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COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT)
UNDER-GRADUATE COURSES
PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTION PAPERS
(2008-2014)
CLAT-2015
ORGANISING UNIVERSITY
Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University

Sec- D1, LDA Colony, Kanpur Road Scheme,
Lucknow 226012 Uttar Pradesh, India
Toll Free Number: 1800 - 1200 - 7111
Tolled Number: +91-522-65 67 111,
+91-522-24 24 222 (10 Multi-channel Helplines),
+91-522-24 22 849
(Numbers are available between 10:00 AM to 06:00 PM)
E-mail: [email protected]
COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT)-2014
GUJARAT NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITY
Time: 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. (2 hours)
Total Marks: 200
ENGLISH INCLUDING COMPREHENSION
Directions for Questions 1 to 10: Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
1) A vote.............. of proposed at the end of the meeting.
(A) thanks were

(B) thank was
(C) thanks had been
(D) thanks was
2) During the recession many companies will........... lay off workers.
(A) be forced to
(B) have the force to
(C) forcefully
(D) be forced into
3) She has good............. over the famous foreign languages.

(A) expertise
(B) command
(C) control
(D) authority
4) The Chairman pointed out in favour of the manager that the profitability of the industrial plant had
........ since he took over the administration.
(A) arisen
(B) declined
(C) added
(D) increased
5) When the examinations were over............ went to Paris.
(A) me and Rohan

(B) I and Rohan
(C) Rohan and me
(D) Rohan and I
6) Let's go for a walk...............?
(A) can we
(B) shall we
(C) cant we
(D) shouldn't we
7) Had Anil been on time he ............ missed the train.
(A) would not have been

(B) had not
(C) will not have
(D) would not have
8) The most alarming fact is that infection is spreading ....... the state and reaching villages and small
towns.
(A) over
(B) across
(C) far
(D) from
9) In big cities people are ...... cut from nature.
(A) off
(B) down
(C) away
(D) out
10) The dissidents ......... a great problem in every political party.
(A) give
(B) cause
(C) pose
(D) hold
Directions for Questions 11 to 15: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of
sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
11) (a) Payment for imports and exports is made through a system called foreign exchange. The value
of the money of one country in relation to the money of other countries is agreed upon.
(b) The rates of exchange vary from time to time.
(c) For example, an American dollar or a British pound sterling is worth certain amounts in the money
of other countries.
(d) Sometimes a US dollar is worth 60 rupees in India.
(A) abcd
(B) bacd
(C) acbd
(D) cabd
12) (a) When a dictionary is being edited, a lexicographer collects all the alphabetically arranged
citation slips for a particular word.
(b) The moment a new word is coined. it usually enters the spoken language.
(c) The dictionary takes note of it and makes a note of it on a citation slip.
(d) The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing.
(A) abcd
(B) acbd
(C) bacd
(D) head
13) (a) The impression that corruption is a universal phenomenon persists and the people do not co-
operate in checking this evil.
(b) So there is hardly anything that the government can do about it now.
(c) It is regrettable that there is a widespread corruption in the country at all levels.
(d) Recently several offenders were brought to book, but they were not given deterrent punishment.
(A) cdab
(B) adbc
(C) adcb
(D) cbad
14) (a) In all social affairs convention prescribes more or less generally accepted rules of behaviour.
(b) Of course, there is nothing absolute about conventions.
(c) They vary from country to country, from age to age.
(d) Convention has a necessary part to play in the life of everyone.
(A) abcd
(B) adbc
(C) dacb
(D) dabc
15) (a) In fact, only recently there have been serious studies to find out how many of us actually have
nightmares.
(b) Now that is changing.
(c) The study of nightmares has been curiously neglected.
(d) While results so far are inconclusive, it seems fair to say that at least half the population has
occasional nightmares.
(A) cadb
(B) abdc
(C) adcb
(D) cbad
Directions for Questions 16 to 20: Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are
commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
16) Ex officio
(A) By virtue of previously held position

(B) Former official
(C) By virtue of office
(D) Outside the office
17) Ultra Vires
(A) Within powers

(B) Full powers
(C) Near powers
(D) Beyond powers
18) Quid pro quo
(A) Something for nothing

(B) Something for something
(C) Everything for something
(D) Something for everything
19) Inter vivos
(A) between the living

(B) among the living and the dead
(C) between the dead
(D) among the dead and the living
20) Corpus juris
(A) body of judges

(B) group of jurists
(C) body of law
(D) knowledge of law
Directions for Questions 21 to 25: Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.
21) Which of the following spellings is correct?
(A) Concensus
(B) Consencus
(C) Consenssus
(D) Consensus
(A) Procede
(B) Proceed
(C) Proceede
(D) Proced
(A) Accommodate
(B) Acommodate
(C) Accomodate
(D) Acomodate
24) Which of the following spellings is correct for a page at the beginning of a book?
(A) Foreward
(B) Forword
(C) Forworde
(D) Foreword
(A) Arguement
(B) Argument
(C) Arguemant
(D) Arguemint
Directions for Questions 26 to 30: Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the
idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.
26) To make clean breast of:
(A) To tell the truth about something

(B) To gain prominence
(C) To destroy before it blooms
(D) To praise oneself
27) A man of straw:
(A) A creditable man

(B) A very active man
(C) A man of no or little substance
(D) An unreasonable man
28) A wild-goose chase:
(A) A wise search

(B) A fruitful search
(C) A worthwhile hunt
(D) A futile pursuit
29) Put on the market:
(A) To offer for sale

(B) Alongside the market
(C) Already purchased
(D) None of the above
30) To meet someone halfway:
(A) To show that you are prepared to strain your relationship with someone
(B) To compromise with someone
(C) Confrontation
(D) Incongruity
Directions for Questions 31 to 40: The questions in this section are based on a single passage. The
questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Kindly note that
more than one of the choices may conceivably answer some of the questions. However, you are to
choose the most appropriate answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely
answers the question.
The spread of education in society is at the foundation of success in countries that are latecomers to
development. In the quest for development, primary education is absolutely essential because it creates
the base. But higher education is just as important, for it provides the cutting edge. And universities are
the life-blood of higher education. Islands of excellence in professional education. such as Indian
Institutes of Technology (IITs) and Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs), are valuable complements
but-cannot be substitutes for universities which provide educational opportunities for people at large.
There can be no doubt that higher education has made a significant contribution to economic
development, social progress and political democracy in independent India. It is a source of dynamism
for the economy. It has created social opportunities for people. It has fostered the vibrant democracy in
our polity. It has provided a beginning for the creation of a knowledge society. But it would be a
mistake to focus on its strengths alone. It has weaknesses that are a cause for serious concern.
There is, in fact, a quiet crisis in higher education in India that runs deep. It is not yet discernible
simply because there are pockets of excellence. an enormous reservoir of talented young people and an
intense competition in the admissions process. And. in some important spheres. we continue to reap the
benefits of what was sown in higher education 50 years ago by the founding fathers of the Republic.
The reality is that we have miles to go. The proportion of our population, in the age group 18-24. that
enters the world of higher education is around 7 per cent, which is only one-half the average for Asia.
The opportunities for higher education, in terms of the number of places in universities. are simply not
enough in relation to our needs. What is more, the quality of higher education in most of our
universities requires substantial improvement.
It is clear that the system of higher education in India faces serious challenges. It needs a systematic
overhaul, so that we can educate much larger numbers without diluting academic standards. This is
imperative because the transformation of economy and society in the 21st century would depend, in
significant part, on the spread and the quality of education among our people, particularly in the sphere
of higher education. It is only an inclusive society that can provide the foundations for a knowledge
society.
The challenges that confront higher education in India are clear. It needs a massive expansion of
opportunities for higher education. to 1500 universities nationwide, that would enable India to attain a
gross enrolment ratio of at least 15 per cent by 2015. It is just as important to raise the average quality
of higher education in every sphere. At the same time, it is essential to create institutions that are
exemplars of excellence at par with the best in the world. In the pursuit of these objectives, providing
people with access to higher education in a socially inclusive manner is imperative. The realisation of
these objectives, combined with access, would not only develop the skills and capabilities we need for
the economy but would also help transform India into a knowledge economy and society.
31) The principal focus of the passage is:
(A) Primary education

(B) Intermediate education
(C) Higher education
(D) Entire education system
32) The style of the passage can be best described as:
(A) Academic
(B) Critical and analytical
(C) Comparative
33) What kind of society can provide the foundation for a knowledge society?
(A) Elite society

(B) Contracted society
(C) Exclusive society
(D) Inclusive society
34) According to the passage, which one of the following is INCORRECT?
(A) There are no quality institutes providing excellent professional education in India
(B) Not many people go for higher education in India
(C) Education is the basis of success
(D) All the above options are correct
35) According to the passage, the current state of affairs of higher education in India is:
(A) Satisfactory
(B) Excellent, and there is no need of any expansion of opportunities for higher education
(C) Not good enough, and there is a need of expansion of opportunities for higher education, besides
creating institutions and universities that are models of excellence
(D) Not explained in the passage
36) According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a challenge that confronts higher
education in India?
(A) Expanding opportunities for higher education

(B) Creating institutions and universities that are exemplars of excellence
(C) Substantial improvement in the quality of higher education in most of our universities
(D) Getting into World University Rankings
37) According to the passage, which of the following is CORRECT ?
(A) Primary education is very important

(B) Universities are the life-blood of higher education
(C) Transformation of economy and society in the 21st century would depend, in significant part, on the
spread and the quality of education among our people, particularly in the sphere of higher education
(D) All the above propositions are correct
38) Should the entire university system in India be modelled on premier institutes, such as, IITs and
IIMs, providing professional education?
(A) Yes
(B) For sure
(C) No
(D) The passage is silent on this question
39) What is the antonym of the expression cutting edge?
(A) Conventional
(B) Avant-garde
(C) Advanced
(D) Contemporary
40) What is the meaning of the word discernible?
(A) Unobtrusive
(B) Noticeable
(C) Unremarkable
(D) Inconspicuous
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (NUMERICAL ABILITY)
41) The next number in the sequence is: 19, 29, 37, 43....
(A) 45
(B) 47
(C) 50
(D) 53
42) An unknown man is found murdered. The corpse has one gold plated tooth, right ear is pierced and
a healed fracture of left hand thumb. A man with these characteristics is reported missing. What are the
chances (probability) of the corpse being the missing man? (Given the occurrence of the gold-plated
teeth in the area, 1 in 5000, left hand thumb fractures 1 in 20000 and of right ear pierces 1 in 100).
(A) 1 in 1000
(B) l in 1000.000
(C) l in 1000000000
(D) 1 in 10.000.000.000
43) Value of A" in the expression, 5+12x10/(120/240)=Ax10 is:
(A) 11
(B) 24.5
(C) 34
(D) 6.5
44) The Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.) of 0.12, 9.60 and 0.60 is:
(A) 9.60
(B) 0.12
(C) 0.6
(D) None of these
45) There are 30 boys and 40 girls in a class. If the average age of boys is 10 yr and average age of
girls is 8 yr. then the average age of the whole class is:
(A) 8 yr
(B) 8.86 yr
(C) 8.2 yr
(D) 9 yr
46) A person spends 1/3 part of his income on food, 1/4 part on house rent and remaining `630 on
other items. The house rent is:
(A) `504
(B) `1512
(C) `378
(D) None of these
47) A person covers a certain distance by car at 21 speed of 30 km/h and comes back at a speed of 40
km/h. The average speed during the travel is:
(A) 34.3 km/h

(B) 35 km/h
(C) 37.5 km/h
(D) 32.8 km/h
48) An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8:5 and increases their wages in the
ratio 7:9. Therefore, the overall wages bill is:
(A) Increased in the ratio 45:56

(B) Decreased in the ratio 56245
(C) Increased in the ratio 13:17
(D) Decreased in the ratio 72:35
49) Father is 3 yr. older than the mother and the mother's age is now twice the daughter's age. If the
daughter is 20 yr. old now, then the fathers age when the daughter was born is:
(A) 20 yr.
(B) 40 yr.
(C) 43 yr.
(D) 23 yr.
50) If 80% of A = 20% of B and B = 5x% of A, then the value of x is:
(A) 75
(B) 80
(C) 90
(D) 85
51) A mixture of 40 L of alcohol and water contains 10% water. How much water should he added to
this mixture so that the new mixture contains 20% water?
(A) 9L
(B) 5L
(C) 7L
(D) 6L
52) A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. How long will they
take to finish the work, if both work together?
1
(A) 13 days
2
(B) 10 days
4
(C) 8 days
7
1
(D) 17 days
2
53) A man can row 5 km/h in still water. If the speed of the current is 1 km/h, it takes 3 h more in
upstream than in the downstream for the same distance. The distance is:
(A) 36 km
(B) 24 km
(C) 20 km
(D) 32 km
54) A starts a business with `5000 and B joins the business 5 months later with all investment of
`6000. After a year, they earn a profit of `34000. Find the shares of A and B in the profit amount
depending on their individual investment.
(A) `20000, `14000

(B) `16000, `16000
(C) `14000, `20000
(D) None of these
55) A farmer has some hens and some goats. If the total number of animal heads is 80 and the total
number of animal feet is 200, what is the total number of goats?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 20
(D) Cannot he determined
56) A square field has its area equal to 324 m2. The perimeter of the field is:
(A) 36 m
(B) 72 m
(C) 18 m
(D) 6501 m
57) A closed metal box measure 30 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm. Thickness of the metal is 1cm. The volume of
the metal required to make the box is:
(A) 1041 cm3

(13) 6000 cm3
(C) 4536 cm3
(D) 1968 cm3
58) The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest (compounded annually) on
`2000 for 2 yr at 8% per annum will be:
(A) `10
(B) `20
(C) `13
(D) `25
59) A dealer marked his goods 20% above the cost price and allows a discount of l0%. Then the gain
percent is:
(A) 2%
(B) 4%
(C) 6%
(D) 8%
60) A man went to the Reserve Bank of India with `2000. He asked the cashier to give him `10 and
`20 notes only in return. The man got 150 notes in all. How many notes of `10 did he receive?
(A) 100
(B) 150
(C) 50
(D) 70
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS
61) Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court of India is famously known as the Green
Judge?
(A) Justice VR Krishna Iyyar

(B) Justice PN Bhagwati
(C) Justice Kuldip Singh
(D) Justice BN Kirpal
62) Law Day is observed on:
(A) 26th January

(B) 26th May
(C) 15th August
(D) 26th November
63) In which year, Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) was formed by the
amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDE) of the Indian Army and the
Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation
(DSO):
(A) 1955
(B) 1958
(C) 1959
(D) 1963
64) The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year:
(A) 1858
(B) 1935
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
65) Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture, called Bhumisparsha Mudra. It
signifies:
(A) Buddhas calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his
meditation.
(B) Buddhas calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
(C) The gesture of debate or discussion/argument.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
66) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about Fundamental Duties under the
Constitution of India? It shall be the duty of every citizen of India
(A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
(B) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
(C) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may
be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
(D) To vote in public elections.
67) Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was mostly written from right to left?
(A) Nandnagari
(B) Brahmi
(C) Kharoshti
(D) Sharada
68) During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the East India Company establish its first factory in
India?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
69) Who, among the following, first translated the Bhagwat Gita into English?
(A) Charles Wilkins

(B) Alexander Cunningham
(C) William Jones
(D) James Prinsep
70) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Author) List II (Work)
a Devaki Nandan Khatri 1 Chandrakanta
b Premchand 2 Durgeshnandini
c Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay 3 Nil Darpan
4 Seva Sadan
Codes:
(A) a-4; b-3; c-l
(B) a-l; b-4; c-3
(C) a-2; b-1; c-3
(D) a-l; b-4; c-2
71) Match List I with List 11 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Person) List II (Position)
a Nagendra Singh 1 Chief Election Commissioner of India
b SH Kapadia 2 President of the International Court of Justice
c NR Madhava Menon 3 Former Chief Justice of India
d VS Sampath 4 Legal educator and Founder-Director of National Law School of
India University
Codes:
(A) a-2; b-3; c-1; d-4
(B) a-4; b-3; c-2; d-1
(C) a-l; b-2; c-4: d-3
(D) a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1
72) Who was not a Chief Justice of India?
(A) Justice M Patanjali Sastri

(B) Justice KN Wanchoo
(C) Justice HR Khanna
(D) Justice MN Venkatachaliah
73) Who was the first Attorney-General for India?
(A) CK Daphtary
(B) MC Setalvad
(C) Niren De
(D) LN Sinha
74) Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, the Civil Disobedience Movement, launched in 1930,
started from?
(A) Sabarmati
(B) Dandi
(C) Sevagram
(D) Champaran
75) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Events) List II (Results)

a Dandi March 1 Communal electorate
b Chauri Chaura 2 Illegal manufacture of salt
c Simon Commission 3 Country-wise agitation
d Morley Minto Reforms 4 Withdrawal of a movement
Codes:
(A) a-l; b-2; c-3; d-4
(B) a-4; b-3; c-2: d-1
(C) a-2: b-4; c-3; d-1
(D) a-1; b-4; c-3; d-2
76) Which of the following planets has the maximum number of natural satellites?
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
77) In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalised commercial banks is fixed by?
(A) Union Ministry of Finance

(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks Association
78) Solvents are the substances used to dissolve other substances. Consider the following substances:
(1) Water (2) Ether (3) Toluene (4) Chloroform (5) Ethanol, Which of the above can be used as
solvents?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) All of these
79) Viruses are parasitic, having DNA/RNA; but, they can be crystallised and lack respiration.
Therefore, they are treated as:
(A) Living beings

(B) Non-living beings
(C) Both living and non-living beings
80) Who is the winner of the coveted Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2013?
(A) Javed Akhtar

(B) Gulzar
(C) AR Rahman
(D) Indeevar
81) Who among the following has been recently appointed as brand ambassador for Central Reserve
Police Force (CRPF):
(A) Aamir Khan

(B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
(C) MC Mary Kom
(D) Sania Mirza
82) Till date (2014), how many people have been awarded the Bharat Ratna Award?
(A) 40
(B) 41
(C) 42
(D) 43
83) Which country Malala Yousafzai belongs to?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) The USA
(D) England
84) Who recently became the first woman chief of the State Bank of India?
(A) Arundhati Bhattacharya

(B) Shubhalakshmi Panse
(C) Vijaylakshmi Iyer
(D) Chanda Kochhar
85) Who is the Chairman of the 14th Finance Commission?
(A) Dr M Govinda Rao

(B) Dr Vijay Kelkar
(C) Dr YV Reddy
(D) Dr Raghuram Rajan
86) The Chairperson of the Seventh Pay Commission is:
(A) Justice BN Srikrishna

(B) Justice DK Jain
(C) Justice AP Shah
(D) Justice AK Mathur
87) Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
United Nations Specialized Agency Headquarters

A International Civil Aviation Organization Montreal
B World Trade Organization Geneva
C United Nations Industrial Development Organization Brussels
D International Fund for Agricultural Development Rome
88) The First Five Year Plan of India was based on:
(A) John W Miller Model

(B) PC Mahalanobis Model
(C) Gadgil Yojana
(D) Herrod-Domar Model
89) Which one of the following measures is NOT likely to aid in improving Indias balance of payment
position?
(A) Promotion of import substitution policy

(B) Devaluation of rupee
(C) Imposition of higher tariff on imports
(D) Levying the higher duty on exports
90) Find out the correct chronological sequence of the following persons visit to India at one time or
another: (1) Fa-Hien (2) I-Tsing (Yijing) (3) Megasthanese (4) Hiuen-Tsang.
(A) l,3,2,4
(B) l.3,4,2
(C) 3,1,4,2
(D) 3,1,2,4
91) Which was the first newspaper to be published in India?
(A) Bombay Samachar

(B) The Hindu
(C) Bengal Chronicle
(D) Bengal Gazette
92) The change in the colour of stars is linked to:
(A) Variation in their surface temperature

(B) Variation in their distance from the earth
(C) Fluctuations in their composition and size
(D) Irregular absorption or scattering in earths atmosphere
93) Which one of the following does NOT remain to be a planet now?
(A) Neptune
(B) Uranus
(C) Pluto
(D) Venus
94) Who was appointed as the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) KC Chakrabarty
(B) Urijit Patel
(C) Raghuram Rajan
(D) D Subbarao
95) Which one of following offices is held during the pleasure of the President of India?
(A) Vice-President
(D) Governor of a State
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
96) Who was the first winner of the prestigious Jnanpith Award?
(A) Tarasankar Bandyopadhyay

(B) Kuppali Venkatappagowda Puttappa
(C) Sankara Kump
(D) Umashankar Joshi
97) Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:
List I
(a) Visakhadatta
(b) Varahamihira
(c) Sushruta
(d) Brahmagupta
List II
(1) Surgery
(2) Drama
(3) Astronomy
(4) Mathematics
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
98) Who was among the following honoured with Arjun Award in Chess for the year 2013?
(A) Kavita Chahal

(B) Parimarjan Negi
(C) Ronjan Sodhi
(D) Abhijeet Gupta
99) Economic growth rate projected by the IMF for India in the fiscal year 2014-15 is:
(A) 5.4 per cent

(B) 5.5 per cent
(C) 5.6 per cent
(D) 5.7 per cent
100) Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Italy on 22 nd February 2014?
(A) Oleksandr Turchynov

(B) Matteo Renzi
(C) Enrico Letta
(D) Giorgio Napolitano
101) Which one of following is the highest peacetime gallantry award of India?
(A) Param Vir Chakra

(B) Ashok Chakra
(C) Maha Vir Chakra
(D) Kirti Chakra
102) Which one of the following gases is lighter than air?
(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Chlorine
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
103) Name the scientist who is known as the father of modern genetics:
(A) A Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

(B) Hugo de Vries
(C) Gregor Johann Mendel
(D) Charles Darwin
104) Which year was designated by the United Nations as International Womens Year?
(A) 1974
(B) 1975
(C) 1976
(D) 1977
105) Mention the correct abbreviation for ATM:
(A) Automated Teller Machine

(B) Any Time Money
(C) All Time Money
(D) Auto-limited Teller Machine
106) General Election is being held in India from 7 April to 12 May 2014 to constitute:
(A) 14th Lok Sabha

(B) 15th Lok Sabha
(C) 16th Lok Sabha
(D) 17th Lok Sabha
107) Mention the name of the current Chief Justice of India:
(A) Justice Altamas Kabir

(B) Justice P Sathasivam
(C) Justice R M Lodha
(D) Justice H L Dattu
108) The 9th Ministerial Conference of the WTO, held during 3 December-6 December 2013, was
concluded at:
(A) Geneva, Switzerland

(B) Kaula Lumpur, Malaysia
(C) Warsaw, Poland
(D) Bali, Indonesia
109) Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2013 was awarded to:
(A) Mo Yan
(B) James E Rothman
(C) Lars Peter
(D) Hansen Alice Munro
110) Which one of the following satellites was successfully launched by the ISROs Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C24) on 4th April 2014?
(A) IRNSS-1B
(B) GSAT-14
(C) INSAT-3D
(D) SARAL
LOGICAL REASONING
Directions for Questions 111 to 113 : Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Five friends Satish. Rajesh, Rehman. Rakesh. and Vineet. - each presents one paper to their class on
Physics. Zoology, Botany, English, or Geology - one day a week. Monday through Friday.
(i) Vineet does not present English and does not give his presentation on Tuesday.
(ii) Rajesh makes the Geology presentation, and does not do it on Monday or Friday.
(iii) The Physics presentation is made on Thursday.
(iv) Rehman makes his presentation, which is not on English, on Wednesday.
(v) The Botany presentation is on Friday, and not by Rakesh.
(vi) Satish makes his presentation on Monday.
111) What day is the English presentation made?
(A) Friday
(B) Monday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
112) What presentation does Vineet do?
(A) English
(B) Geology
(C) Physics
(D) Botany
113) What day does Rakesh make his presentation on?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
Directions for Questions 114 to 118: Each question contains a statement on relationship and a
question regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.
114) Pointing to a photograph, a man said, I have no brother or sister but that man's father is my
father's son. Whose photograph was that?
(A) His fathers

(B) His own
(C) His sons
(D) His nephews
115) Ranjan introduces Abhay as the son of the only brother of his fathers wife. How is Abhay related
to Ranjan?
(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Cousin
(D) Uncle
116) Pointing to a lady on the stage, Bhumika said. "She is the sister of the son of the wife of my
husband. How is the lady related to Bhumika?
(A) Cousin
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter
117) Pinky, who is Victor's daughter, says to Lucy, Your mother Rosy is the younger sister of my
father, who is the third child of Joseph. How is Joseph related to Lucy?
(A) Father-in-law
(B) Father
(C) Maternal uncle
(D) Grandfather
118) Pramod told Vinod, Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother.
Whom did Promod defeat?
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Cousin
Directions for Questions 119 to 123: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
(i) In a family of six persons, there are people from three generations. Each person has separate
profession and also each one likes different colours. There are two couples in the family.
(ii) Charan is a CA and his wife neither is a doctor nor likes green colour.
(iii) Engineer likes red colour and his wife is a teacher.
(iv) Vanita is mother-in-law of Namita and she likes orange colour.
(v) Mohan is grandfather of Raman and Raman, who is a principal, likes black colour.
(vi) Sarita is granddaughter of Vanita and she likes blue colour. Saritas mother likes white colour.
119) Who is an Engineer?
(A) Sarita
(B) Vanita
(C) Namita
(D) Mohan
120) What is the profession of Namita?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Teacher
(D) Cannot be determined.
121) Which of the following is the correct pair of two couples?
(A) Mohan - Vanita and Charan - Sarita

(B) Vanita - Mohan and Charan - Narnita
(C) Charan - Namita and Raman - Sarita
(D) Cannot be determined
122) How many ladies are there in the family?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) None of these
123) Which colour is liked by CA?
(A) White
(B) Blue
(C) Black
(D) None of these
Directions for Questions 124 to 128: Read the information given below carefully and answer the
questions.
124) Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road. 150 kms apart. The first bus runs for 25
kms and takes a right turn and then runs for 15 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and
takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to a minor breakdown, the other
bus has run only 35 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two buses at this
point?
(A) 65 kms
(B) 75 kms
(C) 30 kms
(D) 85 kms
125) G, H, I. J, K, L, M, N are sitting around a round table in the same order for group
discussion at equal distances. Their positions are clock wise. If M sits in the north, then what will be
the position of J?
(A) East
(B) South-East
(C) South
(D) South-West
126) Roshan, Vaibhav. Vinay and Sumit are playing cards. Roshan and Vaibhav are partners. Sumit
faces towards North. If Roshan faces towards West, then who faces towards South?
(A) Vinay
(B) Vaibhav
(C) Sumit
(D) Data is inadequate
127) Five boys are standing in a row facing East. Pavan is to the left of Tavan, Vipin. Chavan. Tavan,
Vipin, Chavan are to the left of Nakul. Chavan is between Tavan and Vipin. If Vipin is fourth from the
left, then how far is Tavan from the right?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
128) One morning after sunrise. Suraj was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly
to his right. Which direction was Suraj facing?
(A) West
(B) South
(C) East
(D) Data is inadequate
Directions for Questions 129 to 130: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
Diana is three times older than Jackson; Edward is half the age of Stephen. Jackson is older than
Edward.
129) Which one of the following can be inferred?
(A) Jackson is older than Stephen

(B) Diana is older than Stephen
(C) Diana may be younger than Stephen
130) Which one of the following information will be sufficient to estimate Diana's age?
(A) Edward is 10 year old

(B) Both Jackson and Stephen are older than Edward by the same number of years
(C) Both A and B above
Directions for Questions 131 to 135: Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to
work out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be.
For example, the sequence A, C, E, G,? has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore,
the next item must be I.
131) 0, 3, 8, 15, ?
(A) 24
(B) 26
(C) 35
(D) None
132) 8, 16, 28, 44, ?
(A) 60
(B) 64
(C) 62
(D) 66
133) 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
(A) 290
(B) 240
(C) 336
(D) 504
134) POQ, SRT, VUW, ?
(A) XVZ
(B) XZY
(C) YZY
(D) YXZ
135) A1, C3, F6, J10, O15, ?
(A) U21
(B) V21
(C) T20
(D) U20
Directions for Questions 136 to 140: Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired. Select
a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the
word given after double colon ()
136) Bow : Arrow :: Pistol: ?
(A) Gun
(B) Shoot
(C) Rifle
(D) Bullet
137) Eye : Wink :: Heart: ?
(A) Throb
(B) Move
(C) Pump
(D) Respirate
138) Ocean : Water :: Glacier : ?
(A) Cooling
(B) Cave
(C) Ice
(D) Mountain
139) Prima facie : On the first view :: In pari delicto: ?
(A) Both parties equally at fault

(B) While litigation is pending
(C) A remedy for all disease
(D) Beyond powers
140) Delusion : hallucination :: Chagrin : ?
(A) Illusion
(B) Ordered
(C) Cogent
(D) Annoyance
Directions for Questions 141 to 142: Each question comprises two statements (numbered as I and
II). You have to take the statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
141) (I) All contracts are agreements.

(II) All agreements are accepted offers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(A) All accepted offers are contracts

(B) All agreements are contracts
(C) All contracts are accepted offers
142) (I) Some beautiful women are actresses.

(II) All actresses are good dancers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(A) Some beautiful women are good dancers

(B) All good dancers are actresses
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Directions for Questions 143 to 145: Two statements are given below followed by two conclusions (I
and II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follow from the given
statements.
143) Statements: Some books are magazines.
Some magazines are novels.
Conclusions: (I) Some books are novels.
(II) Some novels are magazines.
(A) Only (I) follows

(B) Only (II) follows
(C) Both (I) and (II) follow
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows
144) Statements: All students like excursions.

Some students go for higher education.
Conclusions: (I) Students who go for higher education also like excursions.
(II) Some students do not go for higher education, but like excursions.
145) Statements: All good hockey players are in the Indian Hockey team.
X is not a good hockey player.
Conclusions: (I) X is not in the Indian Hockey team.
(II) X wants to be in the Indian Hockey team.
Directions for Questions 146 to 148: In each of the following questions. a related pair of words is
followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar
to the one expressed in the question pair.
146) India : Tricolour
(A) China : Sickle and Hammer

(B) UK : Red Cross
(C) USA : Stars and Stripes
147) Statute : Law
(A) Proviso : Clause

(B) Chapter : Exercise
(C) University : School
(D) Section : Illustration
148) Buddhists : Pagoda
(A) Parsis : Temple

(B) Christians : Cross
(C) Jains : Sun Temple
(C) Jews : Synagogue
Directions for Questions 149 to 150: Each question consists of five statements (a-e) followed by
options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which
indicates a valid argument; that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the
preceding two statements.
149) a. Law graduates are in great demand.

b. Rajesh and Krishna are in great demand.
c. Rajesh is in great demand.
d. Krishna is in great demand.
e. Rajesh and Krishna are law graduates.
Choose the correct option:

(A) abe
(B) ecd
(C) aeb
(D) cba
150) a. All captains are great players.

b. Some captains are successful sports administrators.
c. Ritwik is a great player.
d. Ritwik is a captain and successful sports administrator.
e. Some successful sports administrators are great players.
Choose the correct option:

(A) acd
(B) abe
(C) dca
(D) edc
LEGAL APTIUDE
Directions for Questions 151 to 200: This section consists of fifty (50) questions. Each question
consists of legal propositions/principles (hereinafter referred to as principle) and facts. These
principles have to be applied to the given facts to arrive at the most reasonable conclusion. Such
principles may or may not be true in the real sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be
true for the purposes of this section. In other words, in answering the following questions, you must
not rely on any principles except the principles that are given herein below for every question.
Further, you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this
section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability
even if the most reasonable conclusion arrived at may be unacceptable for any other reason. It is
not the object of this section to test your knowledge of law.
151) Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing
anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a
proposal. The expression of willingness/desire results in a valid proposal only when it is
made/addressed to some person(s).
Facts: X makes the following statement in an uninhabited hall: I wish to sell my mobile phone for
`l,000.
Which of the following, derivations is CORRECT?
(A) 'X' made a statement that resulted in a promise

(B) made a statement that resulted in a proposal
(C) X made a statement that did not result in any proposal
(D) made a statement that resulted in an agreement
152) Principle: A proposal (offer) should be made with an intention that after its valid acceptance. a
legally binding promise or agreement will be created. The test for the determination of such intention is
not subjective, rather it is objective. The intention of the parties is to be ascertained from the terms of
the agreement and the surrounding circumstances under which such an agreement is entered into. As a
general rule, in the case of arrangements regulating social relations, it follows as a matter of course that
the parties do not intend legal consequences to follow. On the contrary, as a general rule, in the case of
arrangements regulating business affairs, it follows as a matter of course that the parties intend legal
consequences to follow. However, the above rules are just presumptive in nature, and hence, can be
rebutted.
Facts: One morning while having breakfast. X, the father, says to Y (X's son), in a casual manner,
I shall buy a motorbike for you if you get through the C LAT.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) X made a statement that resulted in an enforceable promise

(B) X made a statement that resulted in a valid proposal
(C) X made a statement that resulted in an enforceable agreement
(D) X made a statement that did not result in any enforceable agreement
153) Principle: Acceptance (of offer) must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror so as to give
rise to a binding obligation. The expression by the offeree to the offeror includes communication
between their authorised agents.
Facts: X made an offer to buy Ys property for a stipulated price. Y accepted it and communicated
his acceptance to Z, a stranger.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT ?
(A) Ys acceptance resulted in an agreement

(B) Ys acceptance did not result in any agreement
(C) Ys acceptance resulted in a contract
(D) Ys acceptance resulted in a promise
154) Principle: Acceptance should be made while the offer is still subsisting. The offeror is free to
retract his offer at any time before his offer gets accepted by the offeree. Once the offer is withdrawn or
is lapsed, it is not open to be accepted so as to give rise to a contract. Similarly, if a time is prescribed
within which the offer is to be accepted, then, the offer must be accepted within the prescribed time.
And. if no time is prescribed, then, the acceptance must be made within a reasonable time. What is a
reasonable time is a question of fact which is to be determined by taking into account all the relevant
facts and surrounding circumstances.
Facts: X makes an offer to Y to sell his equipment for `1,000.00. No time is specified for the
acceptance. Y sends his reply two years after receiving the offer. Which of the following derivations
is CORRECT?
(A) There arises a contract between X and Y to sell/buy the equipment in question for `1,000.00
(B) There does not arise any contract between X and Y to sell/buy the equipment in question for
`1,000.00
(C) X is bound by his offer, and hence, cannot reject the acceptance made by Y
(D) There arises a promise by Y to buy the equipment
155) Principle: Minor s agreement is void from the very beginning. It can never be validated. It
cannot be enforced in the court of law.
Facts: A, a boy of 16 years of age, agrees to buy a camera from B, who is a girl of 21 years of age.
(A) There arises a contract between A and B to sell/buy the camera in question
(B) There arises an enforceable agreement between A and B to sell/buy the camera in question
(C) There does not arise any contract between A and B to sell/buy the camera in question
(D) There arises a voidable contract between A and B to sell/buy the camera in question
156) Principle: A contract which is duly supported by real and lawful consideration is valid
notwithstanding the fact that the consideration is inadequate. The quantum of consideration is for the
parties to decide at the time of making a contract, and not for the courts (to decide) when the contract is
sought to be enforced. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void
merely because the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may be taken
into account by the Court in determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely
given.
Facts: A agrees to sell his mobile phone worth `20,000/- for `100/- only to B, A's consent is freely
given.
(A) There is a contract between 'A' and 'B'

(B) There is no contract between 'A' and 'B' because consideration is not adequate
(C) There is no contract between 'A' and 'B' because a mobile phone worth `20,000/- cannot be sold for
just `100/-
(D) None of the above.
157) Principle: The consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if it is forbidden by law. Every
agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
Facts: 'X', promises to pay Y `50,000, if he (Y') commits a crime. 'X' further promises to indemnify
him ('Y') against any liability arising thereof. Y agrees to act as per X's promise.
(A) There is a contract between 'X' and Y

(B) There is an agreement between 'X' and 'Y' which can be enforced by the court of law
(C) There is an agreement between 'X', and 'Y' which cannot be enforced by the court of law
(D) There is a voidable contract between 'X' and 'Y'
158) Principle: The consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful if the Court regards it as
opposed to public policy. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
Facts: 'X' promises to obtain for 'Y' an employment in the public service; and 'Y' promises to pay
`5,00,000/- to 'X'.
(A) There is a contract between 'X' and 'Y'

(B) There is a voidable contract between 'X' and 'Y'
(C) There is an agreement between 'X' and 'Y' which can be enforced by the court of law
(D) There is an agreement between 'X', and 'Y' which cannot be enforced by the court of law
159) Principle: Two or more persons are said to consent if they agree upon the same thing in the same
sense. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, or undue influence, or fraud, or
misrepresentation, or mistake. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence,
fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable (rescindable or terminable) at the
option of the party whose consent was so caused. However, when consent to an agreement is caused by
mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
Facts: 'X' threatens to gun down 'Y', if he ('Y') does not sell his property worth `20,00,000/- for
`1,00,000/- only. As a consequence, 'Y' agrees to sell it as demanded by 'X'.

(D) There is a contract between 'X' and 'Y' which voidable at the option of 'Y'
160) Principle: Agreements in restraint of marriage are void.
Facts: 'X' enters into an agreement with 'Y' where under he agrees not to many anybody else other than
a person whose name starts with the letter and promises to pay `1,00,000/- to 'Y' if he ('X') breaks this
agreement.

(D) There is a voidable contract between 'X' and 'Y'
161) Principle: Vicarious liability is the liability of the Master or Principal for the tort committed by
his servant or agent, provided the tort is committed in the course of employment. The Master or
Principal is not liable for private wrongs of the servant/ agent.
Facts: 'X' hands over some cash money at his house to 'Y', who is his (X's) neighbour and is also
cashier in a bank, to be deposited in A's account in the bank. Instead of depositing the money, 'Y'
misappropriates it.
Which of the following statements depicts correct legal position in this given situation?
(A) The bank would not be liable because 'Y' did not do any wrong in the course of his employment
(B) The bank would be vicariously liable because 'Y' was the employee of the bank
(C) The bank would not be liable because 'Y' did not do any wrong
(D) The bank would be liable because 'Y' acted as bank's agent
162) Principle: A person has no legal remedy for an injury caused by an act to which he has
consented.
Facts: 'R', a cricket enthusiast, purchases a ticket to watch a T20 match organised by the Indian
Premier League (IPL). During the match, a ball struck for six hits 'R' on his body, and injures him. He
sues IPL for compensation for the medical expenses.
(A) 'R' should be compensated as he purchased the ticket to get entertainment and not to get injured
(B) 'R' would fail in his action, as he voluntarily exposed himself to the risk
(C) IPL would be liable as it did not ensure that the spectators were protected from the risk of such
injuries
163) Principle: Ignorance of law excuses no one.
Facts: 'X' fails to file his income tax returns for a considerable number of years. The Income Tax
department serves upon him a 'show-cause notice' as to why proceedings should not be initiated against
him for the recovery of the income tax due from him with interest and penalty.
(A) 'X' may defend himself by taking the plea that his legal advisor had not advised him to file the
return
(B) 'X' would have to pay the due, as ignorance of law and failure to comply with law is no legal
ground of defence
(C) 'X' may defend himself successfully by taking the plea that he was unaware of any such law being
in force
164) Principle: Damage without the violation of a legal right is not actionable in a court of law. If the
interference with the rights of another person is not unlawful or unauthorised, but a necessary
consequence of the exercise of defendant's own lawful rights, no action should lie.
Facts: There was an established school ('ES') in a particular locality. Subsequently, a new school ('NS')
was set up in the same locality, which charged lower fees, on account of which people started
patronising the new school. Because of the competition, 'ES' had to reduce its fees. 'ES' filed a case
against 'NS' saying that 'NS' had caused it (ES) financial loss and, thus, claimed compensation.
(A) Since no legal right of 'ES' had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be granted
(B) Since damage is caused to 'ES', therefore, it should be awarded compensation
(C) 'ES' should be awarded compensation, as opening of school in competition is not good
(D) No compensation could be granted, as reduction in fees is good for the public
165) Principle: Whenever there is an invasion of a legal right, the person in whom the right is vested,
is entitled to bring an action though he has suffered no actual loss or harm, and may recover damages
(compensation).
Facts: 'A' was a qualified voter for the Lok Sabha election. However, a returning officer wrongfully
refused to take A's vote. In spite of such wrongful refusal, the candidate, for whom 'A' wanted to vote,
won the election. But, 'A' brought an action for damages:

(A) Since no legal right of 'A' had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be granted
(B) Since legal right of 'A' had been violated, therefore, compensation should be granted
(C) No compensation could be granted, as 'A' had suffered no loss as his candidate won the election
(D) Since no fundamental right of 'A' had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be
granted
166) Principle: In a civil action for defamation, truth of the defamatory matter is an absolute defence.
However, the burden of proving truth is on the defendant; and he is liable if he does not successfully
discharge this burden.
Facts: D, who was the editor of a local weekly, published a series of articles mentioning that P,
who was a government servant, issued false certificates, accepted bribe, adopted corrupt and illegal
means to mint money and was a mischief monger. P brought a civil action against D, who could
not prove the facts published by him.
Under the circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) D would be liable, since he could not prove the facts published by him
(B) D would not be liable, as such an action could curtail the right of expression and speech of press
(C) D would not be liable, as media could publish anything
167) Principle: A gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to the latter.
Facts: X has a house which is owned by him. He contracted to purchase a plot of land adjacent to the
said house, but the sale (of the plot of land) in his favour is yet to be completed. He makes a gift of
both the properties (house and land) to Y.
Under the afore-mentioned circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) Gift of both the properties is valid

(B) Gift of both the properties is void
(C) Gift of house is void, but the gift of the plot of land is valid
(D) Gift of house is valid, but the gift of the plot of land is void
168) Principle: Caveat emptor, i.e. let the buyer beware stands for the practical skill and judgment of
the buyer in his choice of goods for purchase. It is the business of the buyer to judge for himself that
what he buys has its use and worth for him. Once bought, and if the buy is not up to his expectations,
then he alone is to blame and no one else.
Facts: For the purpose of making uniform for the employees, A bought dark blue coloured cloth from
B, but did not disclose to the seller (B) the specific purpose of the said purchase. When uniforms
were prepared and used by the employees, the cloth was found unfit. However, the cloth was fit for a
variety of other purposes (such as, making caps. boots and carriage lining. etc).
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards
remedy available to A in the given situation?
(A) A (the buyer) would succeed in getting some remedy from B (the seller)
(B) A (the buyer) would not succeed in getting any remedy from B (the seller)
(C) A (the buyer) would succeed in getting refund from B (the seller)
(D) A (the buyer) would succeed in getting a different variety of cloth from B (the seller), but not
the refund
169) Principle: The transferor of goods cannot pass a better title than what he himself possesses.
Facts: X sells a stolen bike to Y, Y buys it in good faith.
As regards the title to bike, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) The real owner cannot get back the bike from Y
(B) Y will get no title, as transferors (Xs) title was defective
(C) Y will get good title, as he is a bona fide buyer
(D) Y will get good title, as has not committed any wrong (stolen the bike)
170) Principle: Negligence is a breach of duty or a failure of one party to exercise the standard of care
required by law, resulting in damage to the party to whom the duty was owed. A plaintiff can take civil
action against the respondent, if the respondents negligence causes the plaintiff injury or loss of
property.
Facts: D went to a caf and ordered and paid for a tin/can of soft drink. The tin was opaque, and,
therefore, the contents could not be seen from outside. She (D) consumed some of the contents and
then lifted the tin to pour the remainder of the content into a tumbler. The remains of a snail in
decomposed state dropped out of the tin into the tumbler. D later complained of a stomach pain and
her doctor diagnosed her as having gastroenteritis and being in a state of severe shock. She sued the
manufacturer of the drink for negligence.
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards
liability of the manufacturer in the given situation?
(A) The manufacturer is liable for negligence, as it owed at duty (to consumers) to take reasonable care
to ensure that its products are safe for consumption
(B) The manufacturer is not liable for negligence, as there is no direct contract between D and the
manufacturer. No duty is owed by the manufacturer towards a particular consumer (D)
(C) The manufacturer is not liable for negligence because it would otherwise become very difficult for
the manufacturers to do business
(D) The manufacturer could be made liable under criminal law, but not for tort of negligence
171) Principle: Master is liable for the wrongful acts committed by his servant; provided the acts are
committed during the course of employment. However, the master is not liable if the wrongful act
committed by his servant has no connection, whatsoever, with the servants contract of employment.
Facts: D is a driver employed by M, who is the owner of a company. During the lunch time, D
goes to a close by tea shop to have a cup of tea. There he (D) picks up fight with the tea shop owner
(T), which resulted in some damage to his shop. T wants to sue M for claiming compensation for
the damage caused by the fight.
(A) M will be liable because D is his servant

(B) Both M and D will be liable
(C) M will not be liable because the wrongful act (picking up fight) was not committed in the course
of D's employment
(D) M will be liable albeit the wrongful act (picking up fight) was not committed in the course of Ds
employment
172) Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees the right to life, which means right to live with
human dignity. The right to life under the Constitution, however, does not include the right to die.
Facts: M, who is 90, lives all alone as he has no family or children or grandchildren. He suffers from
physical and mental distress, as there is no one to look after him. He has little means to foot his
medical expenses. Under these circumstances, he approaches the court with a prayer that he should be
granted the right to die with dignity because he does not want to be a burden on the society. Further, as
it is his life, he has a right to put an end to it.
(A) The prayer can be granted, as suicide is not an offense in India

(B) The prayer can be granted. as the right to life under the Constitution includes the right to die
(C) The prayer can be granted, as a person cannot be forced to enjoy right to life to his detriment,
disadvantage and disliking
(D) The prayer cannot be granted, as the right to life under the Constitution does not include the right
to die
173) Principle: Trespass to land means direct interference with the possession of land without lawful
justification. Trespass could be committed either by a person himself entering the land of another
person or doing the same through some tangible object(s).
Facts: A throws some stones upon his neighbour's (B's) premises.
(A) A has committed trespass

(B) A has not committed trespass, as he has not entered Bs premises
(C) A has committed nuisance
174) Principle: Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a persons use or enjoyment of land or some
right over or in connection with it. If the interference is direct, the wrong is trespass; whereas, if the
interference is consequential, it amounts to nuisance.
Facts: 'A' plants a tree on his land. However, he allows its branches to project over the land of B.
(A) A has committed trespass

(B) A has committed nuisance
(C) A has not committed nuisance
(D) None of the above A
175) Principle: interference with anothers goods in such a way as to deny the latter's title to the goods
amounts to conversion, and thus it is a civil wrong. It is an act intentionally done inconsistent with the
owner's right, though the doer may not know of, or intend to challenge, the property or possession of
the true owner.
Facts: R went to a cycle-stand to park his bicycle. Seeing the stand fully occupied, he removed a few
bicycles in order to rearrange a portion of the stand and make some space for his bicycle. He parked his
bicycle properly, and put back all the bicycles except the one belonging to S. In fact, R was in a
hurry, and therefore, he could not put back S's bicycle. Somebody came on the way and took away S's
bicycle. The watchman of the stand did not take care of it assuming that the bicycle was not parked
inside the stand. S filed a suit against R for conversion.
(A) R could not be held liable for the negligence of the watchman
(B) S would succeed because Rs act led to the stealing of his bicycle
(C) S would not succeed because R did not take away the bicycle himself
(D) S would not succeed because Rs intention was not bad
176) Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it.
Facts: A. a police officer, without warrant, apprehends Z, who has committed murder.
(A) A is guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement

(B) A is not guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement
(C) A may be guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint
(D) A cannot apprehend Z without a warrant issued by a court of law
177) Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention
of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.
Facts: Roshan along with two of his friends, Tushar and Tarang proceeded to the house of Darshan in
order to avenge an insult made by the brother of Darshan. They opened fire on the members of
Darshan's family. It was found that the shots of Roshan did not hit anyone, but the shots of Tushar and
Tarang succeeded in killing Darshan.
(A) Roshan was not liable for the offence of murder of Darshan. as Roshan s shots did not hit Darshan
(B) Only Tushar and Tarang were liable for the offence of murder of Darshan, as their shots hit
Darshan
(C) Roshan along with Tushar and Tarang was liable for the offence of murder of Darshan
(D) Roshan was liable to a lesser extent comparing to his friends for the offence of murder of Darshan.
as Roshans shots did not hit Darshan
178) Principle: No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the
person to whom it is made, if it is made for the benefit of that person.
Facts: A, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The
patient dies in consequence of the shock.
(A) A has committed the offence of causing death of his patient

(B) A has not committed the offence of causing death of his patient
(C) A has only partially committed the offence of causing death of his patient
179) Principle: Whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public
servant, as such, furnishes, as true, information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe
to be false, has committed a punishable offence of furnishing false information.
Facts: Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate,
willfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in
consequence of the bite of a snake.
(A) Sawant is not guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
(B) Sawant is guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
(C) Sawant is not legally bound to furnish true information to the Magistrate
(D) Sawant has the discretion to furnish true information to the Magistrate, as the murder was
committed within the limits of his estate
180) Principle: Whoever unlawfully or negligently does any act which is, and which he knows or has
reason to believe to be, likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life, shall be guilty of
a negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life.
Facts: K, a person, knowing that he is suffering from Cholera, travels by a train without informing
the railway officers of his condition.
(A) K has committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of Cholera
disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers
(B) Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, as K who is suffering from
Cholera disease has travelled by the train
(C) K has not committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of
Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers
(D) Both K and Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread
the infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow- passengers
181) Principle: Whoever drives any vehicle, or rides, on any public way in a manner so rash or
negligent as to endanger human life. or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person, has
committed an offence, which shall be punished in accordance with the law.
Facts: X, a truck driver, driving his vehicle rashly and negligently at a high speed climbed the
footpath and hit Y, a pedestrian, from behind causing his death.
(A) X is not guilty of rash and negligent driving

(B) Y should have taken sufficient care on the footpath
(C) X is guilty of rash and negligent driving
(D) X is only in part guilty of rash and negligent driving
182) Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the
intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is
likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide.
Facts: A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it
to be likely to cause Zs death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z.
(A) B has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(B) A has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(C) Both A and B have committed the offence of culpable homicide
(D) None of them has committed the offence of culpable homicide
183) Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of
any person without that persons consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit
theft.
Facts: Z, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to the possession of A, the keeper of a warehouse,
till Z shall return. Then, A carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it.
(A) A has committed theft

(B) A has not committed theft
(C) A lawfully sold the plate to the goldsmith
(D) None of the above is true
184) Principle: Whoever makes any false document or part of a document with intent to cause damage
or injury, to the public or to any person. or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part
with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that
fraud may be committed, commits forgery.
Facts: A without Zs authority, affixes Zs seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an

estate from to A, with the intention of selling the estate to B and thereby of obtaining from B the
purchase-money.
(A) B has committed forgery

(B) Z has committed forgery
(C) A has committed forgery
(D) A and B have committed forgery
185) Principle: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that persons consent, in order
to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be
likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the
force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
Facts: Z is riding in a palanquin, A, intending to rob Z, seizes the pole and stops the palanquin.
Here A has caused cessation of motion to Z, and A has done this by his own bodily power.
(A) A has used criminal force to Z

(B) A has no intention to use criminal force to Z
(C) A has used force with the consent of Z
(D) None of the above is correct
186) Principle: One of the essential conditions for a marriage between any two persons to be
solemnized under the Special Marriage Act. 1954 is that at the time of the marriage the male has
completed the age of twenty-one years and the female the age of eighteen years. If the said condition is
not fulfilled such a marriage is null and void.
Facts: A, a male aged twenty-two years, proposes to marry B, a female aged sixteen years, at Delhi
in the month of June 2014 under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
(A) Marriage between A and B can be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(B) Marriage between A and B cannot be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(C) Marriage between A and B can remain valid for A under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
187) Principle: Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 either the husband or the wife can move a
petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion. The term desertion means desertion of the
petitioner by the other party to the marriage for a continuous period of not less than two years
immediately preceding the presentation of the petition, without reasonable cause and without the
consent or against the wish of such party and includes the willful neglect of the petitioner by the other
party to the marriage, and its grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed
accordingly. It is also said that desertion is withdrawal not from a place but from a state of things.
Facts: Rohan, a technocrat, went to US in January 201l for pursuing his higher studies for a period of
three years. In fact, Rohan went to US with the consent of his wife Basanti, who stayed at her parents
home, and with a promise of his return to India upon the completion of his studies. From US he has
quite often been in touch with his wife. Subsequently, Rohan has got a job there in US and he wishes to
take his wife. She refuses to go to US and. in the meanwhile, she files a petition for a decree of divorce
on the ground of desertion by her husband.
(A) Rohan's three year stay in US in the above context can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
(B) Rohans three year stay in US in the above context cannot amount to a ground of desertion for
divorce.
(C) Rohan's continued stay after three years can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
(D) Basantis refusal can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
188) Principle: Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, I956, no person shall be capable of
being taken in adoption unless he or she is a Hindu, he or she not already been adopted, he or she has
not been married, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who
are married being taken in adoption, and he or she has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless
there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who have completed the age
of fifteen years being take in adoption.
Facts: Vijay being natural father had given Tarun, a boy aged 10 years, in adoption to Manoj in March
2010 in accordance with the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. In May 2012 Manoj gave
Tarun in adoption to Sanjay. Subsequently in December 2013, Sanjay gave Tarun in adoption to Vijay.
(A) Adoption of Tarun by Sanjay is valid

(B) Adoption of Tarun by Vijay is valid
(C) Adoption of Tarun by Manoj is valid
(D) None of the above adoptions is valid
189) Principle: Under copyright law copyright subsists in original literary works also. A literary work
need not be of literary quality. Even so prosaic a work as an index of railway stations or a railway
guide or a list of stock exchange quotations qualifies as a literary work if sufficient work has been
expended in compiling it to give it a new and original character.
Facts: Michael works hard enough, walking down the streets, taking down the names of people who
live at houses and makes a street directory as a result of that labour.
(A) Michaels exercise in making a street directory is sufficient to justify in making claim to copyright
in that work which is ultimately produced
(B) Michaels exercise in making a street directory is not enough to justify in making claim to
copyright in that work
(C) A street directory cannot be enough to be considered as a literary work
(D) None of the above statements is correct
190) Principle: Every person shall be liable to punishment under the Indian Penal Code and not
otherwise for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the Code of which he shall be guilty
within the territory of India. In other words, the exercise of criminal jurisdiction depends upon the
locality of the offence committed, and not upon the nationality or locality of the offender.
Facts: X, a Pakistani citizen, while staying at Karachi, made false representations to Y, the
complainant, at Bombay through letters, telephone calls and telegrams and induced the complainant to
part with money amounting to over rupees five lakh to the agents of X at Bombay, so that rice could
be shipped from Karachi to India as per agreement. But the rice was never supplied to the complainant.
(A) The offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code was committed by X within India, even
though he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime
(B) The offence of cheating as per section 420 of the Code was not committed by X within India, as
he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime
(C) Only the agents of 'X' had committed the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within
India, as they were physically present at the time and place of the crime
(D) Y was also liable for the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within India, as he
was physically present at the time and place of the crime
191) Principle: When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, (1) an illegal act, or (2) an
act which is not illegal by illegal means, through such an agreement such persons are said to have been
engaged in a criminal conspiracy to commit an offence. It is said that no consummation of the crime
need be achieved or even attempted.
Facts: X, Y and Z plan to kill D. They agree that only one among them, that is Z, will execute
the plan. In pursuance of it Z buys a gun and loads it.
(A) Only Z can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill D

(B) All of them, i.e., X, Y and Z, can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill 'D' (C) 'X' and
'Y' cannot be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill 'D'
(D) None of them can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill 'D'
192) Principle: 'Wrongful gain' is gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is
not legally entitled. 'Wrongful loss' is the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person
losing it is legally entitled.
Facts: 'X' takes away Y's watch out of Y's possession, without Y's consent and with the intention of
keeping it.
(A) 'X' causes 'wrongful gain' to 'Y'

(B) 'Y' causes 'wrongful gain' to 'X'
(C) 'X' causes 'wrongful loss' to 'Y'
(D) 'Y' causes 'wrongful loss' to 'X'
193) Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason that it causes, or that it is intended to cause, or that it
is known to be likely to cause, any harm, if that harm is so slight that no person of ordinary sense and
temper would complain of such harm.
Facts: X takes a plain sheet of paper from Ys drawer without Ys consent to write a letter to his
friend.
(A) X has committed an offence in the above context

(B) X has committed no offence in the above context
(C) Y can sue X for an offence in the above context
(D) None of the above is correct in the above context
194) Principle: When an act which would otherwise be a certain offence, is not that offence, by reason
of the youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the
person doing that act, or by reason of any misconception on the part of that person, every person has
the same right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were that offence.
Facts: X, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill Y.
(A) Y has the right of private defence against X

(B) Y does not have the right of private defence against X
(C) Y has the right of private defence against X, only if X is not under the influence of madness
(D) X has the right of private defence against Y
195) Principle: Where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorized to transfer
certain immovable property and professes to transfer such property for consideration, such transfer
shall, at the option of the transferee, operate on any interest which the transferor may acquire in such
property at any time during which the contract of transfer subsists.
Facts: A, a Hindu who has separated from his father B, sells to C three fields, X, Y and Z,
representing that A is authorized to transfer the same. Of these fields Z does not belong to A, it
having been retained by B on the partition; but on B's dying A as successor obtains Z and at that
time C had not cancelled the contract of sale.
(A) A can sell Z to a third party

(B) A is not required to deliver Z to C
(C) A is required to deliver Z to C
(D) None of the above statements is correct
196) Principle: Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a property must be transferred by one living
person to another living person. The Act deals only with transfer of property between living persons.
Facts: X wants to transfer his property to the presiding deity in a temple situated within the estate of
A.
(A) Transfer of property by X will be valid

(B) Transfer of property by X will be invalid
(C) Transfer of property by X to the presiding deity will become a valid transfer to A
197) Principle: Where there is transfer of ownership of one thing for the ownership of some other
thing it is called exchange; while transfer of ownership for consideration of money is called sale,
whereas, without consideration it becomes gift.
Facts: A transfers his house worth `50 Lakhs to B for a shopping building worth the same amount,
as consideration, from B.
(A) The transaction is a gift

(B) The transaction is a sale
(C) The transaction is an exchange
(D) The transaction is a mortgage
198) Principle: One of the principles of natural justice is Nemo judex in causa sua, which means that
no one should be a judge in his own cause. In other words, no person can judge a case in which he has
an interest.
Facts: X, a member of the selection board for a government service, was also a candidate for
selection for the same service. X did not take part in the deliberations of the board when his name
was considered and approved.
(A) Selection of X is against the principle of natural justice.

(B) Selection of X is not against the principle of natural justice.
(C) Non-selection of X will be against the principles of natural justice.
(D) Non-participation of X in the board deliberations will render his selection
199) Principle: Strike is a collective stoppage of work by workmen undertaken in order to bring
pressure upon those who depend on the sale or use of the products of work: whereas, lock-out is a
weapon in the hands of the employer, similar to that of strike in the armoury of workmen, used for
compelling persons employed by him to accept his terms or conditions of or affecting employment.
While in closure there is permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof, in lay-off
an employer, who is willing to employ, fails or refuses or is unable to provide employment for reasons
beyond his control.
Facts: Workmen of a textile factory went on strike as per law, demanding the payment of bonus.
Employer of the factory refused to pay any extra allowances, including bonus, and besides he closed
down the factory till the strike was stopped.
(A) Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to strike
(B) Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to lay-off
(C) Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to lock-out
(D) Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to closure
200) Principle: Trade dispute means any dispute between employers and workmen or between
workmen and workmen, or between employers and employers which is connected with the
employment or non-employment, or the terms of employment or the conditions of labour, of any
person. Disputes connected with the non-employment must be understood to include a dispute
connected with a dismissal, discharge, removal or retrenchment of a workman.
Facts: X, an employee in a sugar factory, raised a dispute against Y, the employer, through trade
union regarding certain matters connected with his suspension from the employment.
(A) Matters connected with suspension can amount to a trade dispute

(B) Matters connected with suspension cannot amount to a trade dispute
(C) Only after dismissal, matters connected with suspension can amount to a trade dispute
(D) None of the above is correct.
National Law School of India University, Bangalore
SUNDAY, THE 11TH MAY
Admit Card No.: ...................................... Time: 3 P.M. to p P.M. (2 hours)
OMRAnswer Sheet No.:.................................. Total Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No Duplicate Booklet will be issued.
2. Enter your 7 Digit Admit Card number in the space provided above and in the
OMR Answer sheet.
3. Enter the 6-Digit OMR Answer Sheet number in the space provided above.
4. There are 5 Scction (Sections I-V) comprising of 190 objective type questions.
The answers to these objective type questions are to be entered on the OMR
Answer sheets by fully shading tile appropriate ovals.
5. Answer all question.
6. THERE IS NO NEGATIVE MARKING.
7. Spccifc instructions are given at the beginning of each Section. Read them
carefully before answering.
8. For rough work there is a blank page at the end.
9. Total number of pages of the Question Booklet is:24 excluding the rough sheet
at the end of the booklet.
10. The possession of any electronic gadget in the examination hall will
disqualify the candidate for being considered for selection.
11. Adoption of any unfair means during the text will disqualify the candidate.
The decision of the Superintendent of the Centre shall be final in this regard.
SIGNATURE OF THE CENTRE SUPERINTENDENT
1
MARKS SHEET
Section Part Max. Marks
Objective questions
I - General English A 10
B 05
C 10
D 05
E 05
F 05
II - General Knowledge 50
III - Mathematics 20
IV-Logical Reasoning 50
V - Legal Reasoning 40
Total 200
2
SECTION-I: ENGLISH
PART A
Instruction: Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow and
shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer
sheet.
Example: If the appropriate answer is (a), shade the appropriate oval on the OMR
sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (Total 10 marks)
MY LOVE OF NATURE, goes right backto my childhood, to the times whenI stayed onmy
grandparents' farm in Suffolk. My father was in the armed forces, so we were always
moving and didn't have a home base for any length of time, but I loved going there. I
drink it was my grandmother who encouraged my more than anyone : she taught me the
names of wild flowers and got me interested in looking at the countryside, so it seemed
obvious to go on do Zoology at University.
I didn't get my first camera until after I'd graduated, when I was due to go diving in
Norway and needed a method of recording the sea creatures I would find there. My father
didn't know anything about photography, but he bought me an Exacta, which was really
quite a good camera for the time, and I went off to take my first pictures of sea anemones
and starfish. I became keen very quickly, and learned how to develop and print;
obviously i didn't have much money in those days, so I did more black and while
photography than colour, but it was a still using the camera very much as a tool to
record what I found both by diving and on the shore. I had no ambition at ail to be a
photographer then, or even for some years afterwards.
Unlike many of the wildlife photographers of the time, I trained as a scientist and
therefore my way of expressing myself is very different. I've tried from the beginning to
produce pictures which are always biologically correct. There are people who will alter
things deliberately: you don't pick up sea creatures from the middle of the shore and
take them down to attractive pools at the bottom of the shore without knowing you're
doing it. In so doing you're actually falsifying the sort of seaweeds they have on and so
on, which may seen uni mportant, but it is actually changing the natural surroundings
to make them prettier. Unfortunately, many of the people who select pictures are looking
for attractive images mid, at the end of the day, whether it's tmthful or not doesn't really
matter to them.
It's important to think about the animal first, and there are many occasions when I've
not taken a picture because it would have been too disturbing. Nothing is so important
that you have to get that shot; of course, there are cases when it would be very sad ifyou
didn't, but it's not the end of the world. There can be a lot of ignorance in people's
behavior towards wild animals and it's a problem that more and more people are going to
wild places: while some animals may get used to cars, they won't get used to people
suddenly rusting up to them. The sheerpressure ofpeople, coupled with the fact that
there are increasingly fewer places where no-one else has photographed, means that over
the years, life has become much more difficult lortlreprofessional wildlifephotographer.
Nevertheless, wildlife photographs play a very important part in educating people about
what is out there and what needs conserving. Although photography can be an enjoyable
pastime, as it is to many people, it is also something that plays a very important part in
educating young and old alike. Of the qualities it takes to make a good wildlife
photographer, patience is perhaps the most obvious you just have to be prepared to sit
3
it out. I'm actually more patient now because I write more than ever before, and as long
as I've got a bit ofpaper and a pencil, I don't feel fm wasting my time. And because I
photograph such a wide range of things, even if the main target doesn't appear I can
probably find something else to concentrate on instead.
1. The writer decided to go to university and study Zoology because

(a) she wanted to improve her life in the countryside
(b) she was persuaded to do so by her grandmother
(c) she was keen on the natural world
(d) she wanted to stop moving around all the time .
2. Why did she get her first camera?

(a) she needed to be able to look back at what she had seen
(b) she wanted to find out if she enjoyed photography
(c) her father thought it was a good idea for her to have one
(d) she wanted to learn how to use one and develop her own prints
3. She did more black and white photography than colour because
(a) she did not like colour photograph (b) she did not have a good camera
(c) she wanted quality photograph (d) she didn't have much money in those days
4. How is she different from some of the other wildlife photographers she meets?
(a) she tries to make her photographs as attractive as possible
(b) she takes photographs which record accurate natural conditions
(c) she likes to photograph plants as well as wildlife
(d) she knows the best places to find wildlife
5. Which does'them' refer to in the 7th line in paragraph 3?

(a) sea creatures (b) attractive pools (c) seaweeds (d)natural surroundings
6. What the writer means by'ignorance in people's behaviour' is

(a) altering things deliberately
(b) people suddenly rushing up to animals
(c) people taking photographs of wild animals
(d) people not thinking about the animals in the first place
7. The writer now funds it more difficult to photograph wild animals because
(a) there are fewer of them (b) they have become more nervous ofpeople
(c) it is harder to find suitable places (d) they have become frightened of cars
8. Wildlife photography is important because it can make people realize that

(a) photography is an enjoyable hobby
(b) we learn little about wildlife at school
(c) it is worthwhile visiting the countryside
(d) wildlife photographs educate people about wild animals
9. Why is she more patient now?

(a) she does other things while waiting (b) she has got used to waiting
(c) she can concentrate better than she used to (d) she knows the result will be worth it
10. Which of the following describes the writer?

(a) proud (b) sensitive (C) aggressive (d)disappointed
4
PART-B
Instructions: Three of the four words given below are spelt wrongly. Select the word
that is spelt correctly and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for
it on the OMR answer sheet.
MARKS: Each question carries 1 (One) marks. (Total 5 marks)
11. (a) acquintence (b) acquaintance (c) acquaintance (d) acquintance
12. (a) ncglegense (b) negligence (c) negligence (d) negligence
l3. (a) grievance (b) grievance (c) grievance (d) grievence
14. (a) hierarchical (b) hierarchical (c) luerechical (d) heirercltical
15. (a) garanter (b) garantor (c) guaranter (d) guarantor
PART-C
Instructions: Select the best option from the four altemalives given and shade the
appropriateanswerin the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks : Each question carries 1 (one) marks (Total 10 marks)
16. They live on a busy road. __________a lot of noise from the traffic.
(a) It must be (b) It must have (c) There must have (d) There must be
17. Themore electricity you use. __________________
(a) your bill will be higher (b) will be higher your bill
(c) the higher your bill will be (d) higher your bill will be
18. Benlikes walking._________
(a) Every morning he walks to work (b) He walks to work every morning
(c) He walks every morning to work (d) He every morning walks to work
19. It's two years ________Soplty
(a) that I don't see (b) that I haven't seen
(c) since I didn't see (d) since I last saw
20. What was the problem? Why________leave early?
(a) have you to (b) did you have to (c) must you (d) you had to
21. Nobody believed Anm at first, but he-to be right.
(a) worked out (b) came out (c) found out (d) turned out
22. We can't _______________making a decision. We have to decide now.
(a) put away (b) Put ovei (c) put off (d) put out
23. The accident was my fault, so I had to pay for the damage_________the other car.
(a) of (b) For (c) to (d) on
24. I really object__________people smoking in my house.
(a) to (b) about (c) for (d) on
25. A contract may be________if the court finds there has been misinterpretation of
the facts.
(a) restrained (b) rescinded (c) compelled (d) conferred
5
PART D
Instruction: The five paragraphs given below have all had their constituent sentences
juntbled. Read each jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in
which the best sequence is shown mid shade die appropriate answer in
the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries l (one) marks (Total 5 marks)
26. UNIT I
i) The Supertag scanner could revolutionise the way people shop, virtually eradicating
supermarket queues:
ii) The face of retailing will change even more rapidly when the fibre optic networks
being built by cable TV companies begin to be more widely used:
iii) The scanner would have a double benefit for supermarkets -removing the bottleneck
which causes finstration [o most customers and reducing the number of checkout
staff;
iv) An electrotic scanner which can read the entire contents of a supermarket trolley at
a glance hasjust been developed.
The best sequence is:

(a) ii,i,iii,iv (b)iv,i.iii,ii (c)iv,iii,ii,i (d)iii,i,iv,ii
27. UNIT II
i) Ofcourse, modern postal services now are much more sophisticated and faster,
relying as they do on motor vehiclcs and planes tiv delivery.
ii) Indeed, the ancient Egyptians had a system for sending letters from about
2000 BC, as did the Zhou dynasty in China a thousand years later.
iii) Letters, were, and are, sent by some form of postal service, the history of
which goes back a long way.
iv) For centurics, the only form of written correspondence was the letter.

a)ii.i.iii,iv (b)iv,i,iii,ii (c) iv,iii,ii,i (d) iii,i,iv,ii
28. UNIT III

i) Converting money into several currencies in the course of one trip can also be
quite expensive, given that banks and bureaux de change charge commission on
the transaction.
ii) Trying to work out the value of the various notes and coins can be quite a
strain, particularly if you are visiting more than one country.
iii) Travel can be very exciting, but it can also be rather complicated.
iv) One of these complications is, undoubtedly, foreign currency.
'File best sequence is:

a) ii.i.iii,iv (b)iv,i,iii, ii (c) iv,iii,ii,i (d)iii,i,iv,ii
29. UNIT IV
i) She weu right about three-curiosity, freckles, and doubt-but wrong about love.
ii) "Pour of the rings I'd be better without: Love curiosity, freckles, and doubt".
iii) Love is indispensable in life.
iv) So wrote Dorothy Parker, the American writer.

a) ii,i,iii,iv (b) iv,i,iii,ii (c) iv,iii,ii,i (d) iii,i,iv,ii
6
30. UNIT V
i) This clearly indicates that the brains of men andwomen are organized
differently in the way they process speech.
ii) Difference in the way men and women process language is of specially interest
to brain researchers.
iii) However, women are more likely than men to suffer aphasiawhen the front
part of the brain is damaged.
iv) It has been known that aphasia-a kind of speech disorder- is more common in
men Ulan in women when the left side of Ihe brain is damaged maxi accident or
after a stroke.

a) ii,i,iii,iv (b) iv,i,iii,ii (c) iv,iii,ii,i (d) iii,i,iv,ii
PART -E
Instruction: Given below are five list of words followed by some choices. In each case,
choose the alternative that you can combine with every word in that
particular list to form a familiar word phrase and shade the appropriate
answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each questioncarries l (one) mark Total 5 marks
31. Down, aside, about, forth

(a) set (b) fly (c) bum (d) Lake
32. Over, about, after, at
(a) cross (b) lay (c) here (d) go
33. Forward, across, around, upon
(a) straight (b) come (c) fast (d) mark
34. In, down, for, out
(a) pray (6) try (c) grow (d) stand
35. Away, through, up, down
(a) stay (b) come (c) break (d) speak
PART F
Instruction: Given below are a few foreign language phrases that we commonly used.
Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases and shade the
appropriate answer in tile space provided for it on the OMR sheet.
Marks : Each question carries 1 (one) mark Total 5 marks
36. Prima facie

(a) The most important (b) that which comes first
(c) at first view (d) the face that is young
37. Sine die
(a) without setting a fixed day
(b) by voice vote
(c) applying mathematical concepts to solve a difficult problem
(d) signing legal document before death
7
38. Bona fide
a) Identification card b) without doubt c) in good faith d) indispessible condition
39. Status Quo
a) legally valid b) present condition c) social position d) side remarks
40. De jure
a) here and there b)as per law c) small details d) side remarks
SECTION II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Instruction: From the four answers, shade the most appropriate answer in the space
provided for it on the OMR sheet.
Marks: Each question carries (half) mark (Total 50 marks)
41. The Supreme Court of India upheld the decision to implement the quota for other
backward classes (ORC's) in higher educational institutions. The court, however,
excluded the "creamy layer" from being a beneficiary, the reason is:
(a) Creamy layer is not an OBC, it is forward caste.
(b) Creamy layer is politically power lid
(c) Itcall contpletewith hothers onequal fooling
(d) the inclusion of creamy layerwould be unjust
42. Hedge fund is a fund

(a) used for absorbing inflation
(b) used for cusIlioning health risks
(c) applied to minimize the risk of financial market transactions
(d) applied for absorbing the risk in commodity trading
43. What does strong wpce as against the dollar mean to India?
(a) there is a Balance of Payments surplus (b) Indian economy is globally respected
(c) it is a sign of economy buoyancy (d) Income from exports isfailing
44. Name the latest state which declared independence in 2008

(a) Serbio (b) Kosovo (c) Kurdistan (d) Tibet
45. Name the Finance Minister who presented the highest number of Budgets in the
Parliament so far:
(a) P.Chidambaram (b) Morarji Desai (c) Manmohan Singh (d) T.T. Krishnarnachari
46. Who is the Chairman of 13th Finance Commission constituted in 2007?

(a) Vijay Kelkar (b) C. Rangarajan (c) Ashok Lahiri (d) K. C. Pant
47. Indo-U.S nuclear deal was opposed in Parliament mainly because

(a) all Indian nuclear reactor would fall underAmerican supervision
(b) Nuclear energy sector will be dominated by American corporations
(c) Nuclcar relations between India and USA will be governed by the Hyde Act
(d) The USA will dictate Indian policies.
48. The Indian industrialist who bought Tipu Sultan's sword in an auction in London
was:
(a) Vijay Mallya (b) Anil Ambani (c) Amar Singh (d) Lakshmi Mittal
49. The contentious Baglihar dam is built on the river
(a) Indus (b) Jheelam (c) Chenab (d) SatleZ
8
50. Which country has its richest man as the head of the government?
(a) The USA (b) Italy (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Russia
51. Who is tile person known as the Father of Modern Indian Retail Trade?
(a) Mukesh Ambani (b) Kishore Bijani (c) Aditya Birla (d) Anil Ambani
52. The largest software service company in Asia is

(a) WIPRO (b) INFOSYS
(c) Tata Consultancy Service (d) Satyarn Computer
53. taikonaut means

(a) a character in comic strips (b) a character in Russian opera
(c) astronaut in china (d) a delicious Japanese dish
54. the CEO of Microsoft Corporation is

(a) Bill Gates (b)Warren Buffett (c)Steve Ballmer (d)John Wallace
55. the country which stands for Gross National Happiness in contradistinction of Gross
National Product
(a) Sweden (b) Switzerland (c) Bhutan (d) Finland
56. The highest paid head of the government in the world at present is in
(a) The USA (b) Russian Federation (c) Singapore (d) Japan
57. The current impasse in Doha Round of Negotiations is centered around:

(a) access to cheaper drugs (b) access to markets of developed countries
(c) agricultural subsidies provided (d) removal of non-tariff barriers
by developed countries
58. The phenomenon called "Equinox" is due to the

(a) retation of the earth on its own axis (b) revolution of the Earth on its inclined axis
(c) oblate-spheroid shape of the Earth (d) gravitational pull of the planet.
59. the Director-General of the World Trade Organization is

(a) Renalto Ruggiero (b) Pascal Latny (c) Arthur Dunkell (d) Oliver long
60. Capital account convertibility signifies
(a) Guaranteeing the right to investment to foreigners
(b) ensuring the right of buyers to make international payments.
(c) ensuring free international movement of capital .
(d) ensming the right of an individual to invest in foreign capital markets.
61. The purpose of Kyoto Protocol is

(a) to promote tourism
(b) to contribute sustainable development
(c) to promote renewable sources of energy
(d) to put a limit on greenhouse gas emissions by states
62. What do carbon credit signity?

(a) Credit given in the course of carbon products sales.
(b) Entitlements to emit certain quantity of green house gases
(c) Permissible amount of Carbon dioxide in die atmosphere
(d) The estent of carbon required to ensure sustainable development
9
63. The practice of selling goods in a foreign country at a price below their domestic
selling price is called
(a) Discrimination (b) dumping (c) double pricing (d) predatory pricing
64. Which of the following is considered as bulwark of personal freedom?

(a) Mandamus (b) Habeus Corpus (c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto
65. Vande Mataram is composed by

(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Sharatchandra Chatterjee
(c) Bankimchandra Chalterjee (d) Surendranath Banerjee
66. How many minutes for each degree of longitude does the local time of any place
vary from the Greenwich time?
(a) Four minutes (b) Two Minutes (c) Eight minutes (d) ten minutes
67. Article 1 of Indian Constitution defines India as -

(a) Federal State (b) Unitary State (c) Union of State (d) Quasi-Federal State
68. Which is the highest body that approves Five Year Plans in India?
(a) Parliament (b) Planning Commission
(c) National Developmenl Control (d) Council of Ministers
69. The economist who for the first time scientifically determined national income in
India -
(a) Dr. D. R. Gadgil (b) Dr. V. K. R. V. Rao (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh (d) Dr. Y. V. Alagh
70. Which of the Following is the largest peninsula in the world?

(a) Indian Peninsula (b) Arabian Peninsula (c) Malay Pernnsuta (d) Chinese Peninsula
71. The person responsible for economic model for Indian Planning:
(a) JawaharIaI Nehru (b) P.C.Mahalanobis (c) TarIokSingh (d) V.T.Krishnamachari
72. Social Forestry aims at

(a) Ensuring fuel and forest produces to weaker sections
(b) Mcdicinal and Fruit plantation
(c) Large scale afforestation
(d) Scientific forestry
73. The Great Barrier Reef refers to

(a) Goml formation (b) Tidal Waves (c) Hill range (d) Man-made walls
74. A nautical mile is equal to

(a) 1825 meters (b) 2000 meters (c) 1575 meters (d) 2050 mcters
75. Which of the following is concerned with land form?

(a) Geology (b) Geomorphology (c) Ecology (d) Geography
76. The country known as the Land of Midnight Sun-

(a) Sweden (b) Norway (c) Finland (d) Denmark
77. The monk who spread Buddhism in Tibet and Far-East -

(a) Ananda (b) Nagarjuna (c) Padmasambava (d) Mahendra
10
78. TRIPs, funning part of the World Trade Organization is intended
(a) to provide for stronger patent protection
(b) to promote transnalional corporate interests
(c) to harmonize IPR regime internationally
(d) to replace World Intellectual Property Organization
79. Carbon dating method is used to determine the age of

(a) Rocks (h) Fossils (c) Trees (d) Ancient Monuments
80. The managing director of Delhi Metropolitan Railway Corporation

(a) Chairman of India Railway Board (b) Lt. Governor of Delhi
(c) C. Sreedharan (d) Sheela Dikshit
81. 18 carat gold signifies

(a) 18 part of gold and 82 parts of other metals
(b) 18 parts of gold and 6 parts of other metal
(c) 82 parts of gold and 18 parts of other metal
(d) None of the above
82. Bali road map adopted in December 2007 provides for

(a) Fixation of greenhouse gas emission limit
(b) Launching of an adaptation fund
(c) Amendment of UN Framework Convention on Climate change
(d) Special and differential treatment for developing countries
83. Enriched uranium, used in a nuclear reactor, is

(a) uranium freed of all impurities (b) unurium treated with radiation
(c) uranium mixed with isotopes (d) uraniurn alloy with aluminum
84. The scientist responsible for developing atomic energy in India

(a) C. V Raman (b) H. J. Bhaba (c) H K. Sethna (d) Vikrant Surabhai
85. Salwa judum practiced in certain in India refers to

(a) witchcraft (b) amting civilians to fight militants
(c) training civilians in the use of fire arms (d) training civilians tobehome guards
86. Indian who won Ramatt Magsaysay award in 2007

(a) Arun Roy (b) P. Sainath (c) Medha Patkar (d) Ruth Manorama
87. The person who won Jawaharlal Nehru award in 2007

(a) Lula de Slva (b) Hugo Chavez (c) Aung Saan Suu Ki (d) Fidel Castro
88. Free Trade Area means -

(a) the area where anything can be bought and sold
(b) countries between whom trade barriers have been substantially reduced
(c) countries which have common external tariff
(d) countries which have common currency
89. Affirmative action in Indian context signifies:

(a) providing security to weaker sections
(b) welfare measures to alleviate the sufferings of poor people
(c) providing positive opportunities to deprived sections
(d) giving incentives to start industries
11
90. Special Economic Zones are
(a) the places where industries can operate without any control
(b) the places wherein any person can start any industry
(c) the places where industries get certain tax advantages
(d) the places wherein the national labour laws do not apply
91. The space shuttle which successfully carried Sunita Williams to space
(a) Challenger (b) Atlantis (c) Discovery (d) Columbus
92. The leader who led the country in atoning for the past wrongs:
(a) John Howard (b) Desmond Tutu (c) Kevin Rudd (d) Jimmy Carter
93. Gandhiji expounded his economic ideas in

(a) Hindu Swaraj (b) My Experiments vrith Truth
(c) Unto the Last (d) Economics of permanence
94. Bio-fuels have become controversial because

(a) they increase environmental pollution (b) they slow down industrialization
(c) they reduce food civilization (d) they lead to degeneration of soil
95. Evergreening of patents means

(a) granting patents in perpetuity
(b) granting patents for 100 years
(c) granting protection to incremental inventions having no substantial significance
(d) patenting of green technology
96. By signing which pact with Gandhiji did Ambedkar give up his demand for separate
electorates:
(a) Poona Pact (b) Aligarh Pact (c) Deem Pact (d) Delhi Pact
97. India eams maximum foreign exchange from the export of

(a) Garments (b) Jute
(c) Gems and Jewelleries (d) Light engineering goods
98. Sunita Williams, renowned astronaut of hrdian origin, spent a record .. days in space
(a) 195 (b) 185 (c) 200 (d) 160
99. The second biggest greenhouse gas emitter (after the USA) in the world is:
(a) Russia (b) Germany (c) China (d) Japan
100. The author of management principle -In a hierarchy, every employee tends to rise to
his level of incompetence.
(a) Prof Ducker (b) Porf. J. Peter (c) Prof. C. H. Prahlad (d)Prof Schimitthoff
101. The World Trade Organization was earlier known as

(a) UNCTAD (b) GATT (c) UNIDO (d) UNCITRAL
102. The "Waiting wall" is associated with

(a) Christians (b) Bahais (0) Jews (d) Shias
103. An Education Minsiter who got Bharata Ratna in India

(a) G B. Pant (b) M. C. Chagla (c) Abul Kalam Azad (d) Humayun Kabir
12
104. Why is Ozone Layer Important?
(a) It absorbs greenhouse gases (b) It protects Earth from ultruvioletradiation
(c) It maintains earth's Temperature (d) It is a buffer against extra-terrestrial hazards
105. The World's largest river is

(a) Boahmaputra (b) Amazon (c) Nile (d) Mississippi
106. Tsunami is caused by

(a) plate tectonics (b) underwater ridges
(c) under water volcanic activity (d) pressure from Earth's core
107. The Chipko movement is associated with

(a) preventing the felling of trees (b) afforestation
(c) transparency in public life (d) sustainable development
108. The first Great Indiati Empire was

(a) Magadhan Empire (b) Kuru Empire (c) Pandava Empire (d) Gmtdhara Empire
109. The first President of Indian National Congress

(a) A. O. Hame (b) W.C. Banerjee (c) Dadabha Nauroji (d)Phirozeshah Mehta
110. The King who gave pemtission to establish East India Company in India
(a) Jaharngir (b) Aurangzeb (c) Shahjahan (d) Shershah
111. The person who conceptualized the idea of Pakistan
(a) M.A. Jinnah (b) Hakim AzmaI Khan (c) Mohammad Iqbal (b) Liquasat Ali Khan
112. Khilafat movement was organized

(a) for getting Muslim homeland
(b) as a protest against British suppressioin of Turks
(c) to preserve Trukish Empire with Khilafat as temoral head
(d) as a protest against communal politics
113. The pattern of Centre-State relations in India can be traced back to

(a) The U. S. Constitution (b) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Motilal Nehru Committee Report (d) Ambedkars Vision
114. Indian who played a very important role in World Communist Movement:
(a) Jyoti Basu (b) M. N. Roy (c) A. K. Gopalan (d) Prakash Karat
115. Who was the first recipient of Jnanapith award?

(a) Amrita Pritam (b) Dinkar (c) D.V Gundappa (d) G Shankara Kurup
116. Name the winner of 2007 Nobel Prize for literature?

(a) Dorris Lessing (b) V.S. Naipal (c) Doras Lessing (d) Salmon Raushdie
117. Plea Bargaining is

(a) permissible in India (b) illegal in India
(c) mandatory in India (d) allowed subject to the permission of the court
118. The person appointed by two parties to settle a dispute is known as:
(a) Judge (b) Arbitrator (c) Solicitor (d) Conciliator
13
119. Right to travel is a fundamental right under
(a) Article 19 of the Constitution (b) Article 21 of the Constitution
(c) Article 14 of the Constitution (d) None of the above
120. Genetically modified seeds have become controversial mainly because of

(a) adverse impact on human health (b) adverse impact on flora around
(c) adverse impact on ozone layer (d) emission of greenhouse gases
121. Legal aid for an accused is

(a) Fundamental right. (b) legal right
(c) directive principle of State Policy (d) Discretion of state
122. The members of Constituent Assembly who framed the Constitution were:
(a) directly elected by the people (b) indirectly elected
(c) nominated (d) appointed by political parties
123. Ambedkar acted in Constituent Assembly as:

(a) President of the Assembly (b) Chairman of the Drafting Conianittee
(c) the leading spokesman of weaker sections (d) a strong defender of fundamental right
124. In India, international treaties we ratified by

(a) Parliament (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) The Union Cabinet
125. It is a constitutional requirement that the Parliament shall meet at least

(a) Twice in a year (b) thrice in a year (c) once in a year (d) none of the above
126. Governor of a State can be removed by

(a) Impeachment by State Legislature
(b) The President
(c) By the State Cabinet
(d) The Union Government at the request of the Chief Minister
127. Sovereignty under the Constitution belongs to

(a) The Parliament (b) the people
(c) The Supreme Court (d) the President along with parliament
128. The Supreme Court upheld Mandal Commission Report in

(a) Bommai v. Union of India (b) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(c) Unnikrishnana v.Union of Indian (d) Maneka Gandhi v.Union of India
129. Under our Constitution right to property is

(a) Fundamental right (b) basic structure of the Constitution
(c) Constitution right (d) a mere legal right
130. The Chairman of Sixth Pay Commission

(a) Justice B. N. Srikrishna (b) Justice Ratnavel Pandian
(c) Justice Jagannatha Shetty (d) Justice A.K. Majumdar
131. Right to education emanates from:

(a) right to culture and education under articles 29 and 30
(b) right to equality tinder Article 14
(c) freedom of speech & expression underArticle 19
(d) right to life and personal liberty under Article 21
14
132. International Court of Justice is
(a) an independent international institution (b) a principal organ of the UNO
(c) a subsidiary organ of the UNO (d) an European Institution
133. The Liberhan Connnission which received repeated extensions has been inquiring
into:
(a) Godhra riots (b) Mumai riot
(c) demolition of Babri Masjid (d) Killing of Sikhs in Delhi
134. This Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practice Act was repealed by:
(a) Competition Act (b) Consumer Protection Act
(c) Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act (d) Liberalization Policy of the
Government
135. Only judge against whom a motion of impeachment was introduced into Parliament
(a) Justice SubbaRao (b) Justice Ramaswami(c) Justice Mahajan (d) Justice Viraswami
136. The Mallimath Committee Report deals with

(a) Judicial delays in India (b) criminal justice administration
(c) Stock market reforms (d) review of constitutional system
137. The first Woman Chief Justice of High Court of India

(a) Laila Mukherjee (b) Laila Seth
(c) Fatima Bibi (d) Ruma Pal
138. Lok Adalats have been created under:

(a) Legal Services Authority Act (b) Arbitration and Conciliation Act
(c) Administration of Justice Act (d) None of above
139. Recent Nepal Elections are globally significant because

(a) Communist came to power through ballot box for the first time in the world
(b) Monarchy was defeated by democratic forces
(c) A militant movementjoined the mainstream
(d) Secularism triumphed over theocracy
140. The Third World leader who has been defying the USA:
(a) Fidel Castro (b) Hugo Chagez (c) Rober Mughabe (d) Hu Jinatao
SECTION III, MATHEMATICAL ABILITY
Instructions: From the four answers given, shade the appropriate answer in the space
provided for it on the OMR sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 2 (two) marks
141. Raju eams twice in March as in each of the other months of the year. What part of
this annual earnings he earns in that month.
(a) 1/5 (b) 5/7 (c) 2/13 (d) 1/10
142. Sanjay sold his watch for 1140 and thereby losses 5%. In order to gain 5% he has to
sell the watch for
(a) Rs. 1254 (6) Rs. 1260 (c) Rs. 1197 (d) Rs. 1311
15
143. A mixture of 40 ltrs of milk and water contains 10% of water. How much is to be
added to mixture so that the water may be 20% in the new mixture
(a) 5 ltrs. (b) 4 ltrs. (c) 6.5 ltrs (d) 7.5 ltrs.
144. A train 100 meters long running at 54 km/ hr takes 20 seconds to pass a bridge.
The length of the bridge is
(a) 50 mt. (b) 150 mt. (c) 200 mt. (d) 620 mt.
145. Sanreer is as much younger to Mohan as he is older to Arun. If the sum of the ages
of Mohan and Arun is 48, the age of Sameer is
(a) 20 years (b) 24 years (c) 30 years (d) cannot be determined
146. A tank can be filled up by two pipes A and B in 2 hours and 3 hours respectively. A
third pipe C can empty the full tank in 6 hours. If all the taps can be turned on at the
same time, the tank will be full in
(a) 1 hour (b) 40 minutes (c) 11/2 hours (d) 3 hours
147. Of the three numbers, the first is one third of the second and twice the third. The
average of these numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is
(a) 18 (b) 36 (c) 54 (d) 108
148. The length of a square is increased by 15% and breadth decreased by 15%. The
areaof the rectangle so fonned is
(a) neither increases nor decreases (b) decreases by 2.25 %
(c) increases by 2:25% (d) decreases by 22.5%
149. be 1 : 2, then the amount of water to be added further is

(a) 20 ltrs (b) 30 ltrs. (c) 40 ltrs (d) 60 ltrs.
150. A piece of cloth costs Rs. 70. If the piece is 4 meter longer and each meter costs Rs.
2 less, the cost remains unchanged. The length of the piece is
(a) 8 mt. (b) 9 mt. (c) 10 mt. (d) 12 mt.
SECTION IV: LOGICAL REASONING

Instruction: Read carefully the questions and shade the appropriate answer in the space
provided for it on the OMR sheet
Marks: Each question carries 2 (two) marks
151. A college received fifty applications for a certain course. In the qualifying
examination, one-tenth of them secured marks in 90-95% range. Within remaining
segment, three-fifth of them secured marks in 75-90% range. The rest secured below
75%. To get admission, the following restrictions hold good:
i) No students who has scored below 75% can seek admission to Physics course.
ii) No students is allowed to opt Physics without opting Mathematics
iii) No student is allowed to opt Physics and Astrophysics simultaneously.
iv) To opt Mathematics or Astrophysics, a student should have scored at least 70% in the
qualifying examination.
Which one of the following alternatives is possible?
(a) Ninety percent of tile applicants are admitted to Physics course.
(b) Thirty-five percent of the applicants who are otherwise ineligible tojoin Physics course
are admitted to Mathematics mid Astrophysics course.
(c) Students of Physics course outnumber those of Mathematics
(d) Whoever is eligible to study Mathematics is also eligible to study Physics.
16
152. A tourist can tour almost fourplaces out ofA, B, C, D, E, F and G Out of four, not
more than two can come under holiday tour and al least two must come under business
trip. The break up is as to follows: A, B, C and D - Business tour: E, F and G-Holiday
tour
The following restrictions hold good.
A) If A is included, then both C and G are excluded.
B) If neither E nor P is included, then B or G or both of them can be included
C) If G is included, then
D) can not be included.
Which one of the following combinations is possible?
(a) A, C, E and P (b) B, G and E (c) A, D and G (d) A, B and D
153. Under the smile fact sitvation as above, suppose that the following restrictions hold
good: Which one of the following is a certainty
(a)A,B,C&E (b)A,C,D&P (c)B,C,D&E (d)A,B,C&f
154. Pour members have to be nominated to a Committee and there are six candidates,
A, B, C, D, E and F. The following restrictions hold good:
A) If A is nominated, then D does not find any place
B) If B is nominated, then either E or F has to be nominated, but not both
C) If C is nominated, then both D and B have to be nominated.
Which one of the following is an acceptable combination?
(a) A, B and E (b) A, B, C and D (c) B, C, D and E (d) B, C, D and f
155. Political turmoil in a country is mainly caused by widespread violenceand flawed

economic policies of successive governments. If at all this has to be crushed, it can be
achieved only by a dictatorial oovennuent which rules with iron hand. Therefore, the
need of the hour is to elect a government which imposes fresh set of stringent
legislations.
However, one of them is most forceful, identify the same.
(a) It is not the imposition of new legislations which is required, but effective adherence
to die existing Icmslatiows.
(b) That govenvnent is the best government which governs least.
(c) It is possible to overcome any evil by educating people
(d) Only dialogue in a free society call eradicate political turmoil
156. Under the same fact situation as above, the alternatives suggested (not necessarily
all), if true, significantly strengthen the argument. However, one of them is most
forceful. Identify the same.
(a) Espionage activities by enemy byenemy nations, which contribute to political tunnoi
I, can be prevented only ifthe government is very strong.
(b) The philosophy behind any economic policy, push from bottom, press from tap' is to
followed to mitigate violence, mid is it not observed.
(c) Political turmoil is due to corrupt establishment
(d) Man is, by nature, a beast
157. Exploitation of poor by rich can be stemmed only if the state exercise complete
control over agriculture and industrial prod action. But state control is beset by two
evils; corruption and delay. The net resulf is that if is that if man tries to escape from
one evil, then he is trapped by another. Suffering hence is inescapable.
The argument presented above seems to imply the following conclusions. Identify the
one which is least dubious. Apply common sense.
17
(a) If agriculture and industrial production can be abolished, we can free ourselves from
all forms of evil.
(b) To avoid evil austere life shall be encouraged.
(c) The gap between poor and rich can be bridged by heavilytaxing the rich and passing
on the largess to the poor
(d) Man is, by nature, dishonest
158. That the human soul is iounaterial is an undisputed fact. Significantly what is not
matter is not spatial and consequently, it is not vulnerable to motion. Evidently, no
motion no dissolution. What escapes from dissolution?
Therefore the human soul is immortal. In this argument, onepremises is missing.
Complete the argument by choosing from the following:
(a) Nothing is free from dissolution (b) What is incorruptible is immortal
(c) There is no motion (d) Matter does not exist
159. Under the same fact situation as above, which one of the following, if true, affects
seriously tile argument presented above?
(a) Matter is not bound by space.
(b) Matter is indestructible
(c) Whatever exists is notnecessarily affected by motion
(d) What is not matter also is Vulnerable to motion
160. Protagonists of human rights vehemently oppose capital punishment. Their

opposition stems mainly from three reasons. Firstly, man cannot terminate what he
cannot generate. Secondly, tile function of punishment is to reform the culprit. Thirdly,
a culprit should be given an opportunity to repent. Admittedly, death penalty fails on
all three counts. However, the defenders argue that a person is punished because he
has to pay for his deeds. Reformation or repentance, according to [hem, is peripheral.
Hence, death penalty is admissible.
Which one of the following is the focus of this debate?
(a) Muisright and privileges (b) Nature and purpose of punishment
(c) Prevention ofcrime (d) Mercy and revenge
161. Since Venus rotates slowly, Fred Whipple thought that like Metcury, Venus keeps
one face always towards the Sun. If so, he said that the dark side would be very cold.
However, he knew with die help of earlier study carried out by Petit and Nicholson that it
was not the case. So, he concluded that the planet must rotate fairly often to keep the
darker side warmer.
Which ofthe following is the original prentises?
(a) Slow rotation of Venus (b) Temperature of Venus
(c) Ferequent rotation of Venus (d) Equality of the rate of rotation and
revolution
162. Beforc formulating the laws of motion, Gal ileo distinguished between mathematical
study and empirical study. He, first, theoretically derived the rotation between distances
and times for unifomnly accelerating motion by Ictting the ball roll a quarter, then half,
then two-thirds and so on of the length of the groove and then measured the times on
each occasion, which he repeated hundred times. He calculated, based on this study,
that the distance traveled equaled the square ofthe time on all occasion. Which one ofthe
following characterizes Galileo's method?
(a) Speculation (b) Theoretical analysis(c) Generalization (d) Statistical analysis
18
163. Read carefully a bricf summery of one of the investigations of Sherlock Holmes:
"While investigating the murders of Stmgerson and Enoch Drebber he got into
conversation with fellow detectives which runs as follows: "The last link ......... My case is
complete....... Could you lay your hands upon those pills". After he got those pills,
Holmes cut one of them, dissolved it in water and placed it in front of the terrier.
Contrary to his expectations, the vtimal survived. Though disappointed a bit, he thought
for a while and then cut the other pill, dissolved it, added milk and placed before the
animal. The moment it licked, the animal died. Those were the pills present at the scenes
of crime.
Which one of the following aptly described the method which this passage indicates?
(a) Imagination (b) Experiment (c) Observation (d) Thought experiment
164. There has been much speculation conceming the origin of lunar craters. One
hypothesis is that they are the result of the impact of heavy meteors on the surface of
moon while stil I soft. The most probable explanation is that they were produced by the
gases liberated from the rocky matter. "While solidification was taking place these gases
and water vapors steadily escaped though viscous surface, raising giant bubbles. The
reader can easily visualize the process that took place by watching frying of pancakes.
Which one of the following actually helps us [o determine the origin of lunar craters?
(a) Analogy (b) Study of foreign body
(c) Course mid effect relation (d) Speculation
165. "Perhaps the earliest work of Archimedes that we have is that on'Plane Equilibrium'.
In this, some fundamental principles of mechanics are set forth as rigorous geometric
propositions. The work opens with furious postulate 'Equal weights at equal distances
ate in equilibrium; equal weights at unequal distances are not in equilibrium, but incline
towards the weight at the grater distance".
According to this passage, which factors determine equilibriturn?
(a) weight (b) distance
(c) weight & distance (d) equality of weights & distances
166. According [o die above passage, which one of the following values can be assigned to
the statement unequal weights at equal distances are in disequilibrium'?
(a) true (b) false (c) uncertain (d) unverifiable
167. According to the above passage, which one of the following values can be assigned
to the statement unequal distances are in discquilibrium'?
(a) true (b) false (c) uncertain (d) unverifiable
168. Grcgor Mendel in examining tea-plants found two sharply marked races, the tall
and the short. He experimentally fertilized flowers of tall plants with pollen of short. The
off springs were tall plants. He next let the flowers of this first generation be fertilized
with their own pollen. In the following generation, shortness reappeared. Tallness and
shortness were distributed not at random but in a definite, constant, and simple ratio:
three dominant talls to one recessive short'. Which onc of the following aptly describes
the distribution of dominant and recessive characteristics?
(a) Systematic(b) equal interval (c) unpredictable (d) imegulat interval
169. It is said that in his strongly worded reaction to quantum Physics, Einstein
remarks'God does not play dice' to which Bohr, another great physicist, reacted saying
'Do not tell God what to system, though we can know the properties of macrocosmic
objects.
Which one of the following is the focus oftheir debate?
19
(a) the behaviour of God
(b) probabilistic interpretation of the behaviour of quantum object
(c) limits of human knowledge
(d) irrelevance of microcosmic object
170. An efficient and diesel-independent public transport system is essential to the

economic development of nation. Suppose that the government adopts a policy to that
effect then there is another favourablc result. The pollution ofenvironment is reduced to
a greater extent- But, then it has two-pronged backlash. The sale and consequently the
production of two and four wheelers reduce to the minimum which in unn render a large
number of people jobless. Cash flow to the treasury also is aversely affected. Such a step,
therefore, is self-defeating unless the government evolves a counler-stmtegy, to nullify the
adverse effects. W hiclr one of the fol lowing accurately projects the opinion of an
imaginaty speaker or author as the case may be of this passage?
(a) Abandon the idea of efficient and diesel-independent public transport system.
(b) Ensure sustained cash flow and create beuerjob opportunities by inventing an
alternate or more than one altemate.
(c) Public transport system shall be given up
(d) Maintain production and sale at the same level by offering incentives.
171. A moot question to be considered is whether democratic form of government is a

boon or bane, no matter what Lincoln might or might not have said. Rather his most
(in?) famous adage,'by the people, for the people and of the people' misses the most
pertinent question; which attitude works behind when a person declares that he is a (or
the right?) candidate to serve the people, and does not hesitate to contest and fight tooth
and nail the election, an euphemism for battle with or without bullets. Admittedly, the
covert attitude is different from overt attitude. Hardly any one contests the election
unwillingly. A contestant is not persuaded by any one, but driven by his own passions
and dubious motives. Contrast this picture with Socrates'version; no honest man
willingly takes tip the job of ruler. If at all he accepts, he does so for fear of being ruled
by one made Lip of inferior ineLLIC. It is beyond even the wildest imagination, to expect
an honest person to contest the election. Assuming that every statement is true, identify
from among the given alternatives the one which strictly follows from the passage.
(a) No assessment or appraisal of democracy is possible.
(b) Lincoln and Socrates are talking differently
(c) Actually, Socrates scores over Lincoln on this issue.
(d) Rulers canbehonest.
172. According to the above passage, which one of the following correctly differentiates
Lincoln's and Socrates' analyses?
(a) the nature of democracy (b) merits and demerits of politician.
(c) Qualities of elcction (d) difference in mind set of respective men.
173. Many environmentalists either adopt double standard or do not know what they are
talking about. A pro ragonist of envi roomen t, for obvious reasons, ought not to bat for
any type of progress because progress without meddling with nature is a myth. But none
can have without scientific and technological advance which has singularly made
progress possible. Furthermore environment includes not just forest wealth and hills,
but animal wealth also. An honest environmentalist is obliged to address the following
questions. Fiosl, should man in the interest of hygiene, kill any living being be it an
insect purported to be ha mrful r stray dogs? After all, the world does not belong to
man alone.
Which one of the following runs counter to the spirit of the passage?
20
(a) In the interest of health and cleanliness, our surroundings must be from disease
spreading bacteria.
(b) Non-violence as a moral principle extends to all living creatures.
(c) Vegetarian food is ideal to all men.
(d) Man should protect his environment because he has to live.
174. Does our society need reservation in Job? Before we defend reservation, we must
consider some issues. Why do we need reservation? Obviously, reservation is required to
lift the downtrodden and thereby achieve equality. How do you achieve this? Every
individual, without exception, has a right to receive quality education. It is more so in the
case of downtrodden people. Only a good-natured meritorious teacher can impart quality
education. Suppose that a person who is neither good-nurtured nor meritorious becomes
a teacher thanks to reservation system. Then generations of students suffer.
Suppose that there is some merit in this argument. Then which of the following aptly
describes the fall-out of his argument?
(a) Reservation is individual -centric, but not group-centric.
(b) Reservation, in at least one field, is self-defeating.
(c) The argument is biased.
(d) Education is not required to uplift the downtrodden.
175. Under the same fact situation as above, which one of the following helps you to
circumvent the situation?
(a) Replace education with money and make poor rich.
(b) To achieve equality encourage inter-caste marriage
(c) Only downtrodden people should form the government.
(d) Identify good namred and meritorious people within downtrodden group [o make them
teachers.
SECTION -V: LEGAL REASONING

PART A
Instruction: Each question contains some basic principles mid fact situation in which
these basic principles have [o be applied. A list of probable decisions and reasons are
given. You have to choose a decision with reason specified by shading the appropriate
answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer shcct.
Marks: Each question carries 3 (three) marks (Total 30 marks)
176. Principles : I ) On the death of husband, the widow shall inherit the property of
her deceased husband alongwithchildren equally.
2) A widow can not claim the property of the deceased if on the date
when the question of succession opens, she has married.
3) A female acquiring property in any way has the absolute title to the
property.
Apply die above three principles and decide the case of die following fact situation.
Facts : When Sudhir died, he had 1/3 rd share of the family property, which tile three
brothers Rudhir. Sudhir and Yasu inherited from their father, B.
Sudhir died on September 23rd 2006, without having any issue. The widow of Sudhir,
Ms. W in remarried on January l, 2007.
Sudhir and Yasu refused 'Win' the share from Sudhir's portion when Win claimed the
entire property belonging to Sudhir on January 30, 2007.
Select your decision from the possible decisions given in the list! And the appropriate
reason from tile indicate reasons given in list II given below
List I- Decisions
21
(a)Win can not inherit the property of Sudhir (b) Win can inherit the property of Sudhir
List II - Reasons
(i) Widow not belong to the family. (ii) Win was remarried
(iii) Her claim was on the date of Sudhir's death (iv) Her claim submitted afler she
was remarried.
Your decision and rcason
Shade the right decision with reason from the following. .
(a) (a) (i) (b) (a) (ii) (c) (b) (iii) (d) (b) iv
177. Principles 1) If a person commits an act by which death is caused to another
person and the act is done with the intention of causing death, the
person is liable for murder.
2) A person has a right of self defense to the extent of causing death to
another provided he apprehends death by the act of the letter.
Facts: Shuvawent to a hardware shop owned byAnup. Bargaining on some item to
alteration between the two and Shuva picked up a sharp object and hit at Mup. When
Mup started bleeding his wife Mridula intervened and she was also hit by Shuva and she
became unconscious. Finding himself toally comered. Anup delivered a severe blow to
Slmva with a sharp object. Shuva died instantly.
Possible decisions
a) Anup murdered Shuva
b) Anup killed Shuva with the intention of killing to save himself and his wife.
c) Anup killed Shuva without any intention to do so just to save himself and his wife.
Probable reasons for the decision

i) If a person kills another instantly on the spot, the intention to kill is obvious.
ii) Anup used force apprehending death of himself and his wife.
iii) Anup used disproportionate force
iv) There was nothing to showthat Shuva wanted to kill Anup or his wife.
Your decision with the reason

(a) (a) (i) (b)(a)(iii) (c)(c)(ii) (d)(b)(iv)
178. Principles: 1) Consumable goods which are not fit for consumption are not
marketable.
2) A consumer shall not suffer on account of unmarketable goods.
3) A seller is liable for knowingly selling unmarketable goods.
4) A manufacturer shall be liable for the quality of hi s products.
Facts: Ram bought a Coca Cola bottle from Shamas shop. Backathome, the server
opened the bottle and poured the drink into the glasses of Ram and his friend Tom. As
Tom started drinking he felt initation in his throat, Immediately, Ram and Tom took the
sample to test and found nitric acid in the content. Ram filed a suit against Shania, Coca
Cola Company and the bottler, Kishen and Co.
Suggested Decision
(a) Ram cannot get compensation(b) Tom cannot get compensation
(c) Both Ram and Tom can get compensation
Suggested Reason
i) Shama did not know thecontents ofscaled bottles.
ii) Rata did not actual ly suffer though he bought the bottle.
iii) Tom did not buy the bottle.
iv) Coca Cola company is responsible since it supplied the concentrate.
v) Kishen & Co., is responsible since it added water, sugar etc. and sealed the bottle.
vi) Shama is responsible for selling the defective product.
22
(a) (a) (i ) ( b ) ( b ) (vi) (e) (e) (v) (d) (e) (iv)
179. Principles: 1. If A is asked to do something by B, B is responsible for the act, not

A.
2. If A, while acting for B commits a wrong, Ais responsible for the wrong,
not B
3. If A is authorized to do something for B, but in the name of A without
disclosing B's presence, both A and B maybe held liable.
Facts: Somu contracted with Amar where under Amar would buy a pumpset to be used
inSomu's farm. Such a pump set was in short supply in the market. Gulab, a dealer, had
such a pumpset and he refused to sell it to Amar. Amar threatened Gulab of serious
consequences if he fails to part with the pumpset. Gulab filed a complaint against Amar.
Proposed decision
(a) Amar alone is liable for the wrong though he acted for Somu.
(b) Amar is not liable for the wrong, though he is bound by the contract with Somu.
(c) Somu is bound by the contract and liable for the wrong.
(d) Both Somu and Amar are liable for the wrong.
Suggested reasons
i) Amar committed the wrong while acting for the benefit for Somu.
ii) Amar cannot do while acting for Somu something which he cannot do while acting for
himself.
iii) Both Amar and Somu are liable since they are bound by the contract.
iv) Somu has to be responsible for the act of Amar committed for Santa's benefit.

(a) (a) (4 (b) (a) (ii) (e) (e) (iii) (d) (d) (iv)
180. Principles: l. The owner of a land has absolute interest on the property including
the contents over and under the property.
2. Water flowing below your land is notyours though you can use it.
3. Any construction on your land belongs to you.
4. All mineral resources below the land belongs to the State.
Facts: There is a subterranean water flow under Suresh's land surface. Suresh
constructed a huge reservoir and drew all subterranean water to the reservoir. As a
result, the wells of all adjacent property owners have gone dry. They demanded that
either Suresh must demolish the reservoir or share the reservoir water with them.
Proposed Decision
(a) Suresh need not demolish the reservoir.
(b) Suresh has to demolish the reservoir
(c) Suresh has to share the water with his neighbours
(d) The Govennnent can take over tile reservoir.
Possible reasons
i) Water cannot be captured by one person for his personal use.
ii) The government must ensure equitable distribution of water.
iii) Whatever is under Suresli s land may be used by him.
iv) Suresh has to respect the rights of others regarding water.
(a) (iii) (b) (i) (c) (iv) (d) (ii)
23
181. Principles 1. An employer shall be liable forthe wrongs committed by his
employees in the course of employment.
2. Third parties must exercise reasonable care to find out whether a
person is actually acting in the course ofemployment.
Facts : Nandan was appointed by Syndicate Bank to collect small savings from its
customer spread over the different places on daily basis. Nagamana, a housemaid, was
one of such customers making use of Nandan's service. Syndicate Bank after a couple
ofyears terminated Nandaris service. Nagamana, unaware of this fact, was handing over
her savings to Nandan who misappropriated them. Nagamana realized this nearly after
three months, where she went to the Bank to withdraw money. She filed a complain
against bank.
Possible decision
(a) Syndicate Bank shall be liable to compensate Nagamma
(b) Syndicate Bank shall not be liable to compensate Nagamma
(c) Nagamma has to blame herself for her negligence.
Possible Reason
i) Nandan was not acting in the course ofemploymeht after the termination of his service.
ii) Aperson cannot blame others for his own negligence.
iii) Nagamma was entitled to be informed by the bank about Nandan
iv)The Bank is entitled to expect its customers to know actual position
Your dicision with the reason

(a) (b) (i) (b) (c) (ii) (c) (a) (iii) (d) (b) (iv)
182. Principles: 1. Amaster shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants
committed in the course of employment.
2. Whether an act is committed in the course of employment has to
bejudged in the context of the case.
3. Both master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this
regard.
Facts: Rama Bhai was an uneducated widow and she opened a SB account with
Syndicate Bank with the help ofher nephew by name Keshav who was at that time
working as a clerk in the bank. Kehsav used to deposit the money of Rama Bhai from
time to time and get entries doen in the passbook. After a year or so, Kehsav was
dismissed from the service by the bank. Being unaware of this fact, Rama bhai continued
to hand over her savings to him and Keshav misappropriated them. Rama Bhai realized
this only when Keshav disappeared from the scene one day and she sought
compensation from the bank.
Possible decisions
a) Syndicate Bank shall be liable to compensate Rama Bhai.
b) Syndicate Bank shall not be liable to compensate
Rama Bhai
c) Rama Bhai cannot blame others for her negligence.
Possible Reasons
i) Keshav was not an employee ofthe bank when the fraud was committed.
ii) The Bank was not aware ofthe special arrangement between Rama Bhai and Keshav
iii) It is the Bank's duty to take care of vulnerable customers.
iv) Rama bhai should have checked about Keshav in her own interest.
24
(a) (a) (iii) (b) (e) (iv) (e) (b) (ii) (d) (b) (i)
183. Principles: 1. A person is liable for negligence, if he fails to take care of his
neighbour's interest.
2. Aneighbour is anyone whose interests should have been foreseeable
by a reasonable man while carrying on his activities.
Facts: A cricket match was going on in a closed door stadium. Acdcket fan who could not
get into the stadium was watching the game by climbing up a nearby three and sitting
there. The cricket ball in the course of the game went out of the stadium and hit his
person and injured him. He filed a suit against the organizers.
Possible decisions
(a) The organizers are liable to compensate the injured person.
(b) the organizers are not liable to compensate the injured person.
(c) The injured person should have avoided to place where he might be hit by the cricket
ball.
Possible reason
i) The organizers are responsible for the people inside the stadium.
ii) The organizers could not have foreseen somebody watching the game by climbing up a
tree.
iii) Aperson crazy about something must pay the price for that
iv) The organizers shal I be liable to everybody likely to watch the game.

(a) )(a) (iv) (b) (a) (iii) (e) (b) (ii) (d) (e) (i)
184. Principles: 1.When a person unlawfully interferes in the chattel of another- person
by which the latter is deprived of its use, the former commits the tort
of conversion.
2. Nobody shall enrich himself at others expense.
Facts : A patients suffering form stomach ailment approached a teaching hospital. He

was diagnosed as suffering from appendicitis and his appendix was removed. He became
alright. The hospital however found some unique cells in the appendix and using the cell
lines thereof, it developed drugs of enormous commercial value. When the erstwhile
patient came to know about it, he claimed a share in the profit made by the hospital.
Possible Decisions
a) The hospital need not share its profits with the patients.
b) The hospital may share its profits on ex gratia basis
c) The hospital shall share its profits with the patients
Possible Reason
i) The patient, far from being deprived of the use of his appendix, actually benefited by its
removal.
ii) The hospital instead of throwing away the appendix conducted further research on it
on its own and the development of drug was the result of its own effort.
iii) The hospital could not have achieved its success without that appendix belonging to
the patient.
v) Everybody must care for and share with others.
25
(a) (a) (i) (b) (a) (ii) (e) (e) (iii) (d) (e) (iv)
185. Principles 1. Copying including attempt to copy in examinations is a serious

offence.
2. One shall not take any unauthorized materials into the examination
hall.
Facts : Rohini, an examinee in PUC, was thoroughly checked while entering into the
examnation hal I. She did not have anything other than authorized materials such
aspen, instrument box, etc. with her. As she was writing-her paper, an invigilator found
close to her feet a bunch of chits. The invigilaotors on scrutiny found that the chits
contained answers to the paper being written by Rob ini. Rohins
answer tallied with the answers in the chits. A charge of copying was leveled against
Rohini.
Probable Decision
a) Rohini shall be punished for copying.
b) Rohini cannot be punished for copying.
Probable Reasons
i) Something lying near the feet does not mean that the person is in possession of that
thing
ii) The fact that she was checked thoroughly while getting into the hall must be
conclusive.
iii) Similarities between her answers and the answers in the chit indicate that she used
those chits.
iv)After using those chits, she must have failed to dispose ofthem properly.

(a) (a) (iii) (b) (a) (iv) (c) (b) (iii) (d) (b) (i)
PART -B
Instruction: From the four answers given, shade the appropriate answer in the space
provided for it on the OMR answer sheet
Marks: Each question carries 2 (two) marks.
186. All contracts are agreements. All agreements are accepted offers. Which ofthe
following derivation is correct?
(a) All accepted offers are contracts (b) All agreements arecontracts
(c) All contracts areaccepted offers (d) None of the above
187. No minor can enter into a contract of work. Working in a shop can be dune only by
a contract. Which ofthe following derivation is correct?
(a) A minor cannot work is a shop
(b) Ashop cannot contract with a minor.
(c) There cannot be a contract to which minor is a party.
(d) None of the above.
188. All motors vehicles are required to have third party insurance. Any vehicle notusing
mechanical device is not a motor vehicle.
Which of the following is correct derivation from the above?
26
(a) All Third Party Insurances relate to motor vehicles.
(b) Vehicles not using mechanical device need not have Third Party Insurance
(c) All vehicles must have Third Party Insurance
(d) None of the above ,
189. A contract contravening public policy is void. There cannot be a general definition of
public policy. Which of the following is comet derivation from the above?
(a) There cannot be a general defutition of contract
(b) Since public policy is uncertain, contract is also uncertain.
(c) The impact of public policy on contract is to be judged in individual cases.
190. International law is the law between sovereign states. A sovereign is the supreme
authority not bound by legal constraints.
Which of the following is correct derivation from the above?
(a) International law is not law binding no the sovereign states.
(b) International law is only a positive morality
(c) International law is in the nature of pact between sovereign states.
27
Time: 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. (2 Hours)
Admit Card No. :_______________________
OMR Answer Sheet No.: ------------------------- Total Marks: 200
1. Before using the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet, check them for any
defect like misprint, fudging of printing, missing pages / Questions / Ovals etc.
and ask for issue of relevant duplicates.
2. No duplicate Question Booklet, OMR Answer Sheet or Extra Blank Sheets of
paper shall be provided except in a situation under Instruction 1 above.
3. Enter your 10 Digit Admit Card Number and 5 Digit OMR Answer Sheet
Number in the space provided above in the Question Boo/ciet with Ball Point
Pen Only.
4. Enter your 10 Digit Admit Card Number in the space in the OMR Answer Sheet
with Ball Point Pen Only and shade the relevant ovals with HB Pencil Only.
5. There are FIVE Sections (Section I-V) comprising of 200 Objective Questions in
the Question Booklet and each question carries ONE mark. The answers to
these objective questions are to be entered on the OMR Answer Sheet by fully
shading the appropriate ovals with HB Pencil Only. If more than one oval is
shaded in answer to a question, that answer shall be deemed to be wrong.
6. Answer all the 200 Hundred Questions.
7. THERE IS NO NEGATIVE MARKING FOR WRONG ANSWERS.
8. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each Section and Parts of
each Section. Read them carefully before answering.
9. Total number of pages in the Question booklet is: 32 including the four blank
pages (29-32) for rough work at the end.
ID. Possession of all kinds of electronic gadgets in the Exam Hall is strictly
prohibited. Possession and / or use of any unfair means shall disqualify the
candidate and decision of the Centre Superintendent in this regard shall be
final.
Signature of Centre Superintendent
28
MARKS DISTRIBUTION
Sections Part Max. Marks
I. English including
A 10 'I
Comwehension
B 5
C 10
D 5
E 5
F 5
II. General Knowledge /

50
Current Affairs
III. Elementary
Mathematics 20
(Numerical ability)
IV. Legal Aptitude 45
V. Logical
45
Reasoniny
Total 200
29
SECTION- I
English Including Comprehensio n
PART - A
Instruction: (Questions 1-10), Read the given passage carefully and answer tile
questions that follow. Shade tile appropriate answer in tile space
provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total 10 marks)
There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly
contrary to morality and that its production probably so, dues not go far enough.
These activities are not only opposed to morality but also to law if the legal
objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and the
manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced. Now the time is ripe
to evaluate the responsibility of scientists who knowingly use their expertise for
the construction of such weapons, which has deleterious effect on mankind.
To this- must be added the fact that more than 50 percent of the skilled scientific
manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry. How
appropriate i[ is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of
weapons of death in a world of poverty is a question that must touch the scientific
conscience.
A meeting of biologists on the Long-Term Worldwide Biological consequences of

nuclear war added frightening dimension to those forecasts. Its report suggested
that the long biological effects resulting from climatic changes may at least be as
serious as the immediate ones. Sub-freezing temperatures, low light levels, and
high doses of ionizing and ultraviolet radiation extending for many months after a
large-scale nuclear war could destroy the biological support system of civilization,
at least in the Northern Hemisphere. Productivity in natural and agricultural
ecosystems could be severely restricted for a year or more. Post war survivors
would face starvation as well as freezing conditions in the dark and be exposed to
near lethal doses of radiation. If, as now seems possible, the, Southern
Hemisphere were affected also, global disruption of the biosphere could ensue. In
any event, there would be severe consequences, even in the areas not affected
directly, because of the inter-dependence of the world economy. In either case the
extinction of a large fraction of the earth's animals, plants and microorganism
seems possible. The population size of Homo sapiens conceivably could be
reduced to prehistoric levels or below, and extinction of the human species itself
cannot be excluded.
1. Choose the word, which is most opposite in meaning of the word, printed in bold
as used in the passage Deleterious.
(a) Beneficial (b) Harmful
(c) Irreparable (d) Non-cognizable
2. The author's most important objective of writing the above passage seems to --
----
(a) Highlight the use of nuclear weapons as an clleclive pnpulauun control
measures.
(b) Illustrate the devastating effects of use of nuclear sveapuns on mankind.
(c) Duly highlight the supremacy of' the nations which possess nucical
weapons.
(d) Summarise the long biological effects of use of nuclear weapons.
30
3. The scientists engaged in manufacturing destructive weapons are ----------.
(a) Very few in number
(b) Irresponsible and incompetent
(c) More than half of the total number
(d) Engaged in the armaments industry against their desire
4. According [o the passage, the argument on use and manufacture of nuclear

weapons
(a) Does not stand the test of legality
(b) Possesses legal strength although it does not have moral
standing (c) Is acceptable only on moral grounds
(d) Becomes stronger if legal and moral considerations are combined
5. The author of the passage seems to be of the view that

(a) Utilization of scientific skills in manufacture of weapons is appropriate.
(b) Manufacture of weapons of death would help eradication of poverty.
(c) Spending money on manufacture of weapons may be justifiable subject to
the availability of funds.
(d) Utilization of valuable knowledge for manufacture of lethal weapons is
inhuman,
6. Which of the following is one of the consequences of nuclear war? (a)

Fertility of land will last for a year or so.
(b) Post-war survivors being very few will have abundant
food. (c) Lights would be cooler and more comfortable.
(d) Southern Hemisphere would remain quite safe in the post-war period.
7. Which of the following best explains the word devoted, as used in the passage?
(a) Dedicated for a good cause (b) Utilised for betterment
(c) Abused for destruction (d) Underutilised
8. The biological consequences of nuclear war as given in the passage include all
the following, except
(a) Fall in temperature below zero degree Celsius
(b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) High does of ionizing
(d) Abundant food for smaller population.
9. It appears from the passage that the use of nuclear weapons is considered
against morality by
(a) Only such of those nations who cannot afford to manufacture and sell
weapons
(b) Alnuoat all the nations of the world
(c) Only the superpowers who can afford to manuJacture and sell weapons
(d) Most of the scientists devote their valuable skills to manufacture nuclear
weapons.
10. Which of the following statements I, II, III and IV is definitely true in the
context of the passage?
(I) There is every likelihood of survival of the human species as a consequence
of nuclear war.
(II) Nuclear war risks and harmful effects are highly exaggerated.
(III) The post war survivors would be exposed to the benefits of non-lethal
radiation.
(IV) Living organisms in the areas which we not directly affected by nuclear
was would also suffer.
(a) I (b) III (c) II (d) IV
31
PART - B
Instructions: (Questions I1-15). Three of the four words given in these questions
are spelt wrong. Select the word that is spelt correct and shade the
appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks : Each question carries 1 (One)
(Total 5 marks)
mark.
11. (a) renaissance (b) renaisance (c) renaissence (d)renaisence
12. (a) malaese (b) melaize (c) melaise (d) malaise
13. (a) irelevant (b) itrelevent (c) irrelevant (d)irrellevant
14. (a) survilance (b) surveillance (c) surveilance (d) surveilliancc
15. (a) gaiety (b) gaietly (c) gaeity (d) gaitty
PART - C
Instructions: (Questions 16-20), Given below are a few foreign language phrases
that are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each or the phrases
and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR
Answer Sheet.
Marks : Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 5 marks)
16. Mala fide

(a) in good faith (b) in bad faith
(c) without any faith (d) with full faith
17. Pro rata
(a) at the rate of (b) at quoted rate
(c) in proportion (d) beyond all proportion
18. Vice versa
(a) in verse (b) versatile verse
(c) in consonance with (d) the other way round
19. Ab initio
(a) from the very beginning (b) high initiative
(c) things done later (d) without initiative
20. Alibi
(a) every where (b) else where
(c) no where (d) without any excuse
PART D
Instructions: (Questions 21-25), Some idioms given below are commonly used.
Choose the correct meaning for each of the idioms and shade the
appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 5 marks)
21. To give the game away

(a) To lose the game (b) To give a walk-over in a game
(c) To reveal the secret (d) To play the game badly
22. To cool one's heels
(a) To Close the Chapter (b) To walk on the heels
(c) To kick someone whh the heels (d) To wait and rest for some time
32
23. To bury the hatchet
(a) To light with the hatchet (b) To lot get the enmity
(c) To bury the treasure under ground (d) To pick up enmity
24. Gift of the gab
(a) Gift for hard work (b) Gift undeserved
(c) Gift of being a good conversationalist (d) Gift from unknown person
25. To smell a rat
(a) To suspect a trick (b) To detect a foul smell
(c) To behave like a rat (d) To trust blindly
PART E
Instructions: (Questions 26-35), Given below are sentences with a blank in each
sentence. Choose the right answer to fill in the blank by shading your
answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
26. Some people believe that in emotional maturity men are inferior .........
women.
(a) Than (b) To (c) From (d) Against
27. My father was annoyed ............... me.
(a) Towards (b) Against (c) With (d) Upon
28. Some orthodox persons are averse .............. drinking liquor.
(a) Against (b) For (c) Towards (d) To
29. The Cinema Hall was on fire and the Cinema owner had t0 send ..........the
Fire Brigade.
(a) For (b) Through (c) Off (d) In
30. lie was not listening ................ I was saying.
(a) Thai (b) Which (c)'fuwhat (d) What
31, Drinking country liquor al marriage is a custom ............... certain
tribes,
(a) In (b) Among (c) Between (d) With
32, The struggle forjustice brings.............. the best of moral qualities of men.
(a) Forward (b) About (c) In (d) Out
33. If he ............... a horse he would Ily.
(a) Was (b) Were (c) Is (d) Goes
34. Mohan has a bad habit of .......... at on odd hour.
(a) Turning up (b) Turning in (c) Turning over (d) Turning Off
35. He must refrain ................ immoral conducts.
(a) Off (b) Through (c) From (d) Against
PART F
Instructions: (Questions 36-40), The constituent sentences of a passage have
been jumbled up. Read jumbled sentences carefully and then choose the
option which shows the best sequence of sentences of the passage and
shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR
Answer Sheet.

36. (i) The Collector said that the Dams should receive
(ii) To ensure uninterrupted
(iii) Water up to a particular level
(iv) Supply of water for irrigation
(a) ii, i, iv, iii (b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) iv, i, iii, ii (d) ii, iv, i, iii
33
37. (i) He loved to distribute them among small kids.
(ii) He wore a long, loose shirt with many pockets.
(iii) And in doing so his eyes brightened.
(iv) The pockets of his shin bulged with toffees and chocolates.
(a) ii, i, iii, iv (b) i, iv, ii, iii
38. (i) As we all know, a legislation
(ii) Needs the assent of the President
(iii) Passed by the Houses of Parliament
(iv) To become law.
(a) i, iii, ii, iv (b) i, iv, ii, iii
39. (i) The farmers grow food for the whole country.
(ii) And therefore it is our duty to improve their lot.
(iii) Yet these fellows are exploited by the rich.
(iv) Hence they are the most useful members of the society.
(a) ii, i, iv, iii (b) i, iv, ii, iii
(c) i, iv, iii, ii (d) ii, iv, i, iii
40. (i) The ripples looked enchanting in the light of the Sun.
(ii) We went to the pond.
(iii) We flung stones to create ripples.
(iv) We stood knee-deep in the muddy water of the pond.
(a) ii, i, iv, iii (b) ii, iv, iii, i
(c) iv, i, iii, ii (d) iv, ii, i, iii
SECTION - II
General Knowledge/ Current Affairs
Instructions: (Questions 41-90), Out of the four answers, shade the correct answer in
the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (total 50 marks)
41. Capital market means
(a) Mutual Funds (b) Money Market
(c) Securities Market (d) Banking Business
42. From which river would the National River Project he started?
(a) Yamuna (b) Gomti
(c) Ganga (d) Krishna
43. "The Audacity of Hope" is a honk written by
(a) Bill Clinton (b) Barack Obama
(c) Gorge Bush (d) Bill Gates
44. ' WPI' is used as an acronym for
(a) World Price Index (b) World Price Indicators
(c) Wholesale Price Index (d) Wholesale Price indicators
45. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of income, it shall be called
(a) Progressive Tax (b) Proportional Tax
(c) Lump sum Tax (d) Regressive Tax 46. Who is the
Director of "Chak De India"?
(a) Shimit Amiro (b) Yash Chopra
(c) Shahrukh Khan (d) Ram Gopal verma
34
47. What is the full form of the scanning technique CAT?
(a) Complete Anatomical Trepanning (b) Computerized Automatic Therapy
(c) Computerized Axial Tomography (d)Complete Axial Transmission
48. Who got the World Food Prize?
(a) Kofi Annan (b) Man Mohan Singh
(c) Hillary Clinton (d) Bhumibol Adulyadej
49. ISO 9000 is a
(a) Quality Standard Mark (b) Space Project
(c) Trade Technique (d) Loan Security
50. What is 'AGMARK'?
(a) Name of Brand
(b) A Marketing Research Organisation
(c) Eggs supplied by Government-run cooperative
(d) Agriculture marketing for agro products
51. The Headquarters of Indian Space Research Organisation is at
(a) Trivandrum (b) New Delhi
(c) Bangalore (d) Ahmedabad
52. "Saras" is the name of

(a) An Aircraft (b) A Tank
(c) A Missile (d) A Submarine
53. First woman Prime-Minister in the World was from
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bhutan
(c) India (d) Nepal
54. Who was felicitated with 'Nishan-e-Paki scan "?
(a) Shawghan Sinha (b) Maulana Azad
(c) Dilip Kumar (d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
55. Which State provided separate reservation for Muslims and Christians in the
State Backward Classes List in 2007?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Bihar (d) Kerala
56. Which of the following dances is not a classical dance?
(a) Kathakali (b) Garba
(c) Odissi (d) Manipun
57. Sulabh Intemational is an organisation which provides
(a) Health Services in Rural Areas (b) Good Sanitation at Cheap Rates
(c) Low Cost Accommodation (d) Low Cost Credit
58. Who among the following was honoured with 'Officer of the Legion of Honour'
'award by French Govemment in July 2008?
(a) Dev Anand (b) Yash Chopra
(c) H.R. Chopra (d) Mrinal Sen
59. The largest gland in the human body is
(a) Liver (b) Pancreas
(c) Thyroid (d) Endocrine
60. The Railway Budget for 2007-2008 has declared the year 2007 as the
year of
(a) Cleanliness (b) Passenger Comfort
(c) Staff Welfare (d) Computerization of Reservations
61. In the world of Hindi Cinema, who was affectionately called as 'Dada Moni'?
(a) Balraj Sahni (b) Pdthviraj Kapoor
(c) Ashok Kumar (d) Utpal Dutt
35
62. Out standing Parliamentarian Award (2006) was presented in 2007 to (a) P.
Chidambram (b) Sarad Pawar
(c) Mani Shankar Aiyar (d) Sushma Swaraj
63. World's longest sea bridge has taken shape in to 2007 in
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) Singapore (d) U.S.A.
64. Who among the following Indians became Citigroup's Investment Banking
head?
(a) L. N. Mittal (b) A.K. Subramaniyam
(c) Vineet Seth (d) Vikram Pandit
65. The Green Revolution in India has been identified with
(a) Dr. Man Mohan Singh (b) Dr. Montck Singh Ahluwalia
(c) Mr. Rajendra Singh 'walerman' (d) Dr. M.S. Swaminalhan
66. Indian Judge in the UN Law of the Sea Tribunal is
(a) Dr. P.S.Rao (b) Dr. P.C.Rao
(c) Mr. Justice Jagannath Rao (d) Mr. Justice Rajendra Babu
67. The Ozone Layer thins down as a result of a chain chemical reaction that
separates from the layer
(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine
(c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen
68. Joint SAARC University of eight SAARC Nations has been established in
(a) Colombo (b) Dhaka
(c) Kathmandu (d) New Delhi
69. Which country recently produced the world's first cloned rabbit using a
biological process that takes cells from a fems?
(a) U.K. (b) China
(c) U.S.A. (d) Germany
70. Which one of the following Vitamins is responsible for blood clotting?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K
71. What is the meaning of 'Gilt Edged Market'?
(a) Market in Government securities (b) Market of smuggled goods
(c) Market of auctioned goods (d) Market of Gold products
72. Who is the Central Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(a) Prof. Ansari (b) Mrs. Padma Subramenian
(c) Mr. Wajahat Habibullah (d) Dr. O.P. Kejariwal
73. The youngest recipient of Padma Shti so far is
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Shobana Chandrakumar
(c) Sania Miaa (d) Billy Man Singh
74. Who is the Director of the film "Elizabeth: The Golden Age Cast"?
(a) Rama Nand Sagar (b) Ram Gopal Verma
(c) Karan Johar (d) Shekhar Kapur ,
75. The territorial waters of India extend up to?
(a) 12 Nautical Miles (b) 6 Km
(c) 10 Nautical Miles (d) 15 Nautical Miles
76. 'Satnjhoma Express' runs between [lie Railway Stations of
(a) New Delhi - Wagah (b) New Delhi - Lahore
(c) Amritsar - Lahore (d) New Delhi - Islamabad
77. Blue revolution refers to
(a) Forest Development (b) fishing
(c) Poultry Farming (d) Horticulture
36
78. Dr. A.P.1.Abdul Kalam has been appointed as Chancellor of
(a) IIM Mumbai (b) IIT Kanpur
(c) IIM Ahmedabad (d) UST Thiruvananthapuram
79. In which State "Kanya Vidyadhan Yojna" is operational?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan (d) Haryana
80. Who emerged the fastest woman of the world at Beijing Olympics?
(a) Sheron Sumpson (b) Keaon Stewart
(c) Ann Fraser (d) Elina Basiena
81. Savannath grasslands are found in
(a) North America (b) Africa
(c) Australia (d) East Asia
82. Which State has launched the "Aarogya Sri" a health Insurance Scheme for
families below poverty line?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
83. The first nuclear reactor of India is named
(a) Rohini (b) Vaishali
(c) Apsara (d) Kamini
84. In May 2007 Air Sahara acquired by Jet Airways is being operated as a
separate airline under the name of
(a) Jet Lite (b) Jet Sahara
(c) Air Jet Line (d) Jet Sahara Lite
85. Suez Canal connects
(a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea and Red Sea (d) Baltic Sea and Black Sea
86. Government has launched E - Passport Scheme and first E - Passport was
issued to
(a) Mr. Arjun Singh (b) Mrs. Sortia Gandhi
(c) Dr. ManMohan Singh (d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
8T The Hindu outfit 'Hindraf' has been banned in
(a) Pakistan (b) Thailand
(c) Malaysia (d) Bangladesh
88. Which organization is headed by Indian Environmenlalisis R.K.Pachauri, a
Nobel Laureate!
(a) International Environment Panel
(b) International Panel on Climate Change
(c) International Pollution Control Panel
(d) International Panel on Global Warming
89. Kandhamal, the worst affected town by sectarian violence in September-
October 2008 is situated in
(a) Orissa (b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kamataka
90. World "No Tobacco Day" is observed on
(a) January 10 (b) June 1
(c) May 31 (d) March 5
37
SECTION - III
Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability)
Instructions: (Questions 91-110), From the four answers given, shade the
appropriate answer In the space provided for it on the OMR Answer
Sheet.
91. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 members is Rs.
1000. What will be monthly average income of one person in the same family if
the income of one person increased by Rs. 12,000/- per yeat'?
(a) Rs. 1200/- (b) Rs. 1600/
(c) Rs. 2000/- (d) Rs. 3400/
92. A dishonest shopkeeper uses a weight of 800 gm for a kg and professes to sell
his good at cost price. His profit is
(a) 20% (b) 21%
(c) 24% (d) 25%
93. By selling I I oranges for a rupee, a man loses 10% . How many oranges for a
rupee should he sell to gain 10% ?
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 5
94. A person takes 3 hours to walk a certain distance and riding back. Fie could
walk both ways in 5 hours. How long could it take to ride both ways.
(a) 1.5 hr (b) I hr
(c) 0.5 hr (d) 2 firs
95. Change 1/8 into percentage
(a) 12.5% (b) 15%
(c) 8% (d) 25%
96. 12.5% of 80 is equal to
(a) 8 (b) 20
(c) 10 (d) 40
97. Which number should fill the blank space to complete the series:
1,2,4,5,7,8,10,11
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 14 (d) 15
98. The smallest of the fractions given
below
(b)
(a) 9/10
11/12
(d)
(c) 23/28
32/33
99. Three friends shared the cost of a television. If Amit, Bharat and Dinesh each
paid Rs. 3000 and Rs. 1800 respectively, then Dinesh paid what percent of
the total cost?
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 40%
100. The average age of 29 boys of a class is equal to 14 years. When the age of
the class teacher is included the average becomes 15 years. Find the age of
the class teacher.
38
(a) 44 years (b) 40 years
(c) 52 years (d) 66 years
101. It takes 8 people working at equal rates to finish a work in 96 days. How
long will 6 workers take for the same work?
(a) 92 days (b) 128 days
(c) 111 days (d) 84 days
102. Ram's income is 20% less than Shyam's. How much is Shyam's income more
than Ram's in percentage terms?
(a) 20% (b) 30%
(c) 25% (d) 15%
103. The monthly salary of A,B and C are in the ratio 2: 3: 5. If C's Monthly
salary is Rs. 1,200 more than that of a, find B's annual salary.
(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 1500 (d) Rs. 1200
104. In a town there are 94500 people. 2/9 of them are foreigners, 6400 are
immigrants and the rest are natives. How many are natives?
(a) 67100 (b) 27400
(c) 77600 (d) 88100
105. Total salary of three persons A,B and C is Rs. 1,44,000. They spend 80% ,
85% and 75% respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8:9:20, find C's
salary.
(a) 48000 (b) 64000
(c) 40000 (d) 32000
106. The population of a town is 155625. For ever 1000 males there are 1075
females. If 40% of the males and 24% of the females are literate, find the
percentage of literacy in the town.
(a) 33.7 (b) 32.7
(c) 31.7 (d) 30.7
107. 10 sheep and 5 pigs were brought for Rs. 6,000. If the average price of a
sheep is Rs. 450, find the average price of pig.
(a) Rs. 380 (b) Rs. 410
(c) Rs. 340 (d) Rs. 300
108. Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their combined weight is 325 kg.
How much does Shyam weigh?
(a) 150 kg (b) 200 kg
(c) 125 kg (d) 160 kg
109. Find out the wrong number in the series: 3,8,15,24,34,48,63
(a) 24 (b) 34
(c) 15 (d) 63
110. What is the location value of 7 in the figure 9872590?
(a) 72590 (b) 7
(c) 70000 (d) 7000
SECTION - IV
Legal Aptitude
Instructions: (Questions 111-155), From the four options given, shade the appropriate
correct option in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (Total 45 marks)
111. Which is the oldest Code of Law in India?

(a) Naradasmriti (b) Manusmriti
(c) Vedasmnti (d) Prasarsmriti
39
112. Private international law is also called .
(a) Civil Law (b) Local laws
(c) Conflict of laws (d) Common law
113. A nominal sum given as a token for striking a sale is called
(a) Earnest money (b) Advance
(c) Interest (d) Solatium
114. Joint heirs to a property are called
(a) Co-heirs (b) Coparceners
(c) Successors (d) Joint owners
115. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is
called (a) Right in rem (b) Right in personzm
(c) Fundamental right (d) Locus standi
116. Indian Parliament is based on the principle of
(a) Bicameralism (b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Dyarchy (d) Federalism
117. The Supreme Court held that evidence can be recorded by video-confereneing in
the case
(a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai (b) Paramjit Kaur v. State of Punjab
(c) Pappu Yadav v. State of Bihar (d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
118. When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is
called
(a) Strict liability (b) Vicarious liability
(c) Tortous liability (d) Absolute liability
119. The act of unlawfully entering into another's property constitutes
(a) Trespass (b) Restraint
(c) Appropriation (d) Encroachment
120. Which Parliamentary Committee in Indian system of democracy is chaired by a
member of Opposition Party?
(a) Estimates Committee (b) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee (d) Finance Committee
121. Supreme Court held that Preamble as a basic feature of Constitution cannot be
amended in the case of
(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) S.R.Bommai v. Union of India
(d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
122. In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted replacing
(a) Trade Marks Act (b) Copy Right Act
(c) Contract Act (d) MRTP Act
123. A right to recover time barred debt is
(a) Universal right (b) Perfect right
(c) Imperfect right (d) Fundamental right
124. The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by
(a) Geneva Convention (b) Vienna Convention
(c) Paris Convention (d) None of the above
125. Public holidays are declared under
(a) Criminal Procedure Code (b) Civil Procedure Code
(c) Constitution of India (d) Negotiable Instruments Act
126. When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence, the burden of
proof is on
(a) Accused (b) Prosecution
(c) Policeon (d) Complainant
127. Offence which can be compromised between the parties is known as
(a) Non-compoundable offence (b) Cognizable offence
40
(c) Compoundable offence (d) Non-cognizable offence
128. Husband and wife have a right to each others company. The right is called
(a) Conjugal right (b) Human right
(c) Civil right (d) Fundamental right
129. A person 'dying intesiatz' mear.: he
(a) Died without legal heirs (b) Died without making a will
(c) Died without any property (d) Died without a son
130. If a witness makes a statement in Court, knowing it to be false, he commits
the offence of
(a) Forgery (b) Falsehood
(c) Perjury (d) Breach of trust
131. A child born after father's death is
(a) Posthumous (b) Heir
(c) Intestate (d) Bastard
132. A formal instrument by which one person empowers another to represent him
is known as
(a) Affidavit (b) Power of attorney
(c) Will (d) Declaration
133. The temporary release of a prisoner is called
(a) Parole (b) Amnesty
(c) Discharge (d) Pardon
134. The offence of inciting disaffection, hatred or contempt against Government is
(a) Perjury (b) Forgery
(c) Sedition (d) Revolt
135. India became the member of United Nations in the Year
(a) 1956 (b) 1945 (c) 1946 (d) 1950
136. A party to the suit is called
(a) Accused (b) Plaintiff (c) Litigant (d) Complainant
137. Who heads the four members Committee appointed to study the Centre-State
relations especially the changes took place since Sarkaria Commission
(a) Justice M.M.Panchi (b) Justice Nanavati
(c) Justice Bamcha (d) Justice Kuldip Singh
138. No one can be convicted twice for the same offence. This doctrine is called
(a) Burden of proof (b) Double conviction
(c) Double jeopardy (d) Corpus delicti
139. A participant in commission of crime is popularly known as
(a) Respondent (b) Under-trial
(c) Defendant (d) Accomplice
140. Which of the following is not payable to Central Government?
(a) Land revenue (b) Customs duty
(c) Income tax (d) Wealth tax
141. Where is the National Judicial Academy located'?
(a) Kolkata (b) Bhopal
(c) Delhi (d) Mumbai
142. Who have constitutional right to audience in all Indian Couns'?
(a) President (b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Attorney General (d) Solicitor General
143. Which of the following is not included in the Preamble to the Constitution?
(a) Morality (b) Justice
(c) Sovereign (d) Socialist
144. `Court of Record' is a Court which?
(a) Maintains records (b) Preserves all its records
(c) Can punish for its contempt (d) Is competent to issue writs
41
145. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of
(a) Gross inefficiency (b) Delivering wrong judgments
(c) Senility (d) Proven misbehavior incapacity
146. Fiduciary relationship means a relationship based on
(a) Trust (b) Money
(c) Contract (d) Blood relation or incapacity
147. The Chairman of Tehelka Enquiry Commission is
(a) Justice Kripal (b) Justice S.N.Phukan
(c) Justice Saharia (d) Justice Liberhan
148. The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) U.S.S.R. (b) U.K.
(c) U.S.A. (d) Switzerland
149. Every duty enforceable by law is called
(a) Accountability (b) Obligation
(c) Burden (d) Incidence
150. The killing of a new born child by its parents is
(a) Malfeasance (b) Infanticide
(c) Abortion (d) Foeticide
151. Offence of breaking a divine idol is
(a) Salus populi (b) Crime
(c) Sacrilege (d) Blasphemy
152. A person who goes under-ground or evades the jurisdiction of the Court is
known as (a) Offender (b) Under-ground
(c) Absentee (d) Absconder
153. What is a caveat'!
(a) A warning (b) An injunction
(c) Writ (d) Certiorari
154. Muslim religious foundations are known

as (a) Din
(b) Wakfs
(c) Ulema (d) Quzat
155. Beyond what distance from the coast, is the sea known as "High Sea"?
(a) 20 miles (b) 300 miles
(c) 200 km. (d) 12 miles
SECTION - V
Logical Reasoning (Questions
156 -200)

Instructions : (questions 156-165), Each question below consists of one Assertion
(A) and one Reason (R). Examine them and shade the correct answers using
the Code below an the OMR Answer Sheet.
Code.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
156.
A: Area along the Equator records the highest temperature throughout
the year. R: On the equator, days and nights are equal for the largest
part of the year.
42
157.
A: Commercial fisheries have not developed in tropics.
R: The demand for marine food from low income population is low in the
tropics.
158.
A: Lightning thunder end heavy rain accompany volcanic activity.
R: Volcanoes throw water vapour and charged panicles in the atmosphere.
159.
A: Soils in some pans of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are
saline.
R: Evaporation exceeds precipitation.
160.
A: The monsoons arrive suddenly in India in June.
R: The monsoonal low pressure trough is well-developed over India.
161.
A: India built dams and reservoirs to manage water
resources.
R: India had enough experience in canals.
I62.
A: The life expectancy in European countries is very
high.
R: European countries have low mortality rate.
163.
A: The nomadic herders slaughter their animals for meat.
R: Animals form the chief source of food and livelihood for nomadic herders.
164.
A: Exploitation of equatorial rain forest of Amazon basin is not easy.
R: This region is very rich in several types of deadly animals and insects.
165.
A: The Sea remains free from ice from British Columbia to Bering Sea.
R: Air moving off the comparatively warm waters of North Pacific Drift gives the
coastal areas of British Columbia a warmer climate.
Instructions: (questions 166-175), In each question below are given one

statement and two assumptions I and II. Examine the statements and shade
the correct assumption which is implicit in the statement on the OMR
Answer Sheet using the following Code.
Code:
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either 1 or II is implicit.
(d) If neither 1 nor II is implicit.
166.
Statement: The patient's condition would improve after operation.
43
Assumptions: I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition. II. The
patient cannot be operated upon in this condition
167.
Statement: Detergents should be used to clean cloths.
Assumptions: I. Detergent form more lather.
II. Detergent helps to dislodge grease and din.
168.
Statement: "As there is a great demand, every person seeking ticket of the
programme will be given only five tickets".
Assumptions: I. The organisers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II. No one is interested in getting more than five tickets.
169.
Statement: Double your money in five months- An advertisement.
Assumptions: I. The assurance is not genuine.
II. People want their money to grow.
170.
Statement: Films have become indispensable for the entertainment of people
Assumptions: I. Films are the only media of entertainment.
II. People enjoy films.
171.
Statement: "To keep myself up-to-date, I always listen l0 9.00 p.m. news on
radio". - A candidate tells the interview board.
Assumptions: I. The candidate does not read newspaper.
II. Recent news are broadcast only on radio.
172.
Statement: Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.
Assumptions: I. Some other books were available on this topic.
II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.
173.
Statement: In case of any difficulty about this case, you may contact our
company's lawyer.
Assumption: I. Each company has a lawyer ol its own,
II. The company's lawyer ia thoroughly briefed about this case.
174.
Statement: "Present day education is in shambles and the country is going to the
dogs".
Assumptions: I. A good education system is essential for the well being of a
nation.
II. A good education alone is sufficient for the well being of a nation.
175.
Statement: Children are influenced more by their teachers
nowadays. Assumptions: I. The children consider teachers as
their models.
II. A large amount of children's time is spent in school.
Instructions : (questions 176-180), Each question below contains a Statement on

relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the Statement.
Shade the correct option on relationship on the OMR Answer Sheet.
44
176. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Ram, "I am the only daughter of this
lady and her son is your maternal uncle". How is the speaker related to Ram's
father?
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Wife
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Neither (z) nor (b)
177. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's
mother". How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt
(c) Sister (d) Niece
178. Shyam said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother'.'. Who is
Shyam to the girl?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather
(c) Husband (d) Father-in-law
179. Pointing to a man on the stage, Sunita said, "He is the brother of the
daughter of the wife of my husband". How is the man on the stage related to
Sunita?
(a) Son (b) Husband
(c) Cousin (d) Nephew
180. Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, "His hrothnr's father is
the only sun of my grand lather". How is the woman related to his man?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt
(c) Sister (d) Daughter
Instructions : (questions I8L-19(I), In each question below two words are paired
which have certain relationships. After the double colon (::), another word is
given and shade the correct option on the OMR Answer Sheet which pairs
with this word taking into account the pair already given.
181. Legislation : Enactment :: Executive : ?
(a) Minister (b) Officer

(c) Implementation (d) Leader
182. UP : Uttranchal :: Bihar : ?

(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhatisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Manipur
183. Gold : Silver:: Cotton : ?

(a) Yarn (b) Silk
(c) Fibre (d) Synthetic
184. Botany : Flora :: Zoology

(a) Fauna (b) Biology
(c) Fossils (d) Pathology
185. Cold wave: Winter:: Loo : ?

(a) Humidity (b) Frostbite
(c) Summer (d) Storm
45
186. King ; Royal :: Saint : ?
(a) Religious (b) Red
(c) Priesthood (d) Blue
187. Sculptor: Statue :: Poet : ?

(a) Painter (b) Singer
(c) Poem (d) Writer
188. Laugh : Happy :: Cry

(a) Sad (h) Bickering
(c) Frown (d) Complain
189, Black : Absence :: Whitc

(a) Red (b) Prtscnrc
(c) Rainbow (d) Crystal
190. Governor: President :: Chief-Minister
:?
(a) Commissioner (b) Attorney General
(C) Justice (d) Prime-Minister
Instructions : (questions 191-195), Each question below contains a Statement
and two Courses of Action I and dI. Assuming the statement to be true,
decide which of the two suggested Coum of Action logically follows and
shade or the Order Answer Sheet, using the Code given below.
Code:
(a) If only I follow. (b) If only II follow.
(c) If either I or II follow. (d) If neither I nor II follow.
191.
Statement: one of the problems facing the food processing industry is the
irregular supply of raw material. The producers of raw materials are not
getting a reasonable price.
Courses of Action: I. The govemment should regulate the supply of raw material
to other industries also.
II. The government should announce an attractive package to
ensure regular supply of raw material for food processing
industry.
192.
Statement: The Officer In-charge of a Company had a hunch that some money
was missing from the safe.
Course of Action: I. He should get it recounted with the help of the staff and
check it with the balance sheet.
II. He should inform the police.
193.
Statement: If the retired Professors of the same Institutes are also invited to
deliberate on restructuring of the organisation, their coil tributiun
may be beneficial to the Institute.
Course of Action: I. Management may seek , opinion Eli the employees before
calling retired Professors.
II. Management should involve experienced people for the
systematic restructuring of the organisation.
46
194.
Statement: The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing
great concern to the company.
Course of Action: I. The company should make a proper study of rival products in
the market.
II. The price of the product should be reduced and quality
improved.
195.
Statement: Mr. X, an active member of the Union, often insults his superiors in
the office with his rude behaviour.
Course of Action: I. He should be transferred to some other
department. II. The matter should be referred to
the Union.
Instructions: (questions 196-200), Each question below contains a Statement and

two Arguments I and II. Assume the statement to be true, shade the
Argument which is strong on the OMR Answer Sheet using the Code below.
Code:
(a) If only argument I is strong. (b) If only argument II is strong.
(c) If either argument I or II is strong. (d) If neither argument I nor Il strong.
196.
Statement: Should a total ban be put on trapping wild animals?
Arguments: I. Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money.
II. No. Bans on hunting and [rapping are not effective.
197.
Statement: Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments: I. Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy,
II. No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
198.
Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments: I. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants
there.
II. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex
than big. So, why offer extra incentives!
199.
Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India'?
Arguments: I. Yes. They are places from where intemalional criminals operate.
II. No. Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.
200.
Statement: Should the political parties be banned?
Arguments: I. Yes. It is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
II. No. It will lead to an end of democracy.
47
Series D No 3008
Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2010
Under-Graduate Courses
Admit Card Number Time: 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. (2 Hours)
OMR Answer Sheet Number Total Marks: 200
1. Before using the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet check them for any
defect like misprint, fudging of printing, missing pages/ Questions/ Ovals etc.
and ask for issue of relevant duplicate.
2. No duplicate Question Bookiet or OMR Answer Sheet shall be provided except
in a situation under Instruction I above.
3. Enter your 10 Digit Admit Card Number and 5 Digit OMR Answer Sheet
Number in the space provided above in the Question Booklet with Ball Point
Pen only.
4. Enter your 10 Digit Admit Card Number in the space in the OMR Answer
Shret with Ball Point Pea Only and shade the relevant ovals with HB Pencil
Only.-
5. There are 200 objective questions. Each question carries one mark. Each
question consists of four choices of answers. Select the most appropriate
answer and shade the corresponding oval in the OMR sheet with HB Pencil
Only. If more than one oval is shaded, the question shall be deemed to be
wrong. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.
6. Specific. instructions are given at the beginning of each question or sets of
question. Read them carefully before answering.
7. Total number of pages in the Question booklet is 28 including the three blank
pages (Page No: 2, 27 & 28) for rough work.
8. Possession of all kinds of electronic gadgets in the Exam Hall is strictly
prohibited. Possession and/or use of any unfair means shall disqualify the
candidate and decision of the Centre Superintendent in this regard shall be
final.
Signature / Seal of Centre Superintendent
48
This Booklet contains 200 objective questions. Each question carries one mark. Every
question contains four choices of answers. Select the most appropriate answer and
shade the corresponding oval in the O.M.R sheet with HB pencil only. Answer all the
questions.
English
Fill in the blanks in questions I to 5

l. Slavery was not done away ..........until the last century
(a) with (b) for (c) to (d) off
2. Does he not take ...... his father?

(a) before (b) for (c) after (d) like
3. We will have to take ......more staff if we're to take on more work

(a) up (b) onto (c) into (d)
on
4. Mother takes everything in her-.

(a) steps (b) face (c) stride (d) work
5. Sale have really taken-now.

(a) up (b) on (c) of (d) off
The constituent phrases of a sentence are jumbled up in question no. 6 -8.Select

the most appropriate sequence to make the sentence meaningful.
6. (i) built on the site of a church destroyed

(ii) in the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple
(iii) the bell tower of St. Anne's Church
(iv) when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough
(a) ii, iii ,i, iv (b) ii, i, iii, iv
(c) iv, iii, i , ii (d) iii, ii, i, iv
7. (i) no law giving effect to the policy of the state towards securing all or any of the
principles laid in part IV
(ii) notwithstanding anything contained in Article 13
(iii) and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be
called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy
(iv) shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with or takes away
or abridges any of the rights conferred by Article 14 or 19
(a) ii j , iii, iv (b) iv,i,ii,iii
(c) ii, i, iv, iii (d) i,ii,iii,iv
8. (i) neither House shall proceed further with the Bill,

(ii) if he does so, the houses shall meet accordingly
(iii) but the President may at any time after the date of his notification summon
the Houses to meet in ajoint silting for the purpose specified in the notification
and,
(iv) where the President has under clause (I) ractified his intention of summoning
theHouses to meet in a joint sitting,
(a) iv, i , iii, ii (b) iv, i , ii, iii

(c) iv, ii, iii, i (d) i, ii, iii, iv
49
Substitute the underlined phrases with any of the given choices to express the
opposite meaning in the sentences in questions number 9 - 11
9. She always praises everything I say .

(a) picks holes in (b) dislikes (c) rebukes (d) picks holes to
10. He often says how wonderful his school is?

(a) says he is unworthy (b) appreciates (c) runs up (d) runs down
11. She said I was the best boss they'd ever had. It was obvious she was praising
me sincerely.
(a) not appreciating me (b) befooling me
(c) buttering me up (d) disliking me
Identity the part of speech of the underlined words in the given sentences from
Questions number 12 to 14
12. I must perfect the operation to make the perfect robot.
(a) verb (b) adverb (c) adjective (d) noun
13. A kindly person is one who behaves kindly,
(a) noun (b) preposition (c) adverb (d) verb
14. He is not normally a very fast runner, but he runs fast in major events.
(a) adverb (b) adjective (c) verb (d) noun
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 15 to 24
Anligone was one of the daughters of Oedipus, that tragic figure of male power who
had been cursed by Gods for mistakenly killing his father and subsequently
marrying his mother and assuming the throne of Thebes. After the death of Oedipus
civil war broke out and a battle was waged in front of the seventh gale of Thebes- his
two sons led opposing factions and al the height of the battle fought and killed each
other. Oedipus' brother, Creon, uncle oCAnligone, was now undisputed master of
the city. Creon resolved to make an example of the brother who had fought against
him, Polynices, by refusing the right of honourable burial. The penalty of death was
promulgated against any who should defy this order.
Antigone was distraught. Polynices had been left unburied, unwept, a feast of flesh
for keen eyed carrion birds. Antigone asks her sister Ismene, for it was a challenge
to her royal blood. "Now it is time to show weather or not you are worthy of your
royal blood. Is he not my brother and yours? Whether you like it or not? I shall
never desert him-never!" But Ismene responds, "How could you dare-when Creon
has expressly forbidden it? Antigone, we are women, it is not for us to fight against
men". With a touch of bitterness, Antigone releases her sister from the obligation to
help her, but argues she cannot shrug off the burden. "If I die for it what happiness!
Live, if you will live, and defy the holiest of laws of heaven."
15. What is the main theme of the story of Mtigone?

(a) One must be truthful and honest
(b) There is a conflict between the laws of men and heavenly laws
(c) One must be true to one's kins
(d) War is an evil
50
16. Why did Antigone decide to defy the orders of Creon?
(a) She loved her brother
(b) She was to give an honorable burial to her brother
(c) She felt she was bound by her heavenly obligation
(d) To teach Creon a lesson
17. What, in your opinion, would have been the logical end of the story?
(a) Antigone might have agreed with her sister and refrained from giving a
burial to Polynices
(b) Antigone might have been allowed by Creon to give a decent burial to her
brother
(c) Antigone might have defied the order of Creon but forgiven by him
(d) Antigone might have been executed for defying the order of the king
18. What was the status of women in the contemporary society? They
(a) were liberated
(b) could have taken their own decisions
(c) considered themselves inferior and subordinate to men
(d) claimed equality with men
19 Why did a civil war break out in Thcbcs? The war broke out because
(a) of the curse of the Gods
(b) the brothers of Antigone were greedy
(c) there was a fight among sons of Oedipus for the inheritance of the
kingdom
(d) there was a conflict between a son of Oedipus and Creon
20. A carrion bird is a bird

(a) of prey (b) which eats human flesh
(c) which cats dead bodies (d) which eats only grain
21. Why did Creon deny decent burial to Polynices? He did so because
(a) he did not love Polynices (b) Polynices fought against Creon
(c) Polynices was disobedient to Creon (d) Polynices did not show bravery
22. Why did Ismene not support Antigone? Ismene

(a) was weak and did not have the courage to defy orders of the
powerful king (b) did not consider it right to defy the kiag
(c) did not think it fit to defy her uncle especially after the death
of her father (d) did not believe that Polyr.ices deserved better
treatment
23. Why did the Gods curse Oedipus? Because Oedipus

(a) killed his father and married his mother
(b) killed his father
(c) married his mother
(d) committed an unknown sin
24. Does the story approve the principle of vicarious liability? If so how?
(a) No, it does not
(b) Yes, it does, because of the acts of Oedipus his children suffered
(c) Yes, it does, because his father was killed by Oedipus
(d) Yes, it does, because he married his mother
51
Select the meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases in sentences in questions 25 to
30
25. I have hit upon a good plan to get rid of him.

(a) found (b) chanced upon
(c) decided to beat him (d) borrowed
26. He is sticking out for better terms.

(a) threatens to take action (b) insists on using the force
(c) decides to give concessions (d) persists in demanding
27. He broke off in the middle of the story.

(a) failed (b) began crying
(c) stopped suddenly (d) felt uneasy
28. He refused to be led by the nose.

(a) to follow like an animal (b) to be treated as a fool
(c) to follow submissively (d) to be heated violently
29. The new cotton mill is mortgaged up to the eve.

(a) apparently (b) completely
(c) deceptively (d) actually
30. When they embraced a new religion, it is safe to say they did it for loaves and
fishes.
(a) selflessly (b) honest reasons
(c) material benefits (d) because of fear
Choose the correct spelling out of four choices in questions no. 31 l0 35
31. (a) Misogynists (b) Mysogynists (c) Mysoginists (d) Mysagynists
32. (a)Aracnophobia b)Aranchophobia c)Arochnophobia d) Arachnophobia
33. (a) Cinamon (b) Cinnamon (c) Cinnaman (d) Cinaman
34. (a) Alcohol (b) Alchohol (c) Alchohal (d) Alchohel
35. a)Bioclymatalogy b)Bioclimatalogy c)Hioclimatology (d) Bioclimatelogy
Select the correct meanings of the given words in question number 36 to 40

36. Lexicon
(a) number (b) legal document (c) dictionary (d) captain's dog
37. Hex
(a) crude person (b) herb (c) parrot (d) evil spell
39. Seminary
(a) chapel (b) college (c) convocation hall (d) hostel
52
39. Litergy
(a) prayer (b) priest (c) ritual (d) church
40. Laity
(a) church members not baptized (b) church members baptized
(c) priests (d) church members who are not ordained priests
General Knowledge
41. in Malaysia, the word 'bhumiputra' refers to

(a) Malays (b) Chinese (c) Indians (d) Buddhists
42. What was the real uame of blunshi Premchand?

(a) Nabab Rai (b) Dhanpat Rai
(c) Ram Chandra Srivastava (d) Hari Shankar
43. Who is the author of'Old Man and the
Sea'?
(a) John Ruskin (b) Raja Rao (c) Gunter Grass
(d)Emest Hemingway
44. Prophet Mohammed was born in
(a) 570 A.D. (b) 720 A.D. (c) 620 A.D. (d) 510 A.D.
45. When was the First World War
declared?
(a) 1914 (b) 1915 (c) 1918 (d) 1913
46. Deodhar trophy is given for the game
of
(a) Cricket (b) Football (c) Hockey (d) Golf
47. Pariyar Wild-Life sanctuary is situated in the state of
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Kamataka (c) Kerala (d) Andhra-Pradesh
48. Napanagar in Madhya pradesh is known for

(a) steel mill (b) sugar mills (c) potteries (d) news print
factory
49. Who destroyed the Somnalh temple in Gujrat?

(a) Mohammed Ghouri (b) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(c) Changhez Khan (d) Taimur Lang
50. In Cape Trafalgar, the famous battle of Trafalgar was fought in 1805. Where is
Cape Trafalgar situated?
(a) Italy (b) Greece (c) Spain (d) Portugal
51. Lumbini is the place where the Buddha

(a) attained nirvana (b) attained enlightenment
(c) was bont (d) was married
53
52. Galvanometer is an instrument to measure
(a) relative density of liquids (b) electric currents
(c) pressure of gases (d) distances
53. Who wrote 'Mudra Rakshasa'?

(a) Vishakhadatta (b) Bana Bhatta (c) Kalidasa (d) Jaya
Dev
54. The venue of Asian Games in 1970 was

(a) Beijing (b) Jakarta (c) Bangkok (d) New Delhi
55. 1929 is known for

(a) visit of Simon Commission to India
(b) congress resolution for complete independence of India
(c) coming of Indian National Congress under the leadership of Mahatma
Gandhi
(d) bumta was made a part of India
56. LN.S. Airavat is India's

(a) amphibious ship (b) submarine (c) destroyer (d) frigate
57. Aslra-Missile is
(a) surface to surface missile (b) surface to air missile
(c) air to surface missile (d) air to air missile
58. Nehm Institute of Mountaineering is situated at

(a) Nainital (b) Darjeeling (c) Shimla (d) Uttarkashi
59. The chief gucst on the 60'" Republic day of India was the President of
(a) Uzbekistan (b) Tajikislan (c) Kajakistan (d) South-Africa
60. Which of the following was not the base of L.T.T.E. before being captured by
Srilankan Forces'?
(a) Elephant Pass (h) Kilinochchi (c) Mullailhivu (d) Murid ke
61. Who was given Col. C. K. Nayudu Life Time Achievement Award for 2007-2008
for exemplary contribution to cricket
(a) Kapil Dcv (b) Gundappa Vishwanath (c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Vijay
Hazarc
62. Who is the foreign minister of European Union?

(a) Baroness Ashlon (b) Massimo D' Alema
(c) David Miliband (d) Carl Hildt
63. Who is the author of `Godan'?

(a) Bhishma Sahani (b) Premchand
(c) Manohar Shyam Joshi (d) Sharad Chandra Chattopadhyay
64. Which political party does Raj Babbar belong to?

(a) Samajwadi (b) Bharatiya Janala Party
(c) Congress d) Bahujan Samaj Party
54
65. In which year Bastille fell on 14' of July?
(a) 1879 (b) 1789 (c) 1787 (d) none of them
66. Alberto Fujimari is the farmer president of
(a) Japan (b) Peru (c) South Korea (d) Vietnam
67. Which of the following is the national river of

India?
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Narmada (c) Ganga (d) Kaveri
68.The highest number of telephone users are in
(a) China (b) U.S.A. (c) Canada (d) India
69. The president of Maldives is

(a) Maumoom Abdel Gajnee (b) Mohammad Ashraf
(c) Mahmood Alam (d) Mohammed Nasheed
70. Arabinda Rajkhowa is a member of

(a) B.J.P. (b) Assam Gana Parishad (c) Maoist Centre (d) Ulfa
71. The breakthrough in the ideas of Darwin on the evolution of species came after
his visit to a cluster of islands and where he saw that each island supported its
own form of finch. Name the islands'?
(a) Ice land (b) Greenland (c) Galapagos (d) Christian Islands
72. Mahatma Gandhi never became a Nobel Laureate, but he was nominated five
times. In which of the following years he was not nominated?
(a) 1937 (b) 1939 (c) 1948 (d) 1940
73. Which of the following countries has not, till the end of 2009, decoded the entire
genome of a human being?
(a) India (b) Russia (c) China (d) Canada
74. When was the University of Bombay established?

(a) 1861 (b) 1857 (c) 1909 (d) 1890
75. Harare is the capital of

(a) Zambia (b) Zaire Republic (c) Zimbabwe (d) Yemen
76. Before the Indian team left for Conference on Climate Change at Copenhagen,
Jairam Ramesh announced that India would work for voluntary reduction of
(a) 40 to 45 percent (b) 20 to 25 percent
(c) 30 to 35 percent (d) 10 to 15 percent
in energy intensity in 2020 compared to 2005
77. Which is the largest island in the world (ifAustralia is not considered an island)?
(a) Iceland (b) Borneo (c) Sumatra (d) Greenland
55
78. Indo-Pak summit between Parvez Musharraf and Atal Bihari Bajpayee was held
in 2001 at
(a) Delhi (b) Shimla (c) Agra (d) Mumbai
79. In May 2009, in the final of Sultan A21an Shah Championship Indian men's
Hockey team was defeated by
(a) Pakistan (b) Argentina (c) New Zealand (d) Canada
80. Which of the following is not a union territory?

(a) Tripura (b) Daman and Diu (c) Lakshadweep (d) Puducherry
81. Who was the founder editor of "Kesari"?

(a) lala Lajpat Rai (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhle (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
82. With whose permission did the English set up their first factory at Surat?
(a) Akbar (b) Shahjahan (c) Jahangir (d)
Aurangzcb
83. The group of nations known as G-8 started as G-7. Which among the following
was not one of them?
(a) Canada (b) Italy (c) Russia (d) Japan
84. Emperor Akbar the Great, died in the year

(a) 1505 (b) 1605 (c) 1606 (d) 1590
85. What was the name of Emperor Shahjahan before he became Emperor?
(a) Kusrau (b) Khurram (c) Parvez (d) Shaheryar
86. Which of the following trees has medicinal value?

(a) pine (b) teak (c) oak (d) neem
87. Identify the main principle on which the Parliamentary system operates?
(a) Responsibility of executive to legislature (b) Supremacy of democracy
(c) Rule of law (d) Supremacy of the constitution
88. Great tennis player Bjom Borg belongs to which country?

(a) Italy (b) Latvia (c) U.S.A. (d) Sweden
89. Which of the following is the national song of India?

(a) Vande Ma[aram... (b) Jana gana mana adhinayak...
(c) Ye mera chaman, ye mera chaman... (d) Sare jahan se achchha...
90. Which country was known as sick man of Europe?

(a) Greece (b) Latvia (c) Turkey (d) Austria
Legal Aptitude
56
91. Which of the following judges had never bean the chairman of the Law
Commission of India?
(a) Justice R.C. Lahoti (b) Justice A.R. Lakshamanan
(c) Justice Jeevan Reddy (d) Justice Jagannadha Rao
92. Who among the following was the first chief Information Commissioner of India?
(a) Wajahat Habibullah (b) Irfan Habib
(c) Tahir Mahmood (d) Najma Heptullah
93. RT.I. stands for

(a) Revenue transactions in India (b) Research and Technology Institute
(c) Rural and Transparency infrastructure (d) Right to information
94. Fiduciary relationship is relationship based on

(a) contract (b) trust (c) blood relationship (d) money
95. Human rights day is observed on

(a) 146 February (b) 26'" November (c) 2" October (d) 10"' December
96. `No-fault liability' means

(a) liability for damage caused through negligence
(b) liability for damage caused through fault
(c) absolute liability even without any negligence or fault
(d) fixWom from liability
97. An èncumbrance' in legal parlance is a

(a) liability on property (b) grant of property
(c) gift of propelty (d) restriction an property
98. A husband and wife have a right to each other's company This right is called
(a) matrimonial right (b) consortium right
(c) marital right (d) conjugal right
99. Release of prisoner before completion of his sentence is called

(a) release (b) parole (c) acquittal (d) lease
100. Result of successful prosecution is

(d) charge
(a) acquittal (b) discharge (c) conviction
sheeting
101. The manager of waqf is known as
(a) Sajjadanashin (b) IChadim (c) Mutawalli (d) Mujawar
102. "Ipso facto" means

(a) in place of (b) by reason of that fact
(c) by the same source (d) by the way
103. 'Requisition' means
(a) permanent transfer of the tittle of the property
(b) supervision of property
(c) taking control of property temporarily
(d) taking possession permanently
57
104. 'Corroborative evidence' means
(a) main evidence in a case
(b) evidence which supports other evidence
(c) evidence that proves the guilt of an accused person
(d) evidence of a person who supports the accused
105. Ex parte decision means a decision given

(a) after hearing both the parties
(b) without proper procedure
(c) after observing proper procedure
(d) without hearing the opponent
106. Which of the following constitutions is a unitary constitution?

(a) U.S. (b) British (c) Indian (d) Australiar
107. Which of the following is not a fundamental right in India?

(a) right to form association (b) freedom of religion
(c) right to property (d) right to move throughout the territory of India
108. Which of the following marriages is approved by Islamic law? Between a Muslim
(a) male and a Christian female (b) female and a Hindu male
(c) female and a Christian male (d) female and a Jew male
109. Which of the following constitutions when framed did not provide for judicial review?
(a) Indian (b)Pakistani (c) U.S. (d) Australian
110. Ratio decidendi means

(a) a judicial decision
(b) part of thejudgment which possesses authoritv
(c) any observation made by the court which goes beyond the requirement of the case
(d) an observation made by ajudge
111. 'Dyarchy' under the govemmenl of India Act 1919 meant

(a) division of powers between the central and provincial government
(b) separation ofjudiciary from executive
(c) division of executive departments under elected ministers and the members
of the govemor's executive council
(d) separation between legislature and executive
112. Fringe benefit tax is a tax

(a) paid by an employer in respect of the fringe benefits provided or deemed to
have beenprovided by an employer to his employee
(b) paid by an employer for the benefits which he enjoys
(c) paid by a person for the benefits which he gets from his employer
(d) paid by a member of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes for benefits they
receive from the govemment
113. Which of the following is not true about a criminal proceeding?

(a) the court may ask to pay a fine
(b) the court may order the transfer of the ownership of the property
(c) there is prosecution
(d) the court may discharge an accused
58
114. In Ram v/s Shayam, Ram cannot be a
(a) plaintiff (b) appellants (c) defendant (d) prosecutor
115. Cr.P.C. stands for

(a) Criminal proceedings code (b) Criminal proceedings court
(c) Crime prevention code (d) Criminal Procedure code
116. Medical Science used for investigating crimes is known as

(a) Criminal Medicine (b) Epistemological Science
(c) Forensic science (d) Ontological Science
117. A puisne judge of a High Court is

(a) a judge other than a Chief Justice (b) the Chief Justice
(c) a temporaryjudge (d) a retired judge
118. Intra vires means

(a) within the powers (b) outside the powers
(c) within the scope of fundamental rights (d) regular
119. X, the servant of Y, takes a hundred rupee note from Y's pocket and hides it under
the carpet in the house of Y X tells Z another servant of Y, about the currency note
and both agree to share the money when the currency note is taken by X from the
hiding place. Before X could recover the note, it was found by Y. Decide if an offence
was committed and if so who committed the offence?
(a) No offence was committed (b) Only X committed the offence
(c) Both X and Z committed the offence (d) Only Z committed the offence
120. Moots, in law schools, are

(a) exercises of law teaching
(b) legal problems in the form of imaginary cases, argued by two opposing students
before a bench pretending to be a real court
(c) imaginary class room where a student acts as a
teacher (d) a debate on a legal problem
121. Scheduled Tribe status is

(a) restricted to Hindus (b) religiously neutral
(c) restricted to Hindus and Christians (d) restricted to Hindus and Muslims
122. Which of the following has not been a woman judge of the Supreme Court of India,
till 2009?
(a) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra (b) Justice Sujata Manohar
(c) Justice Ruma Pal (d) Justice Fathima Beevi
123. What is the meaning of chattel ?
(a) any property (b) immovable property
(c) movable property (d) cattle
124. In a civil suit, the person who files suit and the person against whom the suit is
filled are called
(a) accused, prosecutor (b) accuser, defendant
(c) appellant, respondent (d) plaintiff, defendant
125. In a criminal case, an accused person, who in consideration of his non- prosecution
offers to give evidence against other accused, is called
(a) accomplice (b) hostile witness (c) approver (d) hostile accomplice
59
126. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
(a) all the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the members of all the
Legislative Assemblies
(b) all the elective members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the members
of all the Legislative Assemblies
(c) all the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the elected members of
all the Legislative Assemblies
(d) all the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the elected
members of
all the Legislative Assemblies
127. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?

(a) freedom of speech (b) right to life
(c) right to equality (d) right to work
128. International Labour Organization has its headquarters at

(a) The Hague (b) Geneva (c) New York (d) London
129. The Child Marriage Restraint Act 2006 is applicable to

(a) only Hindus
(b) all Indians except Muslims as the minimum age of marriage among Muslim
girls is puberty (beginning of menstruation) in Muslim personal law
(c) all irrespective of religion
(d) all except Muslim, Christians and Jews
130. X, a shopkeeper, leaves a sealed S kilogram bag of a branded wheat flour at the
door of Y with a note "you will like this quality wheat flour and pay Rupees 100
for this bag" without being asked to do so. Y on coming back, collects the bag
from his door, opens the seal of the bag, and usesa quarter of kilogram for
making chapattis (unleavened bread). But next day returns the bag. Is he bound
to pay for the bag ? He is
(a) not bound to pay as he did not ask the shopkeeper to deliver the bag
(b) bound to pay as he has opened the bag
(c) bound to pay only for the quantity used
(d) neither bound to pay nor return the bag
131. Within thejurisdiction of which High Court does Lakshdweep fall

(a) Bombay High Court (b) Kerala High Court
(c) Madras High Court (d) Dellti High Court
132. Which of the following is not the function of the International Court of Justice?
It
(a) gives advisory opinion at the request of general Assembly
(b) gives advisory opinion at the request of Security Council
(c) interprets treaties when considering legal disputes brought before it by
nations
(d) decides international crimes
133. Bank nationalization case relates to the nationalization of

(a) some banks by the government of India after economic liberalisation
in 1991. (b) some banks under a law during the Prime Ministership of
Mrs. Indira Gandhi. (c) all the private Indian Banks during the Prime
Ministership of Narasimha Rao. (d) all the private Indian Banks during
the Prime Ministership of Mrs. Indira Gandhi
60
134. Which of the following is not included within the meaning of intellectual
property
(a) Patents (b) Copyrights
(c) Trade mark (d) Properly of an intellectual
135. The main aim of the competition Act 2002 is to protect the interests of
(a) the multinational corporation (b) the Indian companies
(c) the consumers (d) the market
Logical Reasoning
In each of the equations number 136 to 145 two words are paired which have a
certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute question mark so as to make
a similar relational pair with the word given after double colon (::)
136. Constituent Assembly: Constitution::

Parliament:?
(a) Statute (b) Legislative bills (c) Speaker (d) Prime Minister
137. Right: duty:: Power: ?
(a) Wrong (b) Weak (c) Powerless (d) Liability
138. Elephant: Calf:: Tiger: ?
(a) Pup (b) Tigress (c) Cub (d) Baby Tiger
139. Patient: Doctor:: Litigant:?
(a) Advisor (b) Help (c) Legal aid (d) Lawyer
140. Prosecutor: Accused:: plaintiff. ?
(a) Appellant (b) Defendant (c) Plaint (d) Suit
141. Lok Sabha: Meera Kumar:: Rajya Sabha: ?

(c)
(a) Hameed Ansati (b) Najma Heptullah (d) Arun Jaitely
Sushma Swaraj
142. President of India: 35; Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha) :

(a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 30
143. India: Parliamentary System:U.S.A. : ?

(a) Democratic System (b) Presidential System
(c) Federal System (d) Republican system
144. Executive: President: Judiciary:?

(a) Supreme Court (b) Chief Justice
(c) Constitution (d) Government of India
61
145. World War II: United Nalions: World War I: ?
(a) Treaty of Versailles (b) International Commission of Jurists
(c) League of Nations (d) International court of Justice
In each of the questions 146 to 150 two statements are given. There may or may
not be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Mark your
answer using this code.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
(b) Statement IT is the cause and statement I is the effect
(c) Both the statements are independent causes
(d) Both the statements are independent effects
146. Statement I: School education has been made free for children of poor
families Statement II: Literacy rate among the, poor is steadily growing.
147. Statement I: Hallmarking of gold jewellary has been made compulsory

Statement II: Many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewellary
148. Statement I: Many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments.

Statement II: Many dead fish were found near the lake shore.
149. Statement I: Ahmed is a healthy boy

Statement II: His mother is very particular about the food he eats
150. Statement I: Rate of crime is very low in this city

Statement II: The police is efficient in this city
In each o( the questions 151 to 155 a statement is followed by two assumptions.

These assumptions may or may not be implicit in the statement Select your
response in accordance with the following code
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption IT is implicit
(c) Both assumptions I and lI are Implicit
(d) Neither of the assumptions I and IT is implicit
151. Statement: If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin
activities accordingly
Assumption I: Ram has understood the instructions
Assumption II: Ram would be able to act accordingly
152. Statement : Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for
crimes. Assumption I: Generally children below seven cannot distinguish
between right and wrong
Assumption II: Children below the age of seven are generally mentally
unsound
153. Statement: The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate
for employment without assigning any reason while short listing candidates
for interview.
Assumption I: The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in
employment practices.
Assumption II: The employer wants to call only those candidates for
interview, who in his opinion are eligible.
62
154. Statement: The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computers
Assumption I: The government wants to make computer accessible to larger
number of people
Assumption II: Prices in domestic market may go up in near future
155. Statement: You can win over new friends by your warm smile
Assumption I: It is necessary [o win over new friends
Assumption II: It is always better to smile warmly to new persons
156. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. A and B are from Mumbai, rest
are from Delhi. D and F are tall but others are short. A, C, and D are girls,
others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Delhi?
(a) F (b) D (c) E (d) C
157. P is the brother of Q. R is the sister of Q. S is the Sister of R. How is Q relatod

to S?
(a) brother (b) sister (c) brother or sister (d) son
In question numbers 158 to 160 two sets of words have certain relation. Select a
word to replace the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the
other word in the third set.
158. Cat-Kitten; Goat-kid; Sheep-?

(a) colt (b) filly (c) lamb (d) wool
159. Cataract-eye; jaundice-liver; pyorrhea?

(a) breath (b) tongue (c) ears (d) teeth
160. Blue-moon; blue-black; black-?
(a) sheep (b) goal (c) sky (d) star
A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in question no.161-165

Decide only on the basis of the principle(s).
161. Principles
(i) Neighbour principle-A person is liable if he harms his neighbour. A
neighbour is one whose action affects another
(ii) One is liable only for contractual relations
Facts X manufactures a food item and sells his food item to Y, a whole seller. Y
appoints Z, a retailer to retail these items. Z sells the food item to a
consumer who after eating them falls ill. X is liable to the consumer
because
(a) of contractual relations (b) of the Food Adulteration Act
(c) the consumer is the neighbor of X (d) of the consumer protection law
63
162. Principle
(i) Freedom consists in making choices out of two or more alternatives
(ii) Everyone has freedom to speak
Facts
X says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. X's assertion is
(a) wrong
(b) right
(c) wrong because the freedom to speak cannot mean freedom not to speak
(d) right because X may opt to speak or not to speak
163. Principles
(i) A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(ii) A person can be called a servant only if there is a relation of
employment and he acts under the order and on behalf of his
master
Facts
X bank launched a saving scheme for poor sections of the society and the
customer can deposit Rs. 10 per day. Y an unemployed youth collected
money from several customers, and on behalf of them deposited the money
at the Bank every day. The bank gave to Y a small commission. After
sometime, Y disappeared without depositing the money given by the
customers. The customers bring a suit alleging that the Bank is liable.
Decide
(a) the Bank is liable because it paid commission to Y
(b) the Bank is liable because Y was their servant
(c) the Bank is not liable because Y was not their servant
(d) No one is liable
164. Principles
X propounds the principle that everyone in this world always speaks lies
Facts
X wants to know weather this principle is logically true or false
(a) logically the principle may be true
(b) everyone in the whole of this world does not always speak lies
(c) logically X is also speaking lies.
(d) everyone is basically an honest person
165. Principle
Whosoever enters into or upon the property in the possession of another,
with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate or annoy any person in
possession of the property, and remains there with intent thereby to
intimidate or annoy another person or with intent to commit an offence is
guilty of criminal trespass
Facts
The accused entered at night into a house to carry on intimate relations with an
unmarried major girl on her invitation and information that her family members
are absent. However, he was caught by her uncle before he could get away. Is the
accused guilty of criminal trespass? He is
(a) guilty of criminal trespass as he annoyed the uncle
(b) guilty because he entered the house to commit a crime against the girl
(c) guilty because no one should enter into the house of another at night
(d) not guilty of criminal trespass
64
166. In a code every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter. The
code. for the name Ram Kumar is
(a) Ten Ronet (b) Len Final (c) Pen Sinel (d) Elephant
Four of the giving five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group in questions no.] 67-168 ?
167. (1)217 (11) 143 (111) 214 (IV) 157 (V) 131
(a) I (b) V (c) I (d) III
168. (1) gourd (2) radish (3) spinach (4) cucumber (5) beetroot
(a) radish (b) beetroot (c) Potatoes (d) Spinach
Point out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries in
questions number 169 to 171.
169. (a) house (b) mortgage (c) hypothecation (d) immovable property
170. (a) Law (b) Court (c) Morality (d) Judge
171. (a) Freedom of speech (b) Right to equality

(c) Freedom of religion (d) Right to make contract
In Question 172 to 176 a question and two arguments are given. Arguments in
relation to the question are either weak or strong. Use this key to give your
responses
(a) Argument I is strong (b)Argument II is strong
(c) Bath I and II are Strong (d) Both I and II are weak
172. Question: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of lire crackers in

India? Argument I: No, This will render thousands of workers jobless
Argument II: Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour
173. Question: Should private operators be allowed to operate passenger train

service in India?
Argument I: No private operators do not agree to operate on non profitable
sectors. Argument II: Yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway
Service
174. Question: Should (he system of reservation of posts for scheduled castes be
introduced in private sector?
Argument I: Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these
groups
Argument II: No, this would effect merit
175. Question: Would the problem of old parents be solved if children are made
legally responsible to take care of their parents in old age?
Argument I: Yes, such problems can be solved only through law.
Argument II: Yes this will bring relief to old parents.
176. Question: Should right to primary education be made a fundamental right?

Argument I: We should first complete other developmental project, education
of children may wail
65
Argument II: Yes, without primary education for all there cannot be inclusive
development
177. Pramesh is heavier than Jairam but lighter than Gulab. Anand is heavier
than Gulab. Mohan is lighter than Javam. Who among them is the heaviest?
(a) Jairam (b) Anand (c) Gulab (d) Pramesh
178. Ravi is the brother ofAmit's son. How is Amit related to Ravi?
(a) Cousin (b) Father (c) Son (d) Grandfather
179. If CABLE is coded ZCDAY, then STABLE will be coded as

(a) TPADAY (b) TPCDCY (c) TPCDAY (d) TPCYAY
180. If CHARTER is coded UMOEPYE then PARTNER will be coded as

(a) AONPCYE (b) AEEPCYE (c) AOEACYE (d) AOEPCYE
Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability)
Select one of the given numbers to replace question mark in the series in questions
181to 183
181. 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21,?
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25
182. 117, 104, 91, 78,?

(a) 39 (b) 60 (c) 65 (d) 36
183. 88, 96, 104, ?

(a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 120 (a) 112
184. Ram borrows Rupees 520 from Govind at a simple interest of 13% per annum.
What amount of money should Ram pay to Govind after six months to be
absolved of the debt? Rupees
(a) 552.80 (b) 553.80 (c) 453.80 (d) 353.80
185. Which of the following is a prime number?

(a) 19 (b) 20
(c) 21 (d) 22
186. The square root of 289 is
(a) 13 (b) 17 (c) 27 (d) 23
187. Find the factors of 330

(a)2x4x5x11 (b)2x3x7x13 (c)2x3x5x13 (d)2x3x5x11
188. Find the factors of 1122

(a) 3x9x17x2 (b) 3x11x17x2 (c) 9x9x17x2 (d) 3x11x17x3
189. Which of the following is not a prime number
(a) 23 (b) 29 (c) 43 (d) 21
190. If the numbers from 1 to 24, which are divisible by 2 are aaanged in descending
order, which number will be at the 8'" place from the bottom
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 18
66
191. Average age of ten persons learning yoga is 32 years. When the age of
their instructor is added, the average age becomes 34 years. The age
of their instructor is?
(a) 54 (b) 52 (c) 46
(a) sG
192. Find 12% of 5000
(a) 620 (b) 600 (c) 680 (d) 720
193. Square root of 400 is

(a) 40 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 100
194. What is the place (location) value oCS in 3254710? 19s.

(a) 10000 (b) 5 (c) 54710 (d) 50000
195. 6x3 (3-1) is equal to
(a) 53 (b) 36 (c) 20 (d) 19
196. Y travels ls kilometers due South, then s kilomet=.rs due west, then 18
kilometers due north, then 3 kilometers due south, then 5 kilometers due
East. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 6 kilometers (b) 3 kilometers (c) 0 kilometers (d) 9 kilometers
Select appropriate numbers to fill in the blanks in the series given in questions
no.197 and 198
197. 3,9...... 6561

(a) 18 (b) 27 (c) 81 (d) 61
198. 100, 50, 33.33,....., 20

(a) 25 (b) 30 (e) 22 (a) 21
199. Which of the following fractions has the highest value 3/5, 4/3, 2/5, 1/2
(a) 3/5 (b) 4/3 (c) 2/5 (d) 1/2
200. Four gardeners with four grass mowers mows 400 square meters of
ground in four hours. How long would it take for eight gardeners with
eight grass mowers to mow 800 square meters of ground?
(a) 8 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 12 hours (d) 4 hours
67
Series A Test Booklet Number:
Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 2011

Under-Graduate Courses
Time: 3:00 PM to 5:00 PM (2 hours)
Roll Number:.. Total Marks: 200
Instructions to the Candidate (UG)
1. Before using the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet check them for any
defect like misprint, fudging of printing, missing pages/ questions/ ovals etc,
and ask for issue of relevant duplicates.
2. No duplicate Question Booklet or OMR Answer Sheet shall be provided except in a
situation under Instruction 1 above.
3. Enter your 9 digit Roll Number, Test Booklet No., Test Booklet Series in the space
provided on the OMR Answer Sheet with Ball Point Pen only and shade the
relevant ovals with HB Pencil Onlv.
4. There are 200 objective questions. Each question carries one mark. Each question
consists of four choices of answers. Select the most appropriate answer and
shade the corresponding oval in the OMR sheet with HB Pencil Only. If more
than one oval is shaded, the question shall be deemed to be wrong. There is NO
negative marking for wrong answers.
5. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each question or sets of
question. Read them carefully before answering.
6. Total number of pages in the Question booklet is 48 including two blank pages
(Page no.2 and 48) for rough work.
7. Possession of all kinds of electronic gadget in the Exam Hall is strictly prohibited.
Possession and/or use of any unfair means shall disqualify the candidate and
decision of the centre Superintendent in this regard shall be final
Seal/ Signature of Centre Superintendent
68
This booklet contains 200 objective questions. Each question carries one mark.
Every question contains four choices of answers. Select the most appropriate answer
and shade the corresponding oval in the O.M.R. sheet.
ENGLISH (COMPREHENSION)
The questions in this section are based on a single passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.
Please note that for some of the questions, more than one of the choices could
conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that
is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question.
Passage for Questions 1 to 10
In 1954, a Bombay economist named A.D. Shroff began a Forum of Free Enterprise,
whose ideas on economic development were somewhat at odds with those then
influentially articulated by the Planning Commission of the Government of India.
Shroff complained against the 'indifference, if not discouragement' with which the
state treated entrepreneurs.
At the same time as Shroff, but independently of him, a journalist named Philip
Spratt was writing a series of essays in favour of free enterprise. Spratt was a
Cambridge communist who was sent by the party in 1920s to foment revolution in
the subcontinent. Detected in the act, he spent many years in an Indian jail. The
books he read in the prison, and his marriage to an Indian woman afterwards,
inspired a steady move rightwards. By the 1950s, he was editing a proAmerican
weekly from Bangalore, called Myslndia. There he inveighed against the economic
policies of the government of India. These, he said, treated the entrepreneur às a
criminal who has dared to use his brains independently of the state to create wealth
and give employment'. The state's chief planner, P.C. Mahalanobis, had surrounded
himself with Western leftists and Soviet academicians, who reinforced his belief in
`rigid control by the government over all activities'. The result, said Spratt, would be
`the smothering of free enterprise, a famine of consumer goods, and the tying down
of millions of workers to soul-deadening techniques.'
The voices of men like Spratt and Shroff were drowned in the chorus of popular
support for a model of heavy industrialization funded and directed by the
governments. The 1950s were certainly not propitious times for free marketers in
India. But from time to time their ideas were revived. After the rupee was devalued
in 1966, there were some moves towards freeing the trade regime, and hopes that
the licensing system would also be liberalized. However, after Indira Gandhi split the
Congress Party in 1969, her government took its `left turn', nationalizing a fresh
range of industries and returning to economic autarky.
1. Which of the following statements can most reasonably be inferred from the
information available in the passage:
(a) P.C. Mahalanobis believed in empowering private entrepreneurs and
promoting free market.
(b) Phillip Spratt preferred plans that would create economic conditions
favourable for a forward march by the private enterprise.
(c) Restrictions on free markets enriched large Indian companies.
(d) Philip Spratt opposed the devaluation of rupee in
1966.
69
2. Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage:
(a) Acceptance of A.D. Shroff's plans in the official circles smothered free
enterprise in India.
(b) The views of the Forum of Free Enterprise ran against the conception of
development then prevalent among the policy makers.
(c) A.D. Shroff believed that state should actively support the private sector.
(d) Philip Sprxtt had been educated in Cambridge.
3. Select the statement that best captures the central purpose of this passage:
(a) Highlight that even though there were advocates for free-market and
private enterprise in the early years of independent India, they were
crowded out by others who supported a dominant role for state over
private enterprise.
(b) Explain the politics behind Indira Gandhi's decision to nationalise the
banks.
(c) Demonstrate with the help of statistics how the preference of policy makers
for Soviet-style economic policies prevented India's economic growth.
(d) Establish that devaluation of rupee in 1966 was vindicated by subsequent
experience.
4. Philip Spratt came to India because he:
(a) Fell in love with an Indian women
(b) Wanted [o protest against the economic policies of the Indian
government.
(c) Was offered the editorship of Mysindia.
(d) Had been instructed to work towards the goal of inciting a
revolution in India.
5. The author avers that A.D Shroffs ideas were somewhat at odds with the views of
Planning Commission because:
(a) A.D. Shroff was in favour of rigid governmental control over all economic
activities.
(b) Shroff had opposed governments decision to devalue Indian rupee.
(c) The hostility of the government to private entrepreneurs was complained
against by A.D. Shroff.
(d) Shroff had been critical of the influence of Soviet academicians over
India's economic policy.
6. The ideological shift of Philip Spratt to the right was caused by:
(a) The demise of the Soviet Union.
(b) The start of the weekly called MysIndia.
(c) The books that he encountered in the prison.
(d) The dissolution of his first marriage to his college friend.
7. Select the statement that could be most plausibly inferred from this passage:
(a) Philip Spratt and A.D. Shroff were members of the Forum for Free
Enterprise.
(b) The first two Five Year Plans emphasised on the importance of private
enterprise as the spearhead of economic growth.
(c) P.C. Mahalanobis had mooted the expulsion of foreign firms like Coca Cola
and IBM from India.
(d) The hopes that the licensing regime would be liberalized after the
devaluation of Indian rupee were belied in the aftermath of the split in the
Congress Party.
8. The author alludes to nationalization of industries in 1969 in order to:
(a) Show the contradictions between AD Shroff's economic views and the official
economic policies of the Government of India.
(b) Exemplify the shift of the Indira Gandhi led government to the `left'
70
(c) Demonstrate the ideological changes in the worldview of Philip Spratt.
(d) Highlight the negative political repercussions of the decision to devalue the
Indian currency.
9. "Neither Philip Spratt nor A.D. Shroff_______able to convince Mahalanobis." Select
the most appropriate phrase out of the four options for filling the blank space in
the aforesaid sentence.
(a)Were (b) Are (c) Was (d) Is
10. The word ìnveighed' in this passage means:
(a) Praised (b) Recited (c) Proclaimed (d) Remonstrated
In Mann Joseph's debut novel Serious Men, the protagonist, Ayyan Mani, is a U1,
scheming Dalit-Buddhist who almost gets away with passing off his partially deaf son,
Adi, as a prodigy, a genius who can recite the first 1,000 prime numbers. The garb of
satire-where almost every character cuts a sorry figure-gives the author the licence to
offer one' of the most bleak and pessimistic portrayals of urban Dalits. Despite his
savage portrayal of Dalit (and female) characters--or perhaps because of it?-Serious
Men has won critical appreciation front a cross-section of readers and critics.
At a time when a formidable body of Dalit literature- writing by Dalits about Dalit
lives-has created a distinct space for itself, how and why is it that a novel such as
Serious Men, with its gleefully skewed portrayal of an angry Dalit man, manages to
win such accolades? In American literature-and particularly in the case of African-
American authors and characters-these issues of representation have been debated
for decades. But in India, the sustained refusal to address issues related to caste in
everyday life-and the continued and unquestioned predominance of a Brahminical
stranglehold over cultural production-have led us to a place where non-Dalit portrayal
of Dalits in literature, cinema and art remains the norm.
The journey of modem Dalit literature has been a difficult one. But even though it has
not necessarily enjoyed the support of numbers, we must engage with what Dalits are
writing-not simply for reasons of authenticity, or as a concession to identity politics,
but simply because of the aesthetic value of this body of writing, and for the insights it
offers into the human condition. In a society that is still largely unwilling to recognise
Dalits as equal, rights-bearing human beings, in a society that is inherently
indifferent to the everyday violence against Dalits, in a society unwilling to share
social and cultural resources equitably with Dalits unless mandated by law (as seen
in the anti-reservation discourse), Dalit literature has the potential to humanise non-
Dalits and sensitise them to a world into which they have no insight. But before we
can understand what Dalit literature is seeking to accomplish, we need first to come
to terms with the stranglehold of non-Dalit representations of Dalits.
Rohinton Miary's (A Fine Balance), published 15 years ago, chronicles the travails of
two Dalit characters-uncle Ishvar and nephew Omprakash-who migrate to Bombay
and yet cannot escape brutality. While the present of the novel is set at the time of the
Emergency, Ishvar's father Dukhy belongs to the era of the anti-colonial nationalist
movement. During one of Dukhi's visits to the town, he chances upon a meeting of
the Indian National Congress, where speakers spread the "Mahatma's message
regarding the freedom struggle, the struggle for justice," and wiping out "the disease
of untouchability; ravaging us for centuries, denying dignity to our fellow human
beings."
71
Neither in the 1940s, where the novel's past is set, nor in the Emergency period of the
1970swhen the minds and bodies Ishvar and Omprakash, are savaged by the state-do
we find any mention of a figure like BR Ambedkar or of Dalit movements. In his
`nationalist' understanding of modem Indian history, Mistry seems to have not veered
too far from the road charted by predecessors like Mulk Raj Anand and Premchand.
Sixty years after Premchand, Mistry's literary imagination seems stuck in the
empathy-realism mode, trapping Dalits in abjection. Mistry happily continues the
broad stereotype of the Dalit as a passive sufferer, without consciousness of caste
politics.
11. Which of the following is the closest description of the central argument of this
passage :
(a) Manu Joseph's novel presents a scathing portrayal of Dalits.
(b) Contemporary American literature is very cautious on politically correct
representation of minorities.
(c) The last two decades have witnessed the rise of a very vibrant Dalit literature.
(d) Portrayal of Dalits by non-Dalits merely as passive victims has been the
dominant norm in Indian literature, cinema and an.
12. According to this passage, Premchand and Mulk Raj Anand:
(a) Presented a stereotyped version of Dalit characters in their writings.
(b) Excelled in writing satires on social inequality.
(c) Were politically opposed to the views of B.R. Ambedkar.
(d) Were closely involved with the leadership of the nationalist movement.
13. The writer refers to the 'anti-reservation discourse' in order to argue that:
(a) Dalit literature has had a very dif6cultjoumey since its origins.
(b) Manu Joseph is viscerally opposed to Dalits.
(c) Persons belonging to the upper castes are inherently indifferent to routine
violence against Dalits.
(d) Indian society is not yet ready to equitably share, on its own, social, cultural
and political space with Dalits.
14. Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from this passage:
(a) The author of Serious Men has used the literary device of satire to present an
unflattering picture of women characters.
(b) Issues of representation of minorities have been debated extensively in
American literature.
(c) The writer of this passage believes that engagement with Dalits is necessary
only because such engagement affirms the importance of identity politics.
(d) The writer believes that Rohinton Mistry presented a stereotypical
representation of Dal its character in his book.
l5. According to the information available in the passage, the writer attributes
the'prevalence of representation of Dalits by non-Dalits in literature, art and
media to:
(a) The nationalist understanding of Indian history.
(b) Marginalisation of B.R Ambedkar from nationalist movement.
(c) The anti-reservation discourse
(d) Brahminical control over cultural production.
16. Which of the following is not among the reasons suggested by the writer for
engaging with Dalit writing:
(a) Dalit literature has the potential to sensitize non-Dalits about the
experiences of the former.
(b) Dalit writing is more authentic than representation of Dalits by non-Dalits.
(c) Dalit literature does not have the support of numbers.
(d) The aesthetic value of Dalit writing.
72
17. Which of the following statement cannot be inferred from the passage:
(a) Upper-castes have dominated the instruments of cultural production in
Indian society.
(b) Indian society is unwilling to recognise Dalits as equal, rights-bearing
human beings.
(c) Dalit writers have carved out a space for writings on Dalit experience and
world view.
(d) The judiciary in India, in its opposition to reservation, has betrayed its
unwillingness to acknowledge Dalits as equal bearer of rights.
18. The writer of this passage is critical of Rohinton Mistry's A Fine Balance for the
reason that:
(a) It is an example of a book on Dalit characters by a Non-Dalit.
(b) The book suggests that Dalits are nothing more than passive sufferers
without any agency.
(c) The book ignores the everyday violence that Dalits have to confront with.
(d) It bares the passive literary style of the author, Rohinton Mistry.
19. Which of the following words would be the best substitute for the word 'sly' in this
passage:
(a) Bright
(b) wise
(c) devious
(d) dim
20. "It is not as if Dalit movements ______not active during the periods that form A
Fine Balance's backdrop." Select the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank in
the above sentence:
(a) is (b) was (c) were (d) are
In recent weeks, the writers William Dalrymple and Patrick French, among others,
have come before a fusillade of criticism in India, much of it questioning not their
facts, not their interpretations, but their foreignness.
"Who gets to write about India?" The Wall Street Journal asked on Wednesday in its
own report on this Indian literary feuding. It is a complicated question, not least
because to decide who gets to write about India, you would need to decide who gets to
decide who gets to write about India. Rather than conjecturing some Committee for
the Deciding of the Deciding of Who Gets to Write about India, it might be easier to let
writers write what they please and readers read what they wish.
The accusations pouring forth from a section of the Indian commentariat are varied.
Some criticism is of a genuine literary nature, fair game, customary, expected. But
lately a good amount of the reproaching has been about identity.
In the case of Mr. Dalrymple, a Briton who lives in New Delhi, it is - in the critics' view
- that his writing is an act of re-colonization. In the case of Mr. French, it is that he
belongs to a group of foreign writers who use business-class lounges and see some
merit in capitalism and therefore do not know the real India, which only the
commentariat member in question does.
What is most interesting about these appraisals is that their essential nature makes
reading the book superfluous, as one of my Indian reviewers openly admitted. (His
review was not about the book but about his refusal to read the book.) The book is
73
not necessary in these cases, for the argument is about who can write about India,
not what has been written.
For critics of this persuasion, India surely seems a lonely land. A country with a
millennial historv of Hindus, Christians, Jews, Muslims and Buddhists living
peaceably together; a country of hundreds.of dialects in which so many Indians are
linguistic foreigners to each other, and happily, tolerantly so; a country that welcomes
foreign seekers (of yoga poses, of spiritual wisdom, of ancestral roots) with open arms;
a country where, outside the elite world of South
Delhi and South Bombay, I have not heard an Indian ask whether outsiders have a
right to write, think or exist on their soil.
But it is not just this deep-in-the-bones pluralism that challenges the who-gets-to-
write-aboutIndia contingent. It is also that at the very heart of India's multifarious
changes today is this glimmering idea: that Indians must be rewarded for what they
do, not who they are.
Identities you never chose - caste, gender, birth order - are becoming less important
determinants of fate. Your deeds - how hard you work, what risks you take - are
becoming more important.
It is this idea, which I have found pulsating throughout the Indian layers, that leaves
a certain portion of the intelligentsia out of sync with the surrounding country. As Mr.
French has observed, there is a tendency in some of these writers to value social
mobility only for themselves. When the new economy lifts up the huddled masses,
then it becomes tawdry capitalism and rapacious imperialism and soulless
globalization.
Fortunately for those without Indian passports, the nativists' vision of India is under
demographic siege. The young and the relentless are India's future. They could not
think more differently from these literatis.
They savour the freedom they are gaining to seek their own level in the society
and to find their voice; and they tend to be delighted at the thought that some
foreigners do the same in India and love their country as much as they do.
21. Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage:
(a) Younger generations of Indians are more tolerant of foreign scribes who
write about their country.
(b) The writer believes that a section of Indian intelligentsia is very hostile to
upward economic mobility.
(c) Mr. William Dalrymple has been accused of recolonising India through his
writings.
(d) Most of the criticism that has been recently directed at Patrick French has
emphasized mainly on the writer's undenvhelming literary style.
22. Which of the following would be the best substitute for the word, `fusillade' in the
passage?
(a) Barrage (b) Breach (c) Temper (d) Row
23. The writer uses the phrase, 'who-gets-to-write-about-India contingent' in this
passage to refer to:
(a) Foreign writers who have written books on India.
(b) Critics who have attacked foreign writers writing on India for their mere
foreignness.
(c) Elite residents of South Delhi and South Bombay.
(d) Cultural pluralists.
74
24. The writer believes that the most peculiar aspect of the criticisms that Patrick
French and William Dalrymple have received is that:
(a) Most such condemnation has emerged from elite Indians.
(b) Such critics are hostile to upward immobility.
(c) These censures are not centered on the books of such writers or their literary
styles but are targeted at their identity instead.
(d) These critics ignore the plural ethos of India.
25. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Ascriptive identities like caste, tribe, etc. are becoming more and more
important with the passage of time.
(b) Patrick French believes that the new market friendly economic policies
followed for the last decades have resulted in the rise of tawdry capitalism
and rapacious imperialism.
(c) The writer is of the opinion that a section of the intelligentsia is divorced
from the views of their compatriots.
(d) While India has historically been very hospitable to a variety of religions, it
has not been equally open to linguistic foreigners.
26. According to the information available in the passage, the writer is of the opinion
that:
(a) Writers like Patrick French do not know the real India.
(b) Most of the condemnation heaped on Dalrymple, French and himself has
been on expected lines.
(c) India's reputation of pluralism is cosmetic at best, one that hides deep
rooted hatred towards foreigners.
(d) The new generation of Indians have internalized the idea that people should
be rewarded for what they do and not who they are.
27. The writer refers to the history of Hindus, Christians, Jews, Muslims and
Buddhists living peaceably together in India for millions of years in order to:
(a) Show India's openness to foreigners who have visited Indian in the quest for
yoga.
(b) Argue that India is a country of hundreds of dialects.
(c) Demonstrate the religiosity pervading in an average Indian.
(d) India's deep-in the bones pluralism.
28. The writer argues that the nature of criticism he, Dalrymple and French have
received for their books renders reading their books superfluous because:
(a) Such criticism has been limited to a very small minority of Indians.
(b) These writers are popular among Indian youth, even among those who have
not read their books.
(c) The literary styles of these writers are not the sole focus of such criticism.
(d) Such criticism is less about what has been written in their books than about
who can write on India.
29. According to the passage, the question `who gets to write about India' is
complicated because:
(a) India has been historically open to and tolerant of foreign writers and
artists.
(b) This issue can be satisfactorily resolved only if we can decide who gets to
decide who gets to write about India.
(c) Ascriptive identities are becoming more and more important in a globalised
world.
(d) This would result in a shift of attention from what has been written to who
has written.
75
30. "But with many outsiders' India-related books recently hitting bookstores there,
the sensitivity - flared into a bout of vigorous literary nativism, with equally
vigorous counterpunches." Select the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank
in the above sentence:
(a) Has (b) Have (c) Was (d) did
If religion and community are associated with global violence in the rtvnds of many
people, then so are global poverty and inequality. There has, in fact, been an
increasing tendency in recent years to justify policies of poverty removal on the
ground that this is the surest way to prevent political strife and turmoil. Basing
public policy - international as well as domestic- on such an understanding has some
evident attractions. Given the public anxiety about wars and disorders in the rich
countries in the world, the indirect justification of poverty removal -not for its own
sake but for the sake of peace and quiet in the world - provides an argument that
appeals to self interest for helping the needy. It presents an argument for allocating
more resources on poverty removal because of its presumed political, rather than
moral, relevance.
While the temptation to go in that direction is easy to understand, it is a perilous

route to take even for a worthy cause. Part of the difficulty lies in the possibility that
if wrong, economic reductionism would not only impair our understanding of the
world, but would also tend to undermine the declared rationale of the public
commitment to remove poverty. This is a particularly serious concern, since poverty
and massive inequality are terrible enough in themselves, and deserve priority even if
there were no connection whatsoever with violence. Just as virtue is its own reward,
poverty is at least its own penalty. This is not to deny that poverty and inequality can
- and do - have far reaching consequences with conflict and strife, but these
connections have to be examined and investigated with appropriate care and
empirical scrutiny, rather than being casually invoked with unreasoned rapidity in
support of a `good cause."
Destitution can, of course, produce provocation for defying established laws and
rules. But it need not give people the initiative, courage, and actual ability to do
anything very violent. Destitution can be accompanied not only by economic debility,
but also by political helplessness. A starving wretch can be too frail and too dejected
to fight and battle, and even te protest and holler. It is thus not surprising that often
enough intense and widespread suffering and misery have been accompanied by
unusual peace and silence.
Indeed, many famines have occurred without there being much political rebellion or
civil strife or intergroup warfare. For example, the famine years in the 1840s in
Ireland were among the most peaceful, and there was little attempt by the hungry
masses to intervene even as ship after ship sailed down the river Shannon with rich
food. Looking elsewhere, my own childhood memories in Calcutta during the Bengal
famine of 1943 include the sight of starving people dying in front of sweetshops with
various layers of luscious food displayed behind the glass windows, without a single
glass being broken, or law or order being disrupted.
31. Select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred from the aforesaid
passage:
(a) A society plagued by recurrent famines can never witness political
revolution.
76
(b) Religious discrimination inevitably leads to violence and strife.
(c) Destitution of the masses leads to peace and social stability.
(d) Famines and starvation do not necessarily result in political rebellion.
32. The author believes that it may not be advisable to emphasise on the connection
between poverty and violence as:
(a) Emphasis on such connection appeals only to self-interest of persons.
(b) Linking poverty and violence undermines the moral character of anti-poverty
measures.
(c) The absence of any essential connection between poverty and violence may
then weaken the very rationale of anti-poverty policies.
(d) There is no necessary link between poverty and inequality.
33. Which of the following best captures the central argument of this passage:
(a) Religion is inextricably linked with violence
(b) Famines may not necessarily result in civil unrest.
(c) Global poverty and inequality are one of the fundamental causes of global
violence and strife.
(d) Basing anti-poverty programmes on the need for avoidance of violence and
strife is dotted with many pitfalls.
34. In the given passage, the word `perilous' means:
(a) Scared (b) Costly (c) Futile (d) Dangerous
35. The author refers to his own experience as a child during the Bengal famine of
1943 in order to:
(a) Illustrate how religiosity may instill passive acceptance of even the worst
forms of starvation among people.
(b) Repudiate the argument that religious discrimination usually tends to
inspire violent protests.
(c) Substantiate his assertion that it is not unusual to have the most intense
suffering and misery co-exist with complete peace.
(d) Demonstrate that people confronted with acute starvation are rendered too
helpless to protest ever at all.
36. The word 'destitution' in this passage can be best substituted by.
(a) Dejection (b) Indigence (c) Default (d) Dereliction
37. Which of the following statement is least likely to be inferred from the passage:
(a) History is replete with instance of famines that have occurred without there
being much violent protest.
(b) Many writers and critics are increasingly advocating for stronger policies on
poverty removal on the ground that this would help prevent political turmoil.
(c) The author believes that the links between poverty and violence must never be
emphasized at all.
(d) Economic debility in turn inhibits political freedom.
38. The author asserts that basing anti-poverty measures on the avowed connections
between poverty and violence has certain apparent benefits because:
(a) Poverty is similar to religious exploitation in terms of the potential violent
consequences.
(b) It leads to allocation of more resources on anti-poverty policies.
(c) The widespread concern about war and violence provides a rationale for
povertyremoval that appeals to the `self-interest' of persons
(d) Otherwise, there would not have been the tendency to justify anti-poverty
policies on the ground that they prevent political turmoil.
39. Economic reductionism' in this passage means;
(a) Neglecting the economic connection between poverty &
violence
(b) Excessive accent on poverty and inequality
(c) Emphasizing on the linkage between violence, poverty and economic equality.
77
(d) The view that every conflict is caused by underlying economic tensions.
40. "A sense of encroachment, degradation and humiliation can be even easier _
mobilize for rebellion and revolt." Select the most appropriate word out of the four
options for filling the blank space in the aforesaid sentence
(a) for (b) as (c) into (d) to
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
41. Why was Arundhati Roy investigated for sedition?

(a) For committing contempt of court
(b) For saying that Kashmir is not an integral part of India
(c) For sympathising with the Maoists
(d) For condemning nuclear tests conducted by India
42. Damon Galgut's 'In a Strange Room' was recently in news for:
(a) Man Booker Prize shortlist
(b) Winning the Pulitzer Prize
(c) Winning the Orange Prize for fiction
43. Who was recently in the news when the Supreme Court of India rejected her plea
for Euthanasia, but paved the way for legalization of passive euthanasia?
(a) Aruna Shanbaug (b) Aruna Roy
(c) Mary Roy (d) Medha Patkar
44. Nagoya Protocol, signed by India on 30"October, 2010 is:

(a) an international treaty of bilateral investment between India and Japan
(b) an international treaty to ensure that local produce are exploited only
under license and for the cornmon good of the mankind
(c) an international treaty to ensure that the benefits of natural resources and
their conunercial derivatives are shared with local communities
45. Julian Assange, the founder of WikiLeaks, was arrested in which of the following
nations? (a) U.K (b) Sweden (c) U.S.A (d) Denmark
46. Which of the following are the five countries that have decided to bid for 2017
World Athletics Championships?
(a) Qatar, USA, China, Sri Lanka and Brazil
(b) Germany, Britain, Hungary, Qatar and Spain
(c) Germany, Qatar, India, Spain and China
(d) Germany, Britain, China, Qatar and Spain
47. The recent Tunisian revolution is known as:

(a) Orange Revolution (b) Jasmine Revolution
(c) Purple Revolution (d) Crescent Revolution
48. 'The Naive and the Sentimental Novelist' is a 2010 publication of Harvard
University Press of which of the following authors?
(a) Orhan Pamuk (b) J.M Coetzie
(c) Partha Chatterjee (d) Ben Okri
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49. Who replaced Lalit Modi as the IPL Chairman and Commissioner from this year's
edition of the IPL?
(a) Chirayu Amin (b) Rajiv Shukla
(c) Ratnakar Shetty (d) Shashank Manohar
50. Which one of the following films was officially selected to compete in the Un
Certain Regard (A Certain Glance) category at the 2010 Cannes Film Festival?
(a) Udaan (b) My Name is Khan
(c) Wednesday (d) Dhobi Ghat
51. Ram Kumudini Devil whose birth centenary is being celebrated in 2011, was the:
(a) First woman barrister of India (b) First woman Mayor of
Hyderabad
(c) First woman photographer in India (d) First woman doctor of India
52. The Supreme Court in 2010 upheld an order of the Bombay High Court to lift a
four-yearold ban imposed by the Maharashtra government on publication and
circulation of a controversial book, authored by American scholar James Laine.
Identify the book from the following.
(a) Chatrpati Shivaji (b) Shivaji-The Warrior King
(c) Shivaji - The Hindu King in Muslim India (d) None of the above.
53. In which case did the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court on July 14, 2010
commute the death sentence of six accused to rigorous life imprisonment?
(a) Khairlanji case (b) Bhopal Gas Leak case
(c) Bhagalpur case (d) Nithari Case
54. The Shunglu panel was constituted for which of the following issues?
(a) Investigate the 2G Spectrum Scam
(b) Suggest Civil Service Reforms
(c) Probe the Commonwealth Games Scam
(d) Suggest reforms on centre-state relationship
55. Who was appointed as the Chairman of the National Innovation Council in August
2010? (a) Shashi Tharoor (b) Chetan Bhagat
(c) Arindam Chaudhury (d) Sam Pitroda
56. Name the Kenya-born political lobbyist who runs a firm called Vaishnavi
Corporate Communications, and has recently been in news?
(a) Barkha Dutt (b) Vir Sanghhvi
(c) Vina Ramani (d) Niira Radia
57. Irom Sharmila has been fasting for the last 10 years to protest against which of
the following issues?
(a) Rape cases against Indian Army in Manipur
(b) Emergency in Manipur
(c) Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005
(d) Application of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958 in Manipur
58. Thein Sein is the newly-appointed President of which of the following nations?
(a) Indonesia (b) Malaysia
(c) Myanrnar (d) Thailand
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59. Baglihar dam has been a matter of dispute between which nations?
(a) Bangladesh and Myanmar (b) Myanmar and China
(c) India and China (d) India and Pakistan
60. Who is the author of the book "TINDERBOX - The Past and Future of Pakistan"?
(a) Husain HaqqanI (b) Yasmeen Niaz Mohiuddin
(c) Ishrat Husain (d) M.J. Akbar
61. On 25`h January 2011, BJP leaders Sushma Swaraj and Arun Jaitley were
prevented from entering Srinagar and unfurl the national flag. What was that
Rath Yatra called?
(a) Swabhimaan Yatra (b) Ekta Yatra
(c) Mukti Yatra (d) Swaraj Yatra
62. Who is chairing the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) on the 2G Spectrum
allocation issue?
(a) Murli Manohar Joshi (b) A Raja
(c) M. Thambi Durai (d) P.C. Chacko
63. Saina Nehwal recently defeated Ji Hyun Sung of South Korea to win which of the
following titles?
(a) Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold Badminton (b) Commonwealth Games
(c) Singapore Open (d) Hong Kong Open
64. 'Moner Manush', the film to win the `Golden Peacock' at the 41 s' International Film
Festival of India was based on the life of which legendary 19' century folk singer
and spiritual leader?
(a) Kabir (b) Surjya Sen
(c) Kabir Suman (d) Lalan Fakir
65. Justice P.C. Phukan Commission of Inquiry was constituted to enquire into which
of the following incidents?
(a) Clashes between Nagas and Lepchas in Nagaland on 14 August 2008
(b) Clashes between Bodos and Muslims in Northern Assam's Udalguri district
on 14 August 2008
(c) Clashes between Assamese and Bengalis in Guwahati on 14 August 2008
66. The first woman Secretary General of SAARC is from which country?
(a) Maldives (b) Bhutan
(c) Sri Lanka (d) India
67. Under whose premiership was the Women's Reservations Bill (to secure quotas
for women in Parliament and state legislative assemblies) first introduced in
Parliament?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi (b) HD Deve Gowda
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (d) Manmohan Singh
68. Which Irish player scored the fastest Century in the history of World Cup Cricket?
(a) Niaal'Oilten (b) Kevin O' Brien
(c) A. Cusack (d) Ed Joyce
69. Which of the following report brought out the 2G spectrum scam?
(a) CBI report (b) WikiLeaks
(c) CAG report (d) None of the above
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70. In February 2011, Gopa Sabharwal was appointed as the first Vice Chancellor of
which University of international stature?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru University (b) Azim Premji University
(c) Visva-Bharati University (d) Nalanda International University
71. With, which Hindutva association are Sadhvi Pragya Singh Thakur and Swami
Aseemanand allegedly associated?
(a) Vishwa Hindu Parishad (b) Shri Ram Sena
(c) Abhinav Bharat (d) Arya Samaj
72. With-which of the following do you associate the name P.J Thomas?
(a) Central Vigilance Commission (b) Lokpal
(c) Anti corruption Ombudsman (d) Banking Ombudsman
73. The 17th Commonwealth Law Conference was held in which city?
(a) Delhi (b) Bangalore
(c) Kolkata (d) Hyderabad
74. Gustavo Santaolall who composed the music to the song "Stranger Lives" in the
movie "Dhobi Ghat", is from which of the following nations?
(a) Chile (b) Peru
(c) Argentina (d) Mexico
75. Which one of the following was not awarded a portion of the contested land by the
judgment of the Allahabad High Court in 2010 pertaining to the Ayodhya dispute?
(a) Nirmohi Akhada (b) Sunni Central Board of Waqfs
(c) Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sang (d) Bhagwan Sri Ram Lala
Virajman
76. Sania Mirza claimed silver in the tennis mixed doubles category in the Asian
Games in Guanzhou in November 2010. Who was her Partner?
(a) Mahesh Bhupathi (b) Somdev Devvarman
(c) LeanderPaes (d) Vishnu Vardhan
77. China objected to the Dalai Lama's recent visit to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh.
What was he visiting in Tawang?
(a) A Buddhist monastery
(b) A memorial to Tibetans massacred by the Chinese army
(c) The residence of Panchen Lama
78. Which one of the following tribes lives in the Niyamgiri Hills, which is at the heart
of the controversy surrounding Vedanta Resources' mining operations?
(a) Manna Dhora (b) Dongria Kondh
(c) Pardhan (d) Mal Pahariya
79. Which prominent Barrister-politician, 'who was closely linked with the emergency
proclamation of 1975, breathed his last in Kolkata on 6t' November 2010?
(a) Jyoti Basu. (b) SiddharthaShankarRay.
(c) Hiren Mukherjee. (d) Indrajit Gupta
80. Who is the author of the book `Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his Struggle
with India', criticised for its content?
(a) Nirad C. Chaudhury (b) Joseph Lelyveld
(c) Khushwant Singh (d) Hermann Kallenbach
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81. Which Gharana of Classical singing did Late Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belong to?
(a) Dhrupad (b) Maihar
(c) Kirana (d) Etawah
82. 14 th March 2011 was the 80th Anniversary of the first Indian sound Film (talkie).
Which Movie was it?
(a) Jahan Ara (b) Alam Ara
(c) Noorjehan (d) None of the above
83. Which internationally renowned musician collaborated with Rahul Sharma to

release a music album titled 'Nomu.sle India'?
(a) Richard Clayderman (b) Kenny G
(c) Yanni (d) Ricky Martin
84. "War on Terrorism or American Strategy for Global Dominance" is authored by

which of the following authors?
(a) Noam Chomsky (b) Demetrios Caraley
(c) Lea Brilmayer (d) Manzoor Alam
85. Mohammad Asif, Mohammad Amir and Salman Butt (Cricket players of Pakistan)
have been banned for being found guilty of spot fixing. To which of the following
institutions have they appealed?
(a) Pakistan Cricket Board
(b) Anti-Corruption Tribunal of the Asian Cricket Council
(c) Court of Arbitration for Sport
(d) Anti-Corruption Tribunal of the International Cricket Council
86. Indian driver Karun Chandok was recently in the news for which of the following?
(a) Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Force India for the 2011
Formula One season.
(b) Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Lotus for the 2011 Formula One
season.
(c) Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Ferrari for the 2011 Formula
One season.
87. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change meeting of 2010
December was held in which of the following places?
(a) Colorado. (b) Canberra.
(c) Cancun. (d) None of the above.
88. Which of the following pairings is incorrect?

(a) Muammar Gaddafi-Syria. (b) Fidel Castro-Cuba.
(c) Pol Pot- Cambodia. (d) HosniMubarak-E
89. The Right of Children to Full and Compulsory Education Act 2009 requires
private schools to ensure that - percent of their students come from weaker
sections and disadvanliaged groups?
(a) 2 (b) 15
(c) 25 (d) 40
90. Srikrishna Committee, which recently submitted its report, was constituted for
which of the following issues?
(a) Mumbai bomb blast case (b) Malegaon blast case
(c) Telenganaissue (d) 2G Spectrum corruption issue
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MATHEMATICS
91. Akbar will turn 50 when his son Jehangir turns 18. What will be Akbar's age
when it will be exactly 5 times that of Iehangir?
(a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 44 (d) 48
92. Arun can climb a Coconut tree by 1.5 feet by each lift; however he slips 0.5 feet
every time he makes the next lift. How many individual lifts he will have to
reach the top of the Coconut tree of 18.5 feet?
(a) 20 (b) 19 (c) 18 (d) 17
93. Jogen's taxable income for 2010-11 is Rs. 5,00,000. The tax rates are (i) nil for
first 1,50,000, (ii) 10% for 150,001-3,00,000, and (iii) 20% for the remaining.
His Tax liability is:
(a) Rs. 45000 (b) Rs. 50000 (c) Rs. 55000
(d) Rs. 60000
94. The ratio of two numbers is 4:5. But, if each number is increased by 20, the
raiio becomes 6:7. The sum of such numbers is:
(a) 90 (b) 95 (c) 100 (d) 60
95. During the academic session 2009-10, in Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi,
the number of students studying Arts, Law and Commerce was in the ratio of
5:6:7. If during the academic session 2010-11 the number of students studying
Arts, Law and Commerce increased by 20%, 30% and 40% respectively, what
will be new ratio?
(a) 26:42:63 (b) 36:44:73 (c) 26:39:49 (d) 30:39:49
96. A customised jewellery was sold at L 1000 with 90% discount on the 'making
charges'. 11' the payment made for making charges was Z 100, what is the
ap p ro. r inu oe rate of discount on the product?
(a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 47 (d) 90
97. A man walks from his house to the Railway station to catch a train, which is
running as per schedule. If he walks at 6 km/hr, he misses the train by 9
minutes. However, if he walks at 7 km/hr, he reaches the station 6 minutes
before the departure of (rain. The distance of his home to the Railway Station is:
(a) 2 km (b) 1.5 km (c) 1.05 km (d) 1.25 km
98. Difference between two numbers is 9 and difference between their squares is
981. Lowest of the two numbers is:
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 59
99. Ms. Jhulan Goswami scores 102 runs in the 18'h innings of her career and thus
increases her average by 5. After the 18'" inning, her average is:
(a) 17 (b) 21 (c) 26 (d) 28
100. In a staff room of 25 teachers, 13 drink black coffee, 7 milk coffee, 9 drink both
tea and either type of coffee, and everyone drinks either of the beverages. How
many teachers drink only tea?
(a) insufficient information (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 9
101. A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn
at random from the box, the probability that it bears a perfect square number is:
(a) 1/10 (b) 1/11 (c) 1/90 (d) 1/9
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102. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting at the most one
head is:
(a) 1/4 (b ) 1 /2 (C) 3/4 (d) 1
103. A flag pole 18 m high casts a shadow 9.6 m long. What is the distance of the
top of the pole from the far end of the shadow?
(a) 20 metres (b) 20.04 metres (c) 20.4 metres (d) 24 metres
104. The 10' term of the series: 5, 8, 11, 14, ... is:
(a) 32 (b) 35 (c) 38 (d) 185
105. A bag contains 19 red balls, 37 blue balls and 27 green balls. If a ball is
picked up from this bag at random, what is the probability of picking a blue
ball?
(a) 19/83 (b) 37/87 (c) 34/81 (d) None of the above
106. A cylindrical tennis ball container can contain maximum three balls stacked on
one another. The top and bottom bails also touch the lid and the base of the
container respectively. If the volume of a tennis ball is 240 cm', then what is the
volume of the container?
(a) 1080 cm3 (b) 840 cm3 (c)1440 cm3 (d) 720 cm3
107. Ranjeetha walks around the circular park in I S minutes. 11 'she walks at the
rate of 5km/hr, how much distance would she have to travel, at the minimum, to
reach the centre of the park from any point on its perimeter?
(a) 100 metre (b) 200 metre (c) 250 metre (d) 300 metre
108. If (9/7)3 x (49/81)2x-6 =(7/9)9, then the value of x is:

(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 6
109. Francis has 18 eggs out of which 12 eggs were sold at 10% loss than the cost
price. At what mark up should he sell the remaining eggs to cover his losses?
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%
110. If the length and height of a brick increases by 10% each respectively, and the
breadth reduces by 20%, what is the percentage change in the volume of the
brick?
(a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 36
LOGICAL REASONING
Note: The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please answer
the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Please make the factual
assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is false.
111. `Where there is smoke, there is fire.'

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is
false?
(a) There is sometimes smoke where there is no fire.
(b) There is sometimes fire where there is no smoke.
(c) There is no fire where there is no smoke.
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112. `Where there is poverty, there are always thieves.'
false?
(a) America is a rich country and there are thieves in America.
(b) Bhutan is a poor country and there are no thieves in Bhutan.
(c) Bangladesh is a poor country and there are many thieves in Bangladesh.
(d) Nepal is a rich country and there are no thieves in Nepal.
113. Statement 1: Sugar is bad for people with diabetes.

Statement 2: Leela does not eat sugar.
Assuming that Statements l and 2 are true, which of the iuiiuwing statements
follows?
(a) Leela has diabetes. (b) Sugal is ba for Leela
(c) People with diabetes do not eat sugar. (d) None of the above.
114. Statement I: People who read fashion magazines do not like to

read fiction. Statement 2: Tenzin does not read fashion
magazines.
Assuming that Statements I and 2 are true, which of the following conclusions might
be said to follow?
(a) Tenzin likes to read fiction.
(b) Tenzin may or may not like to read fiction.
(c) Tenzin does not like to read fiction.
(d) Tenzin does not like fashion magazines.
115. Suleiman: All Communists are atheists.

Sheeba: That is not true.
Which of the following, if true, would make Sheeba's reply the most convincing?
(a) My uncle is an atheist but he is not a Communist.
(b) My uncle is a Communist but he is not an atheist.
(c) My uncle is a Communist and an atheist.
(d) My uncle is neither a Communist nor an atheist.
116. Statement l: All pingos are byronic.

Statement 2: Shalisto is byronic.
Statement 3: Therefore_________________.
Fill in the blank.
(a) Shalisto is a pingo. (b) Shalisto is not a pingo.
(c) Shalisto is not byronic. (d) None of the above
For the following eight questions, study the sequence of letters, numbers or words
carefully to work out the pattern on which it is based, and therefore what the next
item in the sequence must be. For example, the sequence À, C, E, G, ___ , has odd-
numbered letters of the alphabet; therefore, the next item must be Ì'. The meanings
of the words are irrelevant.
117. A, B, D, G, K, P,_
What is the last alphabet in this sequence?
(a) Z (b), Y (c) V (d) X
118. B, C, E, G, K, M, Q, S, -
What is the next alphabet in this sequence?
(a) T (b) U (c) V (d) W
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119. Z, X, T, N, -
What is the next alphabet in this sequence'?
(a) E (b) F (c) G (d) H
120. Àpple, Application,________, Approval, Apricot, April'

Which of the following best fits in the blank?
(a) Arrogant (b) April (c) Appropriate (d) Apiary.
121. `Sunday, Monday, Wednesday, Saturday, Wednesday, Monday,

Sunday,____________ '
Which of the following best fits in the blank?
(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday (c) Saturday (d) Thursday
122. `387924,____________, 3724, 423, 32, 2'. Which number is missing?

(a) 42978 (b) 42783 (c) 42983 (d) 42783
123. `Gym, hymn, lynx, pygmy, rhythm'

Which of the following words does not belong to the above set?
(a) Myrrh (b) Mythic (c) Flyby (d) Syzygy
124. Aadvark, Eerie, liwi, Oolong,

Which of the following words follows the pattern of this series?
(a) Uvula (b) Uulium (c) Uranium (d) Uranus
For the following nine questions, read the given argument or statement carefully,
making any factual assumptions necessary. Then choose the best answer out of
the four choices to the question asked. Note that not all the facts given will be
relevant for determining the answer.
125. `China has a higher literacy rate than India. This is due to the greater
efficiency of the Communist system. Efficiency is sorely lacking in India's democratic
system. Therefore, democracy is the biggest obstacle to India's achieving 100%
literacy.'
Which of the following, if nme, would directly undermine the above argument?
(a) Inefficiency is equally a problem in democracies and Communist countries.
(b) Communist systems do not respect human rights.
(c) Freedom is more important than literacy.
(d) China is slowly making the transition to democracy.
126. Ìn 399 BC, a jury in Athens condemned Socrates to death for impiety and
corrupting the morals of the youth. Socrates' friends offered to help him escape, but
Socrates refused. Socrates
argued that the fact that he had lived in Athens for so many years meant that he had
committed himself to obeying its laws. It would therefore be wrong for him to break
those very laws he was implicitly committed to obeying.'
Which one of the following claims constitutes the most plausible challenge to
Socrates' argument?
(a) Long residence only commits someone to obeying just laws and Socrates was
convicted under an unjust law.
(b) Long residence by itself does not imply a commitment to obeying laws since one
never made any explicit commitment.
(c) Obedience to the law is not always required.
(d) There is no point in escaping from prison since one will anyway be captured again.
86
127. `Soft drinks have been shown by scientists to be bad for the teeth. Therefore, the
government would be justified in banning all soft drinks from the Indian market.'
Assuming that the factual claim in the above argument is true, what else needs to be
assumed for the conclusion to follow?
(a) The government is justified in banning anything that is bad for dental health.
(b) Soft drinks are also bad for gastric health.
(c) Dental hygiene is a matter of great concem.
(d) No further assumptions are necessary.
128. Ìn order to be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha, a person must be at least 25
years of age. Moreover, one must not be bankrupt. Therefore, Iatinder Sir.gh, over 50
years of age and without any criminal convictions, cannot be the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha since he has just filed' for bankruptcy.'
Which of the following must be assumed for the conclusion to follow logically?
(a) Anyone over 50 years of ago is eligible to be Speaker of the Lok Sabha as long as
he or she has no criminal convictions.
(b) People without criminal convictions cannot be elected to the Lok Sabha even if
they are not bankrupt.
(c) Only those eligible for election to the Lok Sabha are eligible to be the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha.
(d) There is no minimum age requirement for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
129 Às a century draws to a close, people start behaving much like people coming to
the end of a long life. People approaching death often start reflecting on the events of
their lives. Similarly,' people alive in 1999_________
Which of the following most logically completes the paragraph above?

(a) ... started reflecting on the events of the twentieth century.
(b) ... started to reflect on the events of their lives.
(c) ... started to fear death.
(d) ... started to wonder what the year 2000 would bring.
130. 'The Roman poet and philosopher Lucretius proposed the following thought
experiment. if the universe has a boundary, we can throw a spear at (his boundary. If
the spear flies through, then it is not a boundary. If the spear bounces back, there
must something beyond this boundary that is itself in space, which means it is not a
boundary at all. Either way, it turns out that the universe has no boundary.'
How best can the form of Lucretius' argument for the infinity of space be
described?
(a) Luuetius shows that positing finite space leads to a contradiction.
(b) Lucretius shows that finite space is inconsistent with physics.
(c) Lucretius shows that finite space is inconsistent with mathematics.
(d) Lucretius shows that finite space is inconceivable.
131. Ùtilitarians believe that the right action is that which produces the most
happiness.'
Which of the following claims is incompatible with the utilitarian view?
(a) The right thing to do is to make the consequences of our actions as good as possible.
(b) The right thing to do is to do our duty, whatever the consequences.
87
(c) The right thing to do is to act on a rule which, if followed widely, produces the most
happiness.
(d) The right thing to do is to act from motivations which produce the most happiness.
132. `Senthil goes to Ambala for the first time in his life. On the way from the railway
station to his hotel, he sees twelve people, all of them male. He concludes that there are
no women in Ambala. As a matter of fact, there are many thousands of women in
Ambala.'
Which of the following best describes Senthil's error?

(a) Senthil was misled by irrelevant details.
(b) Senthil generalised on the basis of insufficient evidence.
(c) Senthil was biased against women.
(d) Senthil was bad at counting.
133. Ìt took many centuries before the countries of Europe could resolve their internal
problems of violence and corruption to become the stable nation-states they are.
Therefore, it will take many centuries for India to achieve internal stability.'
Assuming that the factual claims in the argument above are hue, what must be
assumed in order for the conclusion to follow?
(a) Countries everywhere must follow the same paths towards stability.
(b) India is gradually progressing towards internal stability.
(c) Indian can learn how to achieve stability by studying Europe's example.
(d) India has no hope of achieving stability in the near future.
In the following three questions, assume that a `fact' expresses something that can
be proved by clear and objective data. An opinion expresses a judgment, view,
attitude, or conclusion that is not backed by data.
134. Which one of the following statements is best described as an assertion of

opinion rather than an assertion of fact?
(a) Brazil, China and India are now among the largest emitters of greenhouse gases.
(b) Scientists agree that human activity is an important cause of climate change.
(c) The Indian government's policy on climate change is misguided.
(d) The Indian government's policy on climate change has changed significantly in
the last five years.
135. '(A) The number of people migrating into Bengalum has increased significantly
in recent years. (B) This is because Bengaluro provides more economic opportunities
than the towns and villages from which these migrants come. (C) This sudden influx
of migrants has made the city less pleasant to live in. (D) The success of the
government's rural employment guarantee act might have the effect of stemming
some rural-urban migration.'
Which one of the above statements is best described as an assertion of opinion

rather than an assertion of fact?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
136. Which one of the following statements, if true, is best described as an assertion
of opinion rather than an assertion of fact?
(a) Mumbai is larger than Pune. (b) Mumbai is smaller than Pune.
(c) Mumbai is more cultured than Pure. (d) Mumbai is more crowded than Pune.
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For the following three questions, there are two or more statements along with few
conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis
of the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by
the question even if you believe the statement is actually false.
137. Statement 1: Some aeroplanes are balloons.

Statement 2: Some balloons are rockets.
Conclusions:
(A) Some aeroplanes are rockets.
(B) Some rockets are tables.
(C) All the rockets are balloons.
(D) All the balloons are aeroplanes.
Asuming that statements 1 and 2 are true, which conclusions follow:

(a) Only (B) and (D) (b) Only (A) and (C)
(c) Only (D) (d) None of the above.
138. Statement 1: All whales are fish.

Statement 2: Some fish are not amphibians.
Statement 3: All whales are amphibians.
Statement 4: Some amphibians are not fish.
Conclusions:
(A) Some fish are amphibians.
(B) Some amphibians are fish.
(C) Only whales are both fish and amphibians.
(D) All amphibians are fish.
Assuming only that Statements 1. 2, 3 and 4 are true, which of the above
conclusions may be deduced?
(a) Only (A) and (B). (b) Only (C).
(c) Only (D). (d) None of the above.
139. Statement 1: All libraries are laboratories.

Statement 2: No laboratories are hostels.
Conclusions:
(A) All laboratories are libraries.
(B) Some hostels are libraries.
(C) Some libraries are hostels.
(D) No library is a hostel.
Assuming that statements 1 and 2 are true, which conclusions follow?

(a) Only (A) and (B) (b) Only (B) and (C)
(c) Only (C) and (D) (d) Only D
For the following sixteen questions, read the given passage carefully and answer
the questions that follow.
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Passage for cluestions 140-142
Instead of being concerned with what actually happens in practice ... [economics]
is increasingly) reoccupied with developing pseudo-mathematical formulas. These
provide models of behaviv,u which never quite fit what actually happens, in a way
which resembles the physical sciences ;one wrong: instead of equations describing
reality, economics produces equations describing deal conditions and theoretical
clarity of a type which never occurs in practice'.
140. Which of the following best summarises the argument of this paragraph?
(a) Economics ought to be more like the physical sciences.
(b) Theoretical clarity is undesirable in economics.
(c) The physical sciences are wrong to emphasise mathematic formulae.
(d) The mathematical equations used by economists do not accurately describe the
real world.
141. Which of the following claims is not implied in the paragraph above?
(a) Economists should stop using mathematical models.
(b) Equations describing ideal conditions should not be mistaken for equations
describing reality.
(c) Theoretical clarity should not come at the expense of accuracy.
(d) Models of human behaviour should be true to the complexity of human nature.
142. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument of the passage
above?
(a) The physical sciences are themselves reducing their reliance on mathematical
formulae.
(b) The real world in fact closely approximates ideal theoretical conditions.
(c) We do not at present have the mathematical expertise to model the full complexity
of the world economy.
(d) Academic economists need to be more sensitive to human nature.
Passae for questions 143-144

`Religions, like camel caravans, seem to avoid mountain passes. Buddhism spread
quickly south from Buddha's birth-place in southern Nepal across the flat Gangetic
plain to Sri Lanka. But it took a millennium to reach China ... The religious belt
stretched eventually to Mongolia and Japan, but in Afghanistan Buddhism filled only
a narrow belt that left pagans among the valleys to the east and west in Kailash and
Ghor'.
143. Which of the following best summarises the subject of this paragraph?
(a) The Afghan people were hostile to Buddhism.
(b) Geography has considerable impact on the spread of religions.
(c) Buddhism does not flourish in mountainous regions.
(d) Religion has a considerable impact on geography.
144. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion to the above
argument?
(a) Christianity took several centuries to cross the Atlantic Ocean to America.
(b) The Hindukush mountains made no difference to the speed with which Islam
spread.
(c) Buddhism is strongest in mountainous regions.
(d) Jainism is less popular in cold climates.
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Passage for questions 145-146
`Friendship was indeed a value for the villagers, more for men than for women. Two
good friends were said to be `like brothers' (literally, `like elder brother-younger
brother', annatammandirahage). I heard this expression several times and l could not
help recalling the statement of an elderly English colleague who had told me that he
and his brother were very close and had written to each other every week. He had
added, `We are very good friends.' That is, friendship connoted intimacy in England
while in Rampura (as in rural India everywhere), brotherhood conveyed intimacy'.
145. Which of the following best summarises the conclusion of the argument of
this paragraph?
(a) Friendship has greater value for men than for women.
(b) People in England have different altitudes to brotherhood and friendship
than people in rural India.
(c) Brotherhood has greater value in rural India than in England.
(d) Friendship has greater value in England than in India.
146. Which of the following, if true, would directly contradict the conclusion of the
above argument?
(a) People are less likely to have large families in England.
(b) People in England are no longer close to their family members.
(c) People in England do not think that friendship connotes intimacy.
(d) People in rural India think that sisters cannot be intimate.
Passae for guestions 147-148
A language is most easily leamt when it is in tune with the social context. To teach
an Indian child in English at the primary stage ... strengthens distinctions of class
and status and warps the mind. Failure to resort to regional languages in literacy
campaigns also hampers their success'.
147. Which of the following best summarises the argument of the passage above?
(a) Learning English warps the mind.
(b) Language policy should be devised with an eye to social context.
(c) Literacy campaigns in India have failed.
(d) English should be taught at the secondary school level.
148. Which of the following claims, if true, would weaken the argument in the
passage above?
(a) Literacy campaigns are more successful when conducted in English.
(b) Learning English at an early age has been found to weaken class
distinctions.
(c) Children who learn English at the primary-school stage have been found to
show greater intellectual ability than those who team English only at the
secondary level.
(d) All of the above.
Passaee for questions 149-151
`The tribes should develop their own culture and make their contribution to the
cultural richness of the country.. It is unnecessary to cause them to change their
customs, habits or diversions so far as to make themselves indistinguishable liom
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other classes. To do so would be to rob rural and pastoral life of its colour and
stimulating diversity'.
149. Which of the following conclusions is not implied by the passage above'?
(a) It is good for India's tribal people to develop their culture.
(b) Tribal customs should not be allowed to change in any respect.
(c) Forcing tribal people to change their customs reduces the diversity of rural life.
(d) Tribal culture is part of the cultural richness of India.
150. Which of the following claims runs directly counter [o the spirit of the passage
above?
(a) Tribal people should be able to decide what elements of the modem world to
adopt.
(b) The govemment should make modem science and medicine available to tribal
people.
(c) Tribal people should not be subjected to any coercion to conform to non-tribal
cultural norms as long as they do not violate the law.
(d) The tribals should assimilate as far as possible into non-tribal culture as a
condition of full citizenship.
151. Which of the following is not an assumption required by the above argument?
(a) Colour and diversity are desirable things.
(b) Tribal people are capable of contributing to India's cultural diversity.
(c) Changing tribal customs is a necessary condition of making modern medicine
available to tribal people.
(d) Rural life is presently full of colour and diversity.
Ìndia is the only country in the world where, in the States which are governed by
the Communist party, human rights are fully respected -- and that is only because
the Bill of Rights is firmly entrenched in our national Constitution. We can proudly
say that our Constitution gave us a flying start and equipped us adequately to meet
the challenges of the future.'
152. Which of the following conclusions is not implied by the passage above?
(a) Communist states often do not respect human rights.
(b) Communist states never respect human rights.
(c) The entrenchment of the Bill of Rights is what ensures that even Communist-
govemed states respect human rights.
(d) The Indian Constitution prepared India for the challenges of independence.
153. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?
(a) Communist governments are motivated to respect human rights out of
Communist principles, not Constitutional ones.
(b) The Constitution of India is itself sympathetic to Communist principles.
(c) Human rights need to be enforceable to have any meaning.
(d) Countries without a strong culture of human rights are prone to oppressing
minorities.
'Poverty is ... more restrictive and limiting than anything else. It poverty and low
standards continue then democracy, for all its fine institutions and ideals, ceases to
92
be a liberating force. It must therefore aim continuously at the eradication of poverty
and its companion unemployment. In other words, political democracy is not
enough. It must develop into economic democracy also'.
154. Which of the following is not implied by the above passage?

(a) Democracy has ceased to be a liberating force.
(b) Democracies should aim to eliminate poverty.
(c) Poverty and unemployment go hand in hand.
(d) Political democracy should develop into economic democracy.
155. Which of the following views, if true, would weaken the argument of the above
passage?
(a) Political democracy is inseparable from economic democracy.
(b) Poverty does not in fact restrict freedom.
(c) Democracy flourishes most in poor societies.
(d) Economic democracy is a necessary condition for the elimination of
unemployment.
LEGAL APTITUDE
Instructions to Candidates:
This section consists of ten problems (with 45 questions) in total. Each problem
consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and
answer the questions.
In answering the following questions, you should not rely on any rule(s) except the
rule(s) that are supplied for every problem. Further, you should not assume any fact
other than 'those stated in the problem. The aim is to test your ability to properly
apply a rule to a given set of facts, even when the result is absurd or unacceptable
for any other reason. It is not the aim to test any knowledge of law you may already
possess.
Problem 1 (For questions 156 to 160)

Rules
A. The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an
association as well as not join an association.
B. The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to
decide with whom to associate.
C. The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right
to realise the objectives of forming the association.
D. Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative
actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.
E. Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and
therefore cannot bind any person.
Facts
Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of
two years to Syed Monitul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract
provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Sangh (GMS), one of
the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.
156. Decide which of the following propositions can be most reasonably inferred
through the application of the stated legal rules to the facts of this case:
93
(a) The employment contract offered to Monitul Alam to join GMS is legal as it does
not restrict his freedom not to join any association.
(b) The condition requiring Monirul Alam to join GMS cannot bind him as it
impinges on his freedom not to join any association.
(c) Syed Monirul Alam cannot claim a fundamental right to freedom of association
against Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals and therefore, the contract would bind him even
though his freedom of association is restricted.
(d) The employment contract infringes Syed Monirul Alam's freedom to decide with
whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.
157. If Parliament enacts a law which requires every employee to join the largest
trade union in their workplace mandating Syed Monirul Alam to join GMS, then:
(a) Such a law would merely govem private action to which fundamental rights do
not apply.
(b) Such a law would not curtail any individual's right to freedom of association.
(c) Neither the employment contract, nor the law of the parliament would be
enforceable as they would curtail the freedom of association.
(d) The law of parliament would violate an individual's freedom not to join any
association and therefore be unconstitutional.
158. If Parliament enacts a law that requires a trade union to open its membership
to all the employees, then
(a) Such a law would not infringe any fundamental right to freedom of association.
(b) The law of the parliament would curtail an individual's right not to join any
association.
(c) Such a law would curtail the union members' right to decide with whom they
would like to associate.
(d) Such a law would render the employment contract offered by Gajodhar
Pharmaceuticals to Syed Monirul Alam unenforceable.
159. If Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals enter into an agreement with GMS wherein the
former agrees to hire only the existing members of GMS as employees, then:
(a) The agreement would be illegal as it would curtail the union members' right to
decide with whom they would like to associate.
(b) Such an agreement would infringe the union's right to decide with whom to
associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.
(c) The agreement would not be enforceable as it would infringe upon the employer's
right not to join an association.
(d) The constitutionality of this agreement cannot be contested on grounds of
contravention of fundamental rights as such rights are not applicable to private
persons.
160. If Parliament enacts a legislation prohibiting strikes by trade unions of

employees engaged in pharmaceutical industry, then:
(a) The legislation would not violate the right to freedom of association.
(b) The legislation would curtail the right of trade unions to strike, and therefore
violate freedom of association.
(c) Since strike is only one of the objectives with which u trade union is fonned,
right to strike is not protected by the right to freedom of association.
94
Rule: Whoever finds an unattended object can keep it unless the true owner claims
that object. This does not affect the property owner's right to the ownership of the
property on whicit the object is found. The right to ownership of a property does not
include the right to ownership of unattended objects on that property.
Facts: Elizabeth is the CEO of a global management services company in Chcnnai

and is on her way to Ranchi to deliver the convocation address at India's leading
business school on the outskirts of Ranchi. Flying business class on Dolphin
Airlines, she is entitled to use the lounge owned by the airline in Chennai Airport
while waiting for her flight. She finds a diamond ear-ring on the floor of the lounge
and gives it to the staff of Dolphin Airlines expressly stating that in the event of
nobody claiming the ear-ring within six months, she would claim it back. The airline
sells the ear-ring after eight months and Elizabeth files a case to recover the value of
the ear-ring from the airline when she is informed about its sale.
161. As a judge you would order that:

(a) Elizabeth is not entitled to compensation because the ear-ring was found on
the property of the airline and therefore, the airline is entitled to sell it.
(b) The airline must compensate Elizabeth because owning the lounge does not
give the airline the right over all things that might be found on it.
(c) The airline must compensate Elizabeth because while accepting the ear-ring
from Elizabeth they had agreed to return it if nobody claimed it within six
months.
(d) Elizabeth is not entitled to compensation because she did not claim the ear-
ring after the expiry of six months and the airline waited for a couple more
months before selling it.
162. Assume now that Elizabeth was only an economy class passenger and was not
entitled to use the airline's lounge. However, she manages to gain entry and finds
the ear-ring in the lounge. The rest of the above facts remain the same. Will her
illegal entry into the Lounge affect Elizabeth's right to keep the ear-ring (or be
compensated for its value)?
(a) Yes, the airline claims that Elizabeth's entry into the lounge was illegal and
therefore she has no right over anything she found there
(b) No, because Elizabeth's class of travel has no bearing on the Outcome in
this case
(c) Cannot be determined as we need to know how Elizabeth was able to access
the airline's lounge.
163. To the original fact scenario, the following fact is added: In the lounge there
are numerous signboards which proclaim 'Any unattended item will be
confiscated by Dolphin Airlines'. In this case, you would:
(a) Order the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the board in
the lounge cannot grant property rights over unattended objects to the airline.
(b) Deny Elizabeth compensation because the signboard makes it evident that
the airline, as owner of the lounge, is exercising all rights over all unattended
items in the lounge and the ear-ring is one such item.
(c) Deny Elizabeth compensation because she knew any unattended item
belonged to the airline.
(d) Order the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the property
rights of the airline are relevant only if the item is unattended. The moment
Elizabeth found the earring, it belonged to her.
95
Problem 3 (For Questions 164 to 168)
Rules A: The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the
grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status,
disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.
Rule B: Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more
prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than
another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.
Rule C: Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which

is neutral on the face of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status
or a characteristic associated with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular
disadvantage compared with other persons.
Rule D: Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely

necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as
women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.
Facts:
On 2" October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all
women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to
mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.
164. Which of the following is correct with respect to the Governor's order?
(a) It discriminates directly on the ground of sex.
(b) It discriminates indirectly on the ground of sex.
(c) It does not discriminate oil the ground of sex.
(d) It discriminates directly as well as indirectly on tile ground of sex.
165. Is the govcrnur's oiderjustiflied under Rule D?

(a) Yes, because it is for the well-being of women prisoners.
(b) No because it is not absolutely necessary for the well-being of+vomen
prisoners.
(c) No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners or the
society.
166. Assume that the Governor also made a second order requiring the release of all
persons under the age of 25 and over the age of 65 who were serving a sentence of
less than one year's imprisonment. Under the Rules, this order is:
(a) Directly discriminatory.
(b) Indirectly discriminatory.
(c) Not discriminatory.
(d) Discriminatory, butjustifiable.
167. Assume further that the government made a third order, releasing all graduate
prisoners who are serving a sentence of less than one year's imprisonment. Which of
the following statistics would have to be true for this order to be indirectly
discriminatory?
(a) Only 13% of the prison population in Bihar have a graduation degree.
(b) Of the graduate prisoners. 89% belong to upper castes.
(c) Only 25% women in Bihar get a graduation degree.
(d) All of the above.
96
Rule E: 'A discriminatory act shall be justified if its effect is to promote the well-
being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual
minorities or disabled persons.'
168. Would the first Order of release of all women prisoners be justified under
Rule E? (a) Yes because it promotes the well-being, of women.
(b) No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners
(c) No, because it does not promote the well-being of all disadvantaged
groups equally.

Rules:
A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a
guardian administers the minor's property the age of majority is twenty-one.
B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a
minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not
enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other
party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.
C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or
confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable
from the minor unless the otherparty was deceived by the minor lo hand over
money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that (he minor
misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and
that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.
Facts
Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged IR that she should sell her land to him.
Bandita's mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the
permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid
in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming
that Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to
Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money
from Bandita.
169. Chaaru is justified in challenging the sale transaction because:

(a) Bandita is of unsound mind and is not in a position to make rational
decisions.
(b) Though Bandita is eighteen year old, she will be treated as a minor, as
Chaaru is her guardian.
(c) Though Bandita is eighteen year old, she cannot sell the land without the
permission of her mother.
(d) Though Bandita is eighteen year old she should not be treated like a
person who has attained the age of majority.
170. Ajay can be allowed to recover the money only if he can show that:
(a) He was deceived by Bandita who misrepresented her age.
(b) He honestly believed that Bandita was empowered under the law to sell the
land.
(c) He was an honest person who had paid the full price of the land to
Bandita.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
97
171. In order to defend the sale, Bandita will need to show that
(a) Bandita has attained the age of majority.
(b) Bandita is mature enough to make rational decisions regarding her own
affairs.
(c) The sale transaction was beneficial to her interest and will enhance her
financial status.
172. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Ajay should be allowed to recover the money because even though there is
no contract, Bandita and Chaaru should not be allowed to unjustly benefit
from Ajay's money.
(b) Ajay should be allowed the possession of the land because Chaaru can
always decide to approve the transaction between Ajay and Bandita.
(c) Ajay should not be allowed to recover because he induced Bandita, a
minor; to sell the land.
173. Which of the following is correct?

(a) If Ajay is allowed to recover the money, that will defeat the law framed for
protecting the minors against fraudulent persons.
(b) If Ajay is not allowed to recover that will cause him injustice as he has not
paid oil' the entire sale price.
(c) If Ajay is allowed to recover, Chaaru will benefit from both the money and
the land.

Rules
A. The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is
called coercion.
B. The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that
person is called undue influence.
C. In order to prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and
manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so
threatened can refuse to abide by the contract.
D. In order to prove undue-influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship
between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature
that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has
been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce
the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.
Facts
Aadil and Baalu are best friends. Aadil is the son of multi millionaire business
person, Chulbal who owns Maakhan Pharmaceuticals. Baalu is the son of a bank
employee, Dhanraj. One day, Aadil is abducted from his office by Baalu. Chulbul
receives a phone call from Dhamaj telling him that if he does not make Baalu the CEO
of NIaakhan Pharmaceuticals, Aadil will be killed. Chulbul reluctantly agrees to make
the Baalu the CEO. Subsequently Chulbul and Baalu sign an employment contract.
However as soon as Aadil is released and safely returns home, Chulbul tells Baala
that he shall not enforce the employment contract. Baalu and Dhanraj are not sure as
to what is to be done next.
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174. As per the rules and the given facts, who coerces whom:
(a) Aadil coerces Baalu.
(b) Baalu coerces Chulbul.
(c) Dhanraj coerces Chulbul
175. In the above fact situation:

(a) There is undue influence exercised by Dhanraj on Baalu.
(b) There is undue influence exercised by Aadil on Chulbul.
(c) There is no undue influence.
176. Chulbul is:

(a) Justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Chulbul was
coerced by Dhanraj.
(b) Justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was
complicit in the coercive act
(c) Not juslilied in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was
an innocent person and has not coerced Chulbul.
(d) Both a) and b).
177. Baalu will succeed in getting the employment contract enforced if he can show
that
(a) He is the best friend of Aadil
(b) It was his father, and not he, who used coercion against Chulbul.
(c) Chulbul has promised his father to employ him.
Problem 6 (For questions 178 to 181
Rule A: When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be
the same for all those who are affected by it.
Facts
100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh.
Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are
trapped under heavy snow. The government received information of this tragedy only
two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send
rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular
region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two
weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region
impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five
rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and
requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such
altitudes.
As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is
convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50
people to die.
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178. If you were the judge required to apply Rule A, you would decide that:
(a) As many lives must be saved as possible.
(b) If everyone cannot be rescued, then everyone must be left behind.
(c) A measure cannot be upheld at the cost of 50 lives.
(d) It must be left to those who are trapped to decide if they want half amongst
them to be saved and leave the rest to die.
Rule B: When a State undertakes any measure, everyone affected must have an
equal chance to benefit from it.
179. As the government prepares to send in rescue helicopters, which option would
be acceptable only under Rule B and not Rule A:
(a) A lottery to choose the 50 survivors excluding those diagnosed with
terminal illnesses from participating in the lottery.
(b) A lottery to decide the 50 survivors with single parents of children below
five years of age automatically qualifying to be rescued.
(c) The 50 youngest people should be rescued.
(d). None of the above.
180. Choosing 50 survivors exclusively by a lottery would be:

(a) Permissible under Rules A and B.
(b) Impermissible under Rule A and B.
(c) Permissible only under Rule B.
(d) Permissible only under Rule A.
181. If the government decides that it will either save everyone or save none, it would
be:
(a) Permissible under Rules A and B.
(b) Impermissible under Rules A and B.
(c) Permissible only under Rule A.
(d) Permissible only under Rule B.

Rules
A. A person is an employee of another if the mode and the manner in which he or
she carries out his work is subject to control and supervision of the latter.
B. An employer is required to provide compensation to his or her employees for any
injury caused by an accident arising in the course of employment. The words
'in the course of the employment' means in the course of the work which the
employee is contracted to do and which is incidental to it.
Facts
Messrs. ZafarAbidi and Co. (Company) manufactures bidis with the help of persons
known as `pattadars'. The pattadars are supplied tobacco and leaves by the Company
and are required to roll them into bidis and bring the bidis back to the Company. The
pattadars are free to roll the bidis either in the factory or anywhere else they prefer.
They are not bound to attend the factory for any fixed hours of work or for any fixed
number of days. Neither are they required to roll up any fixed number of bidis. The
Company verifies whether the bidis adhere to the specified instructions or not and pays
the pattadars on the basis of the number of bidis that are found to be of right quality.
Aashish Mathew is one of the pattadars of the Company. He was hit by a car just
outside the precinct of the factory while he was heading to have lunch in a nearby food-
stall. Aashish Mathew has applied for compensation from the Company.
100
182. Which of the following statements can most plausibly be inferred from the
application of the rules to the given facts:
(a) Aashish Mathew is an employee of the Company because the latter exercises
control over the manner in which Aashish Mathew carries out his work.
(b) Aashish Mathew is not an employee but an independent contractor as he
does not have a fixed salary.
(c) Aashish Mathew is an employee because the Company exercises control over
the final quality of the bidis.
(d) Verification of the quality of bidis amounts to control over the product and
not control over the mode and method of work and therefore, Aashish Mathew
is not an employee of the Company.
183. In case the patladars were compulsorily required to work in the factory for a
minimum number of hours every day, then it would be correct to state that:
(a) The injury was not caused by an accident in the course of employment
(b) Aashish Mathew would not be an employee as the Company would have still
not exercised control over the manner of work
(c) The injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held to be one caused
by an accident.
(d) Stipulations on place and hours of work relate to manner and mode of work
and therefore, Aashish Mathew would be held to be an employee of the
Company.
184. According to the facts and the rules specified, which of the following propositions
is correct?
(a) The Company is not liable to pay compensation as the injury to Aashish
Mathew was not caused by an accident arising in the course of
employment.
(b) The Company is liable to pay the compensation.
(c) Since the injury did not arise in the course of employment, the Company
would not be liable to pay the compensation even though Aashish
Mathew is an employee of the company.
(d) The Company is liable to pay the compensation as Aashish Mathew is a
contracted pattadar with the company.
185. Select the statement that could be said to be most direct inference from specified
facts:
(a) The injury to Aashish Mathew did not arise in the course of employment as
he was not rolling bidis at the time when he was hit by the car.
(b) Since the Ashish Mathew is a contracted pattadar with the Company, it
shall be presumed that the injury was caused by an accident in the course
of employment.
(c) Since there was no relationship of employment between Aashish Mathew
and the Company, the injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held
to be one arising in the course of employment' notwithstanding the fact that
the concerned injury was caused while he was involved in an activity
incidental to his duties.
(d) As the concerned injury was caused to Aashish Mathew while he was
involved in an activity incidental to his duties, the injury did arise in the
course of employment.
186. If the pattadars were compulsorily required to work in the factory for a minimum
number of hours every day, then the Company would have been liable to pay
compensation to Aashish Mathew if the latter:
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(a) Had been assaulted and grievously hurt by his neighbour inside the factory
precincts over a property dispute.
(b) Had slipped and fractured his arm while trying to commute on a city bus
from his home to the factory.
(c) Had been injured while commuting on a bus provided by the Company and
which he was required by his contract to use every day.
(d) Had been caught in the middle of a cross-fire between police and a gang of
robbers while travelling to work on a city bus.

Rules:
A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any
person without that person's consent, moves that property out of his or her
possession, is said to commit theft.
B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to
another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing
criminal damage.
C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property.
Facts:
Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was
ill and therefore bed-ridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate
any noise and it 'became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a
cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there.
There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room.
Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she
said yes. Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting
and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting
in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn't want this old
painting back, especially because it was Im in several places and the colour was
fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the
wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old, masterpiece, and worth
twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain
sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional
restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half
Lucky's neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the
motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window
into Lucky's room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his
house.
187. Has Lucky committed theft?

(a) Yes, Lucky has committed theft of the newspapers and the painting.
(b) No, Lucky has not committed theft because he had Veena's consent.
(c) Yes, Lucky has committed theft of the painting, but not of the newspapers.
(d) No, Lucky has not committed theft because he has not moved the painting out
of Veena's possession.
188. Is Lucky guilty of criminal damage?

(a) No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he did not intentionally impair the
value of the painting.
(b) Yes, Lucky is guilty of criminal damage as he intentionally stuck the paper on to
the painting
(c) No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he does not have the painting in
his possession anymore.
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(d) No, Lucky is not guilty of Criminal damage as he has not destroyed the
painting.
189. If Lucky had discovered the painting before leaving Indira's house rather than
at the rubbish dump, would lie have been guilty of theft in this case'?
(a) Yes, he would be guilty of theft of the newspapers and the paintings.
(b) No, he would not be guilty of theft.
(c) Yes, lie would be guilty of theft of the painting.
190. Is Kamala guilty of theft'?
(a) No, Kamala is not guilty of theft since the person she took the painting from
(Lucky) was not its lawful owner.
(b) No, Kamala is not guilty of theft since she took the painting only with the
motive of returning it to Indira.
(c) Yes, Kamala is guilty of theft as she took the painting out of Lucky's
possession without his consent.
191. Which of the following propositions could be inferred from the facts and the
rules specified,
(a) Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as the person she took the painting from
(Lucky) was not its lawful owner.
(b) Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as she took the painting without Lucky's
consent.
(c) Kamala is not guilty of criminal damage as the painting has not been
completely destroyed.
Problem 9 [For questions 192-195

Rules:
A. When land is sold, all `fixtures' on the land are also deemed to have been
sold.
B. If a moveable thing is attached to the land or any building on the land, then
it becomes a 'fixture'.
Facts:
Khaleeda wants to sell a plot of land she owns in Baghmara, Meghalaya and the sale
value decided for the plot includes the fully-furnished palatial six-bedroom house
that she has built on it five years ago. She sells it to Garret for sixty laky rupees.
After completing the sale, she removes the expensive Iranian carpet which used to
cover the entire wooden floor of one of the bedrooms. The room had very little light
and Khalid used this light-colored radiant carpet to negate some of the darkness in
the room. Garret, after moving in, realizes this and files a case to recover the carpet
from Khalid.
192. As a judge you would decide in favour of:

(a) Garret because when the price was agreed upon, Khalid did not inform
her about removing the carpet.
(b) Garret because the carpet was integral to the floor of the bedroom and
therefore attached to the building that was sold.
(c) Khalid because a fully-furnished house does not entail the buyer to
everything in the house.
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(d) Khalid because by Virtue of' being a carpet it was never permanently
fixed to the floor of the building.
Assume that in the above fact scenario, Khalid no longer wants the carpet. She
removes the elaborately carved door to the house after the sale has been concluded
and claims that Garret has no claim to the door. The door in question was part of
Khaleeda's ancestral home in Nagercoil, Tamil Nadu for more than 150 years before
she had it fitted as the entrance to her Baghmara house.
193. As a judge you would decide in favour of.

(a) Khaleeda because while the rest of the building belongs to Khaleeda
exclusively, the door is ancestral property and therefore the decision to sell it
cannot be Khaleeda's alone.
(b) Gurpreet because the door is an integral part of the building as it is
attached to it.
(c) Khaleeda because the door can be removed from the buildittg and is
therefore not attached to it.
(d) Gurpreet because the contract is explicitly for the whole house and since
the door is part of house, it cannot be removed subsequent to the sale.
194. Amongst the following options, the most relevant consideration while deciding a
case on the basis of the above two principles would be:
(a) Whether the moveable thing was included in the sale agreement.
(b) Whether the moveable thing was merely placed on the land or building
(c) Whether the moveable thing had become an inseparable part of the
land or building.
(d) Whether the moveable thing could be removed.
195. Rule C: If a moveable thing is placed on land with the intention that it should
become an integral part of the land or any structure on the land it becomes a
fixture.
Applying, Rules A and C, to the fact situations in questions 192 and 193, as a judge
you would decide in favour of:
(a) Khaleeda in both situations.
(b) Gurpreet only in 192.
(c) Khaleeda only in 193.
(d) Gurpeet in both situations.
Problem 10 [For questions 196-200
Rule A: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she
desires. The owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it.
Rule B: Rights above the laud extend only to the point they are essential to any use
or enjoyment of land.
Rule C: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above
his or her land is put to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the
owner would have to reasonable use of it and it does not affect the reasonable
enjoyment of his or her land.
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Ramesh's case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra
Pradcsh. The Govemment of India launches its satellites into space frequently from
Sriharikota, near Sullurpcla. The Government of India does not deny that once the
satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 kilometres it passes over
Ramesh's properly. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has
violated his property rights by routing its satellite over his property, albeit 7000
kilometres directly above it.
196. Applying only Rule A to Ramesh's case, as a judge you would decide:
(a) In favour of the Government of India because the transgression waz at a
height at which Ramesh could not possibly have any use for.
(b) That ownership of land does not mean that the owner's right extends
infinitely into space above the land.
(c) In favour of Ramesh because he has the right to infinite space above the
land he owns
(d) In favour of the Government of India because it would lead to the absurd
result that Ramesh and most other property owners would have a claim
against airline companies and other countries of the world whose satellites
orbit the earth.
Shazia's case: Shazia owns a single storeyed house in Ahmedabad which has been
in her family for more than 75 years. The foundation of the house cannot support
another floor and Shazia has no intention of demolishing her family home to
construct a bigger building. Javed and Sandeep are business partners and own
three storey houses on either side of Shazia's house. Javed and Sandeep are also
Ahmedabad's main distributors for a major soft drinke company. They have erected
a huge hoarding advertising their products, with the ends supported on their roofs
but the hoarding also passes over Shazia's house at 70 feet and casts a permanent
shadow on her terrace. Shazia decides to hoist a huge Indian flag, going up to 75
feet, on her roof. She files a case, asking the court to order Javed and Sandeep to
remove the hoarding for all these reasons.
197. Applying only Rule B to Shazia's case, you would decide in favour of
(a) Javed and Sandeep because Shazia can easily hoist a flag below 70 feet.
(b) Shazia because she has the right to put her land to any use and the court
catmot go into her intentions for hoisting a flag at 75 feet.
(c) Shazia because she has the absolute right to the space above her land.
(d) Javed and Sandeep because hoisting a flag 75 feet above one's roof is not
essential to the use and enjoyment of the land.
198. Applying only Rules A and B to Shazia's case, you would decide:
(a) In favour of Shazia only under Rule A.
(b) In favour of Shazia under Rule A as well as B.
(c) Against Shazia under Rule B.
(d) Against Shazia under Rule A as well as B.
199. Applying only Rule B and C to Ramesh's case, you would decide:
(a) In favour of Ramesh only under Rule B.
(b) In favour of Ramesh under Rule B as well
as C. (c) Against Ramesh under Rule C.
(d) Against Ramesh under Rule B as well as C.
200. Applying Rule C to Shazia's case, you would decide:
(a) In her favour because hoisting a 75 feet high flag is reasonable.
(b) Against her because hoisting a 75 feet high flag is not reasonable.
(c) Against her because the hoarding is a reasonable use of the space above her
land.
(d) In her favour because the permanent shadow cast by the hoarding affects the
reasonable enjoyment of her land.
105
Test Booklet No.
Common Law Admission Test 2012
Test Booklet Series A
UNDERGRADUATE ADMISSIONS
Time: 3 p.m. to 5 p.m. (2 hours) Maximum Marks: 200
Roll Number:
1. Before using the test booklet and OMR answer sheet, check them for any defect
like misprint, fudging of print, missing pages/questions/circles etc. and ask for a
replacement.
2. No second test booklet or OMR answer sheet shall be provided except in a
situation mentioned under instruction 1 above.
3. Enter you Roll Number, Test Booklet Series and Test Booklet Number in the space
provided on OMR answer sheet with Ball Point Pen only and shade the relevant
circles with HB Pencil only.
4. There are 200 multiple-choice type questions. Each question carries one mark.
Each question has four choices of answer. Select the most appropriate answer and
shade the corresponding circle in the OMR sheet with HB Pencil only. If more than
one circle is shaded, the answer shall be deemed as wrong. There is no negative
marking for wrong answers.
5. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each question or a set of
questions. Read them carefully before answering.
6. Possession of any kind of electronic gadget in the examination hall is strictly
prohibited. Possession and/or use of any such gadget shall disqualify the
candidate.
7. In case of any malpractice or attempt to resort to any malpractice, which includes
talking to neighbours, copying or using unfair means etc., the Centre
Superintendent shall seize the material, if any, and expel the candidate.
8. First bell will be rung 20 minutes before the commencement of the test. As soon
as the first bell rings the candidate shall write his/her roll no. at the places
prescribed, which shall be checked and signed by the Invigilator on duty. Second
bell at 3 pm will indicate the commencement of the test. A one hour bell will go off
at 4 pm. The fourth bell will be rung 10 minutes before the end of the test. A Fifth
long bell will indicate the end of test at 5 pm.
9. No candidate shall be permitted to leave the Examination Hall before 5 pm.
10. The candidates are required to surrender the test Booklet to the Invigilator before
leaving.
11. Total Number of Pages in the test Booklet is 32 including blank pages for rough
work.
Signature of Centre Superintendent
106
ENGLISH
Instructions (1 to 10): Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that
follow.
The work which Gandhiji had taken up was not only regarding the achievement of
political freedom but also the establishment of a new social order based on truth and
non-violence, unity and peace, equality and universal brotherhood and maximum
freedom for all. This unfinished part of his experiment was perhaps even more difficult to
achieve than the achievement of political freedom. In the political struggle, the fight was
against a foreign power and all one could do was either join it or wish it success and give
it his/her moral support. In establishing a social order on this pattern, there was a
strong possibility of a conflict arising between diverse groups and classes of our own
people. Experience shows that man values his possessions even more than his life
because in the former he sees the means for perpetuation and survival of his
descendants even after his body is reduced to ashes. A new order cannot be established
without radically changing the mind and attitude of men towards property and, at some
stage or the other, the 'haves' have to yield place to the 'have-nots'. We have seen, in our
time, attempts to achieve a kind of egalitarian society and the picture of it after it was
achieved. But this was done, by and large, through the use of physical force.
In the ultimate analysis it is difficult, if not impossible, to say that the instinct to possess
has been rooted out or that it will not reappear in an even worse form under a different
guise. It may even be that, like a gas kept confined within containers under great
pressure, or water held back by a big dam, once the barrier breaks, the reaction will one
day sweep back with a violence equal in extent and intensity to what was used to
establish and maintain the outward egalitarian form. This enforced egalitarianism
contains, in its bosom, the seed of its own destruction.
The root cause of class conflict is possessiveness or the acquisitive instinct. So long as
the ideal that is to be achieved is one of securing the maximum material satisfaction,
possessiveness is neither suppressed nor eliminated but grows on what it feeds. Nor
does it cease to be possessiveness, whether it is confined to only a few or is shared by
many.
If egalitarianism is to endure, it has to be based not on the possession of the maximum
material goods by a few or by all but on voluntary, enlightened renunciation of those
goods which cannot be shared by others or can be enjoyed only at the expense of others.
This calls for substitution of material values by purely spiritual ones. The paradise of
material satisfaction, which is sometimes equated with progress these days, neither
spells peace nor progress. Mahatma Gandhi has shown us how the acquisitive instinct
inherent in man can be transmuted by the adoption of the ideal of trusteeship by those
who 'have' for the benefit of all those who 'have not' so that, instead of leading to
exploitation and conflict, it would become a means and incentive for the amelioration
and progress of society respectively.
1. According to the passage, egalitarianism will not survive if

(A) It is based on voluntary renunciation
(B) It is achieved by resorting to physical force
(C) Underprivileged people are not involved in its establishment.
(D) People's outlook towards it is not radically changed.
2. According to the passage, why does man value his possessions more than his life?
(A) He has inherent desire to share his possession with others.
(B) He is endowed with the possessive instinct.
(C) Only his possession helps him earn love and respect from his descendants.
(D) Through his possessions he can preserve his name even after his death.
107
3. According to the passage, which was the unfinished part of Gandhi's experiment?
(A) Educating people to avoid class conflict.
(B) Achieving total political freedom for the country
(C) Establishment of an egalitarian society
(D) Radically changing the mind and attitude of men towards truth and non-
violence.
4. Which of the following statements is 'not true' in the context of the passage?
(A) True egalitarianism can be achieved by giving up one's possessions under
compulsion.
(B) Man values his life more than his possessions.
(C) Possessive instinct is a natural desire of human beings
(D) In the political struggle, the fight was against alien rule.
5. According to the passage, true egalitarianism will last only if
(A) It is thrust upon people.
(B) It is based on truth and non-violence.
(C) People inculcate spiritual values instead of material values.
(D) 'Haves' and 'have-nots' live together peacefully
6. According to the passage, people ultimately overturn a social order -------
(A) which is based on coercion and oppression.
(B) which does not satisfy their basic needs
(C) which is based upon conciliation and rapprochement.
(D) which is not congenital to the spiritual values of the people
7. According to the passage, the root cause of class conflict is
(A) The paradise of material satisfaction.
(B) Dominant inherent acquisitive instinct in man.
(C) Exploitation of the 'have-nots' by the 'haves'.
(D) A Social order where the unprivileged are not a part of the establishment.
8. Which of the following statements is 'not true' in the context of the passage?
(A) A new order can be established by radically changing the outlook of people
towards it.
(B) Adoption of the ideal of trusteeship can minimize possessive instinct.
(C) Enforced egalitarianism can be the cause of its own destruction
(D) Ideal of new order is to secure maximum material satisfaction
9. Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from the passage?
(A) A social order based on truth and non-violence alone can help the
achievement of political freedom.
(B) After establishing the social order of Gandhiji's pattern, the possibility of a
conflict
between different classes of society will hardly exist.
(C) It is difficult to change the mind and attitude of men towards property.
(D) In an egalitarian society, material satisfaction can be enjoyed only at the
expense of others.
10. According to the passage, what does "adoption of the ideal of trusteeship" mean?
(A) Equating peace and progress with material satisfaction.
(B) Adoption of the ideal by the 'haves' for the benefit of have-nots.
(C) Voluntary enlightened remuneration of the possessive instinct by the
privileged class.
(D) Substitution of spiritual values by material ones by those who live in the
paradise of material satisfaction.
Instructions (11 to 15): Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.
11. Lethargy
(A) Serenity (B) listlessness (C) impassivity (D) laxity
108
12. Emaciated
(A) tall (B) languid (C) very thin (D) wise
13. Latent
(A) concealed (B) apparent (C) lethargic (D) prompt
14. Sporadic
(A) epidemic (B) whirling (C) occasional (D) stagnant
15. Compendium
(A) summary (B) index (C) reference (D) collection
Instructions (16 to 25): Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.
16. Give an example pertinent ______________ the case.

(A) with (B) on (C) for (D) to
17. My voice reverberated _____________ the walls of the castle.
(A) with (B) from (C) in (D) on
18. The reward was not commensurate _________ the work done by us.
(A) for (B) on (C) with (D) order
19. Our tragic experience in the recent past provides an index _______ the state of
lawlessness in this region.
(A) of (B) in (C) at (D) by
20. Your conduct smacks ___________recklessness.
(A) of (B) with (C) from (D) in
21. A good judge never gropes ____________the conclusion.
(A) to (B) at (C) on (D) for
22. Nobody in our group is a genius _________winning friends and in convincing people.
(A) for (B) in (C) of (D) at
23. If you are averse _________recommending my name, you should not hesitate to
admit it.
(A) about (B) for (C) to (D) against
24. Religious leaders should not delve ________ politics.
(A) in (B) with (C) at (D) into
25. What you say has hardly any bearing ________ the lives of tribals.
(A) about (B) for (C) on (D) with
Instruction (26 to 30): Select the correct meaning of the italicized idioms and phrases
out of the four choices given.
26. He burnt his fingers by interfering in his neighbors affair.
(A) got himself into trouble (B) burnt himself
(C) got himself insulted (D) got rebuked
27. Mr. Gupta, who is one of the trustees of a big charity, is suspected of feathering his
own nest.
(A) being lazy in doing his work (B) being too generous
(C) neglecting his job (D) making money unfairly
28. Mrs. Hashmi has been in the blues for the last several weeks.
(A) abroad (B) unwell (C) depressed (D) penniless
29. For the first week, the apprentice felt like a fish out of water.
(A) frustrated (B) homeless (C) disappointed (D) uncomfortable
30. His friends failed to see why he should ride the high horse just because he had won
an election.
(A) become abnormal (B) appear arrogant
(C) indulge in dreams (D) hate others
109
Instructions (31 to 35): Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first
and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the
middle sentences in the correct sequence.
31.
i. On one hand we are proud of being Indians,
ii. on the other hand we behave as if we were still at the dawn of our civilization
iii. murders of our own brothers and sisters is not the way to please Ram or Rahim
iv. the citizens of the land where Buddha and Gandhi taught
v. the principles of love and non-violence,
vi. nor does it fetch us any prosperity.
(A) ii, iii, iv, v (B) iii, iv, v, ii
(C) iv, v, iii, ii (D) iv, v, ii, iii
32.
i. On the basis of experiments with rats
ii. health experts here say that
iii. exercise more and consume vitamins,
iv. they will live up to 100 years or more
v. if humans eat less,
vi. and be vigorous in their eighties and nineties.
(A) ii, iii, v, iv (B) ii, v, iii, iv
(C) ii, v, iv, iii (D) v, ii, iii, iv
33.
i. The release of atomic energy is the greatest achievement which science has yet
attained
ii. but the first invention to which their discoveries were applied was a bomb
iii. the atom was split by physicists whose minds were set on the search for
knowledge
iv. it was more deadly than any other weapon invented so far
v. it is with dread that scientists regard the first use to which their greatest discovery
was put
vi. however, they are gratified by the numerous applications of atomic energy for
peaceful and constructive population.
(A) ii, iii, iv, v (B) v, iii, ii, iv
(C) iii, ii, iv, v (D) iv, v, iii, ii
34.
i. The problem of food is intimately connected with population
ii. wages will seldom rise in proportion to the rising prices
iii. the market is governed by demand and supply
iv. without enough food, such people lack health, strength of efficiency
v. if too many people demand goods to go round, prices will rise and poor classes will
starve
vi. they fall an easy prey to all sorts of diseases.
(A) iii, v, ii, iv (B) ii, iii, iv, v
(C) iv, ii, v, iii (D) v, iii, iv, ii
35.
i. India's message has always been one of love and peace.
ii. our Buddha was the light of Asia
iii. it has been a source of light and wisdom to the rest of the world
iv. Ashoka, moved by the horrors of Kalinga War, adopted the message of non-
violence
v. the greatest apostle of non-violence in recent years was Mahatma Gandhi
vi. he shook the foundation of the British rule in India through non-violence.
(A) ii, v, iii, iv (B) iv, ii, iii, v
(C) v, iv, iii, ii (D) iii, ii, iv, v
110
Instructions (36 to 40): Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases,
select the correct answer from the four options given below.
36. Mala fide
(A) generous (B) bad intention
(C) trustworthy (D) genuine
37. Tabula rasa
(A) clean slate (B) agitated
(C) deprived (D) creative
38. Carte blanche
(A) slavery (B) complete discretion
(C) anarchy (D) dependent
39. De jure
(A) illegal (B) heir
(C) concerning law (D) forbidden
40. Raison detre
(A) logical conclusion (B) reason for existence
(C) free choice (D) dubious argument
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
41. Who said that, Man is a social animal?

(A) Socrates (B) Aristotle (C) Kahn (D)Plato
42. World Computer Literacy day is celebrated on
(A) November 14 (B) November 3 (C) December 2 (D) July 5
43. Whose teaching inspired the French Revolution?
(A) Rousseau (B) Locke (C) Hegel (D) Wagner
44. The II Africa-India Summit was held in May 2011 in
(A) New Delhi (B)Lagos (C)Nairobi (D) Addis Ababa
45. The famous Akshardham temple is situated in the city of
(A) Jamnagar (B) Gandhinagar (C)Jammu (D) Madurai
46. Who out of the following was the recipient of Dhyan Chand Award in 2011?
(A) Satish Pillai (B) Hukam Singh (C)Shabbir Ali (D) Mukh Bain Singh
47. Name the annual fair of Rajasthan that is famous for its camel trading event.
(A) Maru Mela (B) Pushkar Mela (C)Suraj Kund Mela (D) Sonepur Mela
48. The 38th G-8 summit will be held in 2012 in
(A) USA (B)UK (C) Germany (D) Canada
49. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for literature in 2011?
(A) Paul Lauterbur (B) Bill Clinton (C) Tomas Transtromer (D) Shirin Ebadi
50. Who was awarded the UNESCO King Sejong Literacy Prize in 2011?
(A) Nelson Mandela (B) National Literacy Service, Burundi
(C) Medha Patkar (D) National Literacy Mission, India
51. December 10 is observed as
(A) World Health Day (B) U. N. Day
(C) Red Cross Day (D) Human Rights Day
52. Which is the largest gland in human body?
(A) Pancreas (B) Liver (C) Thyroid (D)Pituitary
53. The book titled The Google Story has been authored by
(A) David A. Vice (B) Shobha Dey (C) Fredrick Forsyth (D)Vikram Seth
111
54. Which strait separates Europe from Africa
(A) Mallaica (B) Gibralter (C) Berring (D) Palk
55. Taiwan was earlier known as
(A) Fuchow (B)Marshall Island (C)Formosa (D) Macau
56. Identify the Indian Tennis player who has turned Hollywood filmmaker?
(A) Vijay Amritraj (B) Mahesh Bhupathi
(C) Leander Paes (D) Ashok Amritraj
57. Where will the next Olympic Games be held in 2012?
(A) Tokyo (B)Berlin (C) London (D)Toronto
58. Which of the following teams has won the Santosh Trophy Football Championship in
2011?
(A) Punjab (B)West Bengal (C) Goa (D) Railways
59. Excess of money supply as compared to supply of goods results in
(A) Depression (B) Deflation (C) Trade deficit (D)Inflation
60. The largest living flightless bird is
(A) Emu (B)Kiwi (C)Ostrich (D)Penguin
61. Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English letter S?
(A) Atlantic (B)Pacific (C)Indian (D)Arctic
62. Which is the longest shipping canal in the world?
(A) Panama Canal (B) Suez Canal
(C) White Sea-Baltic Canal (D) Kiel Canal
63. Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh was a national of
(A) Britain (B)Portugal (C)France (D)Netherlands
64. India became a member of UNO in
(A) 1945 (B)1947 (C)1950 (D) 1952
65. To which country does India export the largest quantity of iron ore?
(A) USA (B)Japan (C) Egypt (D) Germany
66. The longest highway in India runs from
(A) Kolkata to Jammu (B) Shillong to Amritsar
(C) Ambala to Nagercoil (D) Varanasi to Kanyakumari
67. The longest irrigation canal in India is called
(A) Upper Bari Doab Canal (B) Indira Gandhi Canal
(C) Sirhind Canal (D)Yamuna Canal
68. Leukemia is a disease related to
(A) Kidney (B)Throat (C) Blood (D)Eyes
69. In which city was Osama Bin Laden killed in May 2011?
(A) Islamabad (B) Abbottabad (C)Faisalabad (D)Peshawar
70. The XI Five Year Plan envisaged the highest growth in the sector of
(A) Industry (B) Agriculture (C) Services (D)Manufacturing
71. Light year is a unit of
(A) Distance (B) Time (C) Sound (D) Light intensity
72. The IV summit of BRICS was held in New Delhi on
(A) 11th January 2012 (B)1st April 2012
(C) 29 March 2012
th (D)28 February 2012
th
73. An indigenous nuclear submarine still under construction has been named as
(A) Chakra (B) Sudarshan (C) Arihant (D) Ghaatak
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74. Government of India has launched a publicity campaign for census 2011 in
association with which of the following UN organization?
(A) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(B) World Health Organization (WHO)
(C) United Nations Childrens Fund (UNICEF)
(D) United Nations Population Fund (UNPF)
75. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) completed
how many years of operation in 2011?
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 6 years
76. The first ever formula one race in India was held in
(A) Greater Noida (B) New Delhi (C) Faridabad (D) Pune
77. Name the actor who has been honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2012.
(A) Naseerudin Shah (B) Kamal Hasan
(C) Soumitra Chatterjee (D) Amol Paleker
78. In which city was the Arab Summit held in the last week of March 2012?
(A) Bagdad (B) Cairo (C) Beirut (D) Riyadh
79. The two Supreme Court Judges who delivered the famous 2-G judgment in February
2012 were
(A) Justice G.S. Singhvi and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
(B) Justice G.S. Singhvi and Justice A.K. Ganguly
(C) Justice S.H. Kapadia and Justice A.K. Ganguly
(D) Justice Chandramauli Kumar Prasad and Justice H.L. Gokhale
80. Who presides over the joint sitting of both houses of Parliament?
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B)President
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (D) Prime Minister
81. Christian Lagarde heads the
(A) World Bank (B) UNICEF (C )International Monetary Fund (D)WHO
82. The seat of International Criminal Court is at
(A) The Hague (B)Geneva (C) Washington (D) Tokyo
83. First Indian to ski to North Pole is
(A) Arun Nayyar (B) Ajeet Bajaj (C)Sq. Ldr. Sanjay Thapar (D)Neal Paramjeet
84. First woman Director General of Police in India was
(A) Kanchan Choudhary (B) Kavitha Choudhary
(C) Kiran Bedi (D) Aswathy Tonge
85. Which countries co-hosted the One-day cricket World Cup in 2011?
(A) India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka
(B) India, Bangladesh and Pakistan
(C) India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Pakistan
86. Priyanka Chopra has been named National Ambassador of
(A) WHO (B) UNICEF (C)UNESCO (D)International Red Cross Society
87. Who is leading in the Republican primaries to contest the American Presidential
election scheduled in November 2012?
(A) Sara Palin (B) Newt Gingrich (C) Rick Santorum (D) Mitt Romney
88. Supreme Court recently declared Salva Judum unconstitutional. What is Salva
Judam?
(A) A terrorist outfit
(B) An armed civilian group formed to combat Maoists
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(C) A money-chain business
(D) Custom of killing a girl for inter-caste marriage in the name of honour
89. As per the Indian Union Budget of 2012-13, the income-tax exemption limit for
persons below 65 years of age is
(A) Rs. 175000 (B) Rs. 200000 (C) Rs. 250000 (D) Rs.190000
90. The U. N. Climate Change Conference 2011 was held in
(A) New Delhi (B) Doha (C)Durban (D)Geneva
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (NUMERIC ABILITY)
91. P sells a table to Q at a profit of 10% and Q sells it to R at a profit of 12%. If R pays
Rs. 246.40 for it, then how much had P paid for it?
(A) 200.00 (B) 300.00 (C) 248.00 (D) 346.00
92. The least value of x, for which the expression x2+x+17 will not give a prime number,
is
(A) 7 (B) 11 (C)13 (D)17
93. A train 300 meters long is running at a speed of 25 meters per second, it will cross a
bridge 200 meters long in
(A) 5 seconds (B) 10 seconds (C) 20 seconds (D)25 seconds
94. If 0.06% of a number is 84, then 30% of that number is

(A) 25.2 (B) 420 (C) 42000 (D)2520
95. A sum was divided among P, Q & R. R got double than P who got double than Q. If
the difference between the shares of Q and R is Rs. 3675.00, then the sum in rupees
is
(A) 4900 (B) 8575 (C)11025 (D) 7350
96. If the ratio of the areas of two squares is 25:36, then the ratio of their perimeters is
(A) 5:6 (B) 25:36 (C) 6:5 (D) 36:25
97. The denominator of a fraction is greater than its numerator by 11. If 8 is added to
both its numerator and denominator, then it becomes . The fraction is
(A) 25/26 (B) 35/26 (C) 26/35 (D)25/36
98. The value of , where x= 2 +3 and y = 2 - 3, is

(A) 12 (B)16 (C)14 (D)10
99. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, we obtain 27 cm. The radius
of the sphere is
(A) 9 cm. (B ) 81 cm. (C) 27 cm. (D) 24 cm.
100. One-third of one fourth of a number is 12. Then the number is
(A) 96 (B) 144 (C) 108 (D) 36
101. In the number series 4,10,23,50,104,216,439 the wrong number is

(A) 10 (B) 23 (C) 104 (D)50
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102. The price of 2 trousers and 4 shirts is Rs. 1,600. With the same amount one can
buy 1 trouser and 6 shirts. If one wants to buy 12 shirts, he has to pay
(A) Rs. 2400 (B) Rs. 4800 (C) Rs. 1200 (D) Rs. 3700
103. If , the value of is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
104. A dealer buys an article for Rs. 380.00. What price should he mark so that after
allowing a discount of 5% he still makes a profit of 25% on the article?
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 475 (C)Rs. 95 (D)Rs. 465
105. In a factory, the production of scooters rose to 48400 from 40000 in 2 years. The
rate of growth per annum is
(A) 20% (B) 10% (C)30% (D)8%
106. If , then will be

(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 27 (D)7
107. When 16x4+12x3-10x2+8x+20 is divided by 4x-3, the quotient and the remainder
are, respectively
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
108. The sum of two numbers is 2490. If 6.5% of one number is equal to 8.5% of the
other, the numbers are
(A) 1411 and 1079 (B) 1412 and 1080
(C) 1141 and 1709 (D) 1214 and 1800
109. 120 men had food provision for 200 days. After 5 days, 30 men died of an
epidemic. The food will last for further
(A) 280 days (B) 260 days (C)290 days (D) 252 days
110. Out of the total income, X spends 20% on house rent and 70% of the remaining
amount on household expenditure. If X saves Rs. 1800, the total income is
(A) Rs. 8000 (B) Rs. 9500 (C) Rs. 7500 (D) Rs. 8500
LOGICAL REASONING
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Instructions (111 to 116): Given below are some statements followed by two arguments.
Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.
111. Statement: Should the pay scale and conditions of service of government
employees be made applicable to private sector employees?
Arguments:
(i) No, this will develop inertia, inefficiency and would adversely affect spirit of
competition.
(ii) Yes, this will enhance dedication to work and institutional loyalty
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B) Argument (ii) is strong.

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.
112. Statement: Should a strong institution of ombudsman be created in India?
Arguments:
(i) Yes, this will bring transparency and accountability in the administration
(ii) No, this will develop lack of initiative and flexibility in the administration.

113. Statement: Should internal assessment in colleges and universities be abolished?
Arguments:
(i) Yes, this will eliminate the possibility of favoritism.
(ii) No, teaching faculty will lose control over the students and this would adversely
affect their academic growth.

114. Statement: Should military training be made compulsory for all college and
university students?
Arguments:
(i) Yes, this will develop in them a sense of punctuality and discipline
(ii) No, military training should be given only to those students who are physically fit.

115. Statement: Should students union in colleges and universities be abolished?
Arguments:
(i) Yes, it detracts students from academic and career development.
(ii) No, all great leaders have been students union leaders.
(A) Argument (i) is strong. (B)Argument (ii) is strong.

116. Statement: Should the age of marriage be raised to 25 years for boys and 21 for
girls?
Arguments:
(i) No, it is difficult to change a social practice in Indian conditions.
(ii) Yes, by that age people develop a sense of responsibility and also complete their
education.

(C) Both (i) and (ii) are strong. (D)Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.
Instructions (117 to 120): Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of
combination of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
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117. Statements:
(i) X and Y are siblings.
(ii) X and Y do not quarrel.
(iii) Siblings are known to quarrel often.
(iv) X and Y quarrel often.
(v) All those who quarrel are siblings.
(vi) X and Y cannot be siblings.
(A) ii, iv,v (B) i, iv, vi (C) i, iii, iv (D) i, ii, v

118. Statements:
(i) All mangoes are fruits.
(ii) All mangoes are green.
(iii) All mangoes are oval shaped.
(iv) All fruits are sweet.
(v) All mangoes are sweet.
(vi) All fruits are expensive.
(A) i, ii, iii (B) i, iv, v (C) ii, iii, iv (D) iv, v, vi
119. Statements:
(i) All frogs are amphibians.
(ii) All amphibians are not frogs.
(iii) All amphibians are cold blooded.
(iv) All frogs lay eggs.
(v) All amphibians lay eggs.
(vi) Frogs are cold blooded.
(A) i, iii, vi (B) i, iv, v (C) i, ii, v (D)ii, v, iv

120. Statements:
(i) Some men are of short- height.
(ii) Short-heighted men are intelligent.
(iii) Sudhir is a man.
(iv) Sudhir is of short-height.
(v) Sudhir is intelligent.
(vi) All men are intelligent.
(A) i, ii, vi (B) iii, iv, ii (C) ii, iv, v (D) ii, iv, vi
Instructions (121 to 123): Of the four alternatives given in each of the following
questions, find the one which is different from the rest.
121.
(A) Fast-Slow (B) Bright-Dark (C) Day-Night (D) Valley-Depth
122.
(A ) Body-Hand (B) Foot-Ankle (C) Eye-Ear (D) Wrist-Finger
123.
(A) Snake-Frog (B) Goat-Hen (C) Dog-Cat (D) Tiger-Deer
Instructions (124-126): Each question below has two statements followed by four
conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to accept the given statements to be true, even if
they appear to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements:
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124. Statement One: All girls are students.
Statement Two: All doctors are students.
Conclusions:
I. All girls are students.
II. Some students are girls.
III. Some students are doctors.
IV. All doctors are girls.
(A) Only I follows.

(B) Only I and II follows.
(C) Only II and IV follow.
(D) Only I and II and III follows.
125. Statement One: All researchers are sociologists

Statement Two: Some researchers are professors.
Conclusions:
I. All researchers are professors.
II. Some researchers are professors.
III. Some professors are sociologists.
IV. Some sociologists are researchers.
(A) Only III and II follow.

(B) Only II and IV follow.
(C) Only III follows.
(D) None follows.
126. Statement One: Some democracies are dictatorship.
Statement Two: No dictatorship is a monarchy.
Conclusions:
I. No democracy is a monarchy.
II. No dictatorship is a democracy.
III. Some democracies are monarchy.
IV. Some dictatorships are democracies.
(A) None follows

(B) Only IV follows.
(C) II and III follow.
(D) I and IV follow.
Instructions (127 to 129): The following questions comprise of one or more statements.
Answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Accept the factual
assumptions required by the question, even if you believe that the statement is false.
127. Statements:
I. Cheese is bad for people with high-cholesterol.
II. Sumeet does not eat cheese.
Assuming that (i) and (ii) are true, which of the following statement follows?
(A) Sumeet has high-cholesterol.
(B) Cheese is bad for Sumeet.
(C) People with high-Cholesterol do not eat cheese.
128. Statement:
I. Democrats are secularists.
false?
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(A) My father is a secularist but he is not a democrat.
(B) My father is a democrat but he is not secularist.
(C) My father is a democrat and he is secularist.
(D) My father is neither a democrat nor a secularist.
129. Statement:
Where there is a cloud, there is a rain. Which of the following statements, if true,
would show that the above statement is false?
(A) Sometimes there is cloud, but there is no rain.
(B) Sometimes there is rain, but there is no cloud.
(C) There is no rain where there is no cloud.
Instructions (130 to 132):

Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions.
Four friends W, X, Y and Z are students of Class 10th. W and X are good in Hindi but
poor in English. W and Y are good in Science but poor in Mathematics. Y and Z are good
in English but poor in Social Studies. Z and X are good in Mathematics as well as in
Science.
130. Who amongst the following friends is not good in Mathematics but good in Hindi?
(A) W (B)Y (C) X (D) Z
131. Which of the following pairs of friends are good, both in English and Science?
(A) W and Y (B)W and Z (C) Y and Z (D)Z and X
132. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(A) Y and Z are good in English as well as in Hindi
(B) All four friends are good in Science
(C) W is good in Social Studies, Hindi and Science
(D) Y is not good in Mathematics, Hindi and Social Studies
Instructions (133 to 135): Select the statement which logically follows the two given
statements.
133. Statements:
I No athletes are vegetarians.
II All players are athletes.
III Therefore -----------------------
(A) no players are vegetarians (B) all players are vegetarian
(C) some players are vegetarian (D) all vegetarians are players
134. Statements :
I All persons who have done any creative work can be responsible critics
II Z has not done any creative work
III Therefore --------------------------
(A) Z can be a responsible critic (B) Z cannot be a responsible critic
(C) Z can become a responsible critic (D) Z cannot become a responsible critic
135. Statement:
I One who has squared a circle is not a mathematician
II Therefore -----------------------
(A) No one who has squared a circle is a mathematician
(B) All non-mathematicians have squared a circle
(C) Some mathematicians have squared a circle
(D) All mathematicians square a circle
136. Statement: The Supreme Court of India is encouraging Public Interest Litigation
Reasons:
I To increase the reach of justice to the disadvantaged sections of society
II To quicken the pace of Justice
Identify the correct reason for the aforementioned statement.
119
(A) Both I and II are correct reasons of the statement
(B) I is the correct reason of the statement
(C) Both I and II are not correct reasons of the statement
(D) II is the correct reason of the statement
137. Yoga has become a very popular exercise, but it may not be for everyone. If you are
interested in high energy and fast workouts, yoga may not be the best choice.
Therefore, evaluate your fitness requirement before joining yoga classes.
This paragraph best supports the statement that:
(A) Yoga is more popular than high energy exercise
(B) Yoga is changing the concept of fitness in various ways
(C) Before opting for Yoga, assess your fitness requirements
(D) Yoga is a holistic fitness regime
138. Statistics allows us to understand the reality. It indicates developmental directions.
Statistics is good for exposing reality, but it can also be manipulated to perpetuate
untruth and misunderstanding. Data has power to mislead people.
(A) Words are more truthful than numbers
(B) Study of statistics is more important than any other discipline
(C) Numbers never lie
(D) Numbers can be used to mislead people.
139. Technology has developed out of stone tools which were used in ancient times. At
first, development of new technology was slow, but after neo-liberal economic policy
was adopted there has been a tremendous growth in technology sector.
(A) Stone tools were not really technology
(B) Stone tools were in use in Ancient India
(C) Today new technologies are developing at a fast pace
(D) New technology has nothing in common with the stone tools
Instructions (140 to 144): Given below is a pair of events I and II. You have to decide
their nature of relationship. Assume that the given information is correct and final.
140.
I Prices of toys in the market have gone down
II Government has reduced import duty on toys.
(A) I is the main cause and II is the main effect
(B) I is effect but II is not the main cause
(C) II is the main cause and I is the main effect
(D) II is an effect but I is not the main cause.
141.
I Inflation rate in India has come down
II Reserve Bank of India has increased interest rate.
(D) II is an effect but I is not the main cause
142.
I More and more students are opting for legal education
II Bar Council of India has introduced Bar Examination
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143.
I Sea level is steadily rising
II Global Warming is a serious problem which the world is facing
144.
I Financial Institutions are largely unregulated
II Today, world is passing through a serious phase of economic crisis
145. An argument is given below, on the basis of that argument; find out the parallel
argument from the given list of subsequent arguments
Argument: Himalayan Sparrows are disappearing. This bird is an Indian bird;
therefore, Indian birds are disappearing.
Subsequent Arguments:
(A) Industrialists pay most of the taxes. Z is a wealthy man therefore Z must pay
most taxes
(B) A pineapple is a fruit, a mango is a fruit therefore pineapple is a mango
(C) Snow tigers are an endangered species; all endangered species must be protected;
therefore snow-tiger must be protected
(D) John is his fathers favorite son, and John knows this must be true because his
father told him this; and no father would lie to his favorite son
Instructions (146 to 149): Each question below is followed by arguments. Choose the
most appropriate choice from the options given
146. Question: Should Judicial Activism be discouraged?
Argument I: No, it would lead to executive dictatorship
Argument II: Yes, Judiciary should stay in the constitutional limits
(A) Argument I is strong (B) Argument II is strong
(C) Both the arguments are strong (D) Both the arguments are weak
147. Question: Should the Judiciary be independent of Executive and Legislature?
Argument I: Yes, this is necessary to ensure impartiality in the administration of
Justice
Argument II: No, it will develop inertia in Executive and Legislature
148. Question: Should E-Governance be introduced at every level of public
administration?
Argument I: Yes, it will reduce corruption
Argument II: No, it will lead to unemployment
(A)Argument I is strong (B) Argument II is strong
149. Question: Should there be a world Government?
Argument I: Yes, it will eliminate inter-state conflicts
Argument II: No, Rich and Powerful countries will dominate it
(C)Both the arguments are strong (D) Both the arguments are weak
150. Some philosophers believe that a concept which cannot be verified can still be valid
because of its inner logic which ennobles it.
In the light of the above statement, decide the status of the statement given below.
121
Statement: Every person has certain inherent and inalienable rights which must
be protected by Rule of Law.
(A) True (B) False (C) Difficult to determine (D) Both True and False
LEGAL APTITUDE
151. Principle: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on
their own. No law made by the State can take away a persons fundamental right.
Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating
the fundamental rights of traders. A group of lawyers files a writ petition
challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the
statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.
(A) No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has no authority to direct
Parliament to enact or re-enact a law
(B) The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct
Parliament to make a new law
(C) The court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot
direct Parliament to make a new law.
(D) None of these
152. Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from
doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or
abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.
Fact: Ramanuj telegraphed to Shyam Sunder, writing: Will you sell me your Rolls
Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price. Shyam Sunder also replied by telegram:
Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh. Ramanuj immediately sent his consent through
telegram stating: I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you. Shyam
Sunder refused to sell the car.
(A) He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made.
(B) He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the
real offer
(C) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent
(D) None of these
153. Principle: Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract
according to the law to which he is subject.
Facts: A minor mortgaged his house in favour of Thakur Das, a money lender, to
secure a loan of Rs. 20000. A part of this, i.e. Rs. 10500 was actually advanced to
him. While considering the proposed advance, the attorney who was acting for the
money lender, received information that the plaintiff was still a minor. Subsequently
the minor commenced an action stating that he was underage when he executed the
mortgage and the same should, therefore, be cancelled. He prayed for setting aside
the mortgage. The mortgagee money lender prayed for the refund of Rs. 10500 from
the minor.
(A) As a minors contract is void, any money advanced to a minor can be recovered.
(B) A minors contract is void ab initio, any money advanced to a minor cannot be
recovered.
(C) A minors contract is voidable; any money advanced to a minor can be recovered
(D) Advanced money can be recovered because minor has given wrong information
about his age.
154. Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract
if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a
rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
122
Facts: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state
of mind, enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind.
Mr. Y having come to know about this fact afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr.
X
(A) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he
entered into contract.
(B) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he
was of unsound state of mind at the time of contract.
(C) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of
sound state of mind at the time of contract
(D) None of these
155. Principle:
(1). The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law and equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India.
(2). The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of
religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth or any of them.
Facts: The Government of Rajasthan, passed an order providing for reservations for
the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Socially and Educationally Backward
Classes (including Muslims), and Women, in all institutions of higher education,
including private educational institutions, both aided as well as unaided, in the
following manner: Scheduled Caste- 15%; Scheduled Tribe- 7.5%, Socially and
Educationally Backward Classes (including Muslims) - 27%
I. The reservation policy of the government is violative of the principle of equality
envisaged in the Constitution
II. The reservation policy is unconstitutional because it is based on caste which is a
prohibited marker
III. Reservation does not violate equality clause as it entails like should be treated
like and unlike should be treated differently.
IV. Reservation does not violate equality clause as the Constitution itself enables the
State to make special provision for the advancement of socially and educationally
backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
(A) I is correct (B) I and II are both correct answers

(C) III is correct answer (D) III and IV both are correct answers
156. Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the
knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal
intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding
other harm to a person or property.
Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault
or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a position that, before he can stop
his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty or thirty passengers
on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that, by changing his
course, he must incur the risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers
on board and which he may possibly clear.
(A) Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity
(B) Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence
(C) Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide
(D) This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible
157. Principle: Willful rash driving is an offense.
Facts: Mr. Tiwari was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for
willful negligent driving. Is the act of the police lawful?
(A) No, because Mr. Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.
(B) No, this is not a negligent act.
(C) Yes, because Mr. Tiwari was driving rashly.
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(D) Yes, because the police has the power to arrest a person driving rashly.
158. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the
possession of any person without that persons consent, moves that property with
an intention to take it, is said to commit theft.
Facts: Y cuts down a tree on Zs ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking it
out of Zs possession without Zs consent. Y could not take away the tree.
(A) Y can be prosecuted for theft
(B) Y cannot be prosecuted for theft
(C) Y can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
(D) Y has neither committed theft nor attempted to commit theft
159. Principle: Injuria Sine Damnum i.e. Injury (violation of legal right) without damage
Facts: X, who was the returning officer at a polling booth in Amethi, wrongly refused
to register a duly tendered vote of Y in the recent UP elections, even though Y was an
eligible voter. The candidate in whose favour Y wanted to vote, was declared elected.
Give the appropriate answer-
(A) Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a
fundamental right.
(B) Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a
legal
right
(C) Y cannot sue X because there is no injury or damage caused to Y
(D) Y cannot sue X because the candidate in whose favor he wanted to vote was
declared
elected.
160. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing
it, by reason of unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the
act, or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.
Fact: X takes his son Y who is three years old, for bathing to the well. He throws his
son inside the well so that the son can have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also
jumps into the well to take bath and get his son out of the well. Both were rescued
by the villagers but his son was found dead.
(A) X has committed culpable homicide amounting to murder
(B) X has committed murder
(C) X has done no offence as he can plead the defense of unsound state of mind
(D) Xs family should be held responsible for allowing him to take the child to the
well
161. Principle: Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse
Fact: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane
landed at the Airport of Bombay on 28 Nov. 1962 it was found on searching that X
carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the
Manifest for Transit. On 26th Nov. 1962 the Government of India had issued a
notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold
must be declared in the Manifest of the aircraft.
(A) X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new
notification issued two days ago
(B) X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable
(C) X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable
(D) Xs liability would depend on the discretion of the court
162. Principle: Proposal (communication) + Acceptance (communication) + Consideration
= Contract. The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the
knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
Facts: Xs nephew absconded from home. He sent his servant in search of the boy.
After the servant had left, X by handbills offered to pay Rs. 501 to anybody finding
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his nephew. The servant came to know of this offer only after he had already traced
the missing child. He, therefore, brought an action to recover the reward.
(A) His action would fail because he was not aware of the offer
(B) His action would not fail because it was a general offer
(C) The fact that he was not aware of the offer does not make any difference and
hence it was a valid contract. It is a mere formality
163. Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or not capable of being
made certain, are void.
Facts: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give Rs.500
more
if the horse is proved lucky.
(A) This is a valid agreement.
(B) This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine
what luck, bad or good, the horse has brought to the buyer.
(C) The agreement is partially valid and partially void.
164. Principle: Mere silence as to the facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to
enter into a contract is not a fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such
that, on close examination it is found to be the duty of the person keeping silent to
speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
Facts: X sells by auction to Y, a horse which X knows to be of unsound state of
mind. X
says nothing to Y about the horses unsound state of mind. Give the correct
answer-
(A) X can be held liable for fraud.
(B) X can be held liable for misrepresentation
(C) X cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the
mental
state of the horse.
(D) X cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things.
165. Principle: Any direct physical interference with goods in somebodys possession
without lawful justification is called trespass of goods.
Facts: Z purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and sent it to a garage
for repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage.
(A) X can be held responsible for trespass of goods
(B) X cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong
belief.
(C) X has not committed any wrong.
Instructions (166 to 180 ): Each of the next nine questions consists of two statements,
one labeled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two
statements carefully and select the correct answers.
166. Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal
Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
167. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949.
Reason (R): Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year.
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168. Assertion (A): The state shall not make any law, which takes away or abridges the
rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights) and any law made in
contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
Reason (R): The fundamental rights are the rights reserved by the people and for
this
reason they are eternal and sacrosanct.
169. Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV shall not be
enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless
fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State
to apply these principles in making laws.
Reason (R): Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are both
complementary to each other but in case of any controversy fundamental rights will
prevail.
170. Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the
right to
establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Reason (R): Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to
governmental aid
and government is not under an obligation to give aid.
171. Assertion (A): The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the
Constitution by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the fundamental
rights is guaranteed as a fundamental right.
Reason (R): Supreme Court of India has been appointed as the guardian of the
Constitution.
172. Assertion (A): If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha in not passed in the
stipulated period, the budget proposals are not affected.
Reason (R): The Lok Sabha is more powerful, in financial matters, than the Rajya
Sabha.
173. Assertion (A): In the Event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is
entitled to recover unliquidated damages.
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Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in
the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been
committed. Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.
174. Assertion (A): During inflation, there is increase in money supply and rise in price
level.
Reason (R): The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer
goods.
175. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of
the act, attacks Y, who in self defense and in order to ward off the attack hits him
thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.
Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the
Indian Penal Code.
176. Assertion (A): X and Y independently entertained the idea to kill Z. Accordingly;
each of them separately inflicted wounds on Z who died as a consequence. X and Y
are liable for murder under 341 IPC.
Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of
common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act was done
by him alone.
177. Assertion (A): A person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act.
Reason (R): A person who enjoys benefit from lawful, non-gratuitous act of another
must compensate him even though there is no contract.
178. Assertion (A): Freedom of Speech is the most important civil liberty of people in a
democratic polity.
Reason (R): State can regulate free speech in the interest of public order.
179. Assertion (A): Austins concept of law is known as imperative theory
Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.
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180. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the
criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an
unlawful assembly.
Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful
assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.
181. The following are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India
I. Equality of status and of opportunity
II. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
III. Justice-social, economic and political
IV. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual
V. Unity and Integrity of the nation
Which of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble?
(A) V-I-II-IV-III (B) III-II-I-IV-V (C) III-I-II-V-IV (D)I-II-IV-III-V
182. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Right to free and compulsory education for all children of the age of 6 to 14 years is:
(A) a fundamental right enforceable in law
(B) a fundamental duty
(C) a directive principle of state policy
(D) a fundamental right which, however, can be enforced only if the state makes an
enabling legislation
183. Affirmative action connotes:
I. Measures taken by the state to help the socially disadvantaged groups
II. Positive discrimination
III. Strict quotas for the socially and educationally backward class in school/college
admissions and jobs.
Which of the above mentioned is true?
(A) I and II only (B) II only (C) I, II and III (D) II and III only
184. Identify the correct statement:
(A) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of
powers
between a central and a number of regional authorities
(B) Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of
powers
between Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
(C) Federalism implies a system of Government which embodies Parliamentary
supremacy
(D) None of these
185. Consider the following statements:
I. In a recent Supreme Court verdict pronounced by Justice Markandeya Katju
and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra, the court upheld the constitutionality of the
Haj subsidy
II. Muslims are not the only beneficiaries of the secular states generosity. Hindus
have also received substantial financial support from the Government
With reference to the statements mentioned above, which of the following is
correct?
(A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
186. X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him
as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs. 500 per month for living in
adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is
(A) Valid
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(B) Void
(C) Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object
(D) Unlawful as being opposed to public policy
187. Ramu applied for the post of Director in an organization. The governing body of the
organization passed a resolution appointing him to the post. After the meeting, one
of the members of the governing body informed him privately of the resolution.
Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded. Ramu claims damages. Which one of
the following is the correct legal proposition in the case?
(A) Ramu cannot claim damages as he had not resigned from his existing post in
anticipation of getting the appointment letter
(B) Ramu cannot claim damages as there was no formal communication
(C) Ramu can claim damages as governing body cannot rescind the resolution once
passed
(D) Ramu can claim damages as there was private communication
188. The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over crowded. In consequence, a
legitimate passenger Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose the appropriate answer:
(A) Mr. X can sue the Railway authorities for the loss suffered
(B) Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in a over-crowded
train
(C) Mr. X cannot sue railway authorities because there was no infringement of his
legal
right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of
action
(D) None of these
189. Z is carried off by a tiger. X fires at the tiger, knowing that the shot might kill Z, but
with no intention to kill Z, and in good faith trying to save Z. Xs shot, however, gives
Z a mortal wound. Choose the correct option
(A) X has committed an offence of a grievous nature.
(B) X has no moral duty to save Z therefore he can be held liable.
(C) X has not committed any offence, as the act was in good faith and for the
benefit of
Z.
190. Ms. Usha wants to file a suit against Bhagyalaxmi Theatre praying for a permanent
injunction (stay order) restraining the theatre from running the film named Jai
Santoshi Maa. Her contention is that the film hurt her religious feelings and
sentiments as Goddess Saraswati, Laxmi and Parvati were depicted as jealous and
were ridiculed.
(A) She cannot file a suit because injury to religious feelings is not a legally
recognized
right.
(B) She cannot file a suit because the Theatre has a fundamental right to speech
and
expression.
(C) She can file a suit as injury to religious feelings has been legally recognized as a
right
(injuria sine damnum)
(D) It is a case of complete judicial discretion.
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191. Match schedule one and two and choose the appropriate answer-
Schedule I Schedule II
i. Concurrent list 1. Constitution of Japan
ii. Rule of Law 2. Constitution of Ireland
iii. Directive Principle of State Policy 3. British Constitution
iv. Procedure established by law 4. Constitution of Australia
i ii iii iv
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
192. P, Q and R made a joint promise to give S a sum of Rs.3000. S recovered the whole
amount from P. Q was declared insolvent and cannot give anything. Which statement
out of the following is correct?
(A) P cannot get anything from R. (B) P can recover Rs.1000 from R.
(C) P can recover Rs.1500 from R (D) P can recover Rs.2000 from R.
193. X went to Ys house and forgot his bag which contained 1 kg sweets. Ys children
consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y.
(A) Y is bound to pay the price of sweets to X
(B) Y is not bound to pay anything
(C) Y is bound to pay half the price of sweets.
(D) Y would not have to pay anything because X loves Ys children.
194. Which one of the following is not correct?
(A) Freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.
(B) Right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any trade and
profession
(C) Right to equality includes the principles of natural justice
(D) Freedom of conscience includes the wearing and carrying of kirpans by the Sikhs
195. Y makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after
opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer.
(A) Y is not guilty of attempt to theft because the box was empty.
(B) Y is guilty of attempt to commit theft.
(C) Y is guilty of trespass.
(D) Y is not guilty of any offence.
196. A lady wanted to get a railway ticket but finding a crowd near the ticket window at
the station, asked Raju, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and
handed him money for the same. Raju took the money and instead of getting the
ticket, ran away with it. What offence has been committed by Raju?
(A) No offence (B) Criminal breach of trust
(C) Criminal misappropriation (D) Theft
197. The Right to Equality is guaranteed by-
(A) Article 14 to 18 (B) Article 14
(C) Article 14 and 15 (D) Article 14, 15 and 16
198. Mr. Samay was severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He
was rushed to a hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at
emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that he should be operated
immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he was found to be HIV
positive. The doctors are in a dilemma regarding what should they do first-
(A) Doctors should operate first
(B) Doctors should inform his family members
(C) Doctors should inform his employers
(D) Doctors should not inform anyone because it would violate patients right of
privacy.
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199. Match the schedule I and II and choose the appropriate answer-
Schedule I Schedule II
i Republic 1. Head of the state is elected by the people
ii Secular 2. State does not recognize any religion as religion of the state
iii Democracy 3. The government which gets authority from the will of
the people
i ii iii
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 3 2 1
200. In which of the following cases can a Constitutional amendment be passed just by a
simple majority in Parliament?
(A) Election matters (B) Change in the name and boundaries of states
(C) Powers of the President (D) None of the above
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Common Law Admission Test(CLAT) -2013
UG - 4
Question Booklet No. 10001 OMR Answer Sheet Number
Signature of the Invigilator .............. (To be filled by the Candidate)
Name of the Invigilator. ................... Roll Number
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Question Booklet Series: A

Time: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Number of pages in this Booklet : 39 Number of Questions in this Booklet: 200
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The Question Booklets will be distributed ten minutes before the commencement of the test.
2. After commencement of the test, during the first five minutes, you are required to open the question booklet and
compulsorily examine it for defects, if any, as stated below:
(a) To have access inside the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not
accept a booklet if it is opened or without sticker-seal.
(b) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the question booklet with the information printed on
the cover page. Faulty booklets with missing pages/questions, misprint, fudging of print or duplication
of pages or any other discrepancy should immediately be brought to the notice of the invigilator(s)
and replaced by the same series correct question booklet within first five minutes of the
commencement of the test. Afterwards, the question booklet will not be replaced.
(c) Only after the verification of question booklet, enter your Roll Number, Question Booklet Number and
Question Booklet Series in the space provided on OMR Answer Sheet with Ball Point Pen and shade the
relevant circles with HB Pencil only.
3. There are 200 objective type multiple-choice questions carrying one mark each. Each question has four choices
of answers. Select the most appropriate answer and shade the corresponding circle in the OMR Answer Sheet
with HB Pencil only. If more than one circle is shaded, then the answer to that question shall be deemed as
wrong. There is negative marking for wrong answers wherein 0.25 mark will be deducted for each of the
wrong answers.
4. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each question or a set of questions. Read them carefully
before answering.
5. Possession of any kind of electronic gadget inside the examination hall is strictly prohibited. Possession and/or
use of any such gadget shall disqualify the candidate from appearing in the test.
6. In case of any malpractice or attempt to resort to any malpractice, which includes talking to neighbours,
copying or using unfair means etc., the Invigilator/Centre Superintendent shall seize the material, if any, and
expel the candidate from the examination hall.
7. The first bell will ring 10 minutes before the commencement of the test. As soon as the first bell rings the
invigilator(s) will distribute the OMR Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the candidates. The second bell
will ring at 3:00 p.m. which indicates the commencement of the test. The third bell will ring at 4:00 pm. to
indicate the completion of one hour of test. The fourth bell will be rung 10 minutes before the completion of the
test. The fifth and final long bell will ring at 5:00 p.m. to indicate the completion of the test.
8. No candidate shall be permitted to leave the Examination Hall before 5:00 pm.
9. You have to return the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the test
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
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ENGLISH INCLUDING COMPREHENSION
Direction for Questions 1 to 10: Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow
and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
It is an old saying that knowledge is power. Education is an instrument which imparts knowledge and
therefore, indirectly controls power. Therefore, ever since the dawn of our civilisation, persons in power
have always tried to supervise or control education. It has been handmaid of the ruling class. During the
Christian era, the ecclesiastics controlled the institution of education and diffused among the people the
gospel of the Bible and religious teachings. These gospels and teachings were no other than a philosophy
for the maintenance of the existing society. It taught the poor man to be meek and to earn his bread with
the sweat of his brow, while the priests and the landlords lived in luxury and fought duels for the slightest
offence. During the Renaissance, education passed more from the clutches of the priest into the hands of
the prince. In other words, it became more secular. Under the control of the monarch, education began to
devise and preach the infallibility of its masters, the monarch or king. It also invented and supported
fantastic theories like The Divine right Theory and that the king can do no wrong, etc. With the advent
of the industrial revolution, education took a different turn and had to please the new masters. It now no
longer remained the privilege of the baron class, but was thrown open to the new rich merchant class of
the society. The philosophy which was in vogue during this period was that of Laissez Faire restricting
the function of the state to a mere keeping of laws and order while on the other hand, in practice the law
of the jungle prevailed in the form of free competition and the survival of the fittest.
1. What does the theory Divine Right of King stipulate?
A. The kings are God
B. That the right of governing is conferred upon the kings by God
C. They have the right to be worshipped like Gods by their subjects
D. That the right of kings are divine and therefore sacred
2. Who controlled education during the Renaissance?
A. The common people
B. The prince
C. The church and the priests
D. None of these
3. What did the ruling class in the Christian era think of the poor man?
A. That he is the beloved of God
B. That he deserves all sympathy of the rich
C. That he should be strong and lord over others
D. That he is meant for serving the rich
4. Who controlled the institution of education during the Christian Era?
A. The secular leaders of society
B. The church and the priests
C. The monarchs
D. The common people
5. What does the word infallibility mean?
A. That every man is open to error
B. Sensitivity
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C. The virtue of not making mistake
D. That some divine power is responsible for determining the fate of the man
6. What do you mean by the sweat of his brow?
A. Very hard work
B. The tiny droplets of sweat on the forehead
C. The wrinkles visible on the forehead
D. The sign of innocence
7. What does the policy of Laissez Faire stand for?
A. Individual freedom in the economic field
B. State control over law and order in society
C. Joint control of the means of production by the state and private enterprise
D. Decontrol over law and order by the ruling class
8. Which of the following describes the writer?
A. Concerned
B. Unconcerned
C. Aggressive
D. Frustrated
9. Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given:
Gospels
A. Chit chat
B. A teaching or doctrine of a religious teacher
C. Rumour
D. Guidance
10. Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given:
Vogue
A. Uncertain
B. Out-dated
C. The prevailing fashion or style
D. Journey
Direction for Questions 11 to 15: Select the word that is spelt correctly
11. A paraphernalia
B paraphrenalia
C parapherenalia
D paraphrennalia
12. A enterprenuer
B entrepreneur
C entrepenur
D enteruepeur
13. A onomaetopoeia
B onomoatopoeia
C onomatopoeia
D onomatopoeia
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14. A hemorhage
B haemorhhage
C haemorrhage
D hemoorhage
15. A dylexsia
B dyslexia
C dislexia
D dislecsia
Direction for questions 16 to 25: Select the best option from the four alternatives given below and shade
the appropriate answer in the space provided for it in the OMR answer sheet.
16. Unless he _________ this office, I will not say anything.
A. Left
B. Did not leave
C. Leaves
D. Had left
17. ___________, I would help all the poor people.
A. If I am rich
B. If I was rich
C. If I were rich
D. In case I am rich
18. I ________ the news an hour ago.
A. Have heard
B. Heard
C. Was hearing
D. Have been hearing
19. He spoke __________ about his prospects.
A. Confidentially
B. Consciously
C. Confidently
D. Conscientiously
20. The boy is not interested in playing, _____ ?
A. Doesnt he?
B. Isnt he?
C. Didnt he?
D. Is he?
21. He told us that we should never live beyond ___________ means.
A. His
B. Their
C. Our
D. Her
22. May I request _______ you again to consider my case favourably.
A. To
135
B. Onto
C. Of
D. No proposition required
23. Known as devout and serious person, she also has ______ sense of humour.
A. Better
B. Quick
C. Good
D. Beautiful
24. Galileo said, The Earth ______ around the sun.
A. Revolved
B. Is revolving
C. Revolves
D. Is revolved
25. We ____________ our work before the guests arrived at our house.
A. Shall finish
B. Have finished
C. Had finished
D. Shall have finished
Direction for Questions 26 to 30: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentenced is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Shade the appropriate answer in the
space provided for it in the OMR sheet.
26. a: People who start up their own business typically come from two extreme backgrounds: One is
the business family background and the other is a steady professional family background.
b: Typically, people from different backgrounds face different kinds of basic problems.
c: The people from both the backgrounds find it very difficult to establish and manage an
enterprise.
d: Starting up and managing a small business is no joke.
A. d b c a
B. b a c d
C. d a c b
D. c d a b
27. a: Venture capital is recommended as the ideal source of financing for a successfully small
business.
b: Several companies including start ups have been funded by dedicated venture funds during this
decade.
c: Despite this, an average Indian entrepreneur understands and appreciation of venture capital
concept has been woefully inadequate.
d: In the Indian context, though venture capital has been a relatively late entrant, it has already
made a reasonable impact.
A. a b c d
B. a d b c
C. a c b d
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D. a d c b
28. a: Progress in diagnosis, in preventive medicine and in treatment, both medicinal and surgical,
has been rapid and breathe taking.
b: Much in medicine which is not taken for granted was undreamt of even as recently as 20 years
ago.
c: Presently small pox has been eradicated, poliomyelitis practically banished, tuberculosis has
become curable and coronary artery disease surgically relievable.
d: The dramatic surge in the field of molecular biology and research by immunologists and
geneticists has succeeded in controlling parasitic diseases like malaria and river blindness that
affect millions of people round the world.
A. b d c a
B. b a c d
C. b c a d
D. b d a c
29. a: Instead, many deaths and injuries result from falling objects and the collapse of buildings,
bridges and other structures.
b: Earthquakes almost never kill people directly.
c: Fire resulting from broken gas or power lines is another major danger during a quake.
d: Spills of hazardous chemicals are also a concern during an earthquake.
A. c a b d
B. d a c b
C. d c a b
D. b a c d
30. a: The Winchester or hard disk drives can store much more data than what can be stored on a
floppy diskette.
b: Hard disks come sealed and they cannot be removed or changed like floppy diskettes.
c: Often floppy disk system is used in conjunction with the Winchester disk system.
d: This makes for an ideal system for secondary storage.
A. c a b d
B. c b d a
C. b a c d
D. a b c d
Direction for Questions 31 to 35: Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly
used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases and shade the appropriate answer in the space
provided for it in the OMR sheet.
31. El Dorado
A. An imaginary place
B. High altitude
C. A literary man
D. A country full of gold and precious stones
32. quantum ramifactus
A. The amount of damage suffered
B. The amount of damage caused
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C. The amount of damage paid
D. The amount of damage received
33. Corpus delicti
A. Fake evidence of an offence
B. Hearsay evidence of an offence
C. Lack of evidence of an offence
D. An evidence which constitute an offence
34. Vis-a-vis
A. Direct
B. Opposite
C. Face to face
D. Agree
35. Carte blanche
A. Complete authority
B. Issue the warrant
C. No authority
D. Lack of authority
Direction for Questions 36 to 40: Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom given in each
question.
36. To blaze a trail:
A. To set on fire
B. To blow the trumpet
C. To initiate work in a movement
D. To be hopeful
37. A snake in the grass:
A. A secret or hidden enemy
B. An unreliable person
C. Unforeseen happening
D. A dangerous enemy
38. Have too many irons in the fire:
A. Engaged in too many enterprises at the same time
B. Facing too many problems at the same time
C. Said or done too many things at the same time
D. To incite the feeling amongst the people
39. A fair weather friend:
A. A friend who is fair to us at all the times
B. A friend who deserts us in difficulties
C. A friend whom we love the most
D. A friend who loves us the most
40. A Panacea:
A. An injection that serves as a life line
B. A lecture full of precepts
C. A strong drug that induces sleep
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D. A single cure for all diseases or troubles
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (NUMERICAL ABILITY)
41 2 / 3 is a rational number whereas 2 / 3 is

A. Also a rational number
B. An irrational number
C. Not a number
D. A natural periodic number
42 Greatest number which divides 926 and 2313, leaving 2 and 3 remainders, respectively, is
A. 52
B. 54
C. 152
D. 154
43 A single discount equivalent to a discount series 15% and 5% is
A. 32%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 8.5%
44 By selling a cycle for Rs. 2345, a student loses 19%. His cost price is nearly
A. Rs. 4000
B. Rs. 5000
C. Rs. 3000
D. Rs. 3500
45 Diagonals of a rhombus are 1 meter and 1.5 meter in lengths. The area of the rhombus is
A. 0.75 m2
B. 1.5 m
C. 1.5 m2
D. 0.375 m2
46 An angle in a semi circle is
A.
B. /4
C. /2
D. 2
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47 In a school for midday meal food is sufficient for 250 students for 33 days, if each student is
given 125 gm meals. 80 more students joined the school. If same amount of meal is given to each
student, then the food will last for
A. 20 days
B. 40 days
C. 30 days
D. 25 days
48 In a school of 500 students, 102 students can read Hindi and Tamil both, 200 students can read
only Hindi. The students who can read Tamil are
A. 98
B. 402
C. 302
D. 300
49 The value of k for which kx+3y-k+3 = 0 and 12x+ky = k, have infinite solutions, is
A. 0
B. -6
C. 6
D. 1
50 Table shows the daily expenditure on food of 25 households in a locality:
Rs. 100-150 150-200 200-250 250-300 300-350
Households 4 5 12 2 2
The mean daily expenditure on food is
A. Rs. 111
B. Rs. 161
C. Rs. 211
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D. Rs. 261
51 A box contains 24 marbles, some are green and others are blue. If a marble is drawn at random
from the jar, the probability that it is green is 2/3. The number of blue balls in the jar is
A. 13
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
52 The population of a city is 250 thousand. It is increasing at the rate of 2% every year. The growth
in the population after 2 years is
A. 2500
B. 10000
C. 252000
D. 10100
53 If a point (x, y) in a OXY plane is equidistant from (-1,1) and (4,3) then
A. 10x+4y = 23
B. 6x+4y = 23
C. x+y = 7
D. 4x+3y = 0
54 Sum of first 15 multiples of 8 is
A. 960
B. 660
C. 1200
D. 1060
55 A rod of 2 cm diameter and 30 cm length is converted into a wire of 3 meter length of uniform
thickness. The diameter of the wire is
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A. 2/10 cm
B. 2/10 cm
C. 1/10 cm
D. 1/10 cm
56 Two straight poles of unequal length stand upright on a ground. The length of the shorter pole is
10 meters. A pole joins the top of the two vertical poles. The distance between the two tops is 5
meters. The distance between the poles along the ground is 4 meter. The area thus formed by the
three poles with the ground is
A. 52 meter2
B. 46 meter2
C. 20 meter2
D. 50 meter2
57 Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in 12 hours. Both the pipes are
opened to fill the tank and after 3 hours pipe A is closed. Pipe B will fill the remaining part of the
tank in
A. 5 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 5 hours 24 minutes
D. 3 hours
58 A ground 100x80 meter2 has two cross roads in its middle. The road parallel to the length is 5
meter wide and the other road is 4 meter wide, both roads are perpendicular to each other. The
cost of laying the bricks at the rate of Rs. 10 per m2, on the roads, will be
A. Rs. 7000
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 9000
D. Rs. 10000
59 If selling price of 10 articles is equal to cost price of 11 articles, then gain is
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A. 8%
B. 9%
C. 8.5%
D. 10%
60 Angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3:4:5:8. The smallest angle is
A. 54o
B. 72o
C. 36o
D. 18o
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS
61 The Headquarter of European Union is situated in

A. England
B. Germany
C. France
D. Belgium
62 India in 2008 successfully put CHANDRAYAAN-1 into its initial orbit by
A. PSLV- C12
B. PSLV- C11
C. PSLV-14
D. GSLV-D3
63 Vishwanathan Anand retained the World Chess Championship in 2012 by defeating Boris
Gelfand. Mr. Gelfand belongs to
A. Israel
B. Russia
C. Poland
D. USA
64 Kapilvastu Relics (fragments of Lord Buddhas bone), for the second time in 114 years, recently
travelled from India to
A. China
B. Sri Lanka
C. Myanmar
D. Japan
65 Dr. Norman Borlaugh is famous as father of the Green Revolution in 1960s. His initial goal was
to create varieties of wheat adapted to the climate of
A. Mexico
B. India
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C. USA
D. China
66 A feature Bluetooth now common in mobile phones, gets its name from a
A. Chinese 10th Century King
B. UK Software Company
C. Greek Goddess
D. Danish 10th Century King
67 Which pair of states does not touch each other
A. Meghalaya, Manipur
B. Chhattisgarh, U.P.
C. Rajasthan, Punjab
D. J.K., H.P.
68 Baglihar dam, is constructed on river
A. Ravi
B. Chenab
C. Indus
D. Sutlej
69 Navjivan Trust was instituted with the objectives of propagating peaceful means of attaining third
Swaraj, by
A. Mohan Das Karam Chand Gandhi
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Dr. Ambedkar
70 World Cup Football 2014 and Olympics 2016 will be held in
A. USA
B. Brazil
C. Russia
D. South Africa
71 In 2012-13, Indias target is to restrict the fiscal deficit to x % of the GDP, where x is
A. 10
B. 8.3
C. 15
D. 5.1
72 POSCO steel project to come up but being strongly protested by the people is located in
A. Chhattisgarh
B. Jharkhand
C. Odisha
D. Andhra Pradesh
73 Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards in our country were instituted in the year
A. 1952
B. 1954
C. 1962
D. 1964
74 Who was crowned the Miss World 2012 on August 18, 2012?
144
A. Ms. Jessica Kahawaty
B. Ms. Wenxia Yu
C. Ms. Vanya Mishra
D. Ms. Sophie Moulds
75 Vishwaroopam is a 2013 Tamil spy thriller film written, directed and co-produced by
______________ who also enacts the lead role.
A. Prakash Raj
B. Rajni Kant
C. Kamal Haasan
D. Chiranjeevi
76 Vijay Kumar, who clinched a silver medal in London Olympics in 2012 is associated with
A. Boxing
B. Shooting
C. Weight Lifting
D. Wrestling
77 Sushil Kumar who won a silver medal in London Olympics in 2012 is associated with
A. Shooting
B. Boxing
C. Wrestling
D. Weight lifting
78 How many medals did India win in London Olympics 2012?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
79 The present Pope chosen in March 2013 hails from which country?
A. Brazil
B. Mexico
C. Argentina
D. Panama
80 The first person to set foot on the moon on July 20, 1969 and who died on Aug. 25, 2012 was
A. Nevil Armstrong
B. Neil Armstrong
C. Gagan Narang
D. Michael Phelps
81 In which place, on Feb 21, 2013, two powerful explosive devices planted on bicycles had
exploded in Andhra Pradesh?
A. Dilrubnagar
B. Dilsukhnagar
C. Dilkushnagar
D. Dilshaknagar
82 On which date Maha Kumbh Mela started in Prayag this year?
A. 14-1-2013
B. 1-1-2013
145
C. 26-1-2013
D. 4-1-2013
83 On which date International Womens Day is celebrated?
A. 18th March
B. 8th March
C. 28th March
D. 18th Feb
84 Duration of which Five Year Plan was 2007-2012
A. X
B. XII
C. IX
D. XI
85 As per census 2011, which State has the lowest sex ratio (877:1000)?
A. Punjab
B. Haryana
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Bihar
86 Hugo Chavez who died on March 5, 2013 after losing his battle with cancer, was the President of
which country?
A. Argentina
B. Cuba
C. Brazil
D. Venezuela
87 Carlos Slim, who tops the list of worlds wealthiest people, for the fourth year in a row, belongs
to which country?
A. USA
B. England
C. Mexico
D. Germany
88 In the name P. Chidambaram, the present Union Finance Minister, what does P stands for?
A. Palghat
B. Pallakudi
C. Palaniappan
D. Perumal
89 The earlier name of which city was New Amsterdam?
A. Chicago
B. California
C. Washington D.C.
D. New York City
90 The grant of Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is associated with
A. Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula
B. Nawab Asif-ud-Daula
C. Shah Alam I
D. Shah Alam II
146
91 Where did Kuchipudi, an eminent dance form, originate?
A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
92 Light Year is the unit of
A. Time
B. Distance
C. Light
D. None of these
93 The leaning tower of Pisa does not fall because
A. It is tapered at the top
B. It covers a large base area
C. Its C.G. is inside the tower
D. The vertical line passing through the C.G. of the tower falls within its base
94 Paradise Regained was written by
A. John Milton
B. Michel Angelo
C. John Keats
D. Lord Byron
95 Which is the richest temple in India?
A. Balaji Temple of Tirupathi
B. Padmanabha Swamy Temple of Thiruvananthapuram
C. Shirdi Sai Baba Temple
D. Jagannatha Temple of Puri
96 Who founded the Red Cross?
A. Henry Dunant
B. Alexander
C. James Cook
D. Bismark
97 World Literacy Day is celebrated on
A. 5th September
B. 6th September
C. 8th September
D. None of these
98 South African Paralympics icon Oscar Pistorius has been accused of killing
A. Julia Kamp
B. Reeva Steenkamp
C. Pistorius Kamp
D. Shakeera Kamp
99 In the month of March, 2013 the Supreme Court of India issued a notice that the ambassador of
the following country shall not leave India without the permission of the Supreme Court
A. Germany
B. Maldives
147
C. Italy
D. Nepal
100 The Constitution (One Hundred Seventeenth Amendment) Bill, 2012 makes provisions regarding
A. Reservation in matters of promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
B. Reservation in matters of appointments for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
C. Reservation in matters of appointments and promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes
D. None of the above
101 The number of High Courts in India is
A. 18
B. 24
C. 21
D. 28
102 The last British Emperor of India was
A. King George I
B. King George III
C. King George V
D. King George VI
103 Palaeolithic period is also known as
A. Mesolithic Age
B. Late Stone Age
C. Old Stone Age
D. Neolithic Age
104 Capital of India was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
A. 1901
B. 1911
C. 1921
D. 1922
105 The chairman of Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly was
A. Rajendra Prasad
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. J.B. Kripalani
106 The Environment Protection Act was passed by the Parliament of India in the year
A. 1976
B. 1986
C. 1996
D. 2006
107 International Year of Biodiversity is/was/will be
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2012
D. 2014
108 The first Shaka king in India was
148
A. Rudradaman
B. Menadar
C. Maues
D. Damanrudra
109 Potential Energy is described by the expression:
A. PE= mgh
B. PE= ngh
C. PE= oph
D. PE= pph
110 Where was 16th NAM Summit held?
A. Tehran
B. Mehran
C. Turban
D. Bagdad
LOGICAL REASONING
Direction for Questions 111 to 113: Answer the following questions based on the statements given
below:
i. There are 3 poles on each side of the road.
ii. These six poles are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F.
iii. The poles are of different colours namely Golden, Silver, Metallic, Black, Bronze and White.
iv. The poles are of different heights.
v. E, the tallest pole, is exactly opposite to the Golden colours pole.
vi. The shortest pole is exactly opposite to the Metallic coloured pole.
vii. F, the Black coloured pole, is located between A and D.
viii. C, the Bronze coloured pole, is exactly opposite to A.
ix. B, the Metallic coloured pole, is exactly opposite to F.
x. A, the White coloured pole, is taller than C but shorter than D and B.
111 What is the colour of the pole diagonally opposite to the Bronze coloured pole?
A. White
B. Silver
C. Metallic
D. Golden
112 Which is the second tallest pole?
A. A
B. D
C. B
D. Cannot be determined
113 Which is the colour of the tallest pole?
A. Golden
B. Silver
C. Bronze
D. None of these
149
Directions for questions 114 and 115: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The head of a newly formed Government desires to appoint five of the six elected ministers P, Q, R, S, T
and U to portfolios of Foreign, Industry and Commerce, Agriculture, Rural Development and Human
Resources. U does not want any portfolio if S gets one of the five. R wants either Foreign or Human
Resources or no portfolio. Q says that if S gets Industry and Commerce or Rural Development then she
must get the other one. T insists on a portfolio if P gets one.
114 Which of the following is a valid assignment

A. P- Foreign, Q- Industry and Commerce, R- Agriculture, S- Rural Development, T- Human
Resources
B. R- Foreign, S- Industry and Commerce, P- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development, T- Human
Resources
C. P- Foreign, Q- Industry and Commerce, T- Agriculture, S- Rural Development, U- Human
Resources
D. Q- Foreign, U- Industry and Commerce, T- Agriculture, R- Rural Development, P- Human
Resources
115 If P gets Foreign and R gets Human Resources, then which is NOT a valid assignment of
Agriculture and Rural Development
A. S- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development
B. U- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development
C. Q- Agriculture, T- Rural Development
D. Q- Agriculture, S- Rural Development
Direction for Questions 116 to 120: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed
by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one
expressed in the question pair.
116 Action : Reaction
A. Introvert : Extrovert
B. Assail : Defend
C. Diseased : Treatment
D. Death : Rebirth
117 Sorrow : Misery
A. Love : Obsession
B. Amity : Harmony
C. Happiness : Joy
D. Enemy : Hatred
118 Drama : Audience
A. Brawl : Vagabonds
B. Game : Spectators
C. Art : Critic
D. Movie : Actors
119 Nuts : Bolts
A. Nitty : Gritty
B. Bare : Feet
C. Naked : Clothes
150
D. Hard : Soft
120 Book : Author
A. Rain : Flood
B. Light : Switch
C. Symphony : Composer
D. Song : Music
Directions for questions 121 to 125: Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question
regarding relationship based on the statement. Select the correct option.
121 Moni is daughter of Sheela. Sheela is wife of my wifes brother. How Moni is realted to my wife?
A. Cousin
B. Niece
C. Sister
D. Sister-in-law
122 Annu is daughter of my mothers brother Abahi. Pari is grand daughter of my mother. Pari should
call Annu as
A. Maternal Aunt
B. Sister
C. Cousin
D. Niece
123 Markandey is Rajivs mothers father. Markandey is three brothers. One of them has grandson
Abahi. Rajan is son of Abahi. Rajan is related to Rajiv as
A. Brother
B. Nephew
C. Cousin
D. Uncle
124 Deepak said to Nitin, That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the
daughter of my fathers wife. How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?
A. Son
B. Brother
C. Cousin
D. Brother-in-law
125 Pointing to a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said, The only daughter of her grandfather is my
wife. How is Rajesh related to that woman?
A. Uncle
B. Father
C. Maternal Uncle
D. Brother
Direction for Questions 126 to 130: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
i. Kareenas dieting schedule consists of having only one fruit on a given day of the week.
ii. Dietician has prescribed banana, papaya, pomegranate, apple and grape from Sunday to Friday,
one day being a fasting day. Kareena cannot eat any fruit on Saturday.
iii. Pomegranate day is neither on the first day nor on the last day but earlier than the papaya day.
151
iv. Apple day is on the immediate next day of papaya day.
v. Banana day is on the immediate previous day of the fasting day.
vi. Apple day and grape day must have a gap of two days between them.
vii. Grape day is the day immediately following the fasting day.
126 Which of the following is the fasting day?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
127 Banana day and apple day have a gap of how many days between them?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
128 Which day is grape day?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Thursday
D. Sunday
129 Which day is pomegranate day?
A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
130 Which of the following is the correct statement?
A. Apple day is after papaya day.
B. Banana day is on Wednesday.
C. Fasting day is on Tuesday.
D. Papaya day is earlier than banana day.
Direction for Questions 131 to 135: Each question contains one statement and two courses of action I and
II. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the two courses of action most logically follows.
Code:
A. If only I follows.
B. If only II follows.
C. If either I or II follows.
D. If neither I nor II follows.
131 Statement: Indian children are very talented but are instead weak in science and mathematics.
I: Teaching and textbooks are not available in mother language.
II: Education based on experiments in both the subjects is lacking.
131-A
152
132 Statement: Despite of child labour laws, children can be seen working in hotels, shops, houses,
very frequently.
I: The government should not make such laws which cannot be enforced.
II: A proper education system for the primary level particularly for lower caste community may
eradicate this problem.
132-B
133 Statement: Kyoto protocol on environment is signed by almost every country of the world.
I: As a result air, water and soil pollution have come down.
II: Increasing production of automobiles, refrigerators and fertilisers do not affect our
environment.
133-D
134 Statement: School dropout rate is very high in the rural areas as children support their parents in
income earning activities.
I: Public awareness programme on primary education should be expanded immediately to educate
parents.
II: Compensation is not a remedy.
134-A
135 Statement: Smoking is one of those human weaknesses which tend to test the will power of the
smoker of the edge.
I: It is very difficult for the smoker to give up smoking even if they want to do so.
II: Human beings have other weaknesses as well
135-D
Direction for Questions 136 to 140: Complete the series by choosing the correct option.
136 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ?
A. 34
B. 35
C. 33
D. 36
137 A -10, E -15, I -20, M -25,.
A. Q-5
B. Q-30
C. P-30
D. R-30
138 17, 36, 74, 150, ? , 606
A. 250
B. 303
C. 300
D. 302
139 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, ?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 7
D. 8
140 1, 4, 27, 256. ?
153
A. 625
B. 3125
C. 3025
D. 1225
Direction for Questions 141 to 145: In each question below are given two statements numbered I and II.
You have to take the two given statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow
from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
141 I: All vegetables have gravy.
II: All lunch has vegetable.
A. All lunch has gravy.

B. All gravy has lunch.
C. Both (A) and (B).
142 I: Karan Johar is a good director.
II: Directors are intelligent.
A. All intelligent are directors.

B. Karan Johar is intelligent.
C. Both (A) and (B).
143 I: Some blues are green.
II: Pink is green
A. Some blue is pink.

B. Some green is pink.
C. If either (A) or (B) follows.
D. Some pinks are blues.
144 I: All boys are tall.
II: All Punjabi are tall.
A. All boys are Punjabi.

B. Some boys are Punjabi.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.
145 I: All girls go to the college.
II: Rina does not go to the college.
A. Rina is not a girl.

B. Going to college is not essential to be a girl.
C. Rina is a girl.
D. None of the above.
154
Direction for Questions 146-150: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H want to have a dinner on a round table and they have worked out the following
seating arrangements.
i. A will sit beside C
ii. H will sit beside A
iii. C will sit beside E
iv. F will sit beside H
v. E will sit beside G
vi. D will sit beside F
vii. G will sit beside B
viii. B will sit beside D
146 Which of the following is wrong?
A. A will be to the immediate right of C
B. D will be to the immediate left of B
C. E will be to the immediate right of A
D. F will be to the immediate left of D
147 Which of the following is correct?
A. B will be to the immediate left of D
B. H will be to the immediate right of A
C. C will be to the immediate right of F
D. B will be to the immediate left of H
148 A and F will become neighbours if:
A. B agrees to change her sitting position
B. C agrees to change her sitting position
C. G agrees to change her sitting position
D. H agrees to change her sitting position
149 During sitting:
A. A will be directly facing C
B. B will be directly facing C
C. A will be directly facing B
D. B will be directly facing D
150 H will be sitting between:
A. C and B
B. A and F
C. D and G
D. E and G
LEGAL APTITUDE
This section consists of fifty (50) questions. Each question consists of legal propositions/ principles
(hereinafter referred to as principle) and facts. These principles have to be applied to the given facts to
arrive at the most reasonable conclusion. Such principles may or may not be true in the real sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this section. In other words, in answering
the following questions, you must not rely on any principles except the principles that are given herein
below for every question. Further you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question.
155
The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem
solving ability even if the most reasonable conclusion arrived at may be unacceptable for any other
reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of law.
151:
Principle: When an offer is accepted by a person to whom it is made, it becomes a
promise. But this promise will become legally binding only when the acceptance of the
offer is unconditional.
Facts: Ram makes an offer to sell his house to Shyam for Rs.50 lacs. Shyam accepts this
offer but wants to pay the price of the house in five quarterly instalments. Ram does not
agree to it. Thereafter Shyam agrees to pay the price of the house in the way as originally
desired by Ram. But Ram does not reply to it. Can Shyam compel Ram to sell his house
to him?
A. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam ultimately agrees to pay the
price as originally desired by Ram
B. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam in the first instance
substantially complied with the desire of Ram
C. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Rams offer does not exclude the
payment of price in instalments
D. Shyam can not compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam imposes a new condition
about payment of price of the house while accepting the offer which is not ultimately
accepted by Ram.
152:
Principle: Generally an agreement without consideration is not valid. Therefore, in order
to make a valid agreement, some consideration which may have some value in the eyes of
law, is essentially required.
Facts: William has an old car of which he makes seldom use. He voluntarily enters into
an agreement with Smith to sell this car for rupees ten thousand. Thereafter one Anson
approaches William and offers to buy that car for rupees one lac as the car was one which
Anson has been searching for long. Now William wants to cancel his agreement with
Smith and refuses to deliver the car to him saying that consideration (price) for the car
promised by Smith is negligible and, therefore, agreement with him can not be said to be
valid one.
A. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as the consideration involved in that is
really inadequate.
B. William can not cancel his agreement with Smith as the sale of car for rupees ten
thousand was voluntary and this price has some value in the eyes of law.
C. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as he was ignorant about the value / price
of the car for which it could be sold.
D. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as he is entitled to get full market
value/price of his car.
153
Principle: In order to be illegible to appear in the semester examination, a student is required to
attend, under all circumstances, at least 70% of the total classes held in that semester as per
University rules.
156
Facts: Anand, an economically poor but a very brilliant student of LL.B. final semester, while
going to his University by cycle received some leg injuries in road accident. Consequently Anand
could not attend his classes for one week as he was advised rest by his doctor for that period. Due
to this absence from the University, Anand failed to have 70% attendance essential to appear in
the examination and, therefore, he was debarred from appearing in the examination by the
University authorities. Anand challenges this decision in the court of law
A. Anand will succeed in the court of law as the accident was beyond his control
B. Anand will definitely get favour of the court on humanitarian ground as he comes from a
economically poor family and may not afford to take readmission
C. Anand will not succeed as he could very easily fulfill eligibility criteria for appearing in the
examination by being reasonably regular in the class throughout the semester.
D. Anand will succeed as requirement of 70% attendance may be declared arbitrary and,
therefore, unreasonable by the court of law.
154
Principle: A seller of goods cannot transfer better rights than he himself possesses in the goods
sold to the buyer.
Facts: Komal leaves his watch by mistake on a seat in the park. Sonal finds that watch and
immediately sells the same for good price to Monal who without inquiring whether Sonal is its
owner or not. Komal later on claims that watch from Monal. Decide whether Komal can succeed?
A. Komal cannot succeed as Monal has paid good price of the watch.
B. Komal cannot succeed as Monal is unaware of the fact that Sonal is not its owner.
C. Komal can not succeed as it was his carelessness and nothing else which enabled Sonal to sell
the watch to Monal.
D. Komal can not succeed as Sonal is merely finder of the watch and, therefore, cannot transfer
ownership rights thereon to Monal.
155
Principle: All citizens shall have the Fundamental Right to carry on any occupation, trade or
business. But reasonable restrictions on the exercise of such rights can be imposed by law in the
interest of the general public.
Facts: A large number of persons had been carrying on the business of dyeing and printing in
Rajkot area for the last 25 years providing employment to about 30000 families. From these
business places untreated dirty water was being discharged on the roads thereby causing damage
to the public health. A notice, therefore, was given to close this business till necessary measures
to protect public health as provided under the environmental statutes were taken by those business
men.
A. Notice can not be justified as it will cause loss of employment to 30000 families.
B. Notice can not be justified as it amounts to violation of the fundamental right of the persons
who have been carrying on the business for the last 25 years.
C. The notice can not be justified on the ground of damage to public health as the persons in that
area have been voluntarily residing for long and have become used to that environment.
D. The notice can be justified as the right to business is not absolute and reasonable restriction
can be imposed by law in the interest of the public.
156
157
Principle: A Contract can not be enforced by or against a person who is not a party to it.
However, where some benefit is conferred on third party by the contract itself, there third party
can be allowed to enforce that contract to get such benefit.
Facts: Dinesh is liable to pay Rs. 50000/- to Suresh. In order to discharge this liability Dinesh
enters into a contract with Ramesh by which Dinesh sells his car to Ramesh for Rs. 1 lac. Ramesh
takes the delivery of the car and promises/ assures to pay its price at the earliest. Dinesh
separately informs Suresh about this contract for his satisfaction. Ramesh fails to pay the cars
price. Suresh wants to join Dinesh in filing suit against Ramesh for the recovery of price of the
car. Whether Suresh is entitled to do so?
A. Suresh is entitled to do so because the contract was made for his benefit.
B. Suresh is entitled to do so because Dinesh is liable to him and discharge of this liability
depends upon the payment of the price of the car by Ramesh.
C. Suresh is not entitled to do so because liability of Dinesh does not depand upon any assurance
of Ramesh
D. Suresh is not entitled to do because he is not a party to the contract between Dinesh and
Ramesh.
157
Principle: If a contract is made by post between two persons living in two different cities, then the
contract is said to be complete as soon as the letter of acceptance is properly posted, and the place
of completion of the contract is that city where acceptance is posted. It is worth mentioning here
that in every contract there is always an offer from one party and the acceptance of the offer from
the other party.
Facts: Sani, a resident of Patna, gives an offer by post to sell his house for Rs. 25 lacs to Hani, a
resident of Allahabad. This offer letter is posted on 1st January 2013 from Patna and reaches
Allahabad on 7th January 2013. Hani accepts this offer and posts the letter of acceptance on 8th
January 2013 from Allahabad which reaches Patna on 16th January 2013. But Sani presuming
that Hani is not interested in accepting his offer, sells his house to Gani at same price on 15th of
January, 2013. Hani files a suit against Sani for the breach of contract in the competent court of
Allahabad. Whether Hani will succeed?
A. Hani can not succeed as Sani can not be compelled by law to wait for the answer from Hani
for an indefinite period of time.
B. Hani can not succeed as he could use some other effective and speedy mode for
communicating his acceptance in minimum possible time
C. Hani can succeed as he properly posted the letter of acceptance and the delay was beyond his
control
D. Hani can succeed as contract became complete in the eyes of law on the date of posting the
letter of acceptance
158
Principle: He, who goes to the court of law to seek justice, must come with clean hands.
Facts: P enters into a contract with S under which S has to construct a house for P and has to
complete the same within one year from the date of the contract. This contract includes two very
important terms. According to first term if there is price hike of the materials to be used in the
construction, then the escalation charges at a particular rate shall be payable by P to S. According
to second term if the construction of the house is not completed within the period prescribed for
158
it, then S will have to pay penalty at a particular rate to P. Before the completion of the
construction work the workers of S go on strike and strike continues up to three months even after
the expiry of one year. After that period workers return and the construction work again starts.
During the last three months period of strike there was a considerable rise in the price of the
building material. S claimed escalation cost from P. P did not agree to it. S filed a suit in the court
of law either to order the payment of the price of the building material on the basis of escalated
price or to allow him to stop the work without incurring any penal liability towards P.
A. S will succeed as strike by his workers was unexpected and beyond his control.
B. S can succeed as there is an escalation clause in the contract
C. S can not succeed as he has failed to complete the construction work in time and strike can
not be treated as a valid excuse for delay in work.
D. S can succeed if he pays penalty to P for delay.
159
Principle: If the object of an agreement is or becomes unlawful or immoral or opposed to
public policy in the eyes of law, then the courts will not enforce such agreements. Law
generally prohibits Child labour.
Facts: P enters into an agreement with T by which P has to let his house to T for two years
and T has to pay Rs. 20000.00 per month to P as rent. T starts a child care centre in that
house. But after some time in order to earn some money for the maintenance of the centre, T
starts sending the children of the centre on the rotation basis to work for four hour a day in
some nearby chemical and hazardous factories. When P comes to know about this new
development, he asks T either to stop the children from working in factories or to leave his
house immediately. T neither agrees to leave the house nor to stop the children from working
in the factories. P files a suit in the court of law for appropriate relief/ action
A. P can not succeed as the agreement was for the two years and it can not be terminated
before the expiry of that period
B. P can not succeed as the object at the time of making of the agreement was not clear
C. P will succeed as the object of the agreement has become unlawful.
D. P will not succeed if T agrees to share the wages of the children with P
160
Principle: whosoever by his act or omission causes environmental pollution shall be held liable
for any loss caused by such pollution. It shall be no defence in such cases that all due diligence or
reasonable care was taken while carrying out the act or omission in question.
Facts: Hari is carrying on a chemical and fertilizer industry near a bank of a river. In order to
prevent and control any kind of harm to the environment, suitable waste treatment and disposal
plants were installed in the factory. Due to some sudden mechanical/ technical problem, these
plants ceased to work properly and, therefore, caused environmental pollution, which ultimately
caused substantial harm to the environment and to the people living around the factory. Victims
of such pollution file a suit for suitable remedy.
A. Victims can not succeed as necessary precautions to prevent any harm were taken by
Hari.
B. Victims can not succeed as the mechanical/ technical problem was sudden and, therefore,
beyond the control of Hari.
159
C. Victims can succeed as it is the duty of Hari to see that no harm is caused to the
environment/ people due to his activity under any circumstances.
D. Victims could succeed if treatment/ disposal plant were not installed in the factory
161
Principle: If a person transfers movable or immovable property with its full ownership and
without any consideration to some other person, then it is called a gift.
Facts: S, who has no child of his own, makes a gift of his house worth Rs. 25 lacs to his nephew
R. After completing all the legal formalities required for a valid gift, S says to R that in case of
need R will provide that house to S for use without any questions. R does not react to it. After one
year of this gift, S really needs that house and request R to make the house available to him, but R
refuses to do so.
A. R cannot refuse as he got the house without paying any consideration for that.
B. R cannot refuse as S is without children.
C. R can refuse as he has become full owner of the house.
D. R can refuse as he himself may be in need of that house.
162
Principle: An agreement to do an act impossible in itself cannot be enforced by a court of law.
Facts: Ramesh agrees with his girl friend Shilpa to pluck stars from the sky through his
extraordinary will power, and bring them down on earth for her within a week. After the expiry of
one week, Shilpa filed a suit for damages against Ramesh for the breach of contract as Ramesh
failed to perform his promise.
A. Shilpa can succeed in getting damages as Ramesh has deceived her.
B. Ramesh cannot be held liable as he honestly believes that his love for Shilpa is true and,
therefore, he will succeed in his endeavour.
C. The court cannot entertain such suits as the act promised under the agreement is impossible in
itself.
D. Ramesh can be held liable for making an absurd promise.
163
Principle: An agreement may be oral or written. However, if a law specifically requires that an
agreement must be in writing then the agreement must be in writing. A law specifically requires
that the agreements relating to transfer of the copyright in novel between an author of a novel and
the producer of a motion picture must be in writing.
Facts: The author of a novel, Love at Lost Sight, had several rounds of discussion with a producer
of motion picture regarding making of a motion picture based on Love at Lost Sight. During the
last discussion, they decided to make a motion picture on Love at Lost Sight. The producer made
a motion picture on Love at Lost Sight after making a payment of Rs. 10, 00,000/- (Ten Lac Only)
in cash to the author who happily accepted this amount as full and final payment. Later on, on the
advice of his lawyer, the author brought a case in a court of law against the producer on the
ground that there is no written agreement between the producer and him.
A. The author is likely to succeed in the case as the agreement is not in accordance
with the law
160
B. The author cannot succeed in the case as he has given his consent to the
agreement
C. The author is not likely to succeed in the case because he has already accepted the
amount of Rs. 10,00,000/- as full an final payment
D. The author can succeed in the case as the consideration is not adequate
164
Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time
when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its
effect upon his interest.
Facts: X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract
with Y when he (X) is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now
wants to file a suit against X.
A. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract.
B. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of
unsound mind at the time of contract.
C. X can enter into contract but the burden is on X to prove that he was of sound mind at the
time of contract.
D. None of these.
165
Principle: Whosoever commits any act forbidden by the Indian Penal code with a view to obtain
the consent of any person to enter into an agreement, he cannot get the agreement enforced by
law but the person whose consent has been so obtained may get the agreement enforced by law.
The Indian Penal code defines various offences and prescribes punishments therefor.
Facts: A obtains the consent of B to enter into an agreement by an act amounting to criminal
intimidation under the Indian Penal Code. A brings a case against B for performance of
agreement.
A. A will succeed in the case
B. A may succeed in the case
C. B will succeed in the case
D. B will not succeed in the case
166
Principle: A contract between the father and his son is a contract of utmost good faith. In such a
type of contract law presumes that at the time of entering into the contract the father was in a
position to dominate the will of his son. Where one of the parties was in position to dominate the
will of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party whose will was
so dominated.
Facts: Ram had advanced a sum of Rs. 10,000/- to his minor son Shyam. When Shyam became
major, his father Ram misused his parental position and entered into an agreement with Shyam
and obtained a bond from him for a sum of Rs. 30,000 in respect of the advance. Whether this
agreement is enforceable?
161
A. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam only for Rs. 10,000/-, the actual amount
of money advanced to him
B. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam for Rs. 30,000/- because he has signed
the bond
C. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam because he was major at the time of
agreement.
D. The agreement is not enforceable against Shyam because Ram has misused his
position as father to obtain an unfair advantage.
167
Principle: When at the desire of one person, any other person has done or abstained from doing
something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise. Only a
promise coupled with consideration is enforceable by law.
Facts: X, the uncle of Y, made a promise to pay him an amount of Rs. 10,000/- as reward if Y
quits smoking and drinking within one year. X also deposited the above mentioned amount in a
bank and informed Y that the said amount will be paid to him if he quits smoking and drinking
within one year. Within a period of six months of making the promise X died. After the expiry of
one year of making the promise by X, Y made a request to the legal heirs of X demanding the
promised money. The legal heirs of X declined the request of Y.
A. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because Y has quitted smoking and
drinking
B. The promise of X to Y is not enforceable by law because Y has benefitted by
quitting smoking and drinking
C. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because the amount of Rs. 10, 000/- has
been deposited in a bank
D. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because X has died within a period of
six months of making the promise
168
Principle: Work means literary work, artistic work, dramatic work, musical work,
cinematographic film and sound recording but does not include acting in a cinematographic film.
Only the works, as enumerated above, can be protected under copyright law.
Facts: A very famous actor acted in a cinematographic film. The actor was also the producer and
director of cinematographic film.
A. The acting of the actor can be protected under copyright law
B. The acting of the actor can be protected under copyright law only as an artistic work
C. The acting of the actor cannot be protected under copyright law
D. The acting of the actor cannot be protected under copyright law as a cinematographic
film
169
Principle: In case where the government is a party, the government shall be the first owner of the
copyright in the work unless there is an agreement to the contrary.
Facts: The Government of the State of X entered into an agreement with a retired Professor of
Botany. The Professor agreed to write a text book on Botany. The Government agreed to pay a
sum of Rs. Ten Lacs to the Professor for this work.
A. The Government of the State of X shall be first owner of copyright in the text book
162
B. The Professor shall be first owner of copyright in the text book
C. Both the Government of the State of X and the Professor shall be the joint owners of
copyright in the text book
D. The Professor shall be first owner of copyright in the text book only if he refuses to
accept the amount of Rs. Ten Lacs from the Government
170
Principle: Licence is an agreement whereby the owner of the copyright agrees to grant an interest
in the copyright to the licencee. Assignment is an agreement whereby the owner of the copyright
transfers all the property rights to the assignee. Property right is a bundle of rights consisting of
right to possess, right to use, right to alienate, and the right to exclude others.
Facts: A, an owner of copyright in a cinematographic film enters into an agreement with B, a film
distributer. B agrees to distribute the film only in Mumbai. A also enters into many such
agreements with other distributers for distribution of his film in other cities.
A. The agreement between A and B is more in the nature of assignment than in the
nature of licence
B. The agreement between A and B is more in the nature of licence than in the nature of
assignment
C. The agreement between A and B is both in the nature of assignment and licence
D. The agreement between A and B is neither in the nature of assignment nor in the
nature of licence
171
Principle: Qui facit per alium facit per se, i.e. he who does things through others does it himself.
Facts: Nisha, the owner of a car, asked her friend Saurabh to take her car and drive the same to
her office. As the car was near her office, it hit a pedestrian Srikant on account of Saurabhs
negligent driving and injured him seriously. Now Srikant files a suit for damages against Nisha.
A. Nisha is not liable as it was the negligence of Saurabh.
B. Saurabh is solely liable as Nisha was not driving the car.
C. Nisha is liable as Saurabh was driving under her authority and for her purpose.
D. Saurabh will be exempted from liability under the principle of inevitable accident.
172
Principle: Words describing quality of things cannot be registered as trade mark. However, such
words may be registered as trade mark if they acquire a secondary meaning. Words acquire
secondary meaning when people start associating the descriptive words with a person specific.
Facts: A hatchery located in Raipur is owned by X. X has been using the slogan new laid eggs
sold here since 1970 to describe the quality of eggs sold in his hatchery. Over a period of time
because of continuous use of this slogan, people started associating this slogan with X. X filed an
application for registration of the words new laid eggs as trade mark in the year 1970.
A. The words will be registered as trade mark
B. The words will not be registered as trade mark
C. The words may be registered as trade mark
D. The words may not be registered as trade mark
173
163
Principle: Whoever takes away anything from the land of any person without that persons
consent is said to commit theft. A thing so long as it is attached to the earth is not the subject of
theft; but it becomes capable of being the subject of theft as soon as it is severed from the earth.
Facts: Y cuts down a tree standing on the land of X with the intention of dishonestly taking the
tree out of Xs possession without the consent of X. But Y is yet to take away the tree out of Xs
possession.
A. Y has committed theft as soon as he came to the land of X
B. Y has committed theft as soon as the tree has been completely cut down by him
C. Y has committed theft as soon as he has started cutting down the tree
D. Y has not committed theft because he is yet to take away the tree out of X possession
174
Principle: res ipsa loquitur i.e. the thing speaks for itself.
Facts: Seema got herself operated for the removal of her uterus in the defendants hospital, as
there was diagnosed to be a cyst in one of her ovaries. Due the negligence of the surgeon, who
performed the operation, abdominal pack was left in her abdomen. The same was removed by a
second surgery.
A. Surgeon cannot be held responsible because it is merely a human error.
B. Surgeon can be held responsible but Seema will have to prove in the court of law that
the surgeon was grossly negligent.
C. Surgeon will be responsible and Seema need not to prove surgeons negligence
because presence of abdominal pack in her abdomen is sufficient proof therefor.
175
Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor person less than sixteen years of age if a
male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female out of the keeping of parents of such minor
person without the consent of such parent, is said to kidnap such minor person.
Facts: A female born on January 01, 1995 got admitted to an undergraduate program of a reputed
University on July 01, 2012. She became friendly with one of the boys, born on June 01, 1994, of
her class. The boy and the girl decided to marry. The parents of the boy agreed but the family of
the girl did not agree. On December 15, 2012 the girl made a call from her Blackberry to the boy.
The girl told the boy to come in his car at a particular place and time. The boy reached the
stipulated place before the stipulated time. He waited there for about half an hour. The girl
reached the stipulated place. She opened the door of the car and sat beside the boy who was on
the driving seat. Without exchanging any pleasantries, the boy drove the car to an unknown place.
The father of the girl lodged an FIR in the nearest police station on January 20, 2013.
A. The boy has committed the offence of kidnapping
B. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping
C. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping for there is a delay in filing the
FIR
D. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping because the girl was his
classmate
176
164
Principle: Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man,
woman or animal shall be punished.
Facts: Two adult men were found engaged in carnal intercourse by the police. The police arrested
the men and produced them before the Court.
A. Court will punish the police officer who arrested the men
B. Court will not punish the men for they were adults
C. Court will punish the men
D. Court may be requested to declare the law unconstitutional.
177
Principle: Wherever the causing of a certain effect, or an attempt to cause that effect, by an act or
by an omission, is an offence, it is to be understood that the causing of that effect partly by an act
and partly by an omission is the same offence.
Facts: A intentionally omitted to give food to his father. He also used to beat his father.
Consequently As father died.
A. A did not commit any offence
B. A committed only the offence of omitting to give food to his father
C. A committed only the offence of beating of his father
D. A committed the offence of killing of his father
178
Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.
Facts: A, a child born on January 01, 2005 killed another child B on December 30, 2011.
A. A has committed no offence.
B. A has committed the offence as it is heinous crime
C. Killing of one child by another child is not an offence
D. A has not committed the offence for on the date of killing of B, A was a minor
179
Principle: A pact, other than a pact to commit suicide, to suffer any harm is not an offence,
provided the age of the person who has given his consent to suffer harm is above eighteen years.
Facts: A enters into a pact with B, a boy of less than 18 years of age, to fence with each other for
amusement. They agreed to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be caused
without foul play.
A. A, while playing fairly, hurts B, A commits no offence
B. A, while playing only unfairly, hurts B, A commits an offence
C. A, while playing fairly, hurts B, A commits an offence
D. A, while playing unfairly, hurts B, A commits no offence
180
Principle: When an act, which would otherwise be an offence, is not that offence by reason of the
youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the
person doing that act, every person has the same right of private defence against that act which he
would have if the act were that offence. Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the
right of private defence.
Facts: A, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill B. B in order to save his life causes
grievous hurt to A.
A. A has committed an offence
165
B. A has not committed an offence
C. B has committed an offence
D. B has not committed any offence
181
Principle: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the decision of a person to enter into a contract
does not amount to fraud, unless his silence is in itself equivalent to speech.
Facts: A sells to B a horse which A knows to be of unsound mind. B says to A that if A does not
say anything about the state of mind of horse, then B shall presume that the horse is of sound
mind. A says nothing to B about the mental condition of horse.
A. A has committed fraud
B. A has committed misrepresentation
C. There cannot be a fraud because A says nothing about the mental condition of the
horse
D. There can not be a fraud because B did not ask A whether the horse is of sound mind
182
Principle: Whoever by words, either spoken or written brings or attempts to bring into hatred or
contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law
in India shall be punished. However, comments expressing disapprobation of the administrative
or other action of the Government without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or
disaffection, do not constitute an offence.
Facts: A renowned professor of economics wrote a critical comment on the economic policies of
the Government of India in a National Daily. This piece of writing generated academic debate not
only in the print media but also on television and internet. A student of law asked the fellow
Indians on a social networking website to assemble at a particular place for peaceful and silent
demonstration against the said economic policies on a stipulated date and time. The crowed
assembled at that venue and started shouting anti-government slogans. Police arrested the
professor.
A. The professor has committed the offence
B. The professor has not committed any offence
C. The student of law has committed the offence
D. The crowed has committed an offence
183
Principle: Where two or more persons have made a complaint for the grant of compulsory licence
to the Copyright Board, the licence shall be granted to that complainant only who, in the opinion
of the Copyright Board, would best serve the interests of the general public.
Facts: Four persons made a complaint for the grant of compulsory licence to the Copyright Board.
A. Licence shall be granted to only one complainant
B. Licence may be granted to two complainants
C. Licence may be granted to three complainants
D. Licence must be granted to all the four complainants
184
166
Principle: Any police officer, not below the rank of a sub-inspector, may, if he is satisfied that an
offence in respect of the infringement of copyright in any work has been, is being, or is likely to
be, committed, seize without warrant, all copies of the work, and all plates used for the purpose of
making infringing copies of the work, wherever found, and all copies and plates so seized shall,
as soon as practicable, be produced before a Magistrate.
Facts: A Superintendent of Police (SP) conducted a raid on a shop and found pirated copies of
books. The SP formed an opinion that infringement of copyright is taking place. He arrested the
shop owner without warrant in the light of above mentioned propositions.
A. The arrest of the shop owner was within the power of the SP
B. The arrest of the shop owner was not within the power of the SP
C. The shop owner can never be arrested
D. SP was not competent to know whether infringement of copyright has taken place
185
Principle: Whoever attempts to commit an offence punishable by the Indian Penal Code and in
such attempt does any act towards the commission of the offence, shall be punished. Stealing is
an offence punishable by the Indian Penal Code.
Facts: A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and after so opening the
box, finds that there is no jewel in it.
A. A has committed no offence
B. A has committed the offence of stealing
C. A has attempted to commit the offence of stealing
186
Principle: Whoever by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible
representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or
knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such
person, is said to defame that person.
Facts: In a community there is a custom of stealing shoes of bridegroom during the marriage
ceremony. The shoes of the bridegroom were stolen by Y. A announced that Z has stolen the
shoes. Everyone present in the marriage party started staring at Z with great surprise. Z felt very
ashamed.
A. A defamed Z
B. A did not defame Z
C. A defamed Z for Z felt very ashamed
D. A defamed the whole marriage party
187
Principle: An employer is liable for the negligence of his employee. But an employer is not liable
for the negligence of his employee if the victim of such negligence is one of his other employees.
Facts: A and B were working in a factory as unskilled labourers. A was carrying a basket of
stones on his head. B was sitting on the ground. When A crossed B, all of a sudden a stone fell
down from the basket and hit B on his head. B died immediately.
A. The owner of the factory will be liable
B. A and the owner of the factory shall be jointly liable
167
C. The owner of the factory will not be liable
188
Principle: Damages are the money recompense, as far as money can do, for the violation of a
right.
Facts: A, an Indian citizen, having a right to vote, was not allowed to cast his vote on the polling
booth, by the returning officer. Name of A was mentioned in the voters list. A has also reported
at the polling booth in time. However, the candidate in whose favour A would have cast his vote
won the election. A filed a suit claiming damages.
A. A will be entitled to damages
B. A will not be entitled to damages
C. A will be entitled to only nominal damages
D. A will be entitled to exemplary damages
189
Principle: When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from
performing, his promise in its entirety, the other party may put an end to the contract.
Facts: A engaged B on April 12 to enter his service on June 1, but on May 11, A wrote to B that
his services would not be needed. On May 22, B joined C for employment.
A. B must wait till June 1
B. B must have joined C on May 11
C. B is not bound to wait till June 1
D. A must pay damages to B
190
Principle: When a person voluntarily agrees to suffer some harm, he is not allowed to complain
for that.
Facts: A was one of the spectators at a formula one car race, being held at Gurgaon, on a track
owned by one M company. During the race, there was a collision between two racing cars, one
of which was thrown away amidst spectators, thereby causing an injury to A. A claims
damages for the injuries caused to him.
A. M company will be liable for damages because the injury was caused during the race
organized by it
B. M company will not be liable for damages because A had come to see the race on his own
will.
C. M company will not be liable for damages because the collision between the cars was
beyond its control
D. M company will be liable because it has earned huge revenue by way of sale of tickets for
the event
168
191
Principle: An interest which is created on a transfer of property and depends upon the fulfillment
of a condition will fail if the fulfillment of the condition is impossible or is forbidden by law or is
of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law or is fraudulent or
involves or implies injury to the person or property of another or the court regards it as immoral
or opposed to public policy.
Facts: A gives Rs. Ten Lacs to B on condition that B shall marry As daughter C. On the date on
which A gave Rs. Ten Lacs to B, C was dead.
A. Bs interest in Rs. Ten Lacs fails because of impossibility
B. Bs interest in Rs. Ten Lacs fails because of immorality
C. Bs interest in Rs. Ten Lacs fails because of prohibition by law
D. Bs interest in Rs. Ten Lacs does not fail
192
Principle: A condition precedent must be complied with before the happening of the event to
which such a condition is attached. Fulfillment of such a condition after the happening of the
event is no fulfillment of condition.
Facts: A transfers Rs. 5000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E.
As C, D and E had to go abroad for some business purposes and as the date of marriage was
already fixed, therefore, B marries without the consent of C, D and E, but obtains their consent
after the marriage when C, D and E return to their country.
A. B has fulfilled the condition
B. B has not fulfilled the condition
C. B was free to marry any one without the consent of any body
D. B must divorce his wife as he married her without fulfilling the condition
193
Principle: In an agreement, a condition subsequent must be complied with, to claim the benefit of
that agreement.
Facts: A agrees to transfer a farm to B, provided that, if B does not go to England within three
years after the date of the agreement, his interest in the farm shall cease. B does not go to England
within the term prescribed.
A. Bs interest in the farm continues
B. Bs interest in the farm does not continue
C. B has a fundamental right to go to England or not to go to England and hence the
condition was illegal
D. The agreement between A and B was void
194
Principle: Existence of all the alleged facts is relevant whether they occurred at the same time and
place or at different times and places.
Facts: A, a permanent resident in a foreign country who never visited India, is accused of waging
war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is
destroyed, troops are attacked and prisons are broken open.
A. The existence of all the above mentioned alleged facts is relevant
169
B. Only the alleged fact that A is accused of waging war against the Government of
India is relevant
C. The fact that A was a permanent resident in a foreign country who never visited
India is not relevant
D. Only the alleged fact of taking part by A in armed resurrection is relevant
195
Principle: Whoever desires any Court to give judgment about any legal right or liability which
depends on the existence of those facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist.
Facts: A asserts that B, C and D have committed an offence of criminal conspiracy and therefore
A desires a Court to give judgment that B, C and D shall be punished for that crime which A says
B, C and D have committed.
A. A must prove that B, C, and D have committed the crime
B. B, C, and D must prove that they have not committed the crime
C. A must prove that B, C, and D were present at the place of crime
D. Police must prove that B, C, and D have committed the crime
196
Principle: The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between
his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution, the mother
remaining unmarried, shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man, unless it
can be shown that the parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when he
could have been begotten.
Facts: X and Y married on January 15, 1995. Y, the wife of X, never left her parental home and
never went to her husbands home. A boy was born to Y on July 15, 1995. For the Court:
A. There shall be a conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X
B. There shall be no conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X
C. There shall be a conclusive proof that the boy is the illegitimate son of X
D. There shall be no evidence at all.
197
Principle: An unlawful interference with a persons use or enjoyment of land, or some right over,
or in connection with it, is a nuisance in law of tort.
Facts: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant's shop who
having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The
queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops.
The neighboring shopkeepers filed a suit for nuisance against the defendant. Which one of the
following decisions will be correct in this suit?
A. The defendant is liable for nuisance
B. The defendant is not liable for nuisance
C. The defendant is liable under the principle of strict liability
D. The plaintiffs suit should be decreed in favour of the neighbouring shopkeeper
198
Principle: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.
170
Facts: Qadir Khan died in a road accident. Two co-widows, Sultana and Marjina enter into an
agreement that if any of them will remarry, would forfeit her right to her share in the deceased
husbands property.
A. The agreement is void because it was restraint of marriage
B. The agreement is not void because no restraint was imposed upon either of two widows for
remarriage.
C. The restraint was partial so agreement is valid
199
Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is
likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith
for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to a person or property.
Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Italian captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or
negligence on his part, finds himself near the Kochi coast in such a position that before he can
stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B with twenty or thirty passengers on board,
unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk of
running down a boat C with only two passengers on board, which he may possibly clear. Whether
Sharman has committed an offence?
A. Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity
B. Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence
C. Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide
D. This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible
200
Principle: Only the Parliament or the State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their
own. No law made by State can take away a persons fundamental right.
Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the
fundamental rights of traders. The group of lawyers filed a writ petition against the Parliament
for enacting such law and requests the court to quash the law and to direct the Parliament to make
a new law.
A. No writ would lie against the Parliament, as the Court has no authority to direct the
Parliament to enact or re-enact a law.
B. The Court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental right and can direct to make a
new law.
C. The Court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental right but cannot direct the
Parliament to make a new law.
D. None of these.
171
172

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COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT)

Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University

ENGLISH INCLUDING COMPREHENSION

1) A vote.............. of proposed at the end of the meeting.

(A) thanks were

2) During the recession many companies will........... lay off workers.

3) She has good............. over the famous foreign languages.

5) When the examinations were over............ went to Paris.

(A) me and Rohan

6) Let's go for a walk...............?

(A) would not have been

9) In big cities people are ...... cut from nature.

10) The dissidents ......... a great problem in every political party.

(A) By virtue of previously held position

17) Ultra Vires

(A) Within powers

18) Quid pro quo

(A) Something for nothing

19) Inter vivos

(A) between the living

20) Corpus juris

(A) body of judges

21) Which of the following spellings is correct?

23) Which of the following spellings is correct?

25) Which of the following spellings is correct?

26) To make clean breast of:

(A) To tell the truth about something

27) A man of straw:

(A) A creditable man

28) A wild-goose chase:

(A) A wise search

(A) To offer for sale

30) To meet someone halfway:

31) The principal focus of the passage is:

(A) Primary education

32) The style of the passage can be best described as:

(A) Elite society

34) According to the passage, which one of the following is INCORRECT?

(A) Expanding opportunities for higher education

(A) Primary education is very important

39) What is the antonym of the expression cutting edge?

40) What is the meaning of the word discernible?

43) Value of A" in the expression, 5+12x10/(120/240)=Ax10 is:

(A) 34.3 km/h

(A) Increased in the ratio 45:56

50) If 80% of A = 20% of B and B = 5x% of A, then the value of x is:

(A) `20000, `14000

(A) 1041 cm3

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS

(A) Justice VR Krishna Iyyar

62) Law Day is observed on:

(A) 26th January

64) The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year:

(A) Charles Wilkins

72) Who was not a Chief Justice of India?

(A) Justice M Patanjali Sastri

73) Who was the first Attorney-General for India?

List I (Events) List II (Results)

(A) Union Ministry of Finance