Teq - CPL Atg - FW - 2011
Teq - CPL Atg - FW - 2011
Teq - CPL Atg - FW - 2011
1.
12.
2.
13.
14.
3.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
When gliding into a head wind the best glide angle will be
achieved at
a.
an IAS which produces the best lift/drag ratio
b.
an IAS which is higher than that for best lift/drag ratio
c.
an IAS which is lower than that for best lift/drag ratio,
but which is higher than that required for best
endurance
22.
23.
4.
The angle between the chord line of the wing and the
longitudinal axis of the aeroplane is known as the angle of
a.
incidence
b.
dihedral
c.
attack
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
573-3
PAGE 1
24.
25.
26.
27.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
28.
41.
29.
42.
30.
43.
44.
45.
31.
32.
33.
34.
46.
35.
47.
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PAGE 2
62.
63.
64.
65.
A high wing aircraft has the thrust line above the drag line.
When the landing gear is lowered, the force required on the
tailplane to maintain straight and level flight is:
a.
Reduced force.
b.
No force.
c.
Increased force.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
573-3
PAGE 3
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
At altitudes above sea level the IAS stalling speed will be:
a.
the same as at sea level
b.
less than at sea level
c.
greater than at sea level
An aircraft wing stalls at:
a.
a constant true airspeed
b.
a constant angle of attack
c.
a constant indicated airspeed
A typical stalling angle of attack is:
a.
30
b.
15
c.
5
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
573-3
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
PAGE 4
101. Application of aileron alone when rolling into a turn will result
in unbalanced flight for the duration of the aileron input and
will result in
a.
sideslip
b.
skid
c.
either of the above may be correct depending on the
direction of the turn
102. What procedure is recommended for an engine out approach
and landing?
a.
The flightpath and procedures should be almost
identical to a normal approach and landing.
b.
The altitude and airspeed should be considerably
higher than normal throughout the approach.
c.
A normal approach, except do not extend the landing
gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.
103. What criteria determines which engine is the critical engine
of a twin-engine airplane?
a.
The one with the centre of thrust closest to the
centreline of the fuselage.
b.
The one designated by the manufacturer which
develops most usable thrust.
c.
The one with centre of thrust farthest from the
centreline of the fuselage.
104. What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane
with un-supercharged engines?
a.
None
b.
Increases with altitude
c.
Decreases with altitude.
105. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a
twin-engine airplane?
a.
With one engine inoperative.
b.
With climb power on.
c.
With full flaps and gear extended.
106. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative,
when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator
to be deflected outside the reference lines?
a.
While manoeuvering at minimum controllable airspeed
to avoid overbanking
b.
When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.
c.
When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude
107. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb
procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? ACCELERATE
TOa.
Best engine-out rate-of-climb airspeed while on the
ground, then lift off and climb at that speed.
b.
Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum
angle-of-climb airspeed.
c.
An airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb
at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.
108. What performance should a pilot of a light , twin-engine
airplane be able to maintain at Vmc?
a.
Heading.
b.
Heading and altitude.
c.
Heading, altitude and ability to climb 50 ft/min.
109. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a
light, twin-engine airplane represent?
a.
Maximum single-engine rate of climb
b.
Maximum single-engine angle of climb.
c.
Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine
operation.
110. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally
occur?
a.
Below .75 Mach.
b.
From .75 to 1.20 Mach.
c.
From 1.20 to 250 Mach.
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PAGE 6
159. In the event a booster pump fails in the engine fuel system:
a.
fuel will be drawn through the pump by-pass
b.
the fuel in that tank will become isolated
c.
ram air vent pressure will maintain supply to the engine
cylinders.
160. Vapour locks in fuel system pipelines are prevented by:
a.
the main engine pump
b.
booster pumps
c.
fuel tank vents.
161. Fuel system booster pumps are normally:
a.
engine driven
b.
electrically operated
c.
air operated.
162. Why is it desirable to leave an aircraft with full fuel tanks if
parking it overnight?
a.
Prevention of condensation of water in the tanks
b.
Prevention of drying out and cracking of fuel lines
c.
Ensure correct grade of fuel has been loaded
163. The octane rating of fuel is an indication of its
a.
calorific value
b.
volatility
c.
resistance to detonation
153. A bleed air heating system obtains a supply of hot air from:
a.
The turbine stage of a gas turbine engine
b.
The exhaust shroud of a piston engine
c.
The compressor stage of a gas turbine engine
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PAGE 7
174. Aircraft heaters which draw on hot air from around the
exhaust manifold
a.
are used only in twin-engined aircraft
b.
may cause carbon monoxide poisoning
c.
are unlikely to cause carbon monoxide (ie poisoning as
exhaust gases are easily detected by smell
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PAGE 8
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PAGE 9
240. The oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system has a space
above the oil to provide for:
a.
jack ram displacement.
b.
pressurisation.
c.
expansion of the oil and frothing.
231. When the piston of a four stroke piston engine is towards the
end of the power stroke:
a.
the gas temperature will be at its highest.
b.
the gas temperature will be reducing.
c.
the gas temperature will remain constant until BDC.
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PAGE 10
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PAGE 11
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PAGE 12
573-3
326. The use of fuel with an incorrect octane rating may lead to:
a.
Detonation.
b.
Pre-ignition.
c.
A higher manifold pressure.
327. Propeller efficiency is defined as:
a.
The ratio of shaft horsepower to brake horsepower.
b.
The ratio of brake horsepower to thrust horsepower.
c.
The ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower.
328. When the aircraft exhaust smoke is blue, it means the
aircraft:
a.
Has a too rich a mixture.
b.
Is burning oil.
c.
Has incorrect timing.
329. Carburettor icing occurs at:
a.
The engine air intake.
b.
The venturi, butterfly valve and manifold.
c.
The intake manifold only.
330. The breather pipe on an engine is used to:
a.
Blow out excess oil.
b.
Vent excess temperature.
c.
Relieve excess sump pressure.
331. The purpose of the reverse current cut-out switch in the
electrical system is:
a.
To prevent the battery from losing its charge by driving
the generator.
b.
To switch off the generator.
c.
To prevent the battery from being overcharged.
332. Circuit breakers are installed in aircraft:
a.
To switch systems on and off.
b.
To prevent overloading of a system.
c.
To see how much power a system requires.
333. The SG of AVGAS is 0.7. How much does 100 Imp Gal of
fuel weigh?
a.
700 lbs.
b.
70 lbs.
c.
7000 lbs.
334. The load capacity of a battery is measured in:
a.
Volts.
b.
Amps/hr.
c.
Ohm.
PAGE 13
350. The main load carrying part of the wing structure is:
a.
The leading edge.
b.
The spar.
c.
The rib.
573-3
PAGE 14
368. Entering a climb from cruise flight the correct sequence is:
a.
Throttle r.p.m. mixture.
b.
R.p.m. throttle mixture.
c.
Mixture r.p.m. throttle.
382. The part of the valve gear which absorbs the wear from the
cam is:
a.
The tappet.
b.
The push rod.
c.
The rocker arm.
573-3
PAGE 15
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PAGE 16
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PAGE 17
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PAGE 18
462. The additional load imposed on the wings during a level coordinated turn in smooth air is dependent on the:
a.
Angle of bank.
b.
Rate of turn.
c.
True airspeed.
463. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both
the aircraft and pilot in a co-ordinated constant altitude turn:
a.
Varies with the rate of turn.
b.
Is directly related to the aircrafts gross weight.
c.
Is constant.
464. In a constant altitude co-ordinated turn, the load factor
imposed on an aircraft is the result of:
a.
Rate of turn and airspeed.
b.
Angle of attack and airspeed.
c.
Centrifugal force and gravity.
465. If, while holding the angle of bank constant, the rate of turn is
varied, the load factor would:
a.
Remain constant.
b.
Vary depending upon airspeed.
c.
Increase if the speed is increased.
466. The increase in load factor that would take place if the angle
of bank were increased from 60 to 70 is:
a.
0.5 G
b.
1.0 G
c.
1.5 G
467. What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2
if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots?
a.
66 Knots.
b.
74 Knots.
c.
84 Knots.
468. What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2
if the unaccelerated stall speed is 80 knots?
a.
90 Knots.
b.
112 Knots.
c.
120 Knots.
469. At a constant power setting the rate of climb of an aircraft is
greater when the wings are level than when in a climbing turn
because, when level, the:
a.
Wing loading is greater.
b.
Centre of lift is nearer the trailing edge.
c.
Vertical lift component is greater.
470. Which statement is correct with respect to rate and radius of
turn for an aircraft in a co-ordinated turn at a constant
altitude?
a.
For any specific angle of bank and airspeed, the lighter
the aircraft, the faster the rate and the smaller the
radius of turn.
b.
For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and
radius of turn will not vary.
c.
The lower the airspeed the less the rate of turn for a
specific bank angle.
471. Which statement is true if, during a level co-ordinated turn,
the load factor was kept constant:
a.
A decrease in airspeed results in an increase in radius.
b.
An increase in airspeed results in an increase in radius.
c.
An increase in airspeed results in a decrease in radius.
472. Increasing the airspeed while maintaining a constant load
factor during a level co-ordinated turn would result in:
a.
The same radius of turn.
b.
A decrease in turn radius.
c.
An increase in the radius of turn.
473. If, during a level turn, the rate of turn is kept constant, an
increase in airspeed will result in:
a.
Constant load factor regardless of changes in angle of
bank.
b.
Need to decrease the angle of bank to maintain the
same rate of turn.
c.
Need to increase the angle of bank to maintain the
same rate of turn.
474. The type of drag which decreases with increase in speed is:
a.
Form drag.
b.
Interference drag.
c.
Induced drag.
475. It is not necessary to hold off bank in:
a.
A gliding turn.
b.
A climbing turn.
c.
A level turn.
476. Aileron drag, or adverse yaw, is most likely at:
a.
High speed.
b.
High angle of attack.
c.
Low angle of attack.
477. To be suitable for supersonic flight an aerofoil should have:
a.
A well rounded leading edge.
b.
A laminar flow section.
c.
A very sharp leading edge.
478. The first shock wave on an aerofoil approaching the speed of
sound occurs:
a.
At the trailing edge.
b.
On the top surface.
c.
Under the bottom surface.
479. The characteristics which would improve lateral stability are:
a.
High keel surface, low centre of gravity, dihedral.
b.
Longitudinal dihedral, low centre of gravity, large keel
surface.
c.
Sweepback, high centre of gravity, anhedral.
480. The effect of inertia moment would be increased with:
a.
Forward centre of gravity.
b.
Centre of pressure well aft.
c.
Centre of gravity well aft.
481. The type of control balance used to oppose flutter is:
a.
Inset hinge balance.
b.
Servo tab balance.
c.
Mass balance.
482. A wing would be called polymorphic if fitted with:
a.
Split flaps.
b.
Vortex generators.
c.
Fowler flaps.
483. An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in:
a.
A steady Rate 1 turn.
b.
In a steady climb.
c.
During take-off.
484. A heavy aircraft in relation to a lighter aircraft of the same
type will glide:
a.
Further in a tail wind.
b.
The same distance in still air conditions.
c.
More slowly in a head wind.
485. When taking off with an obstacle ahead the best speed to
use for the initial climb would be:
a.
Vx
b.
Va
c.
Vy
486. The vectors shown below indicate:
a.
A skidding left turn.
b.
A slipping right turn.
c.
A skidding right turn.
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PAGE 19
501. If, while holding the angle of bank constant, the rate of turn is
increased, the load factor would:
a.
Remain the same.
b.
Vary depending on speed.
c.
Vary depending on weight.
TURBINE ENGINES
502. The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which
the:
a.
Pressure rises and velocity falls.
b.
Pressure rises at a constant velocity.
c.
Velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
d.
Velocity rises and pressure falls.
490. The dividing line between Laminar Flow and Turbulent Flow
around an aerofoil is known as:
a.
Separation point.
b.
Transition Point.
c.
Line of mean camber.
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PAGE 20
573-3
529. Fuel is fed to the engine from the supply system via:
a.
Fuel Control Unit
b.
The fuel injection jets.
c.
The injector control unit.
530. In an automatic electrical starting system in a gas turbine
engine the:
a.
Ignition commences ten seconds after the start button
has been pushed.
b.
Ignition commences at the same time the starter motor
engages.
c.
Ignition commences when fuel starts flowing into the
combustion system.
531. In an electrically operated gas turbine start system, the
electric motor:
a.
Must be manually disconnected when the engine has
reached the required rpm.
b.
Is automatically switched off when the required rpm are
reached.
c.
Is automatically switched off after a specified period of
time or the engine is at sustaining rpm.
532. In an air start system:
a.
Air is blown through the compressor inlet to rotate the
engine.
b.
Air is blown through the turbine to rotate the engine.
c.
Air is supplied to an air starter motor.
533. A gas turbine engine, on starting, accelerates to a figure
below idle rpm and fails to accelerate above that value, this
indicates:
a.
A wet start.
b.
A hung start.
534. Prior to engine starting a gas turbine engine, the throttle:
a.
Must be set at ground idle.
b.
Must be set at a value above ground idle.
c.
Must be closed.
535. In the event a surge is suspected in the compressor of a gas
turbine engine, the:
a.
Throttle must be opened slowly.
b.
Engine must be shut down.
c.
Throttle must be closed slowly.
536. On leaving the compressor, the air:
a.
Passes into the primary zone of the combustion
chamber.
b.
Passes through the diffuser.
c.
Passes into the primary and secondary zone of the
combustion chamber.
d.
Passes into the swirl assembly of the combustion
chamber.
537. Fuel on entering the combustion chamber is primarily
atomised by:
a.
The swirl vanes.
b.
The diffuser.
c.
The dilution holes.
d.
The burner feed.
538. In a basic turbojet engine, of the total energy produced,
approximately:
a.
60% leaves the engine as thrust.
b.
40% leaves the engine as thrust.
c.
90% leaves the engine as thrust.
d.
25% leaves the engine as thrust.
PAGE 21
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PAGE 22
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(i)
PAGE 23
B
C
C
A
A
C
C
C
A
B
C
A
C
C
A
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
B
C
B
A
C
B
B
A
C
C
A
B
A
A
A
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
A
A
A
C
A
B
C
A
A
A
B
C
B
B
A
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
C
A
C
A
B
B
C
B
A
B
B
A
C
C
B
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
214.
215.
C
A
C
A
B
A
B
C
C
C
B
B
B
B
A
251.
252.
253.
254.
255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
A
B
A
B
A
C
A
A
C
C
A
C
C
B
A
301.
302.
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
310.
311.
312.
313.
314.
315.
A
B
B
A
C
A
A
C
A
C
A
C
C
C
A
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
365.
A
B
C
B
A
B
C
B
C
B
C
A
C
B
B
401.
402.
403.
404.
405.
406.
407.
408.
409.
410.
411.
412.
413.
414.
415.
C
C
C
A
B
B
C
B
B
A
C
C
A
B
A
451.
452.
453.
454.
455.
456.
457.
458.
459.
460.
461.
462.
463.
464.
465.
B
A
C
A
B
C
B
B
A
A
C
A
C
C
A
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
B
B
C
A
C
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
B
C
C
C
C
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
B
C
C
C
C
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
B
C
C
C
A
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
C
C
C
C
A
266.
267.
268.
269.
270.
A
B
B
B
A
316.
317.
318.
319.
320.
A
C
C
A
B
366.
367.
368.
369.
370.
A
B
C
A
A
416.
417.
418.
419.
420.
A
B
A
B
A
466.
467.
468.
469.
470.
B
C
B
C
B
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
B
C
B
B
A
C
C
A
C
B
C
B
C
A
B
C
C
A
B
A
B
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
B
A
A
B
A
A
B
B
B
A
B
B
A
A
C
C
A
B
C
C
B
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
C
C
C
B
A
B
C
C
A
C
A
B
A
A
B
C
B
C
C
B
C
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
B
B
C
B
C
A
A
B
C
C
B
B
C
C
A
A
C
A
C
C
B
221.
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
229.
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
B
A
B
B
C
B
B
C
A
C
B
A
C
A
B
A
A
B
A
C
C
271.
272.
273.
274.
275.
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
283.
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
291.
C
A
B
B
C
C
C
C
A
C
C
A
A
C
A
C
A
C
A
A
B
321.
322.
323.
324.
325.
326.
327.
328.
329.
330.
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
336.
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
B
A
A
A
C
A
C
B
B
C
A
B
A
B
A
B
B
B
B
A
C
371.
372.
373.
374.
375.
376.
377.
378.
379.
380.
381.
382.
383.
384.
385.
386.
387.
388.
389.
390.
391.
C
B
C
C
A
B
B
C
A
C
A
A
B
A
C
B
B
C
A
B
C
421.
422.
423.
424.
425.
426.
427.
428.
429.
430.
431.
432.
433.
434.
435.
436.
437.
438.
439.
440.
441.
C
B
C
A
A
C
A
C
C
B
B
C
C
A
A
A
C
A
C
C
C
471.
472.
473.
474.
475.
476.
477.
478.
479.
480.
481.
482.
483.
484.
485.
486.
487.
488.
489.
490.
491.
B
C
C
C
A
B
C
B
A
C
C
C
B
B
A
A
B
A
C
B
A
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
B
A
A
A
A
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
A
A
B
B
A
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
A
C
C
B
C
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
C
A
A
A
B
242.
243.
244.
245.
246.
C
B
C
C
C
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
C
B
A
C
B
342.
343.
344.
345.
346.
B
C
C
B
C
392.
393.
394.
395.
396.
B
A
A
C
B
442.
443.
444.
445.
446.
B
B
C
A
B
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
A
C
C
A
C
47.
48.
49.
50.
B
B
C
B
97.
98.
99.
100.
B
B
B
B
147.
148.
149.
150.
C
C
C
A
197.
198.
199.
200.
C
C
A
A
247.
248.
249.
250.
A
A
B
C
297.
298.
299.
300.
B
B
A
B
347.
348.
349.
350.
C
B
A
B
397.
398.
399.
400.
C
B
A
C
447.
448.
449.
450.
A
C
B
A
497.
498.
499.
500.
B
B
A
C
573-3
PAGE 2
501.
502.
503.
504.
A
A
A
A
521.
522.
523.
524.
C
A
C
A
541.
542.
543.
544.
B
C
D
C
561.
562.
563.
564.
B
A
B
B
505.
506.
507.
508.
509.
B
A
B
C
A
525.
526.
527.
528.
529.
B
C
A
B
A
545.
546.
547.
548.
549.
B
D
C
A
A
565.
566.
567.
568.
569.
B
A
A
D
A
510.
511.
512.
513.
514.
A
A
A
C
C
530.
531.
532.
533.
534.
B
B
C
B
C
550.
551.
552.
553.
554.
B
C
B
B
A
570.
571.
572.
573.
D
B
B
C
515.
516.
517.
518.
519.
520.
B
B
C
C
A
C
535.
536.
537.
538.
539.
540.
A
B
A
B
A
C
555.
556.
557.
558.
559.
560.
D
B
C
B
C
B
573-3
PAGE 2