africa.
Write short notes
1. Fowl cholera
26
2. Haemorrhagic septicaemia
3. New duck disease
4. Bipolar staining
5. Shipping fever.
Write Short answers
1. Antigens of Pasteurella
2. Pathogenesis of shipping fever
3. Cultural characters of Pasteurella
4. Fowl cholera.
1. Describe the morphology, cultural and biochemical characters and diagnosis of
Pasteurella multocida
2. Write in detail about the morphology, cultural characteristics, antigenic
structure, pathogenesis and diagnosis of haemorrhagic septicaemia.
ACTINOBACILLUS
1. Morse code appearance is characteristic of ____________.
2. Timber tongue in cattle is caused by ______________.
3.
In
media
containing
fermentable
carbohydrates
actinobacillus
characteristic
__________ form.
Write True or False
1. Actinobacillus equli cause sleepy foal disease.
2. Actinobacillus pluropneumonia is capsulated and catalase positive.
3. Actinobacillus are IMViC +ve
4. In CAMP test actinobacillus gives positive reaction.
5. Lumpy jaw in cattle is caused by Actinobacillus bovis.
Write short notes
27
gives
1. Morse code form

2. Wooden tongue
3. Sleepy foal disease
Write Short answers
1. Bovine actinobacillosis
2. Morphology of actinobacillus
3. Pathogenesis of wooden tongue.
HAEMOPHILUS
1. Haemophilus required growth factors _________ and _______ present
in blood.
2.
The
most
suitable
media
for
isolation
of
Haemophilus
is
______________.
3. Levinthal medium is useful for the isolation of ___________________.
4.
To
demonstrate
satellitism
of
Haemophilus
and
Staphylococcus
_________ agar is required.

5. Preservation of haemophilus can be achieved by _________________.
6. Among Haemophilus ___________ and _________ species required
both X and V factor.
7. Based on Immunodiffusion test sofar ___________ serotypes of
H.parasuis and ____________ serotypes of H.paragallinarum have been
recognized.
8. The clinical materials for Haemophilus can be best preserved by
___________.
9. Glasser's disease in Pigs is caused by ______________.
Write True or False
1. Haemophilus means blood-loving bacteria
2. H.paragallinarum causes CRD in poultry.
28
3. H.somnus causes sleepers in cattle

4. The causative agent of infectious coryza required both X and V factor for their
growth.
5. H.somnus grows very well on blood agar.
6. Staphylococcus aureus synthesize X factor which is required for growth of
haemophilus.
7. Chocolate agar contain X factor only.
8. Haemophilus species are more resistant to environment.
9. H.somnus required both X and V factor for their growth.
10. H.paragallinarum and H.parasuis required only V factor for their growth.
11. Haemophilus are readily destroyed at 0C to 4C
12. H.somnus required both X and V factor for their growth.
13. Polyserositis is more common in Glassers disease of pigs.
14. Reproductive failure is more common in cattle due to H.somnus infection.
15. The X factor is heat stable and V factor is heat labile
Write short notes
1. TEME
2. Sleepers
3. Glasser's disease
4. X and V factor
5. Levinthals medium
6. Filde's agar
7. Satellitism
8. Chocolate agar
9. Preservation of haemophilus species.
Write Short answers
1. Enumerate Haemophilus species with their X and V factor requirement
2. Satelitism
3. Infectious coryza in poultry
29
4. Glassers disease in pigs

5. Cultural characters of haemophilus.
PSEUDOMONAS
I. Fill up the blanks with suitable words
1. Agar which contain ___________ is the selective media for P.aeruginosa
2. On nutrient agar, Pseudomonas aeruginosa gives a characteristic
________ odour
due to the production of ___________.
3. Pigments, which are produced by P.aeruginosa, are ____________,
____________, _______________ and __________________.
4. On nutrient agar, Pseudomonas pseudomallei give a characteristic
_________________
odour due to production-of ___________.
5. On nutrient agar, the
corrugated, honey comb surface
colonies
produced by
6. Microorganisms grow very well in antiseptic lotions are ____
7. Three forms of glanders are _______, ________ and
Write True or False
1. Pseudomonas mallei is motile
2. Pseudoglanders is also called as melioidosis
3. Melioidosis is caused by P.mallei
4. Loefflerelle mallei causes glanders in horses
5. Pfeiferella mallei causes strangles in horses
6. Pseudomonas pseudomallei is peritrichous
7. The pigment production of P.aeruginosa is best demonstrated on nutrient
agar.
8. The pigment pyocyanin is produced only by P.aeruginosa
9. The only pseudomonas grow very well on Macconkey agar is P.mallei.
30
10. Pigments of P.aeruginosa has bacteriocins activity.

11. Pseudomonas is resistant to wide range of antimicrobial drugs.
12. P.mallei mostly affects cattle and pigs.
13. Straus reaction is confirmatory test for diagnosis of pseudomonas infection.
14. Mallein is a glycoprotein extracted from the P.pseudomallei.
15. In straus reaction female guinea pigs are most commonly used.
Write short notes
1. Straus reaction
2. Mallein test
3. Farcy
4. Glanders
5. Fleece rot
6. White more's bacillus
7. Pseudoglanders
8. Pigments of Pseudomonas.
Write Short answers
1. Cultural, biochemical and resistance characters of Pseudomonas
2. Pseudomonas pigments
3. Mallein test
4. Pathogenesis and symptoms of glanders.
5. Pathogenesis of P. aeruginosa infection
6. Diagnosis and treatment of pseudomonas infection.
BRUCELLA
1. Bang's disease in cattle is caused by __________.
2. Undulant fever in human is caused by ____________________.
3. The live attenuated Brucella strain 19 vaccine was developed by ______
4. Stain, which is mostly useful to demonstrate brucella in placental smear, is
31
5. Selective medium for brucella is _______________and_________________.

6. B.abortus survives ____________ days in aborted foetus.
7. Brucella grows very well in the presence of dyes _______ and _______.
8. The Polyhydric alcohol, _______, which presents in allantoic fluid favours
the growth of brucella.
9. The abortion caused by brucella is most commonly occur in __________
month of gestation.
10. In brucellosis, the cotyledons become ________ appearance.
11. In serum agglutination test, the titre __________ is considered as
positive.
12. To detect brucella incomplete antibodies, _______ test is commonly
used.
Write True or False
1. Brucella is aerobic and carboxyphilic
2. Brucella abortus causes Malta fever in human.
3. B.neotomae causes abortion in dogs
4. In brucellosis, bovine cotyledons particularly the cells of chorion are
packed with
Brucella organism.
5. Brucella is partial acid-fast organism
6. Brucella is beta haemolytic on blood agar
7. On IMViC test Brucella gives ++++.
8. Brucella spores are remaining viable many months in ice cream, butter and
milk.
9. The A and M antigens of Brucella are capsular antigens.
10. B.abortus strain 19 is highly virulent
11. B.abortus biotype 3 commonly present in India
12. Erythritol enhances the growth of B.abortus strain 19.
13. The irreversible sterility due to Brucellosis is more common in dogs.
32
14. Straus reaction is confirmatory test for brucella

15. Rose Bengal plate test is a precipitation test.
16. Card test is a brucella-screening test in field.
17. Rivanol precipitation test is useful to detect Primary IgG antibodies of
Brucella
18. The animals recovered from Brucellosis do not get reinfection.
19. Strain 19 B.abortus biotype 1 vaccine is a attenuated, live vaccine.
20. B.abortus strain 19 vaccine is not advisable to female calves.
21. B.melitensis Rev.l. vaccine is a inactivated vaccine.
Write short notes
1. Bang's disease
2. Abortion storm
3. Roster's stain
4. Malta fever
5. Undulant fever
6. B. abortus strain 19
7. TAT
8. ABRT/milk ring test
9. Coombs test
10. Vaginal mucus agglutination test.
11. Whey agglutination test.
12. Rivanol precipitatin test
13. Brucella biotyping.
Write Short answers
1. Cultural characters of Brucella
2. Antigens and biotyping of Brucella
3. Pathogenesis of Brucellosis
4. Diagnosis and control of Brucellosis
5. Explain how brucellosis causes losses to the animal industry.
33
6. How is brucellosis transmitted?

7. Describe the nutritional, biochemical requirement for growth of Brucella
abortus.
8. How is brucellosis in swine identified at slaughter market?
9. Brucella organisms are known to grow and multiply within the host
cell. What other organisms are related to Brucella in this respect? What
host cells are involved?
10. Intracellularly, brucellae organisms mediate what kind of immunity?
11. What are the vitamins requirements for the growth of Brucella? Why
do we not use it in our laboratory exercises?
12. Describe brucellosis in dog.
1. Write in detail about the diagnosis and control of brucellosis in cattle.
2. Enumerate the causative organisms responsible for abortion and describe
the diagnostic techniques to diagnose them.
3. Describe the following serologic test for brucellosis:
a) Milk ring testing
b) Rapid plate agglutination test
c) Compliment fixation test
d) Card test
e) Rose bengal plate test
4. Discuss the brucellosis control and evaluation program in cattle. Why is
it difficult to maintain such a program in swine? What is the public health
significance of brucellosis?
CAMPYLOBACTER
1. Winter dysentery in cattle is caused by ___________.
2. Abortion storm in cattle is caused by _____________.
34
3. ____________ organism gives flying seagull like appearance

4. Campylobacter organisms are motile by __________
5. The subspecies venerealis grouped into two biotypes based on
_______production
6.
The
species
C.fetus
grouped
into
two
subspecies
namely
________and______
7. Thiol medium is commonly used to isolation of ______________.
8.
Medias
commonly
used
to
isolation
of
campylobacters
are______,________, ___________ and ____________.

Write True or False
1. Campylobacter is motile, capsulated and spore forming organism.
2. Campylobacter is microaerophilic.
3. Semen abnormalities are characteristic in bull infected with Campylobacter.
Write short answers
1. Winter dysentery
2. Abortion storm
1. Write the general characters of Campylobacter. Also describe various
species of campylobacter and diseases they cause in livestock and write
in brief about the morphology, cultural characters, pathogenesis,
diagnosis and control of winter dysentery in cattle.
DERAMTOPHIULS
1. Lumpy wool in sheep is caused by __________________
2. Mature filaments of Dermatophilus congolensis are composed of motile
__________________.
3. Most suitable media for cultivation of Deramtophilus congolensis is
__________.
4. Dermatophilosis infection is also called as ________________.
35
5.
Most
suitable
specimen
for
demonstrate
dermatophilosis
is
__________________.
6.
Dermatophilus
congolensis
spores
are
motile
by
_____________________.
Write True or False
1. Dermatophilus congolensis can survive in scab material for periods up
to 3 years
2. The bacterium Dermatophilus congolensis produce aerial mycelium
3. Sabourauds dextrose agar is most suitable to demonstrate mycelial
filaments of
Dermatophilus congolensis.
4. Dermatophilosis is zoonotic
5. Giemsa stain is highly suitable to demonstrate species of dermatophilus
species
6. Zoospores of Dermatophilus congolensis are motile and infective
Write short notes
1. Mycotic dermatitis
2. Strawberry foot rot
3. Dermatophilosis /Streptothricosis
Write short answers
1. Developmental cycle of Deramtophilus congolensis
2. Pathogenesis of Deramtophilus congolensis
3. Morphology of Deramtophilus congolensis
1. Describe in detail about dermatophilosis in sheep
BACTERIODES and FUSOBACTERIUM
1. Thrush in horses is caused by _______________
36
2. __________ & ______________ are examples for non spore forming

anaerobic gram
negative bacteria
3. For cultivation of Fusobacterium necrophorum
and Bacteriodes nodsus
________
H2, _________ Co2 and ___________ N2 are needed to provide
obsolute anaerobic conditions.
4. Bacteriodes melaninogenicus produce black colonies on ___________
agar.
5. Fusobacterium necrophorum produce ____________ colonies on blood
agar.
6. Agar which is suitable to demonstrate lipase activity of Fusobacterium
necrophorum
is _________________.
7. _________________ enzymes produced by Bacteriodes nodosus is
responsible for foot rot lesions.
8. Fusobacterium necrophorum
produces ___________ toxin, which
protects Corynebacterium pyogenes from phagocytosis.

9. Stain which is more useful to demonstrate bacteriodes and fusobacterium
are _______________________.
Write True or False
1. The natural habitat of Bacteriodes nodsus is digital epidermis of sheep
2. Irregular staining is characteristic for Fusobacterium necrophorum
is gram negative, long and filamentous
bacterium
4. Bacteriodes species are sensitive to kanamycin
5. Fusobacterium species are sensitive to kanamycin
6.
All
pathogenic
bacteriodes
species
37
are
catalase
negative
except
Bacteriodes fragilis
produces both exo and endotoxins
8. Bacteriodes nodsus infections are endogenous in origin

Write short notes
1. Foot rot
2. Scald
3. Bull nose
4. Eugon agar
5. Thrush
Write short answers
1. Differential diagnosis of foot rot in sheep
2. Cultural characteristics of Bacteriodes nodosus
3. Morphology of Bacteriodes nodosus
4. Pathogenicity of foot rot
1. Foot rot in animals
2. Give detail account on non spore forming gram negative anaerobic bacterial
infections in animals.
LEPTOSPIRA
1.
Recurrent
iridocytosis
or
moon
blindness
in
horses
is
caused
by
_________________.
2. Among animals ______________ carry most important pathogenic serotypes of
leptospires
3. In leptospirosis animal carriers often excrete _________________ per ml of
urine.
4.
Test
which
is
commonly
used
to
demonstrate
leptospires
is
_________________________.
5. Identification of leptospires growth on media is mainly based on their
38
_____________ &
_______________ under dark field microscope.
6. Serovar and serogroup classification in leptospirosis is mainly based on

______________ antigens
7. In leptospirosis, most suitable specimen for dark field microscope examination is
_______________
8.
Most
suitable
transport
media
for
cultivation
of
leptospires
is
____________________.
9. To detect leptospires under DFM, at least _______________________ number
of leptospires
per ml should be present in the sample.
10. ________________ is useful to preserve morphology of leptospires in urine.
11. ___________________ test uses live leptospires as antigen and are highly
sensitive and serovar specific.
12. Drugs which are effective against leptopsirosis are ______________,
______________ &
_____________.
13. The genus leptospira is divided into two groups namely _______________ &
_________________
14. Leptospirosis causes abortion at ________________ month of gestation in
cattle.
15. Medium which is suitable for the isolation of leptospires from genital tract of
cows is
________________.
16. Generation time of leptospires in laboratory media is _____________ hrs.

Write True or False
1) Leptospira hardjo causes milk drop syndrome, abortion and infertility in cattle
2) Leptospires are naturally present in the proximal convoluted tubules of kidneys
3) Leptospires have two periplasmic flagella and they are non motile
4) Leptospira divide by binary fission
5) Leptospires produce characteristic colonies on the surface of the agar
6) Liquid and semi solid medias are most suitable than solid media for cultivation
39
of leptospires
7) Leptospires are highly resistant to heat, acid and chemicals
8) Infected dogs shed leptospires in their urine for 2-6 hours
9) In pigs venereal transmission of leptospires is more common.
10)
Leptospires able to invade the blood stream more rapidly than other
bacteria
11)
Leptospires withstand 2-3 hrs in acidic urine.
12)
Acute leptospirosis causes abortion in cattle.
13)
Leptospires are intracellular bacteria
14)
Free living and non pathogenic leptospira strains are grouped as
Leptospira biflexa
15)
Leptospira are obligate aerobes and highly fastidious.
Write short notes

1) Stuttgart disease
2) Weils disease / seven day fever
3) Moon blindness
4) Spinning motility
5) Silver impregnation technique
6) EMJH medium
7) Microscopic agglutination test
Write short answers
1) Morphology of leptospires
2) Cultural characteristic of leptospires
3) Diagnosis of leptospires
4) Differential diagnosis of leptospirosis
1) Give detail account on leptospirosis in animals
MYCOPLASMA
40

1. Chronic respiratory disease in chicken caused by _________.
2. Smallest self replicating prokaryotic cells are ___________ and
3. Mollicutes are _____________________and____________________.
4. M.mycoides subsp mycoides causes____________ in cattle
5. Fried egg colonies are produced by _________and _____
6. Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma required ____________ for their growth.
7.
__________
and
___________
stains
are
commonly
used
to
demonstrate mycoplasma organisms from specimens.

8. To demonstrate mycoplasma colonies ___________stain is commonly
used.
9. Mycoplasma produce haemolysis on _________ blood agar
10. In chicken embryo _________ route is suitable for mycoplasma.
11. ___________ is also called as T mycoplamsa.
12. Avian mycoplasmas are mostly transmitted by __________.
13. The minimum reproductive unit of mycoplasma is _________ .
14. ___________ test is useful to demonstrate the requirement of
cholestrol for the growth of mycoplasma.
15. Mycoplasmas are highly sensitive to _________ and _________drugs.
Write True or False
1. Mycoplasma lacks cell wall but rich in muramic acid and diaminopimilic acid.
2. CCPP is caused by Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides
3. Mycoplasma is motile and spore forming bacteria.
4. Filteration is the best method for mycoplasma contamination in cell culture.
5. M.synoviae causes infectious synovitis in ducks.
6. Mycoplasma grow in chicken embryos
7. Mycoplasma required living system for multiplication.
8. Mycoplasma usually produces tiny colonies than Ureaplasma
41
9. Morphology of mycoplasma is best studied under light microscope.

10. All the members of mycoplasmataceae are urease positive.
11. Mycoplasmas are highly susceptible to pencillin
12. Mycoplasamas are capsulated
13. L forms are filterable.
14. L forms are smaller than mycoplasma
15. L forms are non pathogenic.
16. Like mycoplasma, L forms are also required sterols for growth.
17. Acholeplasma is sensitive to digitonin
Write short notes
1. PPLO
2. Diene's stain
3. T-mycoplasma
4. L-forms
5. Enzootic pneumoniae in pigs
6. Mollicutes
7. Fried egg appearance
8. Morphology of mycoplasma
9. CCPP
10. CBPP
11. Infectious synovitis in turkeys
Write short answers
1. Chronic respiratory disease
2. Colony characters of Mycoplasma
3. Difference between mycoplasma and L forms
4. MAKePS syndrome
5. Diagnosis of Mycoplasma
6. Dienes method
42

1. Write the general characters of mycoplasma. Also describe various
species of mycoplasmas and diseases they cause in livestock and write in
brief about the diagnosis of mycoplasma infections.
2. Write in detail about the morphology, cultural characters, pathogenesis,
diagnosis and control of CRD in poultry.
3. Write in detail about the morphology, cultural characters, pathogenesis,
diagnosis and control of CBPP.
RICKETTSIA
1. Potomoac horse fever is caused by _____________________.
2. Grazing fever in cattle is caused by ________________________.
3.
The
sharing
of
antigens
between
___________________
&
_______________
species is the basis for Weil-Felix reaction.
4. Primary reservoir for Q fever infection is ____________________.
5. In cattle and sheep predilection sites for Coxiella burnetti are
______________ & _______________.
6. Heart water in cattle is mainly transmitted by ____________________.
7. Laboratory animals most suitable for primary isolations are ________ &
___________.
8. Suitable specimens for diagnosis of Coxiella burnetti are __________,
___________ & ______________.
Write True or False
1. Rickettsiales required living cells for multiplication
2. Rickettsiales divide by binary fission
3. Rickettsiales possess both DNA and RNA
43
4. Rickettsiales can be seen under the light microscope

5. Q fever is transmitted by Brown dog tick
6. Rickettsiales survive very well in outside of the host
7. Q-fever causes abortion in sheep, goats and cattle
8. Weil-Felix reaction is a precipitation test.
Match the following
1. Epidemic typhus
a. Rochalimae quintana
2. Endemic typhus
b. Rickettsiae tsutsugamusi
3. Rocky mountain spotted fever
c. Rickettsiae ricketsii
4. Scrub typhus
d. Rickettsiae mooseri
5. Trench fever
e. Rickettsiae prowazekii
Write Short notes

1. Epidemic typhus
2. Trench fever
3. Endemic typhus
4. Weil-Felix reaction
Write Short answers
1. Q-fever
2. Heart water
3. Salmon poisoning
1. Classify Rickettsiae. Describe briefly their general properties and
diagnosis of Rickettsiosis.
2. Describe briefly etiology, cultivation, pathogenicity of heart water
disease in cattle together with diagnosis and control.
3. Describe in detail about pathologically significant species of Rickettsia.
4. Write in detail about the etiology, cultivation, pathogenicity and
diagnosis of Q fever.
5. Describe briefly etiology, cultivation, pathogenicity of heart water
44
disease in cattle together with diagnosis and control.

CHLAMYDIA
1.
Chlamydiae
referred
as
basophilic
virus
because
it
produces
_____________ in infected cells.

2. Chlamydiae infection in psittacine birds is called as _____________ and
infection in non psittacine birds is called as ___________.
3. Two forms of chlamydiae are ______________ & ________________.
4. Stain which is most suitable to demonstrate elementary bodies of
chlamydiae is
_________________.
5. ________________ stain is useful to demonstrate basophilic intra

cytoplasmic aggregates of chlamydiae psittaci in smears from conjuctival
swabs.
6. Chlamydial organisms may shed in ___________ of carrier animals.
7. In case of chronic abortion in ewes, abortion moct commonly occur in
_____________ of pregnancy.
8. In avian psittacosis, chalmydiae psittaci multiply in organs like
__________ and ______________ and shed in _____________.
Write True or False
1. Chlamydiae required living system for multiplication
2. Chlamydiae multiply by binary fission
3. Chlamydiae processes both DNA and RNA
4. Chlamydiae are resistant to antibiotics
5. Bedsoniae agents mainly affect psittacine birds
6. Chlamydiae are gram negative organism
7. Chlamydial elementary bodies are shed in the semen
8. In Chlamydial infection vertical infection is most common in animals.
45
Write short notes

1. Energy parasites
2. Psittacosis
3. Ornithosis
4. Bedsonian agents
5. Elementary bodies
6. Reticulate bodies
7. LCL bodies
8. BUSS disease
Write short answers
1. Developmental cycle of chlamydiae
2. Cultivation of chlamydiae
3. Pathogenesis of chlamydiae
1. Describe briefly etiology, cultivation, diagnosis and control of Psittacosis
and Ornithosis.
2. Write an essay on Psittacosis Ornithosis and different types of
chlamydial infections.
3. Write in detail about multiplication of Chlamydia. Also write about
pathogenicity and diagnosis of Chlamydia psittaci.
VETERINARY MYCOLOGY
CANDIDIASIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Canididae species which, associated with diseases in animals is
__________.
2. Poultry candidiosis is also called as __________________.
3.
Most
suitable
specimen
for
________________.
46
diagnosis
of
candidiosis
is
Write TRUE or FALSE

1. Candidiasis of the alimentary tract is often referred as thrush
2. Bovine abortion is caused by Candida parapsilosis
3. Candida albicans causes pyometra in mare.
4. Avian moniliasis is a cutaneous mycotic infection
5. Candida species are commonly present in the crop of birds.
6. In gram stained smears Candida albicans appear as purple blue yeast
cell.
7. Candida albicans grow very well in Sabourauds dextrose agar with
cycloheximide
8. All the candida species produce chlamydospore on corn meal agar.
Write short notes
1. Moniliasis
2. Biggy agar
3. Dalmus technique
4. Germ tube test
Write short answers
1. Diagnosis of candidiosis infection in animals
2. Avian moniliaisis
3. Pathogenesis of candidiosis
1. Explain in detail about candidiosis in animals and birds.
2. Enumerate the important species belonging to genus Candida in
veterinary mycology. Explain in detail about avian candidiasis.
RHINOSPORIDIASIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Fungus which produce large polyps or wart like lesions on the nasal
mucous membrane of animals is ____________.
47
2. Occurrence of rhinosporidiosis is more common in countries like

__________ & _______________.
3. The primary lesion of rhinosporidiosis is _________________.
4. Only method for diagnosis of rhinosporidiosis is _______________ .
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. Rhinosporidiasis is a systemic mycosis
2. Rhinosporidiasis is more common in male animals
3. The primary lesions of Rhinosporidiasis is polyps
4. The natural habitat of the Rhinosporidium seebri is stagnant water.
5. Rhinosporidium seebri grows very well in Sabourauds dextrose agar.
6. Rhinosporidium seebri can be cultivated in laboratory animals
7. Rhinosporidium seebri is zoonotic.
8. Rhinosporidium seebri produce water like lesions only on the nasal
mucus membranes.
Write short answers
1. Rhinosporidiosis in cattle
1. Explain in detail about European blastomycosis.
2. Write brief essay on rhinosporidiosis.
CRYPTOCOCCOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Stains which used to demonstrate capsule of C.neoformans are
__________ &
______________.
2. _____________ agar is most suitable for demonstration of capsule of

C. neofromans.
3. On bird seed agar C. neofromans produce ______________ colonies
after incubate the plate at 370C for 7 days.
48
4.
The
main
route
of
cryptococcosis
infection
in
animal
is
______________.
5.
On
gross
examination,
cryptococcal
lesions
resemble
________________.
6. C. neofromans causes _______________ in cattle.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. Cryptococcus neoformans causes nasal granuloma in horses
2. Cryptococcus neoformans causes meningitis in cattle
3. Cryptococcus neoformans yeast cells are gram negative
4. Cryptococcus neoformans causes meningitis in pigeons
5. Cryptococcus neoformans survive in pigeon droppings for more than a
year.
6. All cryptococcus species are pathogenic.
7. Cryptococcus neoformans is highly urease positive.
8. Crptococcus infection in optic nerve results in blindness
9. The virulence of Cryptococcus neoformans is associated with the unique
enzyme diphenol oxidase.
10.
Mice are highly susceptible to Cryptococcus neoformans.
11.
Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for cryptococccl infection.
Write short notes

1. Bird seed agar
Write short answers
1. Pathogenesis of torulosis
2. Cultural characters of C. neoformans
1. Discuss morphology, cultural characters, pathogenicity and treatment of
Cryptococcus neoformans.
49
ASPERGILLOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Most favourable conditions for occurrence of spread of avian aspergillosis
are
________________ & _____________.
2. Most suitable media for cultivation of aspergillosis is _______________.

3. _______________ & _______________ are predisposing factors for
aspergillosis.
4.
Identification
of
___________________
different
aspergillus
species
is
based
on
and ______________.
5. ______________ is a primary pathogen causes placentitis and ring worm

like
lesions in cattle
6. Test which commonly used to demonstrate conidiospores of aspergillus

species
is _______________.
Write TRUE or FALSE

1. Chronic Aspergillosis in avian species is called as Brooders pneumonia
2. Cycloheximide should never been incorporated in the SDA for the
cultivation of aspergillus species.
3. Aspergillus has the ability to penetrate the egg and infect the embryo.
4. Aspergillosis has very short incubation period.
5. Fungal balls are mostly produced by A.flavus than A. niger.
6. Abortion in cattle caused by A.fumigatus is most commonly occur in
first trimester
Write short notes
1. Mycotic abortion
2. Fungus ball
3. Pneumomycosis
Write short answers
1. Brooder pneumonia
50
2. Pathogenesis of aspergillosis
3. Mycotic abortion in cattle
4. Diagnosis and differential diagnosis of aspergillosis in cattle.
1. Describe in detail about in aspergillosis in animals.
2. Write in detail about natural habitat, cultivation, pathogenesis,
diagnosis, prevention and treatment of aspergillosis in animals.
3. Describe about etiological agents of aspergillotoxicosis in animals and
birds.
4. Differentiate Aspergillus and Penicillium on the basis of cultural and
morphological characteristics with suitable diagram and describe the
disease produced by Aspergillus fumigates.
5. Describe the life cycle of sexual and asexual methods of development of
Aspergillosis species.
MYCOTOXIN AND MYCOTOXICOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Fungal toxin are referred to as _____________ and the disease they
produced are termed as ______________.
2. Ocharotoxin is produced by _____________________.
3.
Target
organs/
tissues
for
aflatoxins
are
____________
&
______________.
4.
The
only
acceptable
evidence
of
mycotoxicosis
in
animals
______________.
5. In horses and dokeys fumonisin B1 causes ____________________.
6. Animals which most commonly affected by ocharotoxicosis are
_____________ & __________________.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. A single fungus can produce different mycotoxins
51
is
2. Same mycotoxin can be produced by different fungi

3. Fusarium species produce toxin at freezing temperature
4. Trichothecane toxin (t-2) is produced by Aspergillus nidulans.
5. Mycotoxins are activated at low concentrations
6. The target organ for sporidesmin toxin is digestive system
7. Mycotoxicosis is infectious but not contagious
8. Antibiotics are effective against mycotoxicosis
9. Oestrogenism in pigs is caused by Zearalenone toxins.
Match the following
1. Turkey X disease
2. Citrinin
a) Fumosins B1
b) Claviceps purpura
3. Sterigmatocyosin
c) Aflatoxins
4. Ochratoxin
d) Urinary system
5. Vascular system
e) Aspergillus versicolor
6. Ergotism
f) Pencillium citrinum
7. Leukoencephalomalacia
g) Aflatoxicosis
Write short notes

1. Turkey x disease
2. Facial eczema
3. Oestrogenism
4. Mycotoxicosis
Write short answers
1. General features of mycotoxin formation
2. Characteristics of mycotoxins
3. Clinical features of mycotoxicoses
4. Mycotoxicosis of domestic animals and poultry.
1. Give detail account on mycotoxins and mycotoxicosis in animals.
52
AFLATOXICOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. The name aflatoxin derives from ___________________
2. Aflatoxins are produced by fungal strains of ______________ &
___________.
3. Important symptoms of acute toxicity of aflatoxins are ___________ &
_____.
4. In dairy cattle aflatoxins _______ & _______ are excreted in the milk
5. Concentration of aflatoxin B1 in excess of ___________ /kg of feed are
considered toxic for cattle.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. High humidity and high temperature favors the growth and toxin
production of Aspergillus flavus.
2. Aflatoxins are bisfuranocumans compounds
3. Aftatoxins are named according to their position and fluorescent color on
thin layer chromatography.
4. In Aflatoxicosis, the primary target organ is kidney.
5. Aflatoxin B1 is the most hepatogenic
6. Among animals, sheep are highly susceptible to aflatoxicosis
7. Ducklings are highly susceptible to aflatoxicosis.
8. Aflatoxins M1 and M2 are hydroxylated metabolites of G1 and G2 toxins.
Write short notes
1. Aflatoxins
2. Aflatoxicosis
Write short answers
1. Biological effects of aflatoxins
2. Diagnosis of aflatoxicosis
1. Describe briefly etiology, pathogenicity and prevention of aflatoxicosis
53
affecting many species of animals.

DERMATOPHYTOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Dermatophytes infections from soil to animal are referred to as
____________.
2. Detailed work on systematic and scientific studies of the dermatophytes
was done by _____________.
3. Ring worm of the body is called as __________________.
4.
Most
effective
drug
against
dermatophytosis
in
small
animal
is
____________
5. Demratophytes species are identified mainly based on __________ &
_______
6. Dermatophytes produce green fluorescence in skin and hair due to the
presence of ____________ metabolism.
7. Important virulence factor of dermatophytes is ________________.
8. Enzymes which determine virulence of dermatophytes are __________,
__________ & _____________.
9. In dermatophytosis two types of hair invasions are ___________ &
_________
10. In dermatophytosis specimens for culture and examinations should
always be collected from the ______________ lesions.
11. On dermatophyte test medium samples suspected for T. verrucosum
should be incubated at _____________.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. Dermatophyte infections are called as tinea
2. Dermatophyte infections are contagious
3. Dermatophyte infections from animal to human are referred as
anthropophilic
54
4. Most of the animal dermatophytes are mostly found only on animals

except
Microsporum gypseum.
5. Ascopsores are absent in parasitic phase of dermatophytes.
6. Dermatophytes utilize keratin as a food source.
7. The infectious unit of dermatophytes is conidia
8. Arthroconidia develop outside the hairshaft is called as endothrix
9. Kerions are more common in dogs.
10. Ring worm infection in nail is called as tinea unguium.
11. Dermatophytosis infect deeper tissues
12. Dermatophytes causes systemic mycosis in dogs.
Write short notes
1. Ring worm / tinea
2. Dermatophytosis
3. Arthropsores
4. id reations
5. Kerions
6. Fowl favus / white comb
Write short answers
1. Morphology of dermatophytes
2. Zoophilic dermatophytes
3. Different types of tineas
4. Pathogenesis of dermatophytes
1. Explain in detail about dermatophytosis in animals.
2. Describe in detail about laboratory diagnostic methods in Dermatomycoses.
3. Describe in details the etiology, diagnosis and prevention of dermatophytosis
in animals.
4. What are the different genera present in the dermatomycoses?. How will you
55
identify the organisms with morphological structure when exam under the
microscope
HISTOPLASMOSIS
CLASSICAL HISTOPLASMOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Histoplasma capsulatum var capsulatum is facultative, intra cellular
parasites of ____________ cells.
2. Among animals, ___________ is highly susceptible to darlings disease.
3. Fungus which cause chronic, granulamtous, tuberculous type lesions in
animals is ____________.
4. In animals, histoplasmosis infection usually occurs through __________
and ___________ of spores.
5. Histological stains used to demonstration of Histoplasma capsulatum
organism in infected macrophages are ____________ & ____________.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. Histoplasma capsulatum has been isolated from soil in bat caves
2. Birds are highly susceptible to infection caused by Histoplasma
capsulatum.
3. Histoplasma capsulatum is not contagious
4. Mice are most suitable laboratory animal for isolation of Histoplasma
capsulatum.
5. Haemoptysis is the predominant symptom in Histoplasma capsulatum
infections.
6. In Histoplasma capsulatum infection, skin test is highly suitable for
detecting active disease.
7. Epithelioid and giant cell granulomas of the lung are characteristic.
Write short notes
1. Darlings disease
2. Reticuloendothelial cytomycosis
56
Write short answers

1. Calssical histoplasmosis
EPIZOOTIC LYMPHANGITIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Epizootic lymphangitis mainly affects __________, ___________ &
_______.
2. On Sabourauds dextrose agar, Histoplamsa farciminosum produce
__________________________________________ colonies.
3. In epizootic lymphangitis of horses pyogranulamatous most commonly
develop in __________, __________ & ___________ regions.
4. Cutaneous form of Histoplasma farciminosum infection in horses is
called as
_____________________.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. Histoplasma capsulatum causes epizootic lymphangitis in horses.
2. Epizootic lymphangitis is a cutaneous mycosis
3. The saprophytic stage of Histoplasma farciminosum is mycelia form
4. Histoplasma farciminosum may survive for up to ten weeks in non
sterile water at 260C.
5. Histoplasma farciminosum is viable & virulent after desiccation for 25
months
6. Horses more than six years of age are highly susceptible to infection
caused by
Histoplasma farciminosum.
7. Epizootic lymphangitis is a contagious disease.
8. Musca spp and Stomoxys spp flies act as vectors for epizootic
lymphangitis infection
9. Incubation period for epizootic lymphangitis is several weeks to six
57
months.
10. Opthalmic form of epizootic lymphangitis is more common.
11. Histoplasma farciminosum is a gram negative organism.
12. Mice are highly suitable lab animal for demonstration of Histoplasma
farciminosum.
Write short notes
1. Epizootic lymphangitis
Write short answers
1. Different forms of epizootic lymphangitis
2. Diagnosis of epizootic lymphangitis
3. Cultural characters of epizootic lymphangitis
4. Differential diagnosis of epizootic lymphangitis in horses.
1. Briefly describe morphological, cultural characters and pathogenicity of
Histoplasma farcinosum in equidae together with diagnosis.
2. Discuss in details the etiology, pathogenicity and diagnosis of epizootic
lymphangitis.
3. Describe in detail about Histoplasma farciminosum. Name the other
diseases of equines, which can be confused with epizootic lymphangitis.
How can they be differentiated from one another?
COCCIDIOIDOMYCOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1.
Agars
suitable
for
cultivation
of
Coccidioides
immitis
are
______________ & __________________.

2. A dimorphic fungus which grows more quickly than other dimorphic
pathogens is _____________________.
3. Coccidioidomycosis infection mainly occurs through ______________ .
58
Write TRUE or FALSE

1. Coccidioides immitis is the most virulent among the fungal pathogen.
2. Dogs are highly susceptible to Coccidioidomycosis.
3. Coccidioides immitis is a dimorphic fungus.
4. Barrel shaped arthroconidia alternating with empty disjuncture cells is
characteristic.
5. Arthroconidia is readily susceptible to heat and drying
6. Primary cutaneous infections are very common in Coccidioidomycosis.
7.
Male
dogs,
to
years
of
age
are
highly
resistant
to
Coccidioidomycosis.
8. Young boxer and Doberman pinschers are highly susceptible to
Coccidioidomycosis.
9. Cats are highly susceptible than dogs to Coccidioidomycosis.
Write short notes
1. Coccidioidin
2. Spherulin
3. Arthro aluerospores
Write short answers
1. Coccidioidomycosis
SPOROTRICHOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Sporotrichosis is caused by ___________________.
2. In horses, sporotrichosis must be differentiated from the disease
___________.
3. Most suitable laboratory animal for demonstration of sporotrichosis is
____________.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. Sporotrichosis is contagious
59
2. Horses and dogs are highly susceptible to sporotrichosis

3. Single celled, cigar-shaped yeast is characteristic for Sporothrix
schenckii
Write short answers
1. Sporotrichosis
60
ANSWER KEYS
STREPTOCOCCI
1. Single or one plane
2. Streptococcus pnemoniae, Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus equi,
Streptococcus dysagaleactiae.
3. Erythrogenic toxin
4. A-U without I and J.
5. Edwards medium
6. Blood
7. Carbohydrate antigen
8. Streptococcus equi sub sps equi.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True
9. True
2. False
10.
True
3. False
11.
False
4. False
12.
False
5. True
13.
False
6. False
14.
True
7. False
15.
True
8. False
Choose the correct answer
1- A, 2-D, 3-D, 4-A, 5-C, 6-A,
7-A, 8-A
STAPHYLOCOCCUS
1. Staphylococci
2. Exudative epidermitis (greasy pig disease)
61
3. Mannitol salt agar

4. Lemon yellow colour
5. Hemolysin
6. - hemolysis
7. Haemophilus
8. Rabbit
9. food poisoning
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True
9. False
2. False
10.
False
3. True
11.
True
4. False
12.
False
5. True
13.
True
6. True
14.
False
7. False
15.
True
8. True
16.
False

1- C, 2-D, 3-C, 4-C, 5-D
CLOSTRIDIUM
1. Histotoxic, Hepatotoxic, enterotoxic and neurotoxic
2. Clostridium welchi and Clostridium.tetani type VI.
3. Clostridium welchi
4. Robertsons cooked meat medium
5.
Clostridium.odematiens,
Clostridium.septicum,
Clostridium.chauvoei
and Clostridium.welchi
6. Clostridium.tetani, Clostridium.botulinum and Clostridium.haemolyticum
7. Saccharolytic and proteolytic
62
8. Litmus milk
9. haemolysin, tetanolysin
10. Fur tree
11. black colouration
12. Iodine and H2O2
13. Tetanospasmin and tetanolysin
14. Clostridium.botulinum
15. A to G types
16. Wasp waist
17. lecithenase and lipase
18. - hemolysis or lecithinase
19. iridescent pearly layer, lipase
20. Clostridium.septicum
21. Clostridium.perfringens, Clostridium.septicum
22. Clostridium.septicum
23. black quarter or black leg
24. Clostridium perfringenes type C
25. toxin
26. Stormy clot fermentation
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
16.
True
31.
True
2. False
17.
False
32.
True
3. True
18.
False
33.
True
4. False
19.
False
34.
False
5. True
20.
True
35.
True
6. False
21.
True
36.
True
7. False
22.
True
37.
False
8. True
23.
False
38.
True
9. False
24.
True
39.
True
63
10.
True
25.
False
40.
True
11.
False
26.
False
41.
True
12.
False
27.
False
42.
True
13.
False
28.
True
14.
False
29.
True
15.
False
30.
True

1- D, 2-D, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B, 8-A, 9-B, 10-D, 11-A, 12-C, 13-A,
14-B, 15-A, 16-A, 17-A, 18-D, 19-A
BACILLUS
Fill up the blanks
1. Polymer of d-glutamic acid
2. spores
3. Inverted fir tree
4. Bacillus anthracis
5. PLET Polymixin, lyzozyme, EDTA and Thallous acetate
6. Formaldehyde 2%
7. Edema factor, Protective antigen and lethal factor
8. black cherry jam
9. cherry gama phage
10. mice and guinea pig
11. malignant pustule
12. nutrient agar
13. purplish capsule, MacFadeyans reaction
64
Write TRUE or FALSE

1. False
9. False
2. False
10.
False
3. False
11.
True
4. False
12.
False
5. False
13.
True
6. False
14.
False
7. False
15.
False
8. False
16.
True.

1- A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A, 5-A, 6-C
LISTERIA
Fill up the blanks
1. Listeria monocytogenes
2. umbrella
3. tumbling
4. listeriolysin
5. circling disease
6. 2nd
7. rabbit and guinea pig
8. cold enrichment
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
6. True
2. False
7. True
3. True
8. True
4. True
9. False
5. False
65

1- D, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
ERYSIPELOTHRIX
Fill up the blanks
1. Erysipelothrix ruchiopathiae
2. Diamond skin disease
3. bottle brush type
4. Mice and pigeons
Write TRUE or FALSE
True-1,4,5
False- 2,3
1- B, 2-A
CORYNEBACTERIUM
Fill up the blanks
1.
Corynebacterium
renale,
Corynebacterium
cystidis
and
Corynebacterium
pilosum
2. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis or Corynebacterium ovis or Nocard
bacillus
3. Volution or Babes Earnst granules, polar bodies.
4. Alberts Neissers and Ponders stains
5. Rhodococcus equi
6. Rhodococcus equi
7. Corynebacterium bovis
8. Phospholipase C and Chlesterol oxidase
9. 0.5 1% tween 80
66
Write TRUE or FALSE

1. True
5. False
2. False
6. True
3. True
7. True
4. False
1- A, 2-C, 3-C, 4-D, 5-A
ACTINOMYCES
Fill up the blanks
1. Poll evil and fistulous withers
2. sulphur granules
3. Ray fungus Actinomyces
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True
6. True
2. False
7. True
3. False
8. False
4. True
9. True
5. True
1- D, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A
NOCARDIA
Fill up the blanks
1. True
2. True
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. Nocardia steroides and Nocardia farcina- bovine farcy
2. Nocardia farcinica
67

1- D, 2-A, 3-D
MYCOBACTERIA
Fill up the blanks
1. mycolic acid
2. photochromogenes and scotochromogenes, slow growing and rapid
growing
3. Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
4. Mycobacterium phlei
5. Ehrlich 1882
6. Johne 1895
7. Mycobacterium avium
8. 14-20 hours
9. long serpentine cords
10. Lowenstein jenson and Stone brincks medium
11. malachite green dye (0.025g/100ml)
12. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
13. Eugonic
14. yellow and orange Malachite green
15. 8-10 days
16. peptidoglycon, arabinogalactan and mycolic acid
17. milliary tuberculosis
18. Zeil Neelson stain
19. aspirates from cavities, lymphnodes, tracheoalveolar lavages
20. 5% oxalic acid, 4% NaOH.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True-1,4,6,7,11,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,
2. False-2,3,5,8,9,10,19.
68

1-C, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-B, 6-C, 7-D, 8-A, 9-A, 10-D
ESCHERICHIA COLI
Fill up the blanks
1. faecal pollution
2. Escherichia coli
3. Escherichia coli
4. Pink-bright
5. Eosin methylene blue-EMB
6. O,H & K- somatic, flagellar and fimbrial
7. fimbrial adhesions K88 & K 99
8. Aerobactin and enterobactin
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
6. False
2. True
7. True
3. False
8. False
4. True
9. True
5. False
10.
True
11.
True

1-A, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D, 6-A, 7-A
SALMONELLA
Fill up the blanks
1. Fowl typhoid
2. Tetrathionate broth, selenite broth and Rappaport Vasiliadis medium
3. Lactose non fermentor NLF
4. Salmonella typhi, Salmonella partyphi and Salmonella Dublin
69
5. Craiges tube
6. W form
7. Salmonella enteria and Salmonella bongori
8. Kauffmann White scheme
9. Tetrathionate broth, selenite broth
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
8. False
2. True
9. False
3. True
10.
False.
4. True
11.
True
5. False
12.
False
6. True
13.
True
7. True
1-C, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D, 5-B, 6-A, 7-A, 8-A, 9-A, 10-A
KLEBSIELLA
Fill up the blanks
1. Kelbsiella pneumoniae
2. capsule formation
3. Pale pink mucoid colonies
4. Atrophic rhinitis
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
2. False
1-C, 2-D
70
PASTEURELLA
Fill up the blanks
1. Fowl Cholera
2. Brain Heart Infusion Agar
3. Sweetish
4. Capsular antigen
5. Arabinose and Trehalose
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True
5. False
2. True
6. False
3. True
7. False
4. False
8. True

1-C, 2-C, 3-C, 4-B, 5-A
ACTINOBACILLUS
Fill up the blanks
1. Actinobacillus
2. Actinobacillus ligneresii
3. filamentous form
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A
71
HAEMOPHILUS
Fill up the blanks
1. X and V factor ( Haem and NAD)
2. Choclate
3. Haemophilus
4. Blood agar
5. lyohphilization
6. Haemophilus influenza & Haemophilus aegyptins
7. 15, 9
8. Dry ice, freezing
9. Haemophilus parasuis
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True
9. False
2. False
10.
True
3. True
11.
True
4. False
12.
False
5. True
13.
True
6. False
14.
False
7. False
15.
False
8. False
1-D, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A, 5-A
PSEUDOMONAS
Fill up the blanks
1. cetrimide
2. fruity, grape like odour, Amino acetophenone
3. Pyocyanin, Pyoverdin, Pyorubin and Pyomelanin
72
4. fruity, grape like odour,

5. Pseudomonas pseudomallie
6. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
7. Pulmonary, nasal and cutaneous (farcy)
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
9. False
2. True
10.
True
3. False
11.
True
4. True
12.
False
5. False
13.
False
6. True
14.
False
7. True
15.
False
8. True
1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-A, 6-A
BRUCELLA
Fill up the blanks
1. Brucella abortus
2. Brucella abortus
3. Buck 1930
4. Kosters
5. Albimi and Columbia agar
6. 75 days
7. Thionin and basic fuchsin
8. Erytrital (Polyhydric OH)
9. 6th month (2nd trimester)
10. Leathery
11. >1:40
73
12. Coombs test

Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True
8. False
15.
False
2. False
9. False
16.
True
3. False
10.
False
17.
True
4. True
11.
True
18.
True
5. True
12.
False
19.
True
6. False
13.
True
20.
True
7. False
14.
True
21.
False

1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C, 5-A, 6-A, 7-C
CAMPYLOBACTER
Fill up the blanks
1. Campylobacter jejuni
2. Campylobacter fetus sub sp. Venerealis
3. Campylobacter
4. Polar flagella
5. cell wall antigens
6. O, A-2 and B
7. Campylobacter
8. Columbia, Beain Heart Infusion with blood (5-10%), Charcoal
Cefopera zoledeoxycholate agar, blasers Campy BAP medium.
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
2. True
3. False
74

1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A, 6-A
DERMATOPHILUS
Fill up the blanks
1. Dermatophilus congolensis
2. coccal zoospores
3. blood agar
4. Streptothricosis
5. tuft of hair pluked from the lesions with scab
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. False, 4. True, 5. True, 6. True
1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A
BACTERIODES and FUSOBACTERIUM
Fill up the blanks
2. Fusobacterium necrophorum, Bacteriodes nodsus
3. 10%, 5% and 85%
4. blood agar
5. grey to yellowish
6. egg yolk agar
7. keratinolytic
8. leuko toxin
9. dilute carbol fuchsin
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. True, 4. False, 5. True, 6. True, 7. True 8. True
75

1-C, 2-A, 3-A,4-D, 5-D, 6-A
LEPTOSPIRA
Fill up the blanks
1. Leptospira pomona
2. Rat
3. 100 million leptospira
4. Silver impregnation technique of Fontana
5. morphology and motility
6. protein-polysaccharide surface antigen
7. mid-stream urine
8. Phosphate buffered saline with 1% Bovine serum albumin
9. 10,000 to 20,0000
10.10% formalin
11.Micro agglutination test
12.Penicillin, Streptomycin, tetracycline
13.Leptospira interrogans, Leptospira biflexa
14.6
15.Ellis medium
16.12-16 hrs
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. False, 4. True, 5. False, 6. True, 7. False, 8. True, 9. True, 10.
True, 11. False,
12. False, 13. False, 14. True, 15. True.
1-A, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-A, 7-A
76
RICKETTSIA
Fill up the blanks
1. Ehrilichia risticii
2. Ehrilichia phagocytophilus
3. rickettsiae and proteus
4. bandicoot
5. mammary gland and placentae
6. ambyloma tick
7. mice & guineapigs
8. blood, sputum and urine
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. True, 4. True, 5. False, 6. False, 7. True, 8. False
1-A, 2-B, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B, 7-B, 8-A, 9-C, 10-D
Match the following
1-e, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b, 5-a
CHLAMYDIA
Fill up the blanks
1. intra cytoplasmic inclusion bodies
2. psittacosis and ornithosis
3. elementary bodies and reticulate bodies
4. modified Ziehl Neelsen stain
5. Giemsa stain
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. True, 4. False, 5. True, 6. True, 7. True, 8. False
1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D, 5-A, 6-A, 7-C
77
MYCOPLASMA
Fill up the blanks
1. Mycoplasma gallicepticum
2. Mycoplasmas and Ureaplasmas
3. Plastic, filterable and pleomorphic
4. Contagious Bovine Pleuropnemonia (CBPP)
5. Mycoplasmas and Ureaplasmas
6. reduced sterol or cholesterol
7. Giemsa and Romanoswky stain
8. Dienes
9. Swine
10. yolk sac
11. Urea plasma
12. egg
13. 600nm, 0.3m
14. sensitivity to digitonin
15. Tetracyclin, Gentamicin and Tylosin
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False
7. False
13.
False
2. False
8. False
14.
False
3. False
9. False
15.
True
4. False
10.
False
16.
False
5. False
11.
False
17.
False
6. True
12.
False

1-A, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B, 5-A, 6-A, 7-D
78
CANDIDIASIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Candida albicans
2. Crop mycosis or Avian moniliasis or Thrush
3. Scarpings from lesions
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. False, 4. False, 5. True, 6. True, 7. False, 8. False
1-A, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A
RHINOSPORIDIASIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Rhinosporidium Seeberi
2. India & Srilanka
3. Polyps
4. Demonstration of spores
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False, 2. True, 3. True, 4. True, 5. False, 6. False, 7. False, 8. False
1-D, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B.
CRYPTOCOCCOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Lactophenol cotton blue and Nigrosin
2. Chocolate agar
3. melanin pigmented ( brown)
4. inhalation
5. myxomatosis neoplasms
6. mastitis
79
Write TRUE or FALSE

1. True, 2. False, 3. False, 4. False, 5. True, 6. False, 7. True, 8. True, 9.
True,
10. True, 11. True
1-A, 2-C, 3-A, 4-A, 5-D
ASPERGILLOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. High humidity and moderate temperature
2. Sabourauds dextrose agar with chloramphenicol
3. Prolonged antibiotic treatment and steroidal treatment
4. morphology of conidiospore and stregimata
5. Aspergillus fumigatus
6. Slide culture method
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False, 2. True, 3. True, 4. True, 5. False. 6. False
1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A, 5-A, 6-A, 7-B
MYCOTOXINS AND MYCOTOXICOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Mycotoxins and Mycotxicosis
2. Aspergillus ocheraceus
3. Vesicular system and digestive system
4. Laboratory demonstration of mycotoxins
5. leukoencephalomalacia
6. Pigs and poultry
80
Write TRUE or FALSE

1. True, 2. True, 3. True, 4. False 5. True. 6. False, 7. False, 8. False,
9.True.
1-D, 2-D, 3-D, 4-D, 5-C, 6-D, 7-A
AFLATOXICOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Aspergillus flavus toxins
2. Aspergillus flavus & Aspergillus parasiticus
3. Hepatic injury and nervous signs
4. M1 & M2
5. 100 g / kg
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. True, 4. False, 5. True, 6. False, 7. True, 8. False
1-D, 2-D, 3-D, 4-D, 5-D
DERMATOPHYTOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. geophilic
2. Sabouraurd
3. Tinea corporis
4. Griseofulvin
5. Morphology and conidia
6. Tryptophan
7. keratinase
8. elastase, collagenase and keratinase
9. ectothrix and endothrix
81
10. edge / periphery

11. 370C
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. False, 4. True, 5. True, 6. True, 7. True, 8. False,
9. True, 10. True, 11, False, 12. False.
1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-D, 6-A, 7-D, 8-D, 9-B, 10-A.
CLASSICAL HISTOPLASMOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Macrophage
2. Dog
3. Histoplasma capsulatum
4. inhalation and ingestion
5. Gomori methanamine and periodic acid-schift
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. False, 3. True, 4. True, 5. True, 6. False, 7. True.
1-D, 2-D, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-D
EPIZOOTIC LYMPHANGITIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Horses, donkey and mule
2. Yellowish, waxy, cauliflower like mycelial colonies
3. limbs, neck and chest
4. epizootic lymphangitis
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False, 2. True, 3. False, 4. True, 5. True, 6. False, 7. True, 8. True,
9. True, 0. False, 11. False, 12. True
82

1-D, 2-D, 3-D, 4-D, 5-A, 6-D, 7-D, 8-D
COCCIDIOIDOMYCOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Sabourauds dextrose agar, Bovine blood agar
2. Coccioides immitis
3. inhalation of dust
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. True, 2. True, 3. True, 4. True, 5. False, 6. False, 7. False, 8. True,
9. False
1-D, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A
SPOROTRICHOSIS
Fill up the blanks
1. Sprothrix schenckii
2. Epizootic lymphangitis
3. Rodents
Write TRUE or FALSE
1. False, 2. True, 3. True
1-D, 2-D
83

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VMC 311 : Systematic Veterinary

Bacteriology and Mycology (2+1)

Streptococci are catalase and oxidase negative

The capsule of Streptococci pyogenes is made up of polysaccharide.

When Streptococci treated with penicillin, spheroplast form will occur.

Beta haemolytic Streptococci produce complete haemolysis.

The viridans Streptococci are beta haemolytic

Beta haemolytic Streptococci are non pathogenic.

Lancefield classified gamma haemolytic Streptococci based on the

Griffth typing of Streptococci is mainly based on agglutination test.

10. Enterococcus avium is the member of Lancefield group streptococci.

12. Streptolysin S is very potent cardiotoxic.

Serum opacity factor

10. Scarlet fever

9. List five extracellular products of streptococci. What are their

8. To demonstrate coagulase test ________ plasma is commonly used.

3. S. aureus causes bumble foot in poultry.

test is highly useful to

Greasy pig disease

Hot cold lysis phenomenon

Write short answers

Describe properties of each.

_________ and ___________.

4) Selective media for Clostridia is ___________.

__________ and is mainly due to _______ toxin.

22) Malignant odema in cattle is caused by ____________.

Clostridium are anaerobic, spore forming, spindle shaped bacteria

Clostridia are motile with monotrichous flagella.

Cl.odematiens is very strict anaerobe.

In Robertsons media proteolytic clostridium turns the meat pink color

Soil is the natural habitat of Cl.tetani.

Cl.tetani is very potent invasive clostridum

Capsulated Cl.tetani giving the characteristic drum sticks appearance.

Cl.tetani is a non-capsulated and motile bacillus.

Stiff agar (3%) is commonly used to demonstrate swarming nature of

10. Cl. tetani is saccharolytic.

Botulinum toxins are very potent enterotoxins.

19. Botulism is mainly due to very rapid multiplication of bacteria at the

Yellow lamb disease is caused by Cl.perfringens type C.

Write short notes

Stromy clot fermentation

Robertsons cooked meat media

Wast - Waisp appearance

Western duck sickness

Write short answers

Bacillus anthracis capsule is rich in _______

Selective media for B.anthracis is ____________.

commonly used for wool disinfection.

The extracellular toxins of B.anthracis are composed of _______,

________ and _________.

In anthrax-affected animals the spleen revealed ________

_______ phage is commonly used to identify anthrax bacillus

susceptible for anthrax.

B.polymyxa is ___________ and by B.bravis is ________

Write True or False

4. Cultural characters of anthrax bacillus

2. E.rhusiopathiae is easily destroyed by salting and smoking of meat.

4. Corynebacterium renale groups are haemolytic.

_ and ___.

____ and is mainly due to _ toxin.

and _.

B.polymyxa is ___ and by B.bravis is

5. Selective medium for brucella is _and___.

are,, _ and ________.

2. & ____ are examples for non spore forming

____ & _.

& ____.