Current and Electricity

1. An electric current is caused by the motion of _____________.

A. Electric changes
B. Protons
C. Neutrons

2. The speed of randomly moving electrons depends upon ______________.

A. Temperature
B. Length of the conductor
C. Thickness of the conductor

3. A steady current flows in a wire when a constant __________ is maintained across it.
A. Potential difference
B. Current
C. Power
D. Energy

4. When current flows through conductor____________ is produced around it.

A. Electric lines
B. Magnetic field
C. Electric field

5. The liquid which conducts current is known as____________.

A. Insulator
B. Conductor
C. Electrolyte
D. none is correct

6. Positive electrode is known as__________.

A. Anode Rays
B. Anode Rays
C. Anode
D. Cathode

7. Symbolically ohm’s law can be written as _________.

A. I=VR
B. R=VI
C. V=IR

8. Resultant resistance in parallel combination of resistances is__________then least

resistance.
A. Less
B. more

9. Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its_________.

A. Length
B. Thickness
C. Type
10. The SI unit of power is_________.
A. Ohm
B. Watt
C. Coulombs

11. Heat sensitive resistor is known as ___________.

A. Thermostat
B. Thermistor

12. The unit of emf is ___________.

A. Ampere
B. Watt
C. Volt

13. The sum of all currents flowing towards a point is equal to the sum of all the currents flowing
______________ from the point.
A. In
B. Away

14. Wheatstone bridge is a circuit used for determining the unknown____________.

A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Voltage

15. When no current passes through the galvanometer, the wheatstone bridge is said to be
_________.
A. Unbalanced
B. Balanced

16. The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is known as ______________.

A. Temperature co efficient
B. Co efficient of resistance
C. Temperature co efficient of resistance

17. Rheostat is _________________ resistor.

A. Fixed
B. Variable

18. Conductivity is the ____________ of resistivity.

A. All are correct
B. Reciprocal
C. Oppodite

19. Conductors do not allow electric current to pass.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

20. Direction of conventional current is from positive terminal to negative terminal.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
21. In an electric field electrons drift slowly in the direction of field.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

22. When current flows through any conductor it becomes hot.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

23. The magnetic effect is produced around the conductor when current flows through it.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

24. Electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

25. All the machines involving electric motors, use the magnetic effect of current.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

26. The plate which leads the current into or out of the electrolyte is known as electrode.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

27. If the p-d across a conductor is 2V and current flowing through it is 2A then resistance of
the conductor is 2Ω .
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

28. In series combination of resistors, the resultant resistance is less than least resistance.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

29. Rheostat has fixed resistance.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

30. Colour code for carbon resistance indicates the numerical value of resistance.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

31. The 4th band colour code gives the tolerance.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

32. EMF is force measured in Newtons.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE
33. Kirchhoff’s first rule says ∑I=o.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
34. A very simple instrument which can measure and compare potential differences accurately
is potentiometer.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

35. The ratio of the emfs is equal to ratio of the balancing lengths provided constant current
flows through the wire.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

36. Watt is the unit of potential difference.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

37. Battery is a source of EMF.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

38. Wheatstone Bridge is a circuit to find potential difference across two points.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

39. The SI unit of electric current is:

A. Ampere
B. Farad
C. Coulomb
D. Volt

40. The net charge flowing across the sectional area per unit time is known as:
A. Electric flow
B. Electric current
C. Ampere
D. Voltage

41. 1 Ampere =
A. 1 S/C
B. 1 C/S
C. 1 C/S2
D. 1 C/S-1

42. The current through a metallic conductor is due to the motion of:
A. Positron
B. Protons
C. Free electrons
D. Neutrons

43. The device which converts heat into electrical energy is:
A. Battery
B. Solar cell
C. cell
D. Thermo-couples
44. The unit of Resistance is:
A. Ampere
B. Volt
C. Ohm
D. Coulomb

45. The unit of resistivity is :

A. Volt
B. Kilo-Ohm
C. Ohm
D. Ohm-meter

46. According to colour code the numerical value of blue colour is:
A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. 6

47. The equation for calculating the power dissipated in a resistor is:
A. P= V2R
B. P=IV
C. All of these.
D. P=I2R

48. The resistance of a wire increases with increase in:

A. Surface area
B. Length
C. Diameter
D. Both surface area and diameter

49. The unit of temperature co-efficient is:

A. Ampere
B. C-1
C. Volt
D. Ohm

50. Internal resistance is the resistance offered by:

A. The conductor
B. The circuit
C. Source of EMF
D. The resistor

51. The algebic sum of potential changes for a closed loop is zero:
A. Kirchhoff’s first rule
B. Fleming’s rule
C. Kirchhoff’s 2nd rule
D. Joule’s Law

52. If a source of EMF is traversed from negative to positive terminal the potential change is:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Positive and Negative Both
 D. No change

53. Measure of the opposition to the flow of free electrons is known as:
A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Capacitance
D. Conductance

54. Resistance ‘R’ of a wire of length “L” is given by the relation:

A. R=ρL/A
B. R=ρL/A
C. R=L/ρA
D. R=L/A

55. An ideal voltmeter would have an:

A. Double the resistance of circuit
B. Infinite resistance
C. Resistance equal to the circuit
D. Very law resistance

56. The process of coating a thin layer of some expensive metal on an article of some cheap
metal is:
A. Electroplating
B. Conduction
C. Ionization
D. Electrolysis

57. 1Ω (Ohm)=
A. 1VA
B. 1 J/A2
C. 1CA-1
D. 1 V/A

58. Maximum power is delivered to a load when internal resistance of source is :

A. Does not depend on load resistance
B. Less than load resistance
C. Equals the load resistance
D. Greater than load resistance

59. Conventional current is always taken

A. From negative to positive
B. From positive to negative
C. Bidirectional

60. Current in solution is

A. Electrolysis
B. Electrolyte

61. Coulomb is the unit

A. Current
B. Charge
62. Wheatstone bridge is said to be balanced when current through galvanometer
A. Is Zero
B. Maximum
C. Minimum

63. In an ideal voltmeter the resistance is always

A. Maximum
B. Infinite
C. Minimum

64. Unit of current

A. Volt
B. Watt
C. Ampere

65. Source of EMF

A. Electric fan
B. Electric Motor
C. Battery

66. If the number of coulombs per see through a wire of 10 ohms resistance across a 120 volts
line is 12, the current flowing through it is?
A. 12 amps
B. 1200 amps
C. 120 amps
D. 1.2 amps

67. The electric current in a conductor is always due to driff of?

A. Proton
B. Atom
C. Electrons
D. Lons

68. If one volt is needed to cause a current of one ampere to flow in a conductor, its
resistance is?
A. One joule
B. One ampere
C. One ohm
D. One volt

69. The unit for the consumption of electrical energy commonly used is?
A. Watt see
B. Klowwatt hour
C. Joule
D. Watt hour

70. Heat generated by a 40 watts bulb in one hour is?

A. 14400J
B. 24000J
 C. 144000J
D. 4000J

71. A wire of uniform area of cross-section 'A', length L and residence R is cut into two equal
parts. The resistivity of each part.
A. None of the above
B. Is doubled
C. Remains the same
D. Is halved

72. The conductance of a conductor increases when?

A. Its temperature increases
B. Its length increases
C. None of the above
D. Its temperature decreases

73. The resistance of a conductor increases with the increase in its?

A. Length
B. Cross-sectional area
C. Diameter
D. None of the above
74. The temperature at which the value of resistivity falls to zero is called?
A. Zero temperature
B. Lowest temperature
C. Highest temperature
D. Critical Temperature

75. If the resistance of 2 ohm and 4 ohm are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance
will be?
A. 1.33 ohm
B. Zero ohm
C. 6 ohm
D. 4 ohm

76. Three resistors of resistance 2, 3, and 6 ohms are connected in parallel,their equivalent
resistance is?
A. 7.0 ohms
B. 11.0 ohms
C. 1.0 ohms
D. 3.0 ohms

77. Three resistance 500, 500 and 50 ohms are connected in series across 555 volts mains.
The current flowing through them will be?
A. 1:00 AM
B. 100 mA
C. 10:00 AM
D. 10 mA

78. In a house circuit, all the electrical appliances are connected in parallel to each other between
main line and neutral wires to get?
A. Same current and potential difference
 B. Different current but same potential difference
C. Different current and potential differences
D. Same current

79. Why should a resistance be introduced in a circuit in series deliberately?

A. To control current
B. To increase current
C. To decrease current
D. None of the above

80. Why should different resistances be added in series in a circuit?

A. To divide voltage
B. To increase voltage
C. To decrease voltage
D. None of the above

81. Power dissipated as heat in the conductor of resistance 'R' due to electric current 'I' is
given by?
A. IR
B. T2Rt
C. Vlt
D. I2R

82. Heat energy dissipated in a resistor R when connected to a battery of V volts and current
ampere flowing through it for time t is given by?
A. Vlt
B. IRt
C. I2Rt
D. I2R

83. The resistance of a 60 watt bulb in a 120 volt line as?

A. 240 ohms
B. 20 ohms
C. 2.0 ohms
D. 0.5 ohms

84. The electrical energy is converted to heat at the rate of?

A. Vlt
B. I2Rt
C. I2R
D. IRt

85. The practical unit of electrical power is?

A. Kilo watt-hour
B. Horse power
C. Kilowatt
D. Watt

86. If a 40 watt light bulb burns for 2 hours, how much heat is generated?
A. 288 x 103 J
B. 80 J
C. 280 x 105 J
 D. 400 J

87. A resistor R, dissipates the power P when connected to a certain generator, If a resistor R,
is inserted in series with R, the power dissipated by R,?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. May do any of the above, depending on the values of R1 and R2.
D. Remains the same

88. A certain wire has a resistance R. The resistance of another wire identical with the first
except for having twice its diameter, is?
A. 4R
B. 1/2R
C. 1/4 R
D. 2R

89. When resistances are connected in parallel, their equivalent resistance is equal to?
A. Sum of the reciprocal of the individual resistances
B. Product of the reciprocal of the individual resistances
C. Product of the individual resistances
D. Sum of individual resistances

90. When resistances are connected in series the equivalent resistance is equal to?
A. Product of the reciprocal of the individual resistances
B. Product of the individual resistances
C. Sum of the reciprocal of the individual resistances
D. Sum of the individual resistances

91. If a radio and a bulb each of resistance 3 ohm are connected in series to a 12 volts battery,
the potential difference across each will be?
A. 3 V
B. 12 V
C. 6 V
D. 9 V

92. A battery of 6 volts is short circuited by a copper wire. What will be the potential difference
across its terminals?
A. 0 v
B. 4 v
C. 6 v
D. 2 v

93. In a parallel combination of resistors the equivalent resistance will be?

A. Equal to the smallest resistance in parallel
B. Larger than the largest resistance in parallel
C. Smaller than the smallest resistance in parallel
D. Equal to the largest resistance in parallel

94. Resistance of a semi conductor?

A. Remains constant with increase of temperature
B. Decreases with increase of temperature
C. Reduces to zero with increase of temperature
 D. Increases with increase of temperature

95. Three bulbs of ratings 60W, 80W and 100W are connected in series towork on 240 V.
Which bulb will burn most brightly?
A. 100W bulb
B. 60W bulb
C. 80W bulb
D. All will burn equally bright

96. An electric heater has a rating of 220 V - 1100 W. Final the electrical energy consumed in
kilowatt hour if it is used continuously for 4 hours?
A. 2.2
B. 4.4
C. 8.8
D. 6.6

97. A copper rod has a resistance of 40 () at 0" and a resistance of 56 () at 100".

What is the temperature co-efficient of resistance of copper?
A. 8 x 10-4K-1
B. 2 x 10-4K-1
C. 4 x 10-3K-1
D. 4 x 10-4 K-1

Heat and Thermodynamics

1. Collision among gas molecules themselves and with the walls of the container are assumed
to be perfectly inelastic.
 A. FALSE
B. TRUE

2. It is obvious that Cp < Cv by an amount equal to universal gas constant R.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

3. The efficiency of carnot engine depends on the temperature of hot and cold reservoirs.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

4. The process for which entropy remains constant is a reversible process.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

5. For all irreversible process, the entropy of the universe always decreases.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

6. No heat engine can be more efficient than a carnot engine operating between the same two
temperature.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

7. Temperature of a system is defined as the total K.E of its molecules.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

8. A heat engine is a device which converts a part of thermal energy into work.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

9. Change in entropy is positive when heat is added and negative when heat is removed from
the system.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

10. Pressure exerted by the gas is directly proportional to the average translation K.E of the
gas molecules.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

11. Efficiency of carnot engine depends on the:-

A. Temperature of hot reservoirs
B. Temperature of cold reservoirs
C. Nature of working substance
D. Temperature of hot and cold reservoirs.

12. Pressure P is inversely proportional to volume of a gas at constant:-

A. Mass
B. Pressure
C. Volume
 D. Temperature

13. All real heat engines are less efficient than carnot engine due to:-
A. Friction
B. Working substance
C. Temperature of cold reservoirs
D. Temperature of reservoirs

14. For one mole of an ideal gas, the gas equation become:-
A. PV = 3RT
B. PV = RT
C. PV = nRT
D. PV = 2RT

15. The curve representing an adiabatic process is called an:-

A. Isotherm
B. Adiabatic
C. Isothermal
D. Adiabat

16. The Second Law of Thermodynamics deals with conversion of heat into work and:-
A. Temperature
B. Direction of Pressure
C. Direction of Flow of Heat
D. Direction of Force

17. __________ is the ratio of the molar specific heat at constant pressure to molar specific
heat at:-
A. Constant Volume
B. Constant Energy
C. Constant Pressure
D. Constant Temperature

18. Isothermal process is process which is carried out at constant:-

A. Energy
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. Temperature

19. Molecules do not exert force on each other except during a ……………..
A. Movement
B. Collision
C. Energy
D. Travel

20. The general principles which deals with heat energy and its transformation into mechanical
energy are called ………………
A. Isothermal
B. Laws of Thermodynamics
C. Thermodynamics
 D. Laws of Movement

21. Energy transforming process that occur with in an organism are named as …………
A. Metabolism
B. Thermodynamics
C. Energy
D. Isothermal

22. …………… is the process in which Boyle’s Law holds good.

A. Internal
B. Adiabatic
C. Isothermal

23. The sum of all forms of energy present in thermodynamics system is called its …………
energy.
A. External
B. Isothermal
C. Internal

24. ……………… process is the one in which no thermal energy is added or extracted from the
system.
A. Isothermal
B. Adiabatic
C. Diabetic

25. A succession of events which bring the system back to its initial condition is called ………
A. Cycle
B. Circle

26. For the working of heat engine there must be a source of heat at a ……….. temperature
and sink at ……….. temperature to which heat may be expelled.
A. Low, High
B. High, Low

27. Thermal pollution is an inevitable consequence of ……………. Law of Thermodynamics.

A. Ist
B. 2nd
C. 4th
D. 3rd

28. There is no perpetual motion machine that can convert the given amount of heat
completely into ……………..
A. Power
B. Work
C. Force

29. First Law of Thermodynamics

A. Q = ΔU - W
B. Q = ΔU + W
C. Q = ΔU / W
30. Ideal gas equation
A. PV = nRT
B. PV = nRi
C. RV = nRT

31. Entropy increases

A. Irreversible process
B. Heat engine operating in reverse order
C. Isothermal

32. Charles Law

A. V α < ½ mv2 >
B. V α < ½ mv3 >

33. Density
A. mN / L3
B. mN / L2

34. Steam engine

A. Thermodynamic system
B. Heat engine
C. Thermodynamics

35. Disorder of system

A. Entropy
B. Heat
C. Internal

36. Refrigerator
A. Heat engine operating in forward order
B. Heat engine operating in reverse order

37. Something which flows from a hot body to a cold body is known as?
A. Internal energy
B. Specific heat
C. Heat
D. Temperature

38. A Celsius (or centigrade) degree is larger than a Fahrenheit degree by?
A. 9/8
B. 5/9
C. 9/10
D. 9/5

39. Fahrenheit and centigrade (Celsius) thermometers have the same reading at?
A. 60"
B. 40"
C. -40o
D. -100"
40. The temperature of a normal nhuman body is 98.6"F. This temperature on centigrade
(C") is?
A. 37"C
B. 57"C
C. 30"C
D. 0oC

41. Temperature of human body on Kelvin scale is?

A. 326"K
B. 273"K
C. 373"K
D. 310oK

42. The Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales will have the same reading when the temperature is?
A. 425"
B. 450"
C. 574.25o
D. 375"

43. Absolute zero is considered as that temperature at which?

A. Water freezes
B. All liquids become gases
C. None of above
D. All gases become liquids

44. A gas which strictly obeys the gas laws under all conditions of temperature and pressure is
called?
A. Ideal gas
B. Real gas
C. Inert gas
D. Permanent gas

45. The K.F. of the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero will be?
A. Very high
B. Below zero
C. Infinite
D. Zero

46. If the pressure is increased. The melting point of ice?

A. Increases
B. None of the above
C. Remains unchanged
D. Decreases

47. If the pressure is increased, the boiling point of the liquid?

A. Remains unchanged
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Decreases first and then increases
48. At constant temperature, if the volume of the given mass of gas is doubled, then the
density of the gas becomes?
A. Remains constant
B. Double
C. 1/2 of the original value
D. 1/4 of the original value

49. An inflated tyre suddenly bursts. As a result of this, the temperature of air?
A. Remains constant
B. May increase or decrease
C. Decreases
D. Increases
50. On a hot day or in hot climates white clothes are worn because they are good?
A. Absorbers
B. Emitters
C. Radiators
D. Reflectors

51. If some quantity of water put into shallow vessel is allowed to evaporate, its
temperature?
A. Increases and then decreases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Increases

52. A body can take in heat without change in temperature whenever?

A. It is evaporating
B. Its specific heat is greater than one
C. It is melting or boiling
D. Its specific heat is less than one

53. One reason for mercury in a glass thermometer is?

A. It has high density
B. It conducts electricity well
C. It can be easily seen
D. It has an extremely low freezing point

54. Absolute zero may be regarded as that temperature at which?

A. Water freezes
B. All substances are solid
C. All gases become liquids
D. Molecular motion in a gas would cease

55. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is?
A. Less than its input temperature
B. 0oK
C. 0"C
D. Equal to its input temperature
56. In Arctic countries such as Norway, Alcohol-in-gas thermometers are preferred to
mercury-in-glass thermometers because?
A. Alcohol has a greater expansion with temperature than mercury
B. Alcohol has a greater freezing point than mercury
C. Alcohol can be seen more clearly than mercury
D. Alcohol has a lower freezing point than mercury
57. Mercury is used in thermometer because?
A. It does not wet glass
B. It has high boiling point
C. It has low boiling point
D. It freezes easily

58. Alcohol is sometimes used as a thermometric liquid because of its?

A. ability to conduct heat
B. low density
C. Low freezing point
D. cohesive properties

59. An ideal gas obeys the gas laws?

A. At all pressures.
B. At low pressure and high temperature.
C. At high pressure and low temperature.
D. At high temperature and pressure.

60. Compressed air coming out of a punctured foot-ball becomes cooler because of?
A. Adiabatic expansion
B. Isothermal expansion
C. See-beck effect
D. Energy dissipation

61. The gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container because the gas molecules?
A. have momentum
B. Obey Boyle's law
C. Have finite size
D. Collide with one another

62. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero is the temperature at which?
A. Water freezes
B. All gases change to liquids
C. The kinetic energy of the molecules is minimum
D. Water disappears

63. At constant pressure, if the temperature of a gas is halved its volume will be?
A. Four times
B. Doubled
C. Constant
D. Halved
64. At constant temperature, if the pressure of a gas halved, its volume will be?
A. Halved
B. Constant
C. Four times
D. Doubled

65. The Fahrenheit and Kelvin scale will have the same reading when temperature is?
A. 143.56
B. 71.78
C. 574.25
D. 287.12

66. One hundred centigrade degree corresponds to?

A. 32 "F
B. 180 "F
C. 212 oF
D. 273 "F

67. The centigrade and Fahreneit scale have the same reading when temperature is?
A. -40o
B. 40"
C. -80"
D. 60"

68. The temperature of 50oC will be recorded on Fahrenheit scale as?

A. 40
B. 122
C. 10
D. 105

69. Mercury is used as thermometric substance because?

A. Over a wide range of temperature its expansion is quite linear
B. It is opaque
C. All of above
D. Its specific heat is very low

70. If the volume of a gas is doubled without changing its temperature, the pressure of the
gas is?
A. Doubled
B. Reduced to half of original value
C. Not changed
D. Reduced to one fourth of original value

71. The normal temperature of a healthy human body on Kelvin scale is?
A. 330 K
B. 310 K
C. 320 K
D. 340 K
72. If the reading of Fahrenheit scale is double of its numerical value on the Centigrade scale,
then that reading on Centigrade scale will be?
A. 160
B. 320
C. 80
D. 40

73. 1 kg of melting ice and 1 kg of boiling water are mixed: Which temperature will have the
mixture when all ice is liquefied ?
A. 50oC
B. 10oC
C. 40oC
D. 25oC

74. How much ice is needed to cool down 1 kg of boiling water to 50oC ?
A. 525g
B. 1000g
C. 385g
D. 750g

Work and Energy

1. The work is product of force and velocity.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

2. Work is the dot product of force and displacement.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

3. Work is said to be zero when angle between F and d is 90o.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

4. Work done in gravitational force along a closed path is always zero.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

5. Work done in a gravitational field is dependent of the path followed by the body.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

6. Work done by the centripetal force is always zero.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

7. Gravitational field is a non-conservative field.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

8. The rate at which work is done is called power.

 A. FALSE
B. TRUE

9. Commercial unit of power is watt.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

10. Absolute P.E of a body is GM/ R2

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

11. The work done by a force of 10N applied parallel to direction of motion up to 20 m is:-
A. none
B. 200J
C. 20J
D. 10J

12. The SI unit of power is:-

A. KWH
B. Joule
C. Watt
D. Calorie

13. The work done is said to be negative when force and displacement are:-
A. Parallel
B. perpendicular
C. Antiparellel
D. None

14. The dimension of power is:-

A. ML2/ T
B. ML / T2
C. ML2 / T3
D. ML / T

15. One Kilowatt hour of work is always equal to:-

A. 3.6MJ
B. 360MJ
C. .36MJ
D. 36.0MJ

16. The energy stored in the spring of a watch is:-

A. Electrical Energy
B. Solar Energy
C. Elastic P.E
D. K.E
17. An example of non-conservative force is:-
 A. Electric Force
B. Magnetic Force
C. Gravitational Force
D. Frictional Force

18. The expression for the escape velocity is given by:-

A. 2gR2
B. 2gR
C. gR2 / 2
D. 2gR

19. Geyser derives its energy from the:-

A. None
B. Moon
C. Earth
D. Sun

20. The area under a force-displacement curve gives …………..

A. Joule
B. Path
C. Moon
D. Work

21. Work is a ……………… quantity.

A. Scalar
B. Path
C. Conservative field
D. Joule

22. N.m is also called ………………

A. Conservative field
B. Joule
C. ML T-2
D. Path

23. The work done in a gravitational field is always independent of the …………..
A. ML T-2
B. Path
C. Conservative field
D. Power

24. The gravitational field is also called as ……………

A. ML T-2
B. Watt
C. Conservative field
D. Power

25. Dimensions of force is ………………

 A. KWH
B. ML T-2
C. Power
D. Watt

26. F.V. = .......

A. Watt
B. KWH
C. mgh
D. Power

27. Joule / Sec = ………. is the power needed to perform 1 Joule of work in 1 Sec.
A. mgh
B. KWH
C. ML2 / T2
D. Watt

28. The commercial unit of electrical energy is called ………………..

A. mgh
B. Escape Velocity
C. KWH
D. ML2 / T2

29. The value of gravitational P.E for a particular body above the ground is equal to ……….
A. Earth
B. ML2 / T2
C. mgh
D. Escape Velocity

30. The dimension of work is …………….

A. ML2 / T2
B. Non-Conventional
C. Earth
D. Escape Velocity

31. The velocity needed to get rid off earths gravitational field is called …………….
A. Earth
B. Escape Velocity
C. Watt
D. Non-Conventional

32. Geothermal energy is derived from ………………….

A. Power
B. Watt
C. Non-Conventional
D. Earth
33. Bio mass is a form of …………….. energy.
 A. Non-Conventional
B. Power
C. Work
D. Watt

34. Geyser is the example of …………………. energy.

A. Work
B. Kwh
C. Power
D. Non-Conventional

35. The rate at which work is done is called

A. Power
B. Kwh
C. Work
D. Watt

36. The product of force and displacement is called

A. Zero
B. Kwh
C. Work
37. 3.6MJ
A. Kwh
B. Zero
C. Watt
D. Maximum

38. J⁄S =
A. Maximum
B. Watt
C. Negative
D. Zero

39. The work done along a closed path in a gravitational field is always
A. GMm / R
B. Maximum
C. Negative
D. Zero

40. The absolute P:E is given by

A. GMm / R
B. Geyser
C. Negative
D. Fridge

41. The minimum velocity of projection to escape the earth's gravitation pull is called?
A. Escape velocity
B. Orbital velocity
C. Angular velocity
D. Terminal velocity
42. The escape velocity for a body depends on?
A. Size of the planet
B. Density velocity
C. Mass of the planet
D. None of the above

43. The work done by a force acting on a body is maximum when?

A. The force is anti parallel to the displacement
B. The displacement is zero
C. The force is perpendicular to the displacement
D. The force is parallel to the displacement
44. What is the correct definition of power?
A. Amount of work
B. The rate of doing work
C. Doing work
D. Change in energy

Motion and Force

Q.1. Displacement is defined as the change in the position of a body from its initial position to
its final position.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.2. The slope of displacement time graph gives acceleration of a moving body.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.3. If the body is moving with uniform acceleration then its slope is zero.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Q.4. Velocity time graphs only gives information about the acceleration of a moving body.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Q.5. If a body is moving with variable velocity, then its average and instantaneous velocities
are also equal.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.6. A body dropped from a 100m high tower will strike the earth with the velocity of 100.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Q.7. The average value of gravity near the earth’s surface is 9.8 ms-2.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Q.8. Mass is the qualitative measure of inertia?

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Q.9. Time rate of charge of momentum of a body always equals to the applied force?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Q.10. Impulse is the product of force and mass?

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.11. During an elastic collision, the total K.E always remains constant?
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.12. More than 80% of rockets mass consist of fuel?

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.13. In the absence of external forces the horizontal component of Velocity of projectile
always remains constant?
A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.14. Maximum height of a projectile is given byH = Vi2 sinθ/2g

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.15. An un-powered and un-guided missile is called a ballistic missile.

A. FALSE
B. TRUE

Q.16. A body covering equal displacements in equal interval of time possesses:-

A. None of the above
B. Variable velocity
C. Uniform acceleration
D. Uniform velocity

Q.17. If the slope of a velocity - time graph gradually decreases then the body is said to be
moving with:-
A. None
B. Uniform velocity
C. Positive acceleration
D. Negative acceleration
Q.18. The dimensions of acceleration is:-
A. [LT-1]
B. [LT2]
C. [LT-2]
D. [LT1]

Q.19. A same force F is applied respectively on two different masses m1 and m2 moving with
accelerations a1 and a2. Identify the true mass acceleration ratio:-

A. m1 / m2 = a1 / a2
B. None
C. m1 / m2 = a2 / a1
D. m2 / m1 = a2 / a1

Q.20. A snooker ball moving with velocity v collides head on with Another snooker ball of
same mass at rest. If the collision is elastic, the velocity of second snooker ball is:-
A. Zero
B. infinity
C. 2v
D. v

Q.21. Horizontal range of a projectile is given by R = Vi2 sin2θ/g. For what value of θ,
range is maximum:-
A. 45o
B. 0o
C. 90o
D. None of above

Q.22. The path of a projectile is usually appears as:-

A. None of above
B. Straight line
C. Hyperbola
D. Parabola

Q.23. The horizontal component of a projectile moving with initial velocity of 500 m/s at an
angle 60o to x-axis is equal to:-
A. 1000 m/s
B. 250 m/s
C. 500 m/s
D. Zero

Q.24. Instantaneous velocity of a moving body is given by expression___________.

A. Low
B. Zero
C. Inertia
D. Vins = Lim t-0 d/t

Q.25. Area on the velocity time graph gives ______________

A. Newtons second law
B. inertia
C. distance
D. low
Q.26. Newton’s Laws of motion are applicable to bodies moving with __________. speed.
A. low
B. momentum
C. Newton's second law
D. inertia

Q.27. The product of force and time is called as ____________.

A. momentum
B. Newtons third law
C. √ (Vfx)2 + (Vfy)2
D. Newton's second law

Q.28. Dimensions of Impulse is same to that of ____________.

A. √ (Vfx)2 + (Vfy)2
B. momentum
C. aerodynamic
D. Newtons second law

Q.29. A collision is an interaction of transfer of energy and ________of the moving bodies.
A. aerodynamic
B. motion
C. momentum
D. Inertia

Q.30. The range of a projectile is maximum when value of ________

A. aerodynamic
B. Distance
C. Inertia
D. Aerodynamic

Q.31. The forces of gravity and air resistance are called _________forces.
A. inertia
B. S = Vx t
C. aerodynamic
D. Distance

Q.32. A ballistic missile moves freely due to __________.. under the action of gravity.
A. inertia
B. Distance
C. S = Vx t
D. F = mvf – mvi/T

Q.33. The area under a velocity - time graph gives

A. Distance
B. F = mvf – mvi/T
C. Impulse
D. S = Vx t

Q.34. The distance covered in time t by a body moving with variable velocity may be
 determined by
A. Elastic collision
B. F = mvf – mvi/T
C. S = Vx t
D. Impulse

Q.35. Newton’s second Law can be expressed as

A. 6ΔP / Δt = Rate of change in momentum
B. Impulse
C. F = mvf mvi/T
D. Elastic collision

Q.36. F x t =
A. Elastic collision
B. a=g
C. Impulse
D. 6ΔP / Δt = Rate of change in momentum

Q.37. Velocity of approach = - velocity of recession

A. Maximum horizontal distance
B. a=g
C. Elastic collision
D. 6ΔP / Δt = Rate of change in momentum

Q.38. Force =
A. 2aS = [ Vf + Vi/2 ] x t
B. a=g
C. 6ΔP / Δt = Rate of change in momentum
D. Maximum horizontal distance

Q.39. Acceleration of projectile during downward motion is

A. Maximum horizontal distance
B. Momentum
C. a = g
D. a9S = [ Vf + Vi/2 ] x t

Q.40. Rockets moves under the law of conservation of

A. Maximum horizontal distance
B. Momentum
C. zero
D. a9S = [ Vf + Vi/2 ] x t

Q.41. If the velocity of a body does not increase by equal amounts in equal intervals of time it
is said to have.
A. Variable acceleration
B. Uniform acceleration
C. Instantaneous acceleration
D. Average acceleration
Q.42. A cricket ball is hit so that it travels straight up in air and it Acquires 3 seconds to reach t
height.Its initial velocity is?
A. 12.2 m/s
B. 10 m/s
C. 29.4 m/s
D. 15 m/s

Q.43. Temperature changes when two balls collide. Which one of the following is conserved?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Momentum
C. Velocity
D. Both of them

Q.44. A body is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity 9.8 m sec-1.It will attain height?
A. 29.4m
B. 9.8m
C. 19.8m
D. 4.9m

Q.45. When a bullet is fixed by a gun, the gun moves backward with a ?
A. Remains at rest
B. Velocity more than the bullet
C. Velocity less than the bullet
D. Velocity equal to that of bullet

Q.46. The shortest distance between two points is called?

A. Displacement
B. Distance
C. Speed
D. Acceleration

Q.47. The distance covered by a body in a unit time is called?

A. Speed
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Retardation
E.
Q.48. The change in velocity per unit time is called?
A. Retardation
B. Acceleration
C. Speed
D. Uniform velocity

Q.49. When the values of average and instantaneous velocities are equal, the body is said to
be moving with?
A. Uniform acceleration
B. Average velocity
C. Uniform velocity
D. Uniform speed
Q.50. The laws of motion show the relation between?
A. Mass and acceleration
B. Force and acceleration
C. Mass and velocity
D. Mass and weight

Q.51. Newton"s first law is also called as?

A. Law of force
B. Law of torque
C. None of above
D. Law of inertia

Q.52. The quantity of matter in a body is called?

A. Momentum
B. Mass
C. Force
D. Velocity

Q.53. The acceleration of a body moving with uniform velocity is?

A. Not uniform
B. Not Zero
C. Zero
D. Variable

Q.54. Newton's second law of motion is also called?

A. Law of inertia
B. Law of gravitation
C. Law of acceleration
D. Law of inertial frame

Q.55. Acceleration is defined as?

A. Rate of change of distance
B. Rate of change of displacement
C. Rate of change of velocity
D. Rate of change of speed

Q.56. A 5kg mass is falling freely, the force (or weight) acting on it will be?
A. 19.6N
B. Zero
C. 5N
D. 9.8N

Q.57. Laws of motion are valid in a system which is?

A. IUn the space
B. At rest
C. Inertial
D. Non-inertial

Q.58. Laws of motion are not valid in a system which is?

 A. At rest
B. Isolated
C. Non-inertial
D. Moving with uniform velocity

Q.59. The weight of a body falling freely will be?

A. Zero
B. mg
C. mg - 6xnvr
D. mg + 6xnvr

Q.60. The average and instantaneous velocities will be equal when a body moves with?
A. Constant acceleration
B. Variable acceleration
C. Constant (uniform) velocity
D. Retardation

Q.61. When a climber reaches the top of a mountain?

A. His weight is now slightly smaller
B. His mass is now slightly smaller
C. His weight is now greater
D. His mass is now greater

Q.62. Inertial mass and gravitational mass are?

A. Identical
B. Weights
C. Proportional
D. Opposite

Q.63. What would be magnitude and direction of acceleration which would make the balance
reading zero?
A. 1 ms-2
B. Zero
C. 9.8 ms-2 upward
D. 9.8 ms-2 downward

Q.64. When a man jumps off the ground, the reaction force of the ground is?
A. Equal to the weight of the man
B. Smaller than the weight of the man
C. Greater than the weight of the man
D. Zero

Q.65. The product of mass of a particle and its velocity is called?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Force
C. Potential energy
D. Linear momentum
Q. 66. Change of momentum is called?
A. Impulse
B. Force
C. Tension
D. Pressure

Q. 67. A force which always opposes the motion of a body is called?

A. Impulsive force
B. Static friction
C. Force of friction (frictional force)
D. Gravitational force

Q.68. Which is a suitable method to decrease friction?

A. Lubrication
B. Oil
C. Polishing
D. Ball and roller bearing

Q.69. When a body moves up a rough inclined plane it is acted upon by?
A. One force
B. Two forces
C. Four forces
D. Three forces

Q.70. Machine parts are jammed in due to?

A. Decrease in surface tension of lubricant
B. Increase in surface tension of lubricant
C. Decrease in viscosity of lubricant
D. Increase in viscosity of lubricant

Q.71. In case of an elastic collision between two bodies?

A. Both momentum and energy are not conserved.
B. Both momentum and energy are conserved.
C. Energy is conserved but not momentum.
D. Momentum is conserved but not energy.

Q.72. The orbital speed of the earth around the sun is approximately?
A. 50,000 mph
B. 60,000 mph
C. 30,000 mph
D. 70,000 mph

Q.73. When two bodies separate instantaneously after collision. The collision is said to be?
A. Partially inelastic
B. Partially elastic
C. Perfectly elastic
D. Perfectly inelastic
Q.74. A lead ball of 50 kg and an iron ball of 25 kg both of the same diameters are allowed
to fall from the top of a building. When they are 15 metres above the ground, they
have identical?
A. Acceleration
B. Momenta
C. P.E.
D. K.E.

Q.75. A body is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity of 9.8 m/s,it will attain height?
A. 19.8 m
B. 4.9 m
C. 29.4 m
D. 9.8 m
Q.76. If a gunman standing in a stationary boat in water fires the gun in a horizontal
direction?
A. The boat will capsize
B. The boat will move in the direction of the target
C. The boat will move away from the target
D. The boat will spin around

Q.77. When raindrops fall from a height under gravity?

A. They fall with terminal velocity directly proportional to their size.
B. The terminal velocity goes on decreasing.
C. The terminal velocity is the same for all drops.
D. The terminal velocity goes on increasing.

Q.78. Acceleration of bodies of different masses allowed to fall freely is?

A. Variable
B. Different for different bodies.
C. Different for different heights.
D. The same

Q.79. A massive ball collides with a light ball at rest. The momentum acquired by the light
ball is 100 N-sec. Which of the following is impulsive force?
A. 4 x 105 N
B. 2 x 105 N
C. 3 x 105 N
D. 1 x 105 N

Q.80. When a ball rolls down an inclined plane making an angle of 30' with the horizontal,
its acceleration will be?
A. 2.25 m/s2
B. 1.125 m/s2
C. 4.9 m/s2
D. 9.8 m/s22

Q.81. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an intial velocity of 49m/s the maximum height
 it will reach will be?
A. 500 m
B. 122.5 m
C. 545 m
D. 245 m

Q.82. The acceleration of a body sliding on an inclined plane is maximum if the angle of
inclination is?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90o

Q.83. If a body slides along a frictionless plane inclined at an angle 0, then the acceleration
of the body is?
A. 1/g sin 0
B. 1/g cos 0
C. g sin 0 theta
D. g cos 0

Q.84. The product of mass and velocity of a body is known as?

A. Potential energy
B. Angular momentum
C. Kinetic energy
D. Linear momentum

Q.85. The gravitational pull on a body is known as?

A. Acceleration
B. Force
C. Mass
D. Weight

Q.86. The direction of linear acceleration produced in a moving body is always the same as
the direction of?
A. Torque
B. Force
C. Velocity
D. Mass

Q.87. The shortest distance traveled by a body between two fixed points is known as?
A. Angular displacement
B. Amplitude
C. Linear displacement
D. Distance

Q.88. An example of projectile motion is?

A. An Object dropped from an airplane
B. All of the above
C. A bullet shot from a rifle
D. A thrown football
Q.89. The path of a projectile is?
A. Hyperbola
B. Ellipse
C. Circle
D. Parabola

Q.90. A shot fired horizontally with a velocity of 100 m/s from the top of a 122.5 m high
building will strike the ground at a distance of?
A. 100m
B. 600m
C. 500m
D. 300m

Q.91. A body can have constant velocity when it follows a?

A. Circular path
B. Elliptical path
C. Rectilinear path
D. Zig-Zag path

Q.92. A body sitting in train moving at constant velocity throws a ball straight up into the air,
the ball will drop?
A. Behind him
B. Beside him
C. In front of him
D. In his hand

Q.93. To improve the jumping record, a long jumper should?

A. Jump at an angle of 60"
B. Jumps as high as possible
C. Jump at an angle of 45"
D. None of the above

Q.94. The path followed by the projectile is known as its?

A. Trajectory
B. Cycle
C. Route
D. Maximum range

Q.95. During the projectile motion, the horizontal component of velocity?

A. Changes with time
B. Does not change but remains constant
C. Becomes zero
D. Increase with time

Q.96. Motion of a projectile is?

A. One dimensional
B. Two dimensional
C. Four dimensional
D. Three dimensional
Q.97. Motion of a body along Y-axis is?
One dimensional
Three dimensional
None of the above
Two dimensional

Q.98. The horizontal range of projectile is maximum when it is projected at an angle of?
A. 30"
B. 20
C. 45
D. 60"

Q.99. The velocity component, with which a projectile covers vertical distance, is minimum?
A. At the time of projection
B. At the highest point of its trajectory
C. At 1/4th of its trajectory
D. Just before hitting the plane of projection

Q.100. The velocity a projectile is maximum?

A. At the highest point
B. At one fourth of the height
C. Just before striking the ground and point of projection
D. At half of the height

Q.101. Radian is defined as the angle subtended at the centre of a circle by?
E. An are of length equal to thrice its radius
F. An are of length equal to double its radius
G. An are of length equal to 2.5 times its radius
H. An are of length equal to its radius

Q.102. The centripetal force is always directed?

A. Away from the centre along the radius
B. Opposite to the motion of the body
C. Along the direction of motion
D. Towards the centre along the radius

Q.103. When an object moves with uniform speed in a circular orbit, its centripetal
acceleration must be directed?
A. Away from the centre along the radius
B. Prependicular to the centre of circle
C. Along the direction of motion
D. Towards the centre along the radius

Q.104. The acceleration of a body undergoing uniform circular motion is constant in?
Direction only
Magnitude only
Both magnitude and direction
None of the above
Q.105. A body moves along a straight line is the motion of the body?
A. Translatory or linear
B. Rectilinear
C. Rotatory
D. Vibratory

Q.106. The mud flies off the tyre of a moving bicycle in the direction of?
A. Tangent to the tyre
B. Radius
C. Motion
D. Towards the centre

Q.107. Angular acceleration is produced by?

A. Torque
B. Force
C. Power
D. Pressure

Q.108. When a person throws a stone vertically upward while sitting in a train moving with
constant velocity the stone will fall?
A. Beside him
B. Behind him
C. In his hand
D. In front of him

Q.109. A bomber drops its bomb when it is vertically above the target, it misses the target
due to?
A. Gravitational force
B. Horizontal component of velocity
C. Air resistance
D. Vertical component of velocity

Q.110. If we want to kill a monkey sitting on the tree we should aim?

A. A little below the monkey
B. Straight at the monkey
C. At random
D. A little above the monkey
Q.1: How much time it is needed for moonlight to reach earth?
A. 5 min
B. 3 min
C. More than 2 seconds
D. Less than 2 seconds

Q2: Infrared radiation is detected by

A. spectrometer
B. pyrometer
C. nanometer
D. photometer

Q3: LZW coding is

A. lossy predictive compression
B. error free compression
C. predictive compression
D. lossy compression

Q4: Wavelength of sound wave is

A. Represented by Greek letter lambda
B. Having meter as its S.I. Unit
C. Distance between two consecutive crests or troughs
D. All of these

Q5: Which of the following will be the best scanning system for tracking? After a target has
been acquired
A. Conical
B. Spiral
C. Helical
D. Nodding

Q6: ----- range of radar depends on the average power radiated.

A. Maximum range
B. minimum range
C. velocity
D. momentem

Q7: A 24-bit RGB color image is termed as

A. pseudo color image
B. full color image
C. monochrome image
D. binary image

Q8: A body can be negatively charged by

A. giving excess of electrons to it
B. removing some of electron
C. giving some protons to it
D. none of these
Q9: The non-salient type rotor is also called
A. Cylindrical type
B. Projected type
C. Conical type
D. Spherical type

Q10: The object is placed at the principal focus of the simple microscope. If the focal length
of the lens is 5cm, the magnifying power is the object is placed at the principal focus of
the simple microscope. If the focal length of the lens is 5cm, the magnifying power is
A. Infinite
B. 5
C. 6
D. zero

Q11: A resistance wire strain gauge uses a soft iron wire of small diameter. The gauge factor is
+4.2. Neglecting the piezo resistive effects, calculate the poisson_s ratio
A. 4.2
B. 1.1
C. 1.6
D. 8.4

Q12: Which of the following takes place due to surface tension?

A. Gravitation pull
B. Capillary action
C. Viscosity
D. Radiation

Q13: Telemetering is a method of –

A. Counting pulses sent over long distances
B. Transmitting pictures from one place to another
C. Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
D. None

Q14: A bar magnet of magnetic moment m is cut into two equal parts in length. The magnetic
moment of either half is
A. m
B. 2m
C. m/2
D. zero

Q15: The difference in the variation of resistance within temperature in a metal and a
semiconductor arises essentially due to the difference in the
A. variation of scattering mechanism with temperature
B. crystal structure
C. variation of the number of charge carries with temperature
D. type of bonding.

Q16: Why does a Black hole appear 'BLACK'?

A. It is transparent in nature
B. It has more escape velocity than speed of light
C. It SEEMS to appear black; really not
D. For other reasons
Q17: Which of the following will not reduce the number of modes that an optical fiber can carry?
A. Reducing core diameter
B. Reducing numerical aperture
C. Increasing wave length
D. Reducing attenuation

Q18: A 1mA meter movement with an internal resistance of 1000 is to be Converted in to

0-100mA ammeter. Calculate the value of shunt current is=
A. 10mA
B. 1mA
C. 99mA
D. 100mA

Q19: A ball released from a certain height falls 5 m in one second. In 4 sec, it falls through
A. 80 m
B. 40 m
C. 1.25 m
D. 20 m

Q20: The minimum range of detection by pulse radar depends on

A. pulse width
B. Average transmitter power
C. beam width of the antenna
D. bandwidth of antenna

Q21: In a single tuned transformer coupled amplifier, under conditions of maximum transform
of power, total resistance appearing is shunt with the coil equals
A. R0^2
B. R0/2
C. R0
D. 2R0

Q22: Light years is used to measure the distance beween -------------

A. Earth & Stars
B. Two person on Earth
C. Distance between microscopic particle
D. none

Q23: In an Isothermal process the internal energy of a gas

A. Decreases
B. Remains Constant
C. Increases
D. Can't say

Q24: The three-phase induction motors up to 5hp can be started by

A. Direct on line starter
B. Star-delta starter
C. Auto transformer starter
D. Resistance starter
Q25: The bob of a simple pendulam is a hollow sphere with a hole at the bottom. It is filled with
mercury and set vibrating. As it vibrates, mercury begins to flow out slowly, then the
time period
A. increases
B. decreases
C. does not change
D. at first increases and then decreases

Q26: A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/ sec with one fork of frequency
288 cps. A little wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/sec.
The frequency of the unknown fork is
A. 286 cps
B. 292 cps
C. 294 cps
D. 288 cps

Q27: Cooking is quicker in a pressure cooker because

A. Increased pressure raises the boiling point
B. Steam is not wasted
C. Steam cooks food faster
D. Water boils at a lower temperature

Q28: In LVDT the core is made up of a

A. non-magnetic material
B. a solid ferro-electric material
C. high permeability, nickel-iron hydrogen annealed material
D. low permeability, ferro-electric material

Q29: An MTI system eliminates permanent echoes while preserving echoes from a moving
target by
A. decreasing pulse width
B. utilizing the Doppler effect
C. increasing peak transmitted power
D. wide beam width

Q30: An Isolation probe is used more compared to shielded probe because

A. it operates at low frequencies
B. its Q factor is high
C. it avoid the undesirable circuit loading effects
D. its bandwidth is large

Q31: A wobbulator circuit is used to

A. vary the radars pulse length
B. vary the radars PRT
C. increase peak power
D. generate the number of pulses
Q32: One Kilowatt is equal to?
A. 3.6x106 Joule
B. 3.4x106 Joule
C. 4.6x106 Joule
D. None of these.
Q33: The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
A. Zero
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Q34: The speed of cathode ray is

A. Equal to the speed of light
B. Less than the speed of light
C. Greater than the speed of light
D. Zero

Q35: The misalignment because of the angle between the core axes is called as __________
misalignment
A. Lateral
B. Angular
C. Longitudinal
D. Fault

Q36: Two coils have mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If a current in primary circuit is raised to 5A
in one millisec after closing the circuit what is the emf induced in the secondary
A. 7.5x10^3 V
B. 10^3 V
C. 9x10^3 V
D. 6x10^3 V

Q37: A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity
is?
A. 6.5
B. 7
C. 6.2
D. 6

Q38: _____ is the difference between the true value of quantity and the value indicated by
instrument
A. Dynamic error
B. Fiedlity
C. Measurement lag
D. Speed of response

Q39: Which of the following radar units passes the echo to the receiver? with minimum loss?
A. Transmitter
B. Duplexer
C. Modulator
D. Amplifier

Q40: The force between two electrons separated by a distance r varies as

A. r2
B. r
C. r-1
D. r-2
Q41: MTI radar determines the ------- by noting the apparent change in frequency of the
returning pulse of oscillation
A. radial Velocity
B. location of target
C. distance of the target
D. height of target

Q42: The concept of radio transmitter was first demonstrate by

A. Newton
B. Maxwell
C. Hertz
D. J.C.Bose

Q43: A tuning fork of frequency 90 is sounded and moved towards Frequency a tuning fork of
frequency 90 s sounded and moved towards an observer with a velocity equal to one tenth
the velocity of sound, the note heard by the observer will have a frequency ?
A. 100
B. 90
C. 80
D. 110

Q44: The silver lining surrounding the profile of a mountain just before sunrise is due to
A. Interference
B. Diffraction
C. dispersion
D. Refraction

Q45: A cyclotron is a device for accelerating?

A. light particles
B. chargeless heavy particles
C. charged particles
D. electrons

Q46: The IC 723 general purpose regulator can be adjusted for a

A. narrow range of negative voltage
B. narrow range of positive and negative voltage
C. wide range of positive or negative voltage
D. narrow range of positive voltage

Q47: A coding technique in which a quantizer is added and redundancies of closely spaced
pixels are eliminated by the difference between the actual and predicted value of that
pixel
A. bit plane coding
B. Huffman coding
C. arithmetic coding
D. lossy predictive coding
Q48: The eye piece that is used in telescope of the spectrometer for measurement purpose the
eye piece that is used in telescope of the spectrometer for measurement purpose
A. Ramsden's eye-piece
B. Huygen's eye piece
C. Plano convex lens
D. Plano concave lens

Q49: Erg / min is the unit of

A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. modulus of elesticity
D. power

Q50: Colours appear on a thin soap film and on soap bubbles due to the phenomenon of
A. Refraction
B. dispersion
C. Interference
D. diffraction