Dr. N. Collantes - Learning To Communicate
Dr. N. Collantes - Learning To Communicate
Dr. N. Collantes - Learning To Communicate
COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF INTERNAL MEDICINE
DOCTOR-PATIENT RELATIONSHIP
Name: __________________________
Quiz # 1 1st Semester
Date: ______________
II. Multiple True or False. Tell whether each letter in the responses is True or False in
relation to the stem. Each letter is worth 0.25 %. Write the whole word True or False
in the answer sheet provided.
6. Summarization gives the following indications:
A. That you have been listening carefully to the patient
B. It identifies what you know and still do not know about the patients history.
C. Shows empathy
D. It is a sign of reassurance
7. After greeting the patient, it is best to:
A. Introduce self and define role
B. Shake hands
C. Call children by their first name
D. Call adults by sweetheart or granny
8. Which appearance of the doctor can convey trust and improve relationship?
A. Clean nails
B. Tight and low waist pants
C. Blue highlights of the hair (hair dye)
D. Name tag
9. When there are other visitors inside the room, it is best to:
A. Maintain confidentiality
B. Greet all visitors and inquire about names and relationships with patients
C. Ask everybody to leave the room
D. Ask patients permission for the interview
10. When expanding and clarifying the medical history of the patient, it is best to:
A. Use understandable language
B. Never use close ended type of questioning
C. Go back and forth from open ended to close ended questioning
D. Ask what then to establish chronology of events
Dr. Padilla - The Comprehensive Physical Examination
11. What is the most appropriate sequence of basic techniques when examining the
abdomen?
A. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
12. What basic technique of physical examination is involved when you perform the
General Survey?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
13. What basic technique of physical examination is obviously NOT performed on the
region of the head?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
14. What part of the hand is the most appropriate to use when feeling for the
temperature of a body part?
A. Palms
C. Dorsum of the hand
B. Finger tips
D. Back of the fingers
15. The finger tips are best used to palpate for:
A. Contour
C. Temperature
B. Symmetry
D. Texture
16. The finger that is interposed between the area to be percussed and the finger
creating the vibrations is known as:
A. Hammer
C. Pleximeter
B. Immediate
D. Plexor
Match the following Percussion Notes to the Appropriate Body area where each is
normally elicited.
__ B__ 17. Dull
A. Over the gastric air bubble
__ C__ 18. Flat
B. Over the liver
__ D__ 19. Renonant
C. Over the thigh
__ A__ 20. Tympanic
D. Over the normal expanded lung
G O O D L U CK !
II. Multiple True or False. Tell whether each letter in the responses is True or False in
relation to the stem. Each letter is worth 0.25 %. Write the whole word True or False
in the answer sheet provided.
8. Which verbal cues allow patient to go tell their stories spontaneously?
T A. Go on
T B. I see
T C. Uh uh
F D. Make it quick
18. Which appearance of the doctor can convey trust and improve relationship?
T A. Clean nails
F B. Tight and low waist pants
F C. Blue highlights of the hair (hair dye)
T D. Name tag
Dr. Padilla - The Comprehensive Physical Examination
19. In doing percussion, the swing of the plexor is from the:
A. Elbow
C. Shoulder
B. Finger
D. Wrist
20. Which of the following physical examination findings can be elicited by both
Inspection and Palpation?
A. Consistency
C. Resonance
B. Events
D. Temperature
21. Which of the following habits should you develop when performing the physical
examination?
A. Constantly move and change your position during the examination
B. Do not talk to the patient through out the examination
C. Instruct the patient before you examine
D. Use each instrument at least five times
22. The measure of loudness of a sound heard during auscultation is known as:
A. Duration
C. Intensity
B. Frequency
D. Quality
23. Which of the following physical examination findings is included under Vital Signs?
A. Gait
C. Respiratory rate
B. Level of consciousness
D. State of Health
24. The Bell of the stethoscope is best used to listen for:
A. High-frequency sounds
C. Both high and low frequency sounds
B. Low-frequency sounds
D. None of the above
25. Which of the following physical examination findings on Inspection is hard to seen
under fluorescent light?
A. Cyanosis of the lips and fingers
C. Erythema of the skin
B. Gross pallor
D. Subtle yellowing of the sclerae
26. Soft, rubbery, stony-hard, flaccid are examples of descriptions that ascertain:
A. Consistency
C. Events
B. Dimensions
D. Texture
27. The ophthalmoscope is a special instrument that is used for:
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
28. What is the most appropriate sequence of basic techniques when examining the
abdomen?
A. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
29. What basic technique of physical examination is involved when you perform the
General Survey?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
30. What basic technique of physical examination is obviously NOT performed on the
region of the head?
A. Auscultation
C. Palpation
B. Inspection
D. Percussion
31. What part of the hand is the most appropriate to use when feeling for the
temperature of a body part?
A. Palms
C. Dorsum of the hand
B. Finger tips
D. Back of the fingers
32. The finger tips are best used to palpate for:
A. Contour
C. Temperature
B. Symmetry
D. Texture
33. The finger that is interposed between the area to be percussed and the finger
creating the vibrations is known as:
A. Hammer
C. Pleximeter
B. Immediate
D. Plexor
Dr. Padilla The Medical History
34. Problems that the patient has not mentioned can be identified and ferreted out in
the:
A. Past history
C. Family history
B. Current Health Status
D. Review of Systems
35. What portion of the medical history is an outline or narrative description that
captures the importance and relevant information about the patient as a person?
A. Past history
C. Current Health Status
B. Family history
D. Psychosocial history
36. Mang Jose is a 50 year old male with a history of cigarette smoking since the age
of 20. He consumes 1 pack per day. How many pack year smoker is Mang Jose?
A. 10
C. 30
B. 20
D. 40
37. When conducting the medical interview, you should sit just outside the patients
private space. How many feet away from the patient is the private space?
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 6
38. What part of the medical history are information regarding childhood illnesses,
accidents, injuries, and operation included under?
A. Present illness
C. Current Health Status
B. Past history
D. Psychosocial history
39. Which of the following statements regarding the uses of the medical record is
FALSE?
A. It is a log of patient care
B. It is a common record for everyones perusal
C. It is a medical-legal document
D. It is a research and education tool
40. Which part of the medical history would you inquire about the emotional and
psychological impact of an illness by asking how the patient has reacted to the
symptoms and about fears and concerns regarding their cause?
A. Present illness
C. Current Health Status
B. Past History
D. Psychosocial history
41. Which of the following introductory materials in the health history is a judgment
made at the end of the interaction and not at the beginning?
A. Identifying data
C. Source of the history
B. Reliability
D. Source of referral
42. The main part of the medical history start with the patients:
A. Identifying data
C. Present illness
B. Chief complaints
D. Past history
43. Which part of the medical history will help you assess the patients risks of
developing certain diseases?
A. Present illness
C. Family history
B. Past history
D. Psychosocial history
44-50. Enumerate the 7 characteristics of a symptom that must be elicited:
C. Right ventricle
D. Superior vena cava
12. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle for every 1 minute is called:
A. Stroke volume
C. Cardiac output
B. Ejection volume
D. Afterload
13. The brief period where the Korotkoff sounds disappear while releasing the cuff
during blood pressure taking corresponds to:
A. Systole
C. Pulse pressure
B. Diastole
D. Auscultatory gap
14. Which of the following does not describe chest pain of angina pectoris?
A. Pain is described as squeezing or heaviness on the chest
B. It is related to physical exertion
C. It radiates to the left side of the neck and to the left arm
D. The pain is described as sharp and radiates to the back or to the neck
15. The pulses of atrial fibrillation is described as:
A. Transient skips and flip flops
B. Rapid regular beating of sudden onset and offset
C. Irregularly irregular
D. Rapid regular rate of 120 bpm starting and stopping gradually
16. A sudden episode of dyspnea that awakens a patient from sleep is called:
A. Orthopnea
C. Platypnea
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Hyperventilation
17. Which of the following is a characteristic of the JVP that is associated with
obstructive lung disease?
A. JVP is elevated at inspiration and collapses at expiration
B. JVP collapses in squatting position
C. JVP is elevated at expiration and collapses at inspiration
D. JVP becomes elevated during Valsalva maneuver
18. Decreased amplitude of the carotid pulse is due to:
A. Atherosclerotic narrowing of the carotids
B. Enlarged thyroid gland
C. Prominent sternocleidomastoid muscle
D. Recumbent position
19. Pulsus alternanns is described as:
A. Small thready pulse
B. Bounding pulse
20. The best positions for examination of the heart includes all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Supine
C. Leaning forward
B. Left lateral decubitus
D. Right lateral decubitus
21. The normal location of the PMI is:
A. Left 5th interspace along the parasternal line
B. Left 5th interspace along the anterior axillary line
C. Left 5th interspace along the midclavicular line
D. Left 5th interspace along the midaxillary line
22. A carotid bruit with or without as thrill in a middle-age or older indicates:
A. Aortic murmur
C. Kinking of the carotid artery
B. Narrowing of the carotid artery
D. Complete obstruction of the carotid
Artery
23. Lateral displacement of the PMI can be seen in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Cardiomyopathy
B. Pregnancy
D. Ischemic heart disease
24. The P2 is best heard in which area?
A. Right second interspace parasternal line
B. Left second insterspace parasternal line
C. Left 4th interspace parasternal line
D. Left interspace 5th midaxillary line
25. A loud murmur that is accompanied by a thrill is grade:
A. III
C. V
B. IV
D. VI
For Nos. 26 to 30.
Multiple TRUE or FALSE. Write the letter T if the statement in the lettered items is true
and F if the statement is false.
26. Events during diastole:
A. Ventricular pressure drops below 5mmHg
B. Blood flows from the vena cava to the atrium
C. Blood flows from the atrium to the ventricles
D. During late diastole, ventricular pressure rises slightly due to atrial contraction
27. Factors that increase arterial pressure:
A. Distensibility of the aorta and the large arteries
B. Peripheral vascular resistance
C. Right ventricular stroke volume
D. Volume of blood in the arterial system
28. The a wave of the jugular pulsation
A. Occurs right before S2
B. Is accentuated by tricuspid stenosis
C. Occurs during diastole
D. Disappears in atrial fibrillatios
29. Characteristics of Carotid Pulses include:
A. Rarely palpable
B. A more vigorous thrust with single outward component
C. Pulsations are not eliminated by pressure
D. Level of pulsations unchanged by position
30. Factors that increase preload
A. Inspiration
B. Exercise
C. Dilated right ventricular heart failure
D. Exhalation