HR Final

1.
_____ is the means through which managers ensure that employees' activities
and outputs are congruent with the organization's goals.
A.
Performance standardization
B.
Performance budgeting
C.
Performance management
D.
Performance indicator
E.
Performance dampener
2. The process through which an organization gets information on how closely

an employee's actual performance meets his or her performance plan is
known as _____.
A.
performance appraisal
B.
job analysis
C.
performance feedback
D.
ability analysis
E.
achievement discrepancy
3. The performance effectiveness of employees is provided to them during the

_____ process.
A.
B.
achievement discrepancy
C.
job rotation
D.
ability analysis
E.
performance feedback
4. The process of performance management begins with:
A.
developing employee goals, behavior, and actions to achieve

outcomes.
B.
defining performance outcomes for company division and

department.
C.
providing consequences for performance results.
D.
identifying the improvements needed.
E.
providing support and ongoing performance discussions.
5. Rick is the vice president of the Human Resources team. He designs a new
performance management process. He completes the first step and moves on
to the next step of developing employee goals and actions to achieve the
outcomes. Which of the following is he likely to do next to create an effective
performance management process?
A.
He will define
departments.
performance
outcomes
for
divisions
B.
He will evaluate performance.
C.
He will identify improvements needed.
D.
He will provide support and ongoing performance discussions.
E.
He will provide consequences for performance results.
and
6. Which of the following is an example of using performance management to

fulfill an administrative purpose?
A.
Define the results, behaviors, and, to some extent, employee

characteristics that are necessary.
B.
Develop employees who are effective at their jobs.
C.
Use performance appraisal to make decisions such as pay

raises, promotions, retention-termination, layoffs, and
recognition of individual performance.
D.
Identify employees' strengths and weaknesses, link employees to

appropriate training and development activities.
E.
Confront employees with their performance weaknesses.
7. As the CEO of Blue Corp., George makes it a point to meet new hires at all
levels of his organization. He explains the goals of the company and
emphasizes on the importance of an individual employee's role in the larger
picture. This initiative of George focuses on the _____ of performance
management.
A.
strategic purpose
B.
administrative purpose
C.
developmental purpose
D.
statistical purpose
E.
validity purpose
8. _____ is the extent to which the performance management system elicits job
performance that is consistent with an organization's strategy, goals, and
culture.
A.
Specificity
B.
Reliability
C.
Validity
D.
Strategic congruence
E.
Acceptability
9. Globo Analytics Inc., a data analysis company, has modified its performance
management system. Apart from training employees on their specific tasks,
the trainers and managers help the employees become more aware of the
overall goals of the company and how their individual performances influence
the broader goals of the company. As a result of this, employees'
performances have become more consistent with the organization's
strategies, goals, and culture. This initiative of Globo focused on the _____
criterion of performance management.
A.
consistency
B.
strategic congruence
C.
social
D.
acceptability
E.
risk avoidance
10.Prometheus Corp. is a large-scale manufacturer of consumer electronic

gadgets. As part of its performance management system, Prometheus
measures the amount each employee contributes to the profits of the
company, and they are either held accountable or rewarded based on their
contributions. With regard to performance measurement, under which of the
following terms would contribution to profits be categorized?
A.
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
B.
Critical success factors (CSFs)
C.
Non-performing assets (NPAs)
D.
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
E.
Behavioral Observation Scales (BOSs)
11.Which performance management evaluation criterion reflects the extent to

which a performance measure assesses all the relevantand only the
relevantaspects of performance?
A.
Reliability
B.
Strategic congruence
C.
Acceptability
D.
Specificity
E.
Validity
12.Whittaker Publishing Corp. is a publishing company that wants to hire more

technical experts to handle the software requirements in the publishing
process. However, the test given to the programmers assesses not only their
technical knowledge, but also their communication skills, language abilities,
and understanding of client services. The test conducted by Whittaker
Publishing Corp. is _____.
A.
high on reliability
B.
low on strategic congruence
C.
high on specificity
D.
high on acceptability
E.
low on validity
13.A performance measure is said to be contaminated when:

A.
it does not measure all aspects of performance.
B.
it evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance.
C.
it is a subjective supervisory measure of job performance.
D.
it is not reliable over time.
E.
the overlap between actual job performance and the measure of job
performance is maximized.
14.A software company assesses its developers more on their client support
skills rather than their development skills. Which of the following terms would
best describe the software company's performance management process?
A.
Deficient
B.
Contaminated
C.
Unreliable
D.
Inconsistent
E.
Unspecified
15.Elle Inc. is a firm that holds frequent reviews and feedback sessions for its
employees. It demands that the same person should review the employees of
a team to ensure that the performance evaluation is consistent; tests
retests are conducted periodically to make sure the evaluation is consistent.
These two steps taken by Elle focus on the _____ of performance
management.
A.
reliability
B.
C.
specificity
D.
acceptability
E.
validity
16.The consistency in the ratings given by two different individuals who evaluate
an employee's performance is known as _____ reliability.
A.
internal consistency
B.
interrater
C.
inter-method
D.
test-retest
E.
parallel-forms
17.A measure that results in drastically different ratings over time lacks _____
reliability.
A.
internal consistency
B.
interrater
C.
parallel-forms
D.
test-retest
E.
inter-method
18.Which of the following statements best defines the acceptability of a

performance measure?
A.
It is the extent to which the performance management system

elicits job performance that is consistent with the organization's
strategy, goals, and culture.
B.
It is the extent to which a performance measure gives detailed

guidance to employees about what is expected of them and in what
ways they are unsuitable for the job.
C.
It is the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the

relevantand only the relevantaspects of job performance.
D.
It is the extent to which a performance measure is free from

random error.
E.
It is the extent to which a performance measure is deemed

to be satisfactory or adequate by those who use it.
19.The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees

about what is expected of them is called _____.
A.
reliability
B.
validity
C.
specificity
D.
acceptability
E.
20.Which of the following approaches to measuring performance uses some

overall assessment of an individual's performance or worth and seeks to
develop some ranking of the individuals within a work group?
A.
The results approach
B.
The attribute approach
C.
The comparative approach
D.
The consequential approach
E.
The behavioral approach
21.Which of the following is a comparative approach to ranking that consists of a

manager looking at a list of employees, deciding who the best employee is,
and crossing that person's name off the list?
A.
Simple ranking
B.
Alternation ranking
C.
Reverse ranking
D.
Elimination by aspect
E.
Forced distribution
22.The ranking technique that requires certain percentages of employees to be

categorized into predetermined categories or groups based on their
performance is known as _____.
A.
forced distribution
B.
high/low ranking system
C.
paired comparison
D.
alternation ranking
E.
simple ranking
23.The _____ method requires managers to compare every employee with every
other employee in the work group, giving an employee a score of every time
he/she is considered the higher performer.
A.
partner measurement
B.
probability distribution
C.
forced distribution
D.
paired comparison
E.
alternation ranking
24.Jason is a manager at Eros Corp. He needs to perform an evaluation of his

subordinates. He does this by pairing each of his subordinates with every
other subordinate in the same group, and then selects the higher performer
between the two. At the end of the process, he calculates the number of
times a subordinate has been the higher performer in a match-up. Which type
of performance management system does Jason employ to perform the
evaluation?
A.
Probability distribution
B.
Simple ranking
C.
Forced distribution
D.
Paired comparison
E.
Scanlon plans
25.Roundel Inc. is a company that sells automobile tires. The company is

projecting an increase in sales in the next twelve months, and is looking to fill
the senior positions through internal recruiting to meet this demand. The
company is evaluating the individual performances and seeking to develop
some ranking of the individuals within a work group to identify the best
performer. Which of the following approaches is the company using?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The quality approach
26.The _____ approach to performance management focuses on the extent to

which individuals have certain characteristics or traits believed desirable for
the company's success.
A.
results
B.
quality
C.
behavioral
D.
comparative
E.
attribute
27.Which of the following attribute approaches to performance management is

most commonly used?
A.
Behaviorally anchored rating scales
B.
Mixed standard scales
C.
Behavior observation scales
D.
Graphic rating scales
E.
Simple ranking scales
28.Teknikal Inc. decides to implement a new performance management system.

It consists of a list of five traits used to evaluate all the employees. The
manager considers one employee at a time; and on a continuum with
different points, circles the number that signifies how much of a particular
trait the individual has. Which type of performance management system is
Teknikal Inc. using?
A.
Probability distribution
B.
Simple ranking
C.
Forced distribution
D.
Paired comparison
E.
Graphics rating scale
29.In the graphic rating scale, the rater:

A.
defines performance dimensions by developing behavioral anchors

associated with different levels of performance.
B.
defines the relevant performance dimensions and then develops

statements representing good, average, and poor performances
along each dimension.
C.
considers one employee at a time, circling the number that

signifies how much of that trait the individual has.
D.
identifies and provides descriptions of competencies that are

common for an entire occupation, organization, job family, or a
specific job.
E.
compares every employee with every other employee in the work

group, giving an employee a score of every time he or she is
considered the higher performer.
30.In which performance technique are managers given a total of three

statements of performance per dimension and asked to indicate whether the
employee's performance is above (+), at (), or below (-) the statements?
A.
Behaviorally anchored rating scale
B.
Forced distribution scale
C.
Behavior observation scale
D.
Graphic rating scale
E.
Mixed-standard scale
31.Which of the following is true regarding the attribute approach to

performance management?
A.
There is usually a high congruence between the techniques used in

this approach and the company's strategy.
B.
The methods usually have clearer performance standards due to

which different raters provide similar ratings and rankings.
C.
It is easy to develop and

organizations and strategies.
D.
It provides specific guidance and feedback to employees.
E.
The ratings from this approach are easily accepted by employees

during feedback.
is
generalizable
across
32.Which of the following approaches would be worst suited to provide

managers with the specific guidance required to correct an employee's
performance deficiencies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
33.Which performance management technique initially involves the

identification of a large number of critical incidents, followed by the
classification of these incidents into performance dimensions, and finally
ranking these incidents into levels of performance?
A.
Behaviorally anchored rating scales
B.
Graphic rating scales
C.
Comparative rating scales
D.
Organizational behavior modification
E.
Competency models
34.The performance management method that requires managers to rate the

frequency with which the employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating
period is the _____.
A.
simple ranking method
B.
behavioral observation scale
C.
graphic rating scale
D.
organizational behavior modification method
E.
forced distribution scale
35.Which of the following is

performance measurement?
true
regarding
behavioral
approaches
to
A.
They link the company's strategy to the specific behavior

necessary to implement that strategy.
B.
They adopt a very subjective approach to evaluating human

behavior at the workplace.
C.
They result in techniques that have a low degree of validity and

acceptability.
D.
They assume that there are multiple best ways to do the job.
E.
Despite substantial investments in training, the techniques are not

strong enough to be reliable.
36.The _____ approach assumes that subjectivity can be eliminated from the
measurement process and that outcomes are the closest indicator of one's
contribution to organizational effectiveness.
A.
behavior
B.
results
C.
attribute
D.
quality
E.
comparative
37.Which of the following is a means of measuring and feeding back productivity

information to personnel with the main goal of motivating employees to
higher levels of productivity?
A.
Projective tests
B.
Productivity measurement and evaluation system
C.
Assessment centers
D.
Critical incidents
E.
Multi-criteria decision analysis
38.Which of the following is the first step in the Productivity Measurement and
Evaluation System (ProMES)?
A.
The staff defines indicators of the products to measure how well the
products are being generated.
B.
The management develops a feedback system that provides

employees and work groups with information about their specific
level of performance.
C.
People in the organization identify the set of activities or

objectives the organization expects to accomplish.
D.
The employee and manager identify what the employee can do to

capitalize on performance strengths.
E.
The staff establishes the contingencies between the amount of the

indicators and the level of evaluation associated with that amount.
39.Which of the following is true about the results approach to performance

management?
A.
The results approach relies primarily on a combination of the

attribute and results approaches to performance measurement.
B.
The results approach virtually eliminates problems of leniency,

central tendency, and strictness.
C.
The techniques of the results approach usually have very little

congruence with the company's strategy.
D.
The results approach is usually highly unacceptable to both

managers and employees.
E.
The results approach minimizes subjectivity, relying on

objective, quantifiable indicators of performance.
40.A performance management system designed

orientation can be expected to:
with
a strong
quality
A.
emphasize an assessment of system factors in the measurement

system, but not of the person factors.
B.
emphasize that managers' and employees' work separately to solve

performance problems.
C.
involve only the external customers in setting standards and

measuring performances.
D.
use multiple sources to evaluate person and system factors.
E.
emphasize an assessment of person factors in the measurement

system, but not of the system factors.
41._____ refers to practices participated in by employees from all levels of the

company that focus on continuous improvement of business processes.
A.
Quality circle
B.
Muda
C.
Kaizen
D.
Root cause analysis
E.
Business process reengineering
42.Which of the following statistical process quality control techniques helps

identify the redundancies in procedures that increase manufacturing or
service time?
A.
Cause-and-effect diagrams
B.
Control charts
C.
Pareto charts
D.
Process-flow analysis
E.
Histograms
43.A _____ is a quality control technique that lists causes of a problem in

decreasing order of importance.
A.
cause-and-effect diagram
B.
control chart
C.
Pareto chart
D.
process-flow analysis
E.
histogram
44.Which quality control technique is useful for understanding the amount of

variance between an outcome and the expected value or average outcome?
A.
A control chart
B.
A histogram
C.
A cause-and-effect diagram
D.
A process-flow analysis
E.
A Pareto chart
45.Which of the following observations is true about scattergrams?

A.
They help in identifying the most important cause of a problem.
B.
They are useful for understanding the amount of variance between

an outcome and the expected value or average outcome.
C.
They help employees determine whether the relationship

between two variables or events is positive, negative, or
zero.
D.
They assume that that the majority of problems are the result of a
small number of causes.
E.
They are useful for identifying redundancy in processes that

increase manufacturing or service time.
46.Which of the following is true about the quality approach to performance

measurement?
A.
The quality approach techniques usually have very little strategic

congruence.
B.
The quality approach has very low acceptability.
C.
The quality approach does not advocate the evaluation of personal

traits.
D.
The quality approach adopts a systems-oriented focus.
E.
The quality approach relies primarily on a combination of the

comparative and results approaches to performance measurement.
47.Both the comparative and the attribute approaches to performance

measurement are _____.
A.
high on strategic congruence
B.
very low on specificity
C.
low on acceptability
D.
high on reliability
E.
very high on validity
48.Which of the following approaches to performance measurement minimizes

contamination and deficiency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
49._____ are the most frequently used source of performance information.

A.
Peers
B.
Managers
C.
Subordinates
D.
Employees themselves
E.
Customers
50.Which of the following is true of peers as the source for performance

information?
A.
Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and often

have the most opportunity to observe the employee in dayto-day activities.
B.
Peer evaluations give employees power over their managers, thus

putting the manager in a difficult situation.
C.
Peers are comfortable providing evaluations for both administrative

and developmental purposes.
D.
Peers have the ability to discard the fact that they may be friends
with the ratee in order to provide an unbiased rating.
E.
Peers give feedback that is strongly related to performance and to

employee perceptions of the accuracy of the appraisal.
51.The appraisals that involve collecting subordinates' evaluations of manager's

behavior or skills are known as _____.
A.
-degree feedback
B.
screening interviews
C.
peer review
D.
Kaizen
E.
upward feedback
52.Which of the following is a disadvantage of subordinate evaluations?

A.
Subordinates tend to focus only on aspects of their manager's

performance that are measured, neglecting those that are not.
B.
Subordinates do not have adequate opportunity to observe a

manager's interactions and behavior.
C.
Subordinates have the potential for friendship to bias ratings.
D.
Subordinates have power over their managers, thus putting

the managers in a difficult situation.
E.
Subordinates find the situation of being both rater and ratee

uncomfortable when the evaluations are made for administrative
decisions.
53.The _____ technique consists of having multiple raters above, equal to, and
below the manager providing input into a manager's evaluation.
A.
employee integrity testing
B.
background check
C.
degree appraisal
D.
upward feedback
E.
54.Which of the following rater errors is based on stereotypes the rater has
about how individuals with certain characteristics are expected to perform?
A.
Horns
B.
Similar to me
C.
Halo
D.
Contrast
E.
Central tendency
55.A competent employee receives lower-than-deserved ratings because of a

few outstanding colleagues who set very-high performance standards. This is
an example of a _____ rater error.
A.
contrast
B.
distributional
C.
halo
D.
similar to me
E.
horns
56._____ is a rater error in which a rater gives high ratings to all employees
regardless of their performance.
A.
Halo
B.
Contrast
C.
Central tendency
D.
Leniency
E.
Similar to me
57.A _____ rater error is one in which a rater gives middle or average ratings to
all employees despite their performance.
A.
horns
B.
leniency
C.
central tendency
D.
strictness
E.
contrast
58._____ rating error occurs when a rater gives an employee high ratings on all
aspects of performance because of his or her overall positive impression of
the employee.
A.
Contrast
B.
Halo
C.
Leniency
D.
Similar to me
E.
Central tendency
59.Brian, a psychology student, has had an overall negative impression of his

psychology professor. As a consequence, during the end of term appraisal, he
rates his professor low on all performance criteria. Which of the following
rater errors has Brian committed?
A.
Horns
B.
Leniency
C.
Central tendency
D.
Contrast
E.
Strictness
60.A situation in which evaluators purposefully distort a rating to achieve

personal or company goals is referred to as _____.
A.
Bayesian inference
B.
group dynamics
C.
-degrees feedback
D.
appraisal politics
E.
similar to me error
61._____ attempts to emphasize the multidimensional nature of performance and

thoroughly familiarize the raters with the actual content of various
performance dimensions.
A.
Performance training
B.
Sensitivity training
C.
Multidimensional training
D.
Rater accuracy training
E.
Process-flow analysis
62._____, attended by managers, provide a way to help ensure that performance

is evaluated consistently across managers and to reduce the influence of
rating errors and politics on appraisals.
A.
Calibration meetings
B.
Frame-of-reference trainings
C.
Multidimensional trainings
D.
Rater accuracy trainings
E.
Succession planning meetings
63.Which of the following is an example of a frame-of-reference training?

A.
Devon focuses primarily on making managers aware of rating errors

and how to reduce them effectively.
B.
Mark makes managers aware of how errors influence ratings.
C.
Dan emphasizes on using the same idea of high, medium,

and low performances when making evaluations.
D.
Sam stresses on having consistent standards of evaluation.
E.
Jennifer focuses on eliminating politics through discussion among

managers.
64.CobWeb Inc., a software firm, assesses managers based on how well they
understand their subordinates, and the factors involved in their poor
performance. Which of the following examples is the most appropriate
evaluation of the input factors involved in analyzing poor performance?
A.
Lin considers if her subordinate has the necessary technical skills

required for the task.
B.
Ray checks if his subordinate is emotionally able to perform at the

expected level.
C.
Jane looks into whether her subordinate has been given information
about his performance.
D.
Will analyzes if performance consequences are given in a timely

manner.
E.
Sebastian checks if the job flow and procedures are logical.
65.In what legal suit would the plaintiff allege that

measurement system varies according to individuals?
A.
Harassment suit
the
performance
B.
Statutory tort
C.
Unjust dismissal suit
D.
Discrimination suit
E.
Custody actions
CHAPTER 9 REVIEWER HR
1. Which of the following is true of training and development?
A.
Training primarily prepares employees for future positions

and jobs that do not exist as yet.
B.
As training becomes more strategic, the distinction between

training and development will become clearer.
C.
Development focuses primarily on helping employees' performance

in their current jobs.
D.
Development is critical for talent management, particularly for

those with leadership potential.
E.
Employees rely on training to improve the skills required for jobs in

other places.
2. Training is different from development, in that:

A.
development focuses on the present, while training focuses on the

future.
B.
training considers an employee's work experience more than

development does.
C.
development aims to prepare employees for changes, while training

prepares them for current jobs.
D.
participation in training
development is required.
E.
unlike development, training considers requirements of jobs that do

not exist as yet.
is
voluntary,
while
that
in
3. Which of the following statements about training is correct?

A.
It prepares employees primarily for changes in job requirements.
B.
Participation in training programs is voluntary.
C.
It increases an employee's ability to move into jobs that do

not yet exist.
D.
It makes very little use of the employees' work experiences.
E.
It focuses on employees' future jobs.
4. Which of the following is true of a protean career?

A.
It focuses primarily on external rewards offered by an organization.
B.
Managers play the central role in guiding employees with protean

careers.
C.
Psychological success plays a small role in protean careers.
D.
It is based on employees' self-direction.
E.
It has very little implication on employee development.
5. Which of the following statements is true of psychological success?

A.
Psychological success limits achievement to work-related goals.
B.
Psychological success is determined primarily by the signals a

company gives to its employees.
C.
Promotion and salary increase are prime factors that determine

psychological success.
D.
Psychological success is the greater focus of those pursuing

protean careers.
E.
Factors such as family and good health are not a part of

psychological success.
6. Which of the following is true of different career patterns?
A.
An expert career pattern involves a lifelong commitment to a field

or specialization.
B.
A traditional career pattern involves movement across many

disciplines.
C.
Career patterns involving movement across disciplines are on the

decline.
D.
A traditional career pattern does not follow any hierarchy.
E.
A spiral career pattern involves limited movement across fields or

occupations.
7. Which of the following best describes traditional careers?

A.
They are boundaryless.
B.
They follow a nonlinear path.
C.
They consist of movements that follow a spiral pattern.
D.
They consist of career moves across different fields.
E.
They consist of a series of steps in a linear hierarchy.
8. _____ career patterns

specialization.
A.
Nonlinear
B.
Boundaryless
C.
Spiral
D.
Flexible
E.
Expert
involve
lifelong
commitment
to
field
or
9. Career patterns involving movement across specializations or disciplines are

called _____ career patterns.
A.
linear
B.
spiral
C.
expert
D.
traditional
E.
specialized
10.Which of the following is true of a boundaryless career pattern?

A.
This pattern is on the decline and is likely to disappear soon.
B.
It largely consists of expert career patterns that involve

years of specialization.
C.
It does not encourage movement across fields or different

occupations.
D.
It is influenced by personal or family demands.
E.
It involves identifying more with the employer than with the job.
11.The _____ is used to retain and motivate employees by identifying and

meeting their development needs.
A.
talent management system
B.
development planning system
C.
knowledge management system
D.
information management system
E.
client management system
12.Which of the following psychological tests helps employees identify their

occupational and job preferences?
A.
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B.
Big-Five Locater
C.
Dissociative Experiences Scale
D.
Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
E.
Rorschach test
13.The _____ identifies employees' preferences for working in different types of

environments.
A.
B.
Big Five Locater
C.
Attribute Hierarchy Model
D.
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
E.
Self-Directed Search
14.Which of the following is the first step in the development planning system?
A.
Reality check
B.
Self-assessment
C.
Goal setting
D.
Action planning
E.
Employee appraisal
15.When an employee
responsibility is to:
is
in
the
self-assessment
step,
the
company's
A.
communicate where the employee fits in the plans of the company.
B.
ensure that the goal is specific and measurable.
C.
provide appraisal information to identify strengths and weaknesses.
D.
identify resources to help employees reach their goals.
E.
conduct performance evaluation.
16.During the self-assessment step in the career management process, an

employee:
A.
forms a timetable to reach his or her goals.
B.
identifies the opportunities and needs to improve.
C.
identifies what needs are realistic to develop.
D.
identifies goal and method to determine goal progress.
E.
ensures that his or her goal is specific, measureable, and

attainable.
17.A company communicates performance evaluation to its employees during

the _____ step in the career management process.
A.
succession planning
B.
self-assessment
C.
reality check
D.
goal setting
E.
action planning
18.Which of the following occurs during reality check in the career management
process?
A.
Employees identify the steps and a timetable required to reach their

goals.
B.
Companies ensure that employees' goals are attainable and

relevant.
C.
Companies communicate where employees fit in long-range

plans of the company.
D.
Companies provide employees information on their strengths and

weaknesses.
E.
Employees identify opportunities and needs to improve.
19.Which of the following

management process?
happens
during
goal-setting
in
the
career
A.
Employees identify the steps and timetable to reach their goals.
B.
Companies identify the resources that employees need to reach

their goals.
C.
Companies provide assessment information

interests and values of the employees.
to
D.
Companies ensure
measurable.
specific
E.
Employees identify opportunities and needs to improve.
that
employees'
goals
are
identify
and
20.In a career management process, when employees identify the steps and a
timetable to reach their goals, the company must:
A.
provide assessment information to identify interests and values.
B.
communicate performance evaluation.
C.
identify resources needed by employees to reach their goals.
D.
commit to help employees reach their goals.
E.
ensure that the goals are specific, relevant, and timely.
21._____ refers to the information employees receive about how the company
evaluates their skills and knowledge and where they fit into the company's
plans.
A.
Job specification
B.
Reality check
C.
Job description
D.
Action plan
E.
Self-report
22._____ refers to the process of employees developing short- and long-term

development objectives.
A.
Succession planning
B.
Self-assessment
C.
Reality check
D.
Goal setting
E.
Action planning
23._____ involve lectures by business experts, adventure learning, and meetings

with customers.
A.
Personality tests
B.
Action plans
C.
Focus interviews
D.
Formal education programs
E.
Reality checks
24._____ involves collecting information and providing feedback to employees

about their behavior, communication style, or skills.
A.
Assessment
B.
Job specification
C.
Job description
D.
Negotiation
E.
Reimbursement
25.Which of the following assessments is based on Carl Jung's personality type

theory?
A.
The Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory
B.
The Myers-Briggs Type Inventory
C.
The Big Five personality test
D.
The Rorschach inkblot test
E.
The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire
26.The _____ is based on a theory that emphasizes that we have a fundamental

personality type that shapes and influences how we understand the world,
process information, and socialize.
A.
B.
Myers-Briggs Type Inventory
C.
Big Five Personality Test
D.
Rorschach inkblot test
E.
Eysenck Personality Questionnaire
27.Which of the following tests can be used to determine the personality type
that best suits an employee out of the personality types available?
A.
B.
C.
The Big Five Personality Test
D.
E.
28.IsaK Corp. is an event management company. In order to allot tasks that are
more compatible with the personality of individual employees, it conducts a
test that rates them on the scales of introversion or extroversion; sensing or
intuition; judging or perceiving; thinking or feeling. Which of the following
tests is IsaK using to assess employees?
A.
B.
C.
The Big Five Personality Test
D.
E.
29.Selena uses the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory to assess her personality type. If
she scores highest in introversion, intuition, thinking, and perceiving, her
personality type would be _____.
A.
IIPT
B.
INTP
C.
NIFP
D.
NTJP
E.
FNJP
30.The items in the Myer-Briggs Type Inventory that focus on individuals'

preferences for information gathering will score the individuals based on
_____.
A.
judging versus perception
B.
thinking versus feeling
C.
introversion versus extroversion
D.
sensing versus intuition
E.
internal versus external locus of control

preferences for energy will score the individuals based on _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

preferences for lifestyle will score the individuals based on _____.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
33.According to the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory, individuals who are _____ tend
to be serious, quiet, practical, orderly, and logical.
A.
introverted, intuitive, feeling, and perceiving (INFPs)
B.
introverted, sensing, thinking, and judging (ISTJs)
C.
extroverted, intuitive, feeling, and perceiving (ENFPs)
D.
extroverted, sensing, thinking, and perceiving (ESTPs)
E.
extroverted, sensing, feeling, and perceiving (ESFPs)
34.Which of the following is true of a typical assessment center?

A.
It has one rater who is responsible for assessing all employees'

performances.
B.
It is usually an on-site location where people can be

assessed while at work.
C.
It is primarily used to check if an employee has the basic technical

skills required for a job.
D.
Usually a single comprehensive test is conducted that tests

employees on different skills.
E.
Multiple assessors evaluate performance on a number of exercises.
35.In a(n) _____, a team of five to seven employees is assigned a problem and
must work together to solve it within a certain time period.
A.
interview
B.
in-basket simulation
C.
role-play
D.
focused interview
E.
leaderless group discussion
36.Which of the following is an exercise used in assessment centers where

employees answer questions about their work, personal experiences, and skill
strengths and weaknesses?
A.
A leaderless group discussion
B.
An in-basket simulation
C.
A role-play
D.
An interview
E.
A focus-group discussion
37.A(n) _____ is a simulation of the administrative tasks of the manager's job.

A.
B.
in-basket
C.
role-play
D.
interview
E.
focus-group discussion
38.Dev, a team leader, manages a team of project leads. He conducts an

exercise for his subordinates; they are asked to pick documents that
resemble those found on his desk and decide how they would respond to
them. This exercise is an example of a(n) _____.
A.
focus group discussion
B.
role-play
C.
interview
D.
in-basket
E.
39._____ refers to participants taking the part of a manager or other employee.

A.
Focus group discussion
B.
Role-play
C.
Interview
D.
Job enlargement
E.
Leaderless group discussion
40.Which of the following would be most appropriate to help employees

understand the situations that managers face and the decisions that they
have to make?
A.
Interviews
B.
Leaderless group discussions
C.
Focus group discussions
D.
Personality tests
E.
Role-plays
41.Which of the following tests is used to determine if employees can get along
with others and their tolerance for ambiguity?
A.
Cognitive ability test
B.
Technical skills test
C.
Personality test
D.
Interest test
E.
Aptitude test
42.The process through which an organization gets information on how well an

employee is doing his or her job is known as _____.
A.
job analysis
B.
C.
job evaluation
D.
job performance
E.
talent management
43._____ is a performance appraisal process for managers that is based on

subordinates' evaluations.
A.
Mentor feedback
B.
Peer feedback
C.
-degree feedback
D.
Upward feedback
E.
Intrinsic feedback
44.In _____, employees' behaviors or skills are evaluated not only by

subordinates but by their peers, customers, bosses, and by themselves.
A.
paired comparisons systems
B.
intrinsic feedback systems
C.
-degree feedback systems
D.
upward feedback systems
E.
mentor feedback systems
45._____ refer to the relationships, problems, demands, tasks, and other features
that employees face in their jobs.
A.
Job specifications
B.
Job evaluations
C.
Job designs
D.
Job redesigns
E.
Job experiences
46.Which of the following is true about how job experiences affect development?
A.
Job experiences that are seen as negative stressors challenge

employees to stimulate learning.
B.
Job challenges viewed as positive stressors create high levels of

harmful stress for employees.
C.
All job demands, including obstacles, are related to learning.
D.
Obstacles and job demands related to creating change are more

likely to lead to negative stress.
E.
The closer the previous job experience is to a new job, the

greater the learning.
47._____ gives employees a series of job assignments in various functional areas

of the company or movement among jobs in a single functional area or
department.
A.
Job enlargement
B.
Job design
C.
Job evaluation
D.
Job rotation
E.
Job specification
48.Which of the following practices best helps employees gain an overall

appreciation of the company's goals?
A.
Job rotation
B.
Job analysis
C.
Job designing
D.
Job evaluation
E.
Job specification
49.Which of the following is true of job rotations?

A.
A long-term perspective may be created of problems and

solutions.
B.
Productivity losses may be experienced by the department that is

gaining an employee.
C.
Frequent rotation
motivation.
D.
Employees develop functional specialties when they are rotated

frequently.
E.
Employees who are rotated frequently receive more challenging

assignments.
may
result
in
employee
satisfaction
and
50.The movement of an employee to a different job assignment in a different

area of the company is known as a(n) _____.
A.
internship
B.
promotion
C.
transfer
D.
externship
E.
sabbatical
51.Which of the following is true of employees' movements across an

organization?
A.
A transfer always includes a raise in pay and position.
B.
A promotion usually does not include a raise in pay or responsibility.
C.
A transfer usually includes an increase in responsibility and

authority.
D.
A promotion usually occurs across different departments of the

organization.
E.
A downward move may involve a move to another position at the

same level.
52.A lateral demotion involves a:

A.
raise in responsibility without a change in position.
B.
raise in responsibility without a change in authority.
C.
movement to higher position in a different area.
D.
movement to a lower position for cross-functional experience.
E.
movement to another position at the same level.
53._____ are advancements into positions with greater challenges, more

responsibility, and more authority than in the previous job.
A.
Sabbaticals
B.
Internships
C.
Externships
D.
Promotions
E.
Transfers
54.A leave of absence from the company for personal reflection, renewal, and
skill development is called a(n) _____.
A.
externship
B.
apprenticeship
C.
internship
D.
retirement
E.
sabbatical
55._____ is an interpersonal relationship that is used to develop employees.

A.
Internships
B.
Apprenticeships
C.
Externships
D.
Training
E.
Mentoring
56.A(n) _____ is an experienced, productive senior employee who helps develop

a less experienced employee.
A.
apprentice
B.
intern
C.
trainee
D.
mentor
E.
protg
57.Which of the following is a disadvantage of the formal mentoring program?

A.
It does not ensure access to mentors for all employees.
B.
Gender and race can act as an obstacle in making mentors

accessible to employees.
C.
Participants in the mentoring relationship do not know what is

expected of them.
D.
Mentors may not be able to provide counseling

coaching in an artificially created relationship.
E.
It does not encourage mentors and protgs spend time discussing

personalities and backgrounds.
and
58.Which of the following is true of mentoring?

A.
Participants in a mentoring relationship are unaware of what is

expected of them.
B.
Employees who have low needs for power are most likely to seek a
mentor.
C.
Socializing new hires is not a function included in mentoring

programs.
D.
Mentoring relationships can also develop as part of a

planned company effort.
E.
Employees who have high needs for achievement are less likely to
seek a mentor.
59.Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful formal mentoring

program?
A.
Formal mentoring and protg participation is mandatory.
B.
The purpose of the program is not specified; activities and

programs to complete are developed as the relationship grows.
C.
Mentor and protgs are encouraged to pursue the relationship

beyond the formal period.
D.
The mentor-protg matching process limits the ability of

informal relationships to develop.
E.
The length of the program is not specified and is usually indefinite.
60.Black Inc. introduced a formal mentoring program for its employees. Which of
the following is necessary to make the program a success?
A.
Protgs are encouraged to contact one another to discuss

problems and share achievements.
B.
The purpose of the program is not specified; activities and

programs to complete are developed as the relationship grows.
C.
Formal mentoring
mandatory.
D.
The mentor-protg matching process limits the ability of informal

relationships to develop.
E.
The length of the program is not be specified.
and
protg
participation
is
made
61.A mentor provides psychosocial support when he or she:

A.
creates an outlet for the protg to talk about anxieties.
B.
protects and sponsors the protg.
C.
provides higher rates of promotion to the protg.
D.
provides coaching and exposure to the protg.
E.
creates challenges to help the protg learn new things.
62.In Space-In Inc., Tina is the mentor for a new hire, Tom. Tina provides career
support when she:
A.
provides positive regard and acceptance to Tom.
B.
acts as a role model to Tom.
C.
plays the role of a friend to Tom.
D.
provides exposure and visibility to Tom.
E.
creates an outlet for Tom to talk about his anxieties.
63.A peer or manager who works with an employee to motivate him, help him
develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a(n)
_____.
A.
apprentice
B.
coach
C.
protg
D.
ward
E.
trainer
64._____ refers to the process of identifying and tracking high-potential

employees.
A.
Career management
B.
Talent management
C.
Action planning
D.
Resource planning
E.
Succession planning
Chapter 10
Employee Separation and Retention
28.
The employment-at-will doctrine:
A.
has become more influential in recent years.
B. has more legal consequences in voluntary turnover than in involuntary turnover.

C. implies that a person may leave an organization at will despite an existing
contract.
D. allows employers to discharge people at will without sufficient reasons for the
discharge.
E. states that in the absence of a specific contract, either party could sever the
employment.
Employment-at-will doctrine states that in the absence of a specific contract, either an
employer or employee could sever the employment relationship at any time. The
severing of this relationship could be for "good cause," "no cause," or even "bad
cause."
29.
With respect to employee termination, a _____ suit typically attempts to establish that
the termination either violated an implied covenant or violated public policy.
A.
B.
C.
discrimination
forgery
encroachment
D.
unethical practice
E.
wrongful discharge
A wrongful discharge suit typically attempts to establish that the discharge either (1)
violated an implied contract or covenant (that is, the employer acted unfairly) or (2)
violated public policy (that is, the employee was terminated because he or she
refused to do something illegal, unethical, or unsafe).
30.
Which of the following acts would be considered grounds for a wrongful discharge suit
involving a violation of public policy?
A.
Allen is terminated because he does something illegal.
B.
Pete is terminated because he does something unethical.
C.
Alice is refused employment because she has a criminal record.
D. Rhea is terminated because she refuses to do something unsafe.

E.
Geller is refused employment on account of lack of credentials.
A wrongful discharge suit typically attempts to establish that the discharge either (1)
violated an implied contract or covenant (that is, the employer acted unfairly) or (2)
violated public policy (that is, the employee was terminated because he or she
refused to do something illegal, unethical, or unsafe). Wrongful discharge suits can
also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person discharged is a member of a
protected group.
31.
A wrongful discharge suit can be filed as a _____ when the person discharged is a
member of a protected group.
A.
B.
violation of an implied contract

covenant
C.
violation of a public policy
D.
civil rights infringement
E.
violation of employment-at-will
Wrongful discharge suits can also be filed as a civil rights infringement if the person
discharged is a member of a protected group. The number of such "protected groups"
is large, however, and includes, racial minorities, women, older workers (over 40
years of age), homosexuals, disabled workers (including the obese), whistle-blowers,
people who have filed workers compensation claims, and if one counts reverse
discrimination claimsCaucasians.
32.
Julie's boss, Ben, believes that women are not capable of making top-level decisions.
Julie's decisions are often sidelined by those of Ben's. When Julie confronts Ben, he
terminates her employment. Which of the following is the most appropriate suit that
will help Julie?
A.
A retaliation lawsuit
B.
A forgery lawsuit
C.
A reverse discrimination suit
D.
E.
A public policy violation lawsuit

A civil infringement lawsuit
discharged is a member of a protected group. In this case Julie is a woman, which
makes her a part of a protected group.
33.
Which of the following groups is most likely to file a suit based on reverse
discrimination claims?
A.
Racial minorities
B.
Homosexuals
C.
Older workers
D.
E.
Women
Caucasians
discharged is a member of a protected group. The number of such "protected groups"
is large, however, and includes, racial minorities, women, older workers (over 40
years of age), homosexuals, disabled workers (including the obese), whistle-blowers,
people who have filed workers compensation claims, and if one counts reverse
discrimination claimsCaucasians.
34.
Brian, a Hispanic employee, is a constant low performer. Mark, his boss, is frustrated
and is unable to discharge him due to HR policies. As a consequence, Mark gives Brian
low-level work assignments as well as subjects him to other forms of undesirable
treatment. If Brian leaves the organization, the mentioned actions can expose Mark to
a possible ____.
A.
B.
retaliation lawsuit
forgery lawsuit
C.
reverse discrimination suit
D.
public policy violation lawsuit
E.
civil infringement lawsuit
A frustrated supervisor, who, unable to discharge an employee because of HR, may

resort to punishing him in other ways, such as giving the person a low-level work
assignment, a downsized office, or some other form of undesirable treatment. This
could lead to a subsequent "retaliation" lawsuit.
35.
Organizations that introduce _____ systems where low performers are systematically
identified and, where necessary, eliminated from payrolls often experience quick
improvement gains.
A.
forced distributions rating
B.
voluntary distribution rating
C.
self-rating
D.
peer-rating
E.
micromanagement
The costs associated with letting poor performers stay on within the organization
cannot be discounted. Organizations that introduce forced distributions rating systems
where low performers are systematically identified and, where necessary, eliminated
from payrolls often experience quick improvement gains in the range of 40%.
36.
_____ refers to the judgment that people make with respect to the results received
relative to the results received by other people with whom they identify (referent
others).
A.
Structural fairness
B.
Outcome fairness
C.
Procedural fairness
D.
Process fairness
E.
Task fairness
Outcome fairness is the judgment that people make with respect to the outcomes
received relative to the outcomes received by other people with whom they identify.
Clearly, a situation where one person is losing his or her job while others are not is
conducive to perceptions of outcome unfairness on the part of the discharged
employee.
37.
A company decides to let go of some employees due to a financial crisis. Jane loses
her job, while her colleagues with similar performance ratings and productivity retain
their jobs. Jane's judgment of her loss when compared to her colleagues' is a
perception of _____.
A.
structural unfairness
B.
process unfairness
C.
procedural unfairness
D.
outcome unfairness
E.
task unfairness
Outcome fairness is the judgment that people make with respect to the outcomes
received relative to the outcomes received by other people with whom they identify.
Clearly, a situation where one person is losing his or her job while others are not is
conducive to perceptions of outcome unfairness on the part of the discharged
employee.
38.
_____ focuses specifically on the methods used to determine the outcomes received.
A.
Outcome justice
B.
Interactional justice
C.
Procedural justice
D.
Result justice
E.
Input justice
Procedural justice deals with how a decision was made. It focuses specifically on the
methods used to determine the outcomes received.
39.
_____ justice refers to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were
implemented.
A.
Outcome
B.
Interactional
C.
Procedural
D.
E.
Result
Functional
Whereas procedural justice deals with how a decision was made, interactional justice
refers to the interpersonal nature of how the outcomes were implemented.
Explanation, social sensitivity, consideration, and empathy are the four determinants
of interactional justice.
40.
_____ deals with how a decision was made.
A.
Outcome justice
B.
Interactional justice
C.
Procedural justice
D.
Result justice
E.
Input justice
Procedural justice deals with how a decision was made. It focuses specifically on the
methods used to determine the outcomes received.
41.
Consistency, bias suppression, information accuracy, correctability,

representativeness, and ethicality are the six determinants of _____.
A.
perceptual justice
B.
interactional justice
C.
procedural justice
D.
outcome justice
E.
income justice
Procedural justice is a concept of justice focusing on the methods used to determine

the outcomes received. Even given all the negative ramifications of being dismissed
from one's job, the person being dismissed may accept the decision with minimum
anger if the procedures used to arrive at the decision are consistent, unbiased,
accurate, correctable, representative, and ethical.
42.
Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that the procedure
is applied by a person who has no vested interest in the outcome?
A.
Bias suppression
B.
Correctability
C.
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency
Bias suppression is a determinant of procedural justice. It states that the procedures

are applied by a person who has no vested interest in the outcome and no prior
prejudices regarding the individual.
Refer To: Table 10.1
43.
Which of the following determinants of procedural justice requires that procedures are
applied by someone who has no prior prejudices regarding the individual involved in
the discussion?
A.
Representativeness
B.
Correctability
C.
Bias suppression
D.
E.
Accuracy
Consistency
Bias suppression is a determinant of procedural justice. It states that the procedures

are applied by a person who has no vested interest in the outcome and no prior
prejudices regarding the individual.
44.
has built-in safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes or bad decisions?
A.
Bias suppression
B.
Correctability
C.
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency

the outcomes received. Correctability, one of the determinants of procedural justice,
requires that the procedure has built-in safeguards that allow one to appeal mistakes
or bad decisions.
45.
is informed by the concerns of all groups or stakeholders (co-workers, customers,
owners) affected by the decision?
A.
Bias suppression
B.
Correctability
C.
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency

the outcomes received. Representativeness, one of the determinants of procedural
justice, requires that the procedure is informed by the concerns of all groups or
stakeholders (co-workers, customers, owners) affected by the decision.
46.
is consistent with prevailing moral standards in terms of invasion of privacy or
deception?
A.
Bias suppression
B.
Correctability
C.
Representativeness
D.
E.
Ethicality
Consistency

the outcomes received. Ethicality, one of the determinants of procedural justice,
requires that the procedure is consistent with prevailing moral standards as they
pertain to issues like invasion of privacy or deception.
47.
Explanation, consideration, social sensitivity, and empathy are key determinants of

_____.
A.
perceptual justice
B.
interactional justice
C.
procedural justice
D.
outcome justice
E.
task justice
Interactional justice is a concept of justice referring to the interpersonal nature of how

the outcomes were implemented. When the decision for termination is explained well
and implemented in a fashion that is socially sensitive, considerate, and empathetic,
this helps defuse some of the resentment that might come about from a decision to
discharge an employee.
48.
Which of the following determinants of interactional justice requires emphasis on the

different aspects of procedural fairness that justify the decision?
A.
Social sensitivity
B.
Explanation
C.
Consideration
D.
E.
Empathy
Consistency
Interactional justice is a concept of justice referring to the interpersonal nature of how

the outcomes were implemented. Explanation, one of the determinants of
interactional justice, requires emphasis on the different aspects of procedural fairness
that justify the decision.
49.
Alternative dispute resolution is a method of resolving disputes that:
A.
B.
C.
involves extensive legislation.

does not rely on the legal system.
excludes outside parties.
D.
does not involve binding arbitration.
E.
involves only the appealing party.
Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is a method of resolving disputes that does not
rely on the legal system. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) proceeds through the
four stages of open door policy, peer review, mediation, and arbitration.
50.
Which of the following is true of alternative dispute resolution (ADR)?
A. ADR relies on the legal system to resolve matters that cannot be handled
internally.
B. Resolution through an ADR system is expensive as it involves high costs in terms of
legal fee.
C. In ADR systems, there is a possibility of arbitrators, who wish to do more business,
leaning in favor of those paying them.
D. ADR is more effective than employee assistance programs in dealing with issues
related to drug or alcohol abuse.
E. ADR is designed to resolve issues internally and does not engage outsiders to
enter the discussion.
.
51.
Which of the following should be the first step to take as a progressive discipline
measure?
A.
Temporary suspension
B.
Unofficial verbal warning
C.
Last chance notification
D.
Threat of suspension
E.
Termination
Punitive measures should be taken in steps of increasing magnitude, and only after
having been clearly documented. This may start with an unofficial warning for the first
offense, followed by a written reprimand for additional offenses.
53.
Which of the following steps in progressive discipline involves the right to go to

arbitration?
A.
Unofficial verbal warning
B.
Official written warning
C.
Temporary suspension
D.
Threat of suspension
E.
Termination
Termination (with the right to go to arbitration) is the last step to take in progressive
discipline. The step to take before that is temporary suspension and a last chance
notification.
54.
Which of the following is the first stage in an alternative dispute resolution?
A.
Arbitration
B.
Open-door policy
C.
Peer review
D.
E.
Mediation
Legal support
Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is a method of resolving disputes that does not
rely on the legal system. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) proceeds through the
four stages of open door policy, peer review, mediation, and arbitration.
AACSB: Analytic
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 10-02 List the major elements that contribute to perceptions of justice and how to apply these
in organizational contexts involving discipline and dismissal.
Topic: Managing Involuntary Turnover
55.
In an alternative dispute resolution method, the stage during which the two people
involved in the conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement without any third parties
involved is known as _____.
A.
peer review
B.
C.
arbitration
open-door policy
D.
E.
mediation
legal support
In an alternative dispute resolution method, the two people involved in the conflict
(employee and supervisor) attempt to arrive at a settlement together during the
open-door policy stage. If none can be reached, they proceed to the peer review
stage.
56.
During the _____ stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of

representatives from the organization that are at the same level of those people in the
dispute hears the case and attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement.
A.
peer review
B.
C.
arbitration
open-door policy
D.
E.
mediation
legal support
During the peer review stage of alternative dispute resolution, a panel composed of
representatives from the organization that are at the same level of those people in the
dispute hears the case and attempts to help the parties arrive at a settlement.
57.
Which of the following happens in the mediation stage of an alternative dispute

resolution?
A.
The two people in conflict attempt to arrive at a settlement together.
B. A panel composed of representatives from the same level hears the case.
C.
A neutral third party hears the case via a nonbinding process.
D.
A professional arbitrator hears the case and resolves it unilaterally.
E. The judiciary system steps in to resolve the dispute based on the suit filed.
In the mediation stage of alternative dispute resolution, a neutral third party from
outside the organization hears the case and, via a nonbinding process, tries to help
the disputants arrive at a settlement. If none can be reached, the parties proceed to
arbitration.
58.
Organizational programs that attempt to ameliorate problems encountered by workers

who are drug dependent, alcoholic, or psychologically troubled are referred to as _____
programs.
A.
employee assistance
B.
alternative dispute resolution
C.
health benefits
D.
health insurance
E.
aided workers'
Employee assistance programs (EAPs) are employer programs that attempt to

ameliorate problems encountered by workers who are drug dependent, alcoholic, or
psychologically troubled. The key to the effectiveness of an EAP is striking the right
balance between collecting information that can be used to promote employee health
on the one hand and the employee's right to privacy on the other.
59.
What type of counseling helps displaced employees manage the transition from one
job to another?
A.
Outplacement
B.
Transition
C.
Relocation
D.
Displacement
E.
Transfer
Outplacement counseling is aimed at helping people realize that losing a job is not the
end of the world and that other opportunities exist. It tries to help dismissed
employees manage the transition from one job to another.
AACSB: Analytic
60.
Which of the following statements is accurate about voluntary turnover?
A.
B.
It is initiated by the employer.

It involves employees an organization would like to discharge.
C. It typically involves legal aspects that have repercussions for the organization.
D. It gives the employee no choice in deciding his or her stay in the organization.
E.
It can lead to the loss of highly valued employees to competitors.
Voluntary turnover is the turnover initiated by employees (often whom the

organization would prefer to keep). It requires the organization to focus on preventing
employees who are highly valued by the organization from leaving (and perhaps even
joining the competition).
61.
When it comes to complex jobs, the fact that the worst and best performers tend to
leave more frequently than those at the average suggests a _____ relationship
between past performance and future turnover.
A.
horizontal
B.
nonlinear
C.
D.
E.
diagonal
circular
curvilinear
When it comes to complex jobs, there seems to be a curvilinear relationship between

past performance and future turnover, in the sense that the worst and best
performers tend to leave more frequently than those at the average.
62.
Which of the following best describes job withdrawal?
A. It refers to employers discharging employees from jobs that are to be outsourced.

B. It is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work
situation.
C.
It refers to retracting a job offer after initial confirmation.
D. It refers to voluntary turnover initiated by employees an organization would like to

retain.
E. It involves a set of actions showcased by the company to discourage its employees
from working.
Job withdrawal is the set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the
work situation. The behaviors are grouped into three categories: behavior change,
physical job withdrawal, and psychological job withdrawal.
63.
Which of the following suggests that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of behaviors
in succession to avoid their work situation?
A.
Efficiency wage theory
B.
Equity theory
C.
Progression of withdrawal theory
D.
Two-factor theory
E.
Motivation theory
The progression of withdrawal theory states that dissatisfied individuals enact a set of
behaviors in succession to avoid their work situation. For example, someone who is
dissatisfied with the job or organization might not be able to just jump to another job
right away but will instead either disengage temporarily (through absenteeism or
tardiness) or psychologically (through lower job involvement and organizational
commitment) until the right opportunity comes along.
64.
Which of the following is true of whistle-blowers?
A.
They are satisfied employees.
B.
They are capable of bringing about internal change.
C.
They avoid taking their issue to external constituencies.
D.
E.
They avoid making the grievance public.

They resort to the government to address the grievance.
Whistle blowing involves making grievances public by going to the media or

government. Whistle-blowers are often dissatisfied individuals who cannot bring about
internal change and, out of a sense of commitment or frustration, take their concerns
to external constituencies.
65.
An employee who engages in absenteeism is displaying job dissatisfaction through

_____.
A.
behavioral change
B.
psychological withdrawal
C.
physical withdrawal
D.
E.
whistle-blowing
arbitration
If the job conditions cannot be changed, a dissatisfied worker may be able to solve the
problem by leaving the job. Another way of physically removing oneself from the
dissatisfying work short of quitting altogether is to be absent.
66.
Lately, Laura has been performing low in her job. Although she is physically present at
her workplace, her mind is constantly engaged with thoughts of a better job. Which of
the following behaviors does Laura express?
A.
Physical withdrawal
B.
Psychological withdrawal
C.
Internal change
D.
Whistle-blowing
E.
Behavioral change
When dissatisfied employees are unable to change their situation or remove

themselves physically from their jobs, they may psychologically disengage
themselves from their jobs. Although they are physically on the job, their minds may
be somewhere else.
67.
_____ is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.
A.
Job enlargement
B.
Job enrichment
C.
Job involvement
D.
Job recognition
E.
Job satisfaction
Job involvement is the degree to which people identify themselves with their jobs.
People who are uninvolved with their jobs consider their work an unimportant aspect
of their lives.
68.
The degree to which an employee identifies with an organization and is willing to put
forth effort on its behalf is called _____.
A.
job satisfaction
B.
organizational enlargement
C.
organizational commitment
D.
job engagement
E.
job involvement
Organizational commitment is the degree to which an employee identifies with the

organization and is willing to put forth effort on its behalf. Individuals who feel they
have been unjustly treated by their employer often respond by reducing their level of
commitment and are often looking for the first good chance to quit their jobs.
69.
Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are:
A.
what drive employees who create organizational changes.
B.
forms of psychological disengagement.
C.
examples of physical job withdrawal.
D.
E.
examples of physiological job withdrawal.

forms of behavioral changes aimed to change policies.
The psychological disengagement can take several forms. First, if the primary
dissatisfaction has to do with the job itself, the employee may display a very low level
of job involvement. A second form of psychological disengagement, which can occur
when the dissatisfaction is with the employer as a whole, is a low level of
organizational commitment.
70.
_____ can be identified as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception that
one's job fulfills or allows the fulfillment of one's important job values.
A.
Job enrichment
B.
Job enlargement
C.
Job commitment
D.
Job involvement
E.
Job satisfaction
Job satisfaction is defined as a pleasurable feeling that results from the perception
that one's job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one's important job values. The
three important aspects of job satisfaction are values, importance of individual views,
and perception.
71.
Job satisfaction is a function of _____, which can be defined as what a person

consciously or unconsciously desires to obtain.
A.
perception
B.
appreciation
C.
contentment
D.
E.
appraisal
values
Job satisfaction is a function of values, defined as "what a person consciously or

unconsciously desires to obtain." Different employees have different views of which
values are important, and this is critical in determining the nature and degree of their
job satisfaction.
72.
Negative affectivity is primarily influenced by:
A.
availability of social support.
B.
disposition of individuals.
C.
organizational roles.
D.
work environment.
E.
pay and benefits.
Negative affectivity is a dispositional dimension that reflects pervasive individual

differences in satisfaction with any and all aspects of life. Individuals who are high in
negative affectivity report higher levels of aversive mood states, including anger,
contempt, disgust, guilt, fear, and nervousness across all contexts (work and
nonwork).
73.
Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is _____.
A.
job transfer
B.
job rotation
C.
job evaluation
D.
job enlargement
E.
job enrichment
Reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job complexity is job enrichment. Many job
enrichment programs provide increased opportunities for workers to have input into
important organizational decisions that involve their work, and this has been routinely
found to reduce role conflict and ambiguity.
74.
Mathew, a production manager, conducts an employee satisfaction survey. The survey

reveals high levels of dissatisfaction among the employees in the packing unit who
complain about repetitive tasks. In response to this, he adopts an intervention that
explicitly focuses on reducing job dissatisfaction due to impoverished or boring tasks.
This intervention is an example of _____.
A.
job enrichment
B.
team building
C.
prosocial motivation
D.
job rotation
E.
work complication
One of the major interventions aimed at reducing job dissatisfaction by increasing job
complexity is job enrichment. Job enrichment is directed at jobs that are
"impoverished" or boring because of their repetitive nature or low scope.
75.
_____ is a process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to another
over the course of time.
A.
Job involvement
B.
Job enrichment
C.
Job engagement
D.
Job enlargement
E.
Job rotation
Job rotation is the process of systematically moving a single individual from one job to
another over the course of time. The job assignments may be in various functional
areas of the company or movement may be between jobs in a single functional area
or department.
76.
The degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it helps other
people is called _____.
A.
job enrichment
B.
team building
C.
prosocial motivation
D.
job rotation
E.
work involvement
The most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction is the degree to
which it is meaningfully related to core values of the worker. The term prosocial
motivation is often used explicitly to capture the degree to which people are
motivated to help other people. When people believe that their work has an important
impact on other people, they are much more willing to work longer hours.
AACSB: Analytic
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 10-03 Specify the relationship between job satisfaction and various forms of job withdrawal;
and identify the major sources of job satisfaction in work contexts.
Topic: Managing Voluntary Turnover
77.
Organizations that foster team building both on and off the job attempt to reduce
dissatisfaction through _____.
A.
behavior modification
B.
a supportive environment
C.
D.
E.
progressive discipline measures

third party negotiations
alternative dispute resolution
Because a supportive environment reduces dissatisfaction, many organizations foster

team building both on and off the job (such as via softball or bowling leagues). The
idea is that group cohesiveness and support for individual group members will be
increased through exposure and joint efforts.
78.
Which of the following is the most important aspect of work in terms of generating
satisfaction?
A. An employee's salary and the benefits that come along with the work he or she
does
B. The degree to which work is meaningfully related to core values of the worker
C.
D.
The extrinsic rewards associated with the work and the organization
A positive work environment and social support
E. The non-monetary benefits received by the employee in terms of self esteem and
goal satisfaction
By far, the most important aspect of work in terms of generating satisfaction is the
degree to which it is meaningfully related to core values of the worker. Prosocial
motivation is the degree to which people are energized to do their jobs because it
helps other people.
79.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a flexible work policy in an organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It fails to attract potential job applicants.

It causes reduction in organizational citizenship behaviors.
It increases absenteeism.
It results in lower levels of employee commitment to the organization.
E. It creates difficulties for managers in terms of scheduling work and reporting

requirements.
The flexible work policy programs create some headaches for managers in terms of
scheduling work and reporting requirements. In terms of downside, in addition to
scheduling headaches, some are concerned that face-to-face interaction is critical for
innovation.
80.
The two primary sets of people in the organization who affect an individual's job
satisfaction are:
A.
subordinates and supervisors.
B.
supervisors and customers.
C.
co-workers and subordinates.
D.
supervisors and co-workers.
E.
subordinates and customers.
The two primary sets of people in an organization who affect job satisfaction are coworkers and supervisors. A person may be satisfied with her supervisor and coworkers for one of two reasons. First, she may have many of the same values,
attitudes, and philosophies that the co-workers and supervisors have. Second, people
may be satisfied with their supervisor and co-workers because they provide support
that helps them achieve their own goals.
81.
With regard to supervision, employee satisfaction is likely to be highest when:
A.
B.
they share different values and personalities.

employees are micromanaged.
C.
managers focus more on supervising than their own work.
D.
employees take up supervision as an informal responsibility.
E.
employees get the support needed to achieve their goal.
People may be satisfied with their supervisor and co-workers because they provide
support that helps them achieve their own goals. Social support means the degree to
which the person is surrounded by other people who are sympathetic and caring.
Considerable research indicates that social support is a strong predictor of job
satisfaction and lower employee turnover.
82.
_____ is the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people who are
sympathetic and caring.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Organization culture
Homogeneous environment
Organizational support
Social support
Organizational network
Social support means the degree to which a person is surrounded by other people
who are sympathetic and caring. Social support is a strong predictor of job satisfaction
and lower employee turnover.
83.
Which of the following is likely to happen when a high performing employee who
enjoys autonomy is micromanaged by a manager?
A. Positive employee reaction toward the supervisor micromanaging him or her

B.
Decreased frustration of the employee who is being watched over
C.
Increased opportunity for the employee to make independent decisions
D. Decreased satisfaction in the employee toward her job and performance

E. Increased performance of the manager who is spending time micromanaging
If employees values their autonomy and like to make their own decisions at work,
then those employees are likely to react negatively to a supervisor who is constantly
micromanaging them and looking over their shoulders. Overly close supervision is a
common source of dissatisfaction for many employees, and worse yet, it also reduces
the performance of managers whose time might be better spent paying attention to
their own work.
84.
Most attempts to measure job satisfaction rely on _____.
A.
observations of employees
B.
reports by co-workers
C.
workers' self-reports
D.
behavioral measures
E.
workers' performance reports
Most attempts to measure job satisfaction rely on workers' self-reports. There is a vast
amount of data on the reliability and validity of many existing scales as well as a
wealth of data from companies that have used these scales, allowing for comparisons
across firms.
85.
The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on _____.
A.
the work itself
B.
co-workers
C.
promotions
D.
supervision
E.
benefits
The Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on these more specific dimensions
(pay levels, benefits, pay structure, and pay raises); thus this measure gives a more
detailed view of exactly what aspects of pay are most or least satisfying.
86.
Which of the following facets is measured by both the Job Descriptive Index (JDI) and
the Pay Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ)?
A.
Job satisfaction
B.
Supervision
C.
D.
E.
Tasks involved in a job

Job description
Pay
The Job Descriptive Index (JDI) emphasizes various facets of satisfaction: pay, the
work itself, supervision, co-workers, and promotions. Although the JDI assesses
satisfaction with pay, it does not break pay up into different dimensions. The Pay
Satisfaction Questionnaire (PSQ) focuses on these more specific dimensions (pay
levels, benefits, pay structure, and pay raises); thus this measure gives a more
detailed view of exactly what aspects of pay are most or least satisfying.
87.
Where the main concern is _____, the key in measuring satisfaction is making sure that
the scores on whatever measures taken truly relate to turnover among valued
people.
A.
training
B.
retention
C.
selection
D.
E.
productivity
quality
There is no end to the number of satisfaction facets that we might want to measure,
but the key in operational contexts, where the main concern is retention, is making
sure that scores on whatever measures taken truly relate to voluntary turnover
among valued people. Satisfaction with co-workers might be low, but if this aspect of
satisfaction is not too central to employees, it may not translate into voluntary
turnover.
88.
Beta Inc., a publishing firm, implements pay-for-performance raises. This is likely to

lead to:
A.
B.
C.
satisfaction among low performers.

high involuntary turnover.
dissatisfaction among high performers.
D.
operational problems due to high performers leaving.
E.
low performers being motivated to perform better.
In an organization that bases raises on performance, low performers might report

being dissatisfied with raises, but this may not reflect any operational problem.
Indeed, the whole strategic purpose of many pay-for-performance plans is to create
this type of dissatisfaction among low performers to motivate them to higher levels of
performance.
89.
Employee survey research allows the company to monitor trends over time and thus
prevent problems, before they happen, in the area of _____.
A.
dissatisfaction among low performers
B.
voluntary turnover
C.
involuntary turnover
D.
low productivity
E.
low quality
Regardless of what measures are used or how many facets of satisfaction are
assessed, a systematic, ongoing program of employee survey research should be a
prominent part of any human resource strategy for a number of reasons. It allows the
company to monitor trends over time and thus prevent problems in the area of
voluntary turnover before they happen and provides a means of empirically assessing
the impact of changes in policy or personnel on worker attitudes.
90.
_____ interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering
systematic concerns that are driving retention problems.
A.
Technical
B.
Retaining
C.
Exit
D.
E.
Mock
Screening
Exit interviews with departing workers can be a valuable tool for uncovering
systematic concerns that are driving retention problems. If properly conducted, an
exit interview can reveal the reasons why people are leaving, and perhaps even set
the stage for their later return.
91.
Which of the following is true of employees terminating employment based on

voluntary turnover?
A. They include those who work too many hours as well as those who do not get
enough work hours.
B. They include only those working on an hourly-wage basis and not the salaried
ones.
C. Those who work on an hourly basis usually tend to leave due to working too many
hours.
D. Those employees who are salaried usually tend to leave due to lack of enough
work hours.
E.
They exclude those that do not get enough work.
There are two distinct groups of people who are leaving their jobsone set of workers
who cannot get enough hours and a second set of workers who are working too many
hours. This may seem ironic and counter-intuitive, but in some ways it actually makes
sense given the way work is increasing structured around two distinct classes of
workershourly and salaried.

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What is the first step in the performance management process?

What is the first step in the performance management process?

What is one purpose of conducting exit interviews?

What is one purpose of conducting exit interviews?

1.

2. The process through which an organization gets information on how closely

3. The performance effectiveness of employees is provided to them during the

4. The process of performance management begins with:

developing employee goals, behavior, and actions to achieve

defining performance outcomes for company division and

providing consequences for performance results.

identifying the improvements needed.

providing support and ongoing performance discussions.

He will evaluate performance.

He will identify improvements needed.

He will provide support and ongoing performance discussions.

He will provide consequences for performance results.

6. Which of the following is an example of using performance management to

Define the results, behaviors, and, to some extent, employee

Develop employees who are effective at their jobs.

Use performance appraisal to make decisions such as pay

Identify employees' strengths and weaknesses, link employees to

Confront employees with their performance weaknesses.

10.Prometheus Corp. is a large-scale manufacturer of consumer electronic

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Critical success factors (CSFs)

Non-performing assets (NPAs)

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Behavioral Observation Scales (BOSs)

11.Which performance management evaluation criterion reflects the extent to

12.Whittaker Publishing Corp. is a publishing company that wants to hire more

low on strategic congruence

13.A performance measure is said to be contaminated when:

it does not measure all aspects of performance.

it evaluates irrelevant aspects of performance.

it is a subjective supervisory measure of job performance.

it is not reliable over time.

18.Which of the following statements best defines the acceptability of a

It is the extent to which the performance management system

It is the extent to which a performance measure gives detailed

It is the extent to which a performance measure assesses all the

It is the extent to which a performance measure is free from

It is the extent to which a performance measure is deemed

19.The extent to which the performance measure gives guidance to employees

20.Which of the following approaches to measuring performance uses some

The results approach

The attribute approach

The comparative approach

The consequential approach

The behavioral approach

21.Which of the following is a comparative approach to ranking that consists of a

22.The ranking technique that requires certain percentages of employees to be

high/low ranking system

24.Jason is a manager at Eros Corp. He needs to perform an evaluation of his

25.Roundel Inc. is a company that sells automobile tires. The company is

The results approach

The attribute approach

The comparative approach