TOEFL Module 1 - Reading
TOEFL Module 1 - Reading
TOEFL Module 1 - Reading
POSTGRADUATE PROGRAM:
TOEFL EXAM PREPARATION
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Postgraduate Program: TOEFL Exam Preparation
TOEFL Module 1: Reading
PREREQUISITES
All students taking this course must have completed and passed FCE2, or have scored more than 70
points in the Idiomas Placement test.
COURSE INFORMATION
The TOEFL course consists of two semester-long modules, plus one summer intensive preparation
course.
Module 1 of the TOEFL course is a TOEFL Reading program. It incorporates activities from the paper-
based and the Internet-based (iBT) versions of the TOEFL exam.
Module 2 of the TOEFL course is a TOEFL Listening program which also incorporates activities from
the paper-based and the iBT versions of the TOEFL exam. Delivery of this module is subject to the
availability of teaching resources. (In other words: This course will be given when we have the books,
CDs, computer setup, and CD-ROMs we need to be able to give the course.)
The Summer Intensive module will incorporate activities from the Structure and Written Expression
and the Test of Written English sections of the paper-based TOEFL exam, and Speaking and Writing
practice activities from the Internet-based TOEFL exam. Delivery of this module is subject to the
availability of teaching staff and teaching resources.
MODULE 1: READING
This is a one semester long course. To pass the course, students must:
Complete the activities for each week of the course.
Take (and pass) the midterm and the Final exam for the course
There are no face-to-face classes for this course. Students are expected to download the packet of
readings from Maria’s website, and work through them. Please visit Maria in her office, or send her an
email if you have any questions or need help with the readings.
Please make sure Maria has an up-to-date, working email address for you, so that she can contact
you when necessary!
EXAM INFORMATION
You will do a midterm and a final exam for the TOEFL Reading module. Each exam takes two hours.
You must do the exam on the dates given below. Students who do not do one or both exams on the
due dates will score a ‘0’ on the module and will fail the course.
Date Location
Midterm Exam 1 or 2 December 2016 Sala de Auto-acceso, Centro de Idiomas
(Ask Angélica for the exam.)
Final Exam 1 or 2 February 2017 Sala de Auto-acceso, Centro de Idiomas
(Ask Angélica for the exam.)
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The TOEFL exams
There are two different TOEFL exams; the Internet-based TOEFL (iBT), which is taken by 96% of
students around the world, and the paper-based TOEFL, generally given in Mexico.There are
significant differences between the two exams, summarized in the table below.
Paper-based TOEFL Internet-based TOEFL
What does it test? Tests discrete skills. Direct skill testing.
Sections Listening Reading
Structure and Written Expression Listening
(SWE) Speaking
Reading Writing
Test of Written English (TWE)
(optional)
Points 677 points 120 points
(Students usually require 550 points to
enter Master or doctoral level
programs.)
Advantages of the Cheaper (usually costs ~700 96% of the world does this test.
test for UTM pesos). Doing well on the test means that
students More places in Oaxaca offer this you speak, read, write, and hear
test. English well enough to do well in
Scores accepted by Mexican studies abroad.
universities and by many
American universities.
Quicker to prepare for (the exam
format has many similarities with
the Cambridge exams)
Easier to study for, as students
can specifically study grammar
Mexican students generally have
problems writing well in English.
The written section of this test is
optional, and only offered a couple
of times a year.
Disadvantages of Only 4% of the world does this No specific grammar section, so
the test for UTM test, so it is difficult to get access students must have good general
students to books and practice materials for fluency
the test. Integrated tasks require a high
level of fluency.
Cost: The test costs almost 3000
pesos.
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Semester overview
Week Dates Material covered Completed?
1 3-7 October 2016 TOEFL Paper-based test: 6 October
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Table of contents
Prerequisites .................................................................................................................................... 2
Information about the teacher ........................................................................................................... 2
Course information ........................................................................................................................... 2
Module 1: Reading ........................................................................................................................... 2
Exam information ............................................................................................................................. 2
The TOEFL exams............................................................................................................................... 3
Differences between the paper-based and iBT TOEFL reading exams ............................................ 3
Semester overview .............................................................................................................................. 4
Table of contents ................................................................................................................................. 5
Week 2: Main idea questions ............................................................................................................... 7
(PBT) Answer main idea questions correctly .................................................................................... 7
(iBT) Select summary information................................................................................................... 10
Week 3: Main idea and organization .................................................................................................. 12
(PBT) Recognize the organization of ideas..................................................................................... 12
(iBT) Insert sentences into the passage ......................................................................................... 14
Week 4: Directly answered questions ................................................................................................ 16
(PBT) Answer stated detail questions correctly............................................................................... 16
(iBT) Find factual information.......................................................................................................... 18
Week 5: Direct and indirectly answered questions ............................................................................. 20
(PBT) Find pronoun referents ......................................................................................................... 20
(iBT) Recognize referents ............................................................................................................... 22
Week 6: Indirectly answered questions .............................................................................................. 24
(PBT) Find “unstated” details .......................................................................................................... 24
(iBT) Understand negative facts ..................................................................................................... 26
Week 7: Indirectly answered questions .............................................................................................. 28
(PBT) Answer implied detail questions correctly ............................................................................. 28
(iBT) Make inferences from stated facts ......................................................................................... 31
Week 8: Review ................................................................................................................................. 33
(PBT) Answer transition questions correctly ................................................................................... 33
(iBT) Review exercises ................................................................................................................... 35
Week 9: MIDTERM (1-2 December 2016).......................................................................................... 37
Week 10: Vocabulary ......................................................................................................................... 38
(PBT) Find definitions from structural clues .................................................................................... 38
(iBT) Understand vocabulary from context...................................................................................... 40
Week 11: Vocabulary ......................................................................................................................... 42
(PBT) Determine meanings from word parts ................................................................................... 42
(PBT) Use context to determine meanings of difficult words ........................................................... 44
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Week 12: Vocabulary and inferences ................................................................................................. 46
(PBT) Use context to determine meanings of simple words ............................................................ 46
(iBT) Infer rhetorical purpose .......................................................................................................... 48
Week 13: Vocabulary review .............................................................................................................. 50
(iBT) Review exercises ................................................................................................................... 50
Week 14: Overall exam review........................................................................................................... 55
(PBT) Determine where specific information is found ..................................................................... 55
(PBT) Determine the tone, purpose, or course ............................................................................... 57
Week 15: Reading to learn................................................................................................................. 60
(iBT) Complete schematic tables .................................................................................................... 60
(iBT) Review iBT exam ................................................................................................................... 62
Week 16: FINAL EXAM (1-2 February 2017) ..................................................................................... 64
Answer key ........................................................................................................................................ 65
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Week 2: Main idea questions
(PBT) ANSWER MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
1. Which of the following best describes the 2. Which of the following would be the best title
topic of the passage? for this passage?
(A) The city of Fort Knox, Kentucky (A) The Massive Concrete Vault
(B) The federal gold depository (B) Fort Knox Security
(C) The U.S. army post at Fort Knox (C) Where the U.S. Keeps Its Gold
(D) Gold bullion (D) A Visit to Kentucky
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PASSAGE TWO (QUESTIONS 3-4)
Line One identifying characteristic of minerals is their relative hardness, which can be
determined by scratching one mineral with another. In this type of test, a harder mineral can
scratch a softer one, but a softer mineral is unable to scratch the harder one. The Mohs'
hardness scale is used to rank minerals according to hardness. Ten minerals are listed in this
(5) scale, ranging from talc with a hardness of 1 to diamond with a hardness of 10. On this scale,
quartz (number 7) is harder than feldspar (number 6) and is therefore able to scratch it; however,
feldspar is unable to make a mark on quartz.
3. Which of the following best states the 4. The main idea of this passage is that
subject of this passage? (A) the hardness of a mineral can be
(A) The hardness of diamonds determined by its ability to make a mark on
(B) Identifying minerals by means of a scratch other minerals
test (B) diamonds, with a hardness of 10 on the
(C) Feldspar on the Mohs' scale Mohs' scale, can scratch all other minerals
(D) Recognizing minerals in their natural state (C) a softer mineral cannot be scratched by a
harder mineral
(D) talc is the first mineral listed on the Mohs'
scale
5. The passage mainly discusses 6. The best title for this passage would be
(A) how many hurricanes occur each year (A) The North Atlantic Ocean
(B) the strength of hurricanes (B) Storms of the Northern Atlantic
(C) the weather in the North Atlantic (C) Hurricanes: The Damage and Destruction
(D) hurricanes in one part of the world (D) What Happens from May through
November
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PASSAGE FOUR (QUESTIONS 7-9)
Para 1 Henry Wadsworth Longfellow (1807-1882) was perhaps the best-known American poet
of the nineteenth century. His clear writing style and emphasis on the prevalent values of the
period made him popular with the general public, if not always with the critics. He was
particularly recognized for his longer narrative poems Evangeline, The Song of Hiawatha, and
The Courtship of Miles Standish, in which he told stories from American history in terms of the
values of the time.
2 Evangeline was set during the French and Indian War (1754-1763), when the British
forced French settlers from Nova Scotia; two lovers, Gabriel and Evangeline, were separated
by the British, and Evangeline devoted her lifetime to the search for Gabriel. With its emphasis
on sentimental, undying love, Evangeline was immensely popular with the public.
3 In The Song of Hiawatha, Longfellow depicted the noble life of the American Indian
through the story of the brave Hiawatha and his beloved wife Minehaha. The tear-inspiring
poem follows Hiawatha through the tragedies and triumphs of life, ending with the death of
Minehaha and Hiawatha's departure into the sunset in his canoe.
4 The Courtship of Miles Standish takes place during the early period of the settlement of
New England, a period which was viewed as a time of honor and romance. In this poem
centered around a love triangle, Miles Standish asks his friend John Alden to propose to
Priscilla Mullins for him; John Alden ends up marrying Priscilla Mullins himself, and it takes time
for his friendship with Miles Standish to recover. As with Longfellow's other narrative poems,
the emphasis on high ideals and romance made the poem extremely popular.
7. Which of the following best describes the 9. The subject of the fourth paragraph is
main idea of the passage? (A) nobility and honor in the poems of
(A) American history is often depicted in poetry. Longfellow
(B) Longfellow described American history (B) the love triangle involving Miles Standish
even though people really did not enjoy it. (C) the popular appeal of The Courtship of
(C) The popularity of Longfellow's poems Miles Standish
results from his stress on the values of the (D) the period of the early settlement of New
people. England
(D) Longfellow wrote long narrative poems that
were not always popular with the critics.
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(IBT) SELECT SUMMARY INFORMATION
This passage discusses the ways that plant life is able to develop on islands.
Answer choices (choose 3 to complete the chart):
(1) Some seeds are able to float great distances in the air.
(2) Some plant life existed before islands were cut off from larger bodies of land.
(3) Some islands have many different varieties of plants.
(4) Birds sometimes carry seeds to islands.
(5) Some islands were created when rising water cut them off from larger bodies of land.
(6) Some plant seeds are carried to islands by the wind.
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PASSAGE SIX (BEN AND JERRY)
Ben and Jerry
Line All successful businesses are not established and run in the same way, with formal
business plans, traditional organizational structures, and a strong focus on profits. Ben Cohen
and Jerry Greenfield, the entrepreneurs responsible for the highly successful ice cream business
that bears their names, were businessmen with a rather unconventional approach.
(5) They were rather unconventional from the start, not choosing to begin their careers by
attending one of the elite business schools, but instead choosing to take a five-dollar
correspondence course from Pennsylvania State University. They had little financial backing to
start their business, so they had to cut corners wherever they could; the only location they could
afford for the startup of their business was a gas station that they converted to ice cream
(10) production. Though this start-up was rather unconventional, they were strongly committed to
creating the best ice cream possible, and this commitment to the quality of their product
eventually led to considerable success.
Even though they became extremely successful, they did not convert to a more
conventional style of doing business. In an era where companies were measured on every
(15) penny of profit that they managed to squeeze out, Ben and Jerry had a strong belief that
business should give back to the community; thus, they donated 7.5 percent of their pretax profit
to social causes that they believed in. They also lacked the emphasis on executive salary and
benefits packages that so preoccupy other corporations, opting instead for a five-to-one policy in
which salary of the employee receiving the highest pay could never be more than five times the
(20) salary of the employee receiving the lowest pay.
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Week 3: Main idea and organization
(PBT) RECOGNIZE THE ORGANIZATION OF IDEAS
ORGANIZATION OF IDEAS
How to identify the question How is the information in the passage organized?
How is the information in the second paragraph related to the information in
the first paragraph?
Where to find the answer The answer to this type of question can generally be determined by looking at
the first sentence of the appropriate paragraphs.
How to answer the question 1. Read the first line of each paragraph.
2. Look for words that show the relationship between the paragraphs.
3. Choose the answer that best expresses the relationship.
1. How is the information in the passage 2. What type of information is included in the
organized? third paragraph?
(A) The origin of ideas about conflict is (A) A comparison of the interactionist and
presented. " traditional views of conflict
(B) Contrasting views of conflict are presented. (B) A discussion of the weaknesses of the
(C) Two theorists discuss the strengths and interactionist view of conflict
weaknesses of their views on conflict. (C) An outline of the type of manager who
(D) Examples of conflict within organizations prefers the interactionist view of conflict
are presented. (D) A description of one of the opposing views
of conflict
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3. What type of information is included in the 4. How does the information in the third
first paragraph? paragraph differ from that in the second
(A) An argument paragraph?
(B) A definition (A) It presents a contrasting point of view.
(C) An opinion (B) It follows chronologically from the ideas in
(D) A theory the second paragraph.
(C) It presents real information rather than a
premise.
(D) lt presents an example of the ideas in the
second paragraph.
5. How is the information in the passage 6. The third paragraph contains information on
organized? (A) how the size of the lake affects weather
(A) Two unusual characteristics of the Great conditions
Salt Lake are discussed. (B) the effects of contrasting weather
(B) Contrasting theories about the Great Salt conditions on the size of the lake
Lake's salt levels are presented. (C) the effects of changes in the size of the
(C) The process by which the Great Salt Lake lake
gets its salt is outlined. (D) the causes of the varied weather conditions
(D) The reasons for the variations in the Great in the area of the lake
Salt Lake's size are given.
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(IBT) INSERT SENTENCES INTO THE PASSAGE
1. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the first
paragraph of the passage.
Native Americans have been popping corn for at least 5,000 years, using a variety of different
methods.
Click on a square [] to add the sentence to the passage.
2. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the second
paragraph of the passage.
A century after these early explorers, the Pilgrims at Plymouth may have been introduced to
popcorn at the first Thanksgiving dinner.
Click on a square [] to add the sentence to the passage.
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PASSAGE FIVE (LIONS)
Para Lions
3A 3B
1 Something unusual about lions is that they hunt in groups. Group hunting is
3C
beneficial to lions because it means that much larger prey can be captured by the lions. It
3D
also means that individual lions expend much less energy during a hunt.
2 There is a standard pattern to the process of hunting in groups. 4A The process is
initiated by a single female, who stations herself at a raised elevation to serve as a lookout to
4B
spot potential prey. When prey is spotted, a group of young lionesses advances on the herd
4C
and pushes the herd in the direction of a different lioness who has hidden herself downwind.
4D
It is up to this concealed female to choose the weakest member of the herd for the kill.
5A
As can be seen from this description of the process, it is the females rather than the
3
5B
male or males in the pride that take part in the kill. The younger and stronger females are
5C
the ones who go on the attack. While the females are on the attack, the males stay behind
5D
to protect the rest of the pride from attack by predators such as hyenas.
3. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the first
paragraph of the passage.
Other cats do not.
Click on a square [] to add the sentence to the passage.
4. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the first
paragraph of the passage.
This is usually accomplished by knocking the prey to the ground and breaking its neck.
Click on a square [] to add the sentence to the passage.
5. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the first
paragraph of the passage.
Thus, the males have a defensive rather than an offensive role.
Click on a square [] to add the sentence to the passage.
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Week 4: Directly answered questions
(PBT) ANSWER STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
1. According to the passage, what happens 3. According to the passage, what in the rock
during an ice age? strata is a clue to geologists of a past ice age?
(A) Rock strata are recognized by geologists. (A) Ice
(B) Evidence of foreign materials is found. (B) Melting glaciers
(C) Ice covers a large portion of the Earth's (C) U-shaped valleys
surface. (D) Substances from other areas
(D) Ice melts six times.
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4. The passage indicates that the ventricles 6. According to the passage, which part of the
(A) have relatively thin walls heart gets blood from the body tissues and
(B) send blood to the atria passes it on to the lungs?
(C) are above the atria (A) The atria
(D) force blood into the arteries (B) The ventricles
(C) The right atrium and ventricle
5. According to the passage, when is blood (D) The left atrium and ventricle
pushed into the arteries from the
ventricles?
(A) As the heart beats
(B) Between heartbeats
(C) Before each contraction of the heart
(D) Before it is received by the atria
7. According to the passage, the Golden Age of 9. The passage indicates that Standard Time
Railroads was implemented
(A) occurred prior to the Civil War (A) before the Civil War
(B) was a result of World War I (B) on June 1, 1886
(C) was a period when most of U.S. mass (C) after World War I
transportation was controlled by the railroads (D) before standardized track gauge was
(D) resulted in a decrease in uniformity of track established throughout the U.S.
gauge
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(IBT) FIND FACTUAL INFORMATION
1. What is stated in paragraph 1 about the (C) holds one-ninth of the world’s water
shape of Lake Baikal? (D) holds 20 percent of the world’s fresh water
(A) It is wider than it is long.
(B) It is circular in shape. 4. According to paragraph 1, the Olkhon
(C) Its width is one-half of its length. Crevice is
(D) It is shaped like a new moon. (A) outside of Lake Baikal
(B) 400 meters below sea level
2. It is indicated in paragraph 1 that the area of (C) the deepest part of Lake Baikal
Lake Baikal (D) 5,000 meters deep
(A) is less than the area of eight other lakes
(B) is one-ninth the area of Siberia 5. It is mentioned in paragraph 2 that Lake
(C) is greater than the area of any other Baikal
freshwater lake (A) is not as old as some other lakes
(D) is equal to the area of the five Great Lakes (B) formed when sections of the Earth were
moving away from each other
3. According to paragraph 1, Lake Baikal (C) was fully formed 25 million years ago
(A) holds one-fifth of the world’s water (D) is today located on the edge of the Asian
(B) holds five times the water of the Great peninsula
Lakes
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PASSAGE FIVE (THE POSTAGE STAMP)
Para The Postage Stamp
1 The postage stamp has been around for only a relatively short period of time. The use of
stamps for postage was first proposed in England in 1837, when Sir Rowland Hill published a
pamphlet entitled “Post Office Reform: Its Importance and Practicability” to put forth the ideas
that postal rates should not be based on the distance that a letter or package travels but should
instead be based on the weight of the letter or package and that fees for postal services should
be collected in advance of the delivery, rather than after, through the use of postage stamps.
2 The ideas proposed by Hill went into effect in England almost immediately, and other
countries soon followed suit. The first English stamp, which featured a portrait of then Queen
Victoria, was printed in 1840. This stamp, the “penny black”, came in sheets that needed to be
separated with scissors and provided enough postage for a letter weighing 14 grams or less to
any destination. In 1843, Brazil was the next nation to produce national postage stamps, and
various areas in what is today Switzerland also produced postage stamps later in the same year.
Postage stamps in five- and ten-cent denominations were first approved by the U.S. Congress in
1847, and by 1860 postage stamps were being issued in more than 90 governmental
jurisdictions worldwide.
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Week 5: Direct and indirectly answered questions
(PBT) FIND PRONOUN REFERENTS
PRONOUN REFERENTS
How to identify the question The pronoun “...” in line X refers to which of the following?
Where to find the answer The line where the pronoun is located is generally given in the question. The
noun that the pronoun refers to is generally found before the pronoun.
How to answer the question 1. Find the pronoun in the passage. (The line where the pronoun can be
found is generally stated in the question.)
2. Look for nouns that come before the pronoun.
3. Read the part of the passage before the pronoun carefully.
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from
the remaining choices.
1. The pronoun "It" in line 2 refers to 2. The pronoun "they" in line 3 refers to
(A) the equinox (A) farmers
(B) the Sun (B) nights
(C) the Harvest Moon (C) times of the year
(D) the night (D) Northern and Southern Hemispheres
3. The pronoun "it" in line 2 refers to 4. The pronoun "they" in line 6 refers to
(A) Mardi Gras (A) numerous festivities
(B) French (B) tourists
(C) that time (C) various countries
(D) New Orleans (D) nonstop activities
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PASSAGE THREE (QUESTIONS 5-6)
Line The financial firm Dow Jones and Company computes business statistics every hour on
the hour of each of the business days of the year, and these statistics are known as the Dow
Jones averages. They are based on a select group of stocks and bonds that are traded on the
New York Stock Exchange. The Dow Jones averages are composed of four different types of
(5) averages: the average price of the common stock of thirty industrial firms, the average price of
the common stock prices of twenty transportation companies, the average price of the common
stock prices of fifteen utility companies, and an overall average of all the sixty-five stocks used to
compute the first three averages. Probably the average that is the most commonly used is the
industrial average; it is often used by an investor interested in checking the state of the stock
(10) market before making an investment in an industrial stock.
5. The pronoun "They" in line 3 refers to 6. The pronoun "it" in line 9 refers to
(A) the business days (A) the industrial average
(B) these statistics (B) an investor
(C) stocks and bonds (C) the state of the stock market
(D) four different types (D) an investment
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(IBT) RECOGNIZE REFERENTS
1. The word those in the passage refers to 3. The word one in the passage refers to
(A) types (A) group
(B) animals (B) prey
(C) advantages (C) predator
(D) groups (D) point
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PASSAGE FIVE (CHROMIUM COMPOUNDS)
Para Chromium Compounds
1 Most chromium compounds have brightly colored hues, and as a result they are widely
used as coloring agents, or pigments, in paints. In addition to having a pleasing color a paint
must protect the surface to which it is applied and be easy to apply in a thin, uniform coat.
2 All paints consist of two parts. One is a powder of solid particles that is the source of the
color and the opaqueness and is known as the pigment. The other, called the binder, is the liquid
into which the pigment is blended. The binder used in some paints is made from oily solvents
such as those derived from petroleum resources. When applied, these solvents evaporate,
leaving deposits of pigment on the surface.
5. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to 8. The word which in paragraph 2 refers to
(A) chromium compounds (A) powder
(B) brightly colored hues (B) paint
(C) coloring agents (C) liquid
(D) pigments (D) pigment
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Week 6: Indirectly answered questions
(PBT) FIND “UNSTATED” DETAILS
1. AlI of the following are true about blood 2. Which of the following is NOT stated about
plasma EXCEPT whole blood?
(A) it is a deeply colored liquid (A) It is different from plasma.
(B) blood cells have been taken out of it (B) It cannot be dried.
(C) patients are often transfused with it (C) It is impossible to keep it in storage for a
(D) it is generally more important to the patient long time.
than other parts of whole blood (D) It is a clear, colorless liquid.
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PASSAGE TWO (QUESTIONS 3-4)
Line Elizabeth Cochrane Seaman was an American journalist at the turn of the century who
wrote for the newspaper New York World under the pen name Nellie Bly, a name which was
taken from the Stephen Foster song Nelly Bly. She achieved fame for her exposés and in
particular for the bold and adventuresome way that she obtained her stories.
(5) She felt that the best way to get the real story was from the inside rather than as an
outside observer who could be treated to a prettified version of reality. On one occasion she
pretended to be a thief so that she would get arrested and see for herself how female prisoners
were really treated. On another occasion she faked mental illness in order to be admitted to a
mental hospital to get the real picture on the treatment of mental patients.
3. Which of the following is NOT true about 4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as
Nellie Bly? something that Nellie Bly did to get a good
(A) Nellie Bly's real name was Elizabeth story?
Cochrane Seaman. (A) She acted like a thief.
(B) Nellie Bly was mentally ill. (B) She got arrested by the police.
(C) The name Nellie Bly carne from a song. (C) She pretended to be ill.
(D) The name Nellie Bly was used on articles (D) She worked as a doctor in a mental
that Seaman wrote. hospital.
5. According to the passage, Dekanawida was 6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in
NOT the passage about wampum?
(A) a lawmaker (A) It was used extensively by the Huron.
(B) a Huron by birth (B) It had a high value to the Iroquois.
(C) a near deity (C) It was given to a murder victim's family.
(D) drowned when he was young (D) It was made of polished shells.
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(IBT) UNDERSTAND NEGATIVE FACTS
1. It is NOT stated in the passage that sand (A) overly sensitive to light
dabs (B) able to see colors
(A) are a type of flatfish (C) able to see the sea bottom
(B) are in the same family as flounders (D) aware of their surroundings
(C) have evolved
(D) are colorfully decorated 4. It is NOT true that chromatophores
(A) are skin cells
2. According to the passages, it is NOT true (B) carry pigment
that sand dabs and flounders (C) adapt to surrounding colors
(A) have flattened bodies (D) change the ocean floor
(B) live along the ocean floor
(C) live in the deepest part of the ocean 5. It is NOT mentioned in the passage that
(D) live along the continental shelf sand dabs and flounders
(A) move to new environments
3. All of the following are stated about the (B) adapt their behavior
vision of sand dabs and flounders EXCEPT (C) can change color
that they are (D) adapt to textures around them
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PASSAGE FIVE (LIMESTONE CAVES)
Para Limestone Caves
1 Limestone caves can be spectacular structures filled with giant stalactites and
stalagmites. These caves are formed when rainwater, which is a weak acid, dissolves calcite, or
lime, out of limestone. Over time, the lime-laden water drips down into cracks, enlarging them
into caves. Some of the lime is then redeposited to form stalactites and stalagmites.
2 Stalactites, which grow down from cave ceilings, are formed in limestone caves when
groundwater containing dissolved lime drips from the roof of the cave and leaves a thin deposit
as it evaporates. Stalactites generally grow only a fraction of an inch each year, but over time a
considerable number may grow to be several yards long. In cases where the supply of water is
seasonal, they may actually have growth rings resembling those on tree trunks that indicate how
old the stalactites are.
3 Stalagmites are formed on the floor of a limestone cave where water containing dissolved
lime has dripped either from the cave ceiling or from a stalactite above. They develop in the
same way as stalactites, when water containing dissolved limestone evaporates. In some
limestone caves with mature limestone development, stalactites and stalagmites grow together,
creating limestone pillars that stretch from the cave floor to the cave ceiling.
27
Week 7: Indirectly answered questions
(PBT) ANSWER IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
1. It is implied in the passage that if a kayak 2. It can be inferred from the passage that an
has two holes, then example of the animal mentioned in lines 12-13
(A) it accommodates two riders might be
(B) it is less stable than a kayak with one hole (A) a kangaroo
(C) it is as large as an umiak (B) a snake
(D) it cannot be used on the ocean (C) a whale
(D) a salmon
28
PASSAGE TWO (QUESTIONS 3-5)
Line Two types of trees from the same family of trees share honors in certain respects as the
most impressive of trees. Both evergreen conifers, the California redwood (Sequoia
sempervirens) and the giant sequoia (Sequoiandendron giganteum) are found growing natively
only in the state of California.
(5) The California redwood is found along the northern coast of the state, while the giant
sequoia is found inland and at higher elevations, along the western slopes of the Sierra
Nevadas.
The California redwood is the tallest living tree and is in fact the tallest living thing on the
face of the earth; the height of the tallest redwood on record is 385 feet (120 meters). Though
(10) not quite as tall as the California redwood, with a height of 320 feet (100 meters), the giant
sequoia is nonetheless the largest and most massive of living things; giant sequoias have been
measured at more than 100 feet (30 meters) around the base, with weights of more than 6,000
tons.
29
PASSAGE THREE (QUESTIONS 6-8)
Line Probably the most recognized boardgame around the world is the game of Monopoly. In
this game, players vie for wealth by buying, selling, and renting properties; the key to success in
the game, in addition to a bit of luck, is for a player to acquire monopolies on clusters of
properties in order to force opponents to pay exorbitant rents and fees.
(5) Although the game is now published in countless languages and versions, with foreign
locations and place names appropriate to the target language adorning its board, the beginnings
of the game were considerably more humble. The game was invented in 1933 by Charles
Darrow, during the height of the Great Depression. Darrow, who lived in Germantown,
Pennsylvania, was himself unemployed during those difficult financial times. He set the original
(10) game not as might be expected in his hometown of Germantown, but in Atlantic City, New
Jersey, the site of numerous pre-Depression vacations; where he walked along the Boardwalk
and visited at Park Place. Darrow made the first games by hand and sold them locally until
Parker Brothers purchased the rights to Monopoly in 1935 and took the first steps toward the
mass production of today.
30
(IBT) MAKE INFERENCES FROM STATED FACTS
31
PASSAGE FIVE (THE CAMBRIAN EXPLOSION)
Para The Cambrian Explosion
1 Many of the major phyla of animals arose during the Cambrian period, in what is called
the Cambrian Explosion. Prior to the Cambrian period, simple one-celled organisms had slowly
evolved into primitive multicellular creatures. Then, in a relatively rapid explosion during the
period from 540 million years ago to 500 million years ago, there was a period of astonishing
diversification in which quickly developing organisms became widely distributed and formed
complex communities.
2 One theoretical explanation for the rapid diversification that occurred during the
Cambrian period is known as the theory of polar wander. According to this theory, the rapid
diversification occurred because of an unusually rapid reorganization of the Earth’s crust during
the Cambrian period. This rapid change in the Earth’s crust initiated evolutionary change
inasmuch as change in the environment serves to trigger evolutionary change.
32
Week 8: Review
(PBT) ANSWER TRANSITION QUESTIONS CORRECTLY
TRANSITION QUESTIONS
How to identify the question The paragraph preceding the passage probably...
What is most likely in the paragraph following the passage?
Where to find the answer The answer can generally be found in the first line of the passage for a
preceding question. The answer can generally be found in the last line for a
following question.
How to answer the question 1. Read the first line for a preceding question.
2. Read the last line for a following question.
3. Draw a conclusion about what comes before or after.
4. Choose the answer that is reflected in the first or last line of the passage.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most 2. The paragraph following this passage most
probably discusses likely contains information on what?
(A) a different scientific television series (A) The popularity of science
(B) Carl Sagan's scientific achievements (B) The program Cosmos
(C) the Pulitzer Prize won by Carl Sagan (C) The astronomer Carl Sagan
(D) public television (D) Topics and issues from various fields of
science
3. The paragraph preceding the passage most 4. Which of the following is most likely the topic
probably discusses of the paragraph following the passage?
(A) tsunamis in various parts of the world (A) The causes of tsunamis
(B) the negative effects of tsunamis (B) The destructive effects of tsunamis on the
(C) land-based earthquakes coast
(D) the effect of tides on tsunamis (C) The differences between tsunamis and tidal
waves
(D) The distances covered by tsunamis
33
PASSAGE THREE (QUESTIONS 5-6)
Line While draft laws are federal laws, marriage laws are state laws rather than federal;
marriage regulations are therefore not uniform throughout the country. The legal marriage age
serves as an example of this lack of conformity. In most states, both the man and the woman
must be at least eighteen years old to marry without parental consent; however, the states of
(5) Nebraska and Wyoming require the couple to be at least nineteen, while the minimum age in
Mississippi is twenty-one. If parental permission is given, then a couple can marry at sixteen in
some states, and a few states even allow marriage before the age of sixteen, though a judge's
permission, in addition to the permission of the parents, is sometimes required in this situation.
Some states which allow couples to marry at such a young age are now considering doing away
(10) with such early marriages because of the numerous negative effects of these young marriages.
5. The paragraph preceding the passage most 6. The topic of the paragraph following the
probably discusses passage is most likely to be
(A) state marriage laws (A) disadvantages of youthful marriages
(B) the lack of uniformity in marriage laws (B) reasons why young people decide to marry
(C) federal draft laws (C) the age when parental consent for marriage
(D) the minimum legal marriage age is required
(D) a discussion of why some states allow
marriages before the age of sixteen
34
(IBT) REVIEW EXERCISES
This passage discusses radical shifts in population that the bald eagle has undergone.
35
PASSAGE FIVE (THE GOLDEN AGE OF COMICS)
Para The Golden Age of Comics
1 The period from the late 1930s to the middle 1940s is known as the Golden Age of comic
books. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States as a
giveaway premium to promote the sales of a whole range of household products such as cereal
and cleansers. The comic books, which were printed in bright colors to attract the attention of
potential customers, proved so popular that some publishers decided to produce comic books
that would come out on a monthly basis and would sell for a dime each. Though comic strips had
been reproduced in publications prior to this time, the Famous Funnies comic book, which was
started in 1934, marked the first occasion that a serialized book of comics was attempted.
2 Early comic books reprinted already existing comic strips and comics based on known
characters: however, publishers soon began introducing original characters developed
specifically for comic books. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938, and Batman
was introduced a year later. The tremendous success of these superhero comic books led to the
development of numerous comic books on a variety of topics, though superhero comic books
predominated. Astonishingly, by 1945, approximately 160 different comic books were being
published in the United States each month, and 90 percent of the U.S. children were said to read
comic books on a regular basis.
9. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that, at 12. From the information in paragraph 2, it
the beginning of the 1930s, comic books most appears that Superman most likely
likely cost (A) was introduced sometime after Batman
(A) nothing (B) was a character that first appeared in a
(B) 5 cents comic book
(C) 10 cents (C) first appeared in Famous Funnies
(D) 25 cents (D) first appeared in a promotional comic strip
10. Comic books would least likely have been 13. It is implied in paragraph 2 that it is
used to promote surprising that
(A) soap (A) comic strips were more popular than comic
(B) cookies books
(C) jewelry (B) superheroes were not too popular
(D) bread (C) 90 percent of U.S. children did not read
comics
11. It is implied in the passage that Famous (D) comic books developed so quickly
Funnies
(A) was a promotional item
(B) appeared in a magazine
(C) had been produced prior to 1934
(D) was published on a regular basis
36
PASSAGE SIX (WRIGLEY’S CHEWING GUM)
Wrigley’s Chewing Gum
Wrigley’s chewing gum was actually developed as a premium to be given away with
other products rather than as a primary product for sale. As a teenager, William Wrigley Jr. was
working for his father in Chicago selling soap that had been manufactured in his father’s factory.
The soap was not very popular with merchants because it was priced at five cents, and the
(5)
selling price did not leave a good profit margin for the merchants. Wrigley convinced his father to
raise the price to ten cents and to give away cheap umbrellas as a premium for the merchants.
This worked successfully, confirming to Wrigley that the use of premiums was an effective sales
tool.
Wrigley then established his own company, in his company he was selling soap as a
(10)
wholesaler, giving baking soda away as a premium, and using a cookbook to promote each deal.
Over time, the baking soda and cookbook became more popular than the soap, so Wrigley
began a new operation selling baking soda. He began hunting for a new premium item to give
away with sales of baking soda; he soon decided on chewing gum. Once again, when Wrigley
realized that demand for the premium was stronger than the demand for the original product, he
(15) created the Wm. Wrigley Jr. Company to produce and sell chewing gum.
Wrigley started out with two brands of gum, Vassar and Lotta Gum, and soon introduced
Juicy Fruit and Spearment. The latter two brands grew in popularity, while the first two were
phased out. Juicy Fruit and Spearment are two of Wrigley’s main brands to this day.
11. It is NOT indicated in paragraph 1 that 14. It is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 that
young William was working Wrigley later
(A) in Chicago (A) sold baking soda
(B) for his father (B) used chewing gum as a premium to sell
(C) as a soap salesman baking soda
(D) in his father’s factory (C) sold chewing gum
(D) used baking soda as a premium to sell
12. According to paragraph 1, it is NOT true chewing gum
that the soap that young Wrigley was selling
(A) was originally well-liked 15. According to paragraph 3, the Wm. Wrigley
(B) was originally priced at five cents Jr. Company did all of the following EXCEPT
(C) originally provided little profit for merchants (A) begin with two brands of gum
(D) eventually became more popular with (B) add new brands to the original two
merchants (C) phase out the last two brands
(D) phase out the first two brands
13. According to paragraph 2, it is NOT true
that, when Wrigley first founded his own
company, he was
(A) selling soap
(B) selling chewing gum
(C) giving away cookbooks
(D) using baking soda as a premium
37
Week 10: Vocabulary
(PBT) FIND DEFINITIONS FROM STRUCTURAL CLUES
STRUCTURAL CLUES
How to identify the question What is ...?
What is the meaning of ...?
What is true about ...?
Types of clues Punctuation: comma, parentheses, dashes
Restatement: or, that is, in other words, i.e.
Examples: such as, for example, e.g.
Where to find the answer Information to help you determine what something means will generally be
found after the punctuation clue, the restatement clue, or the example clue.
How to answer the question 1. Find the word in the passage.
2. Locate any structural clues.
3. Read the part of the passage after the structural clue carefully.
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from
the remaining choices.
1. According to line 1 of the passage, what is a 3. The word "extricated" in line 8 is closest in
"teddy bear"? meaning to which of the following?
(A) A ferocious animal (A) Released
(B) The president of the United States (B) Tied up
(C) A famous hunter (C) Hunted
(D) A plaything (D) Shot
2. In line 4, "pastimes" could best be replaced 4. In line 10, a "cartoon" could best be
by described as
(A) things that occurred in the past (A) a newspaper
(B) previous jobs (B) a type of teddy bear
(C) hunting trips (C) a drawing with a message
(D) leisure activities (D) a newspaper article
38
PASSAGE TWO (QUESTIONS 5-8)
Line A supernova occurs when all of the hydrogen in the core of a huge star is transformed to
iron and explodes. All stars die after their nuclear fuel has been exhausted. Stars with little mass
die gradually, but those with relatively large mass die in a sudden explosion, a supernova. The
sudden flash of light can then be followed by several weeks of extremely bright light, perhaps as
(5) much light as twenty million stars.
Supernovae are not very common; they occur about once every hundred years in any
galaxy, and in 1987 a supernova that could be seen by the naked eye occurred in the Magellan
Cloud, a galaxy close to the Milky Way. Scientists periodically detect supernovae in other
galaxies; however, no supernovae have occurred in the Milky Way (the galaxy that includes the
(10) Earth) since 1604. One very impressive supernova occurred in the Milky Way on July 4, 1054.
There was a great explosion followed by three months of lighted skies, and historical chronicles
of the time were full of accounts and unusual explanations for the misunderstood phenomenon—
many people believed that it meant that the world was coming to an end.
39
(IBT) UNDERSTAND VOCABULARY FROM CONTEXT
1. The word poised in paragraph 1 is closest in 4. The word hue in paragraph 2 is closest in
meaning to meaning to
A interacting A color
B sitting B odor
C blowing C thickness
D poisoning D smoke
2. The phrase take place in paragraph 1 is 5. The phrase plays a role in paragraph 2 is
closest in meaning to closest in meaning to
A position themselves A makes fun of
B put B serves a function in
C are seated C acts the part of
D occur D moves about in
40
PASSAGE FOUR (AUTISM)
Line Autism
Autism is a developmental disorder that is characterized by severe behavioral
abnormalities across all primary areas of functioning. Its onset is often early; it generally makes
itself known by the age of two and one-half. It is not a single disease entity but is instead a
syndrome defined by patterns and characteristics of behavior; it, therefore, most likely has
(5) multiple etiologies rather than a single causative factor. Autism is not fully understood and thus is
controversial with respect to diagnosis, etiology, and treatment strategies.
6. The word primary in the passage could best 9. The word etiologies in the passage is
be replaced by closest in meaning to
(A) elementary (A) symptoms
(B) main (B) patterns
(C) introductory (C) causes
(D) primitive (D) onsets
7. The word onset in the passage is closest in 10. The phrase with respect to in the passage
meaning to could best be replaced by
(A) placement (A) with dignity toward
(B) arrangement (B) in regard to
(C) support (C) irrespective of
(D) beginning (D) out of politeness for
41
Week 11: Vocabulary
(PBT) DETERMINE MEANINGS FROM WORD PARTS
1. The word "subjugation" in line 4 is closest in 3. In line 9, the word "terrain" is closest in
meaning to meaning to
(A) religion (A) land
(B) flag (B) population
(C) control (C) minerals
(D) agreement (D) prosperity
2. In line 5, the word "decades" is closest in 4. The word "spectacular" in line 12 is closest
meaning to in meaning to which of the following?
(A) months (A) Ruggedly handsome
(B) centuries (B) Visually exciting
(C) long epoch (C) Completely uneven
(D) ten-year periods (D) Unendingly boring
42
5. The word "veered" in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) arrived
(B) ran
(C) turned
(D) cooled
6. The expression "dominance over" in line 5 is 9. The word "counteract" in line 10 is closest in
closest in meaning to meaning to
(A) understanding of (A) vote for
(B) dispute over (B) debate
(C) authority over (C) surpass
(D) rejection of (D) work against
7. The word "tripartite" in line 6 suggests that 10. "Contradictory to" in lines 12-13 is closest
something is in meaning to which of the following
(A) divided into three expressions?
(B) totally democratic (A) In agreement with
(C) powerfully constructed (B) Opposite to
(D) evenly matched (C) Supported by
(D) Similar to
8. The "judiciary" in line 7 is
(A) the electorate
(B) the authority
(C) the legal system
(D) the government
43
(PBT) USE CONTEXT TO DETERMINE MEANINGS OF DIFFICULT WORDS
11. In line 4, the word "widow" means 13. The word "ample" in line 7 indicates that
(A) a type of poison the spider is
(B) the dead male spider (A) feminine
(C) the human victim of the spider (B) large in size
(D) a female whose mate has died (C) dotted with colors
(D) normal
12. Which of the following is closest in meaning
to the word "globular" in line 5? 14. Which of the following has the same
(A) Earthen meaning as the word "mortal" in line 10?
(B) Luminescent (A) Deadly
(C) Green in color (B) Painful
(D) Round (C) Poisonous
(D) Sickening
44
PASSAGE FOUR (QUESTIONS 15-18)
Line Tornadoes occur throughout the world, but for reasons that scientists are not fully able to
discern, the great majority occur in the United States. Approximately 700 tornadoes a year occur
within the United States, and this comprises three-quarters of the worldwide total. Most of the
U.S. tornadoes take place in the Midwest and in the southern states that border the Gulf of
(5) Mexico.
In general a tornado cuts a path of a few hundred yards and lasts less than an hour; an
average tornado might propel itself at a speed of 15 or 20 miles per hour and therefore cover a
distance of 20 or so miles. Tornadoes, however, can be much worse than average. The most
devastating tornado on record occurred on March 18, 1925, in the states of Missouri, Illinois, and
(10) Indiana. The path of this tornado was more than 200 miles long and a mile wide. Traveling at an
average speed of 60 miles per hour, the winds at the center of the storm swirled around at
considerably more than 200 miles per hour. A total of 689 people died, and countless more were
injured, at the hands of this killer storm.
15. The word "discern" in line 2 is closest in 17. Which of the following is closest in meaning
meaning to which of the following? to the word "devastating" in line 9?
(A) Present (A) Described
(B) Understand (B) Delicate
(C) Cause (C) Destructive
(D) Misrepresent (D) Determined
16. The word "propel" in line 7 could best be 18. The word "swirled" in line 11 is closest in
replaced by meaning to
(A) move (A) decreased
(B) develop (B) rose
(C) destroy (C) settled
(D) inhibit (D) circled
45
Week 12: Vocabulary and inferences
(PBT) USE CONTEXT TO DETERMINE MEANINGS OF SIMPLE WORDS
1. The word "rough" in line 1 is closest in 3. The word "take" in line 9 could best be
meaning to replaced by
(A) unsmooth (A) hold
(B) mean (B) understand
(C) approximate (C) possess
(D) heavy (D) grab
46
PASSAGE TWO (QUESTIONS 4-6)
Line Although The Wealth of Nations by Adam Smith appeared in 1776, it includes many of
the ideas that economists still consider the foundation of private enterprise. The ideas put forth
by Smith compose the basis of the philosophies of the school of thought called classical
economics.
(5) According to Smith's ideas, free competition and free trade are vital in fostering the
growth of an economy. The role of government in the economy is to ensure the ability of
companies to compete freely.
Smith, who was himself a Scot, lived during the period of the Revolutions in America and
in France. During this epoch, the predominant political thought was a strong belief in freedom
(10) and independence in government. Smith's economic ideas of free trade and competition are right
in line with these political ideas.
47
(IBT) INFER RHETORICAL PURPOSE
1. The author begins the first paragraph with One more 3. The author places the phrase small
familiar use of electrochemistry in order to grains to which dry ink adheres in
(A) Explain that xerography is one of the less familiar parentheses in order to
uses of electrochemistry (A) Provide information that contradicts
(B) Make it clear that electrochemistry requires the previous statement
photoconductive materials (B) Provide another example of
(C) Show that xerography is the only known use for conductivity
electrochemistry (C) Provide further detail information
(D) Indicate that other less familiar uses have already about toner
been discussed (D) Provide an alternate explanation for
the effectiveness of toner
2. Why does the author explain that A photoconductive
material is an insulator in the dark but becomes a 4. Why is a laser printer mentioned?
conductor when exposed to bright light? (A) It is an alternative to xerography.
(A) It gives an explanation of a property that is necessary (B) It is a way of duplicating without
for xerography. using electrochemistry.
(B) It indicates that bright light is required for insulation to (C) It is a second example of
take place. xerography.
(C) It gives one example of a successful xerographic (D) It is a less effective type of
process. xerography than is a photocopier.
(D) It explains the role of insulation in xerography.
48
PASSAGE FOUR (DEMOGRAPHIC CHANGE)
Para Demographic Change
1 By the end of the 1920s, American society had undergone a long and historic
demographic change. Since the 1870s, the country had been moving from a more rural mode
that was based on high birthrates – as high as 50 births annually per thousand people in the
early nineteenth century – to a more metropolitan mode. Prior to the 1870s, the population of the
country was increasing by about a third every decade; however, by the end of the 1920s, a
radical about-face had taken place.
2 One major factor to affect the demographics of the country during this period was a
dramatic decrease in birthrates. The trend during this era was more pronounced in urban areas
but also had an effect in rural areas. As a result of the trend toward smaller families, particularly
in cities, the birthrate was down to 27.7 births annually per thousand women by 1920 and had
dropped even further – to 21.3 births annually per thousand women – by 1930.
3 At the same time, the deathrate, too, was falling. Urban living led to better sanitation,
refrigeration, and water purification; it also resulted in better medical care as doctors and
hospitals were more readily available. Most likely as a result of these factors, there were only
eleven deaths per thousand annually by the early 1920s, which was half the rate of the 1880s.
5. Why does the author include the phrase as 8. Why does the author mention better
high as 50 births annually per thousand medical care in paragraph 3?
people in the early nineteenth century in (A) It helps to explain why the birthrate is
paragraph 1? increasing
(A) To show that metropolitan areas of the (B) It is an example of a factor that contributed
country had higher birthrates than rural areas to the improved birthrate.
(B) To provide statistical evidence of the (C) It helps to explain why the deathrate is
elevated birthrate in the 1870s increasing.
(C) To quantify what had happened with the (D) It is an example of a factor that contributed
American population in the previous century to the improved deathrate.
(D) To argue against the belief that the
demographics of the country had changed 9. The author includes the expression Most
likely in paragraph 3 to show
6. The author uses the word however in (A) That the data about the average number of
paragraph 1 in order deaths was not verified
(A) To make it clear that an extreme change (B) That doctors and hospitals may not have
had taken place actually been more available
(B) To emphasize how tremendously the (C) That other factors may have contributed to
population was increasing the decreasing deathrate
(C) To point out an alternate explanation for the (D) That the deathrate may not have
change decreased as much as stated.
(D) To indicate a difference of opinion with
other demographers
49
Week 13: Vocabulary review
(IBT) REVIEW EXERCISES
11. The word umbrageous in paragraph 1 is 14. The word ponderous in paragraph 2 is
closest in meaning to closest in meaning to
(A) moist (A) smelly
(B) well lit (B) hidden
(C) shaded (C) mature
(D) buried (D) heavy
12. Haustoria in paragraph 1 are most likely 15. The word across in paragraph 2 could best
(A) offshoots from the parasite be replaced by
(B) seeds of the host plant (A) in diameter
(C) fruits from the host plant (B) on the other side
(D) food for the parasite (C) at a distance
(D) inside and out
13. The phrase make its way into in paragraph
1 is closest in meaning to
(A) develop
(B) penetrate
(C) outline
(D) eat
50
PASSAGE TWO (EDNA FERBER)
Para Edna Ferber
1 Edna Ferber (1887-1968) was a popular American novelist in the first half of the twentieth
century. She embarked on her career by working as a newspaper reporter in Wisconsin and
soon began writing novels. Her first novel, Dawn O’Hara, the Girl Who Laughed, was published
in 1911, when she was only twenty-four years old.
2 Her big break came with the novel So Big (1924), which was awarded the Pulitzer Prize
in Literature. The main conflict in the novel is between a mother who places a high value on hard
work and honor and a son who repudiates his mother’s values, instead preferring the easier path
to fortune and celebrity. Like many of Ferber’s novels, this novel features a tenacious female
protagonist with a strong character who struggles to deal with ethical dilemmas about the
importance of status and money.
3 Probably the best known of Ferber’s novels was Show Boat (1926), which tells the story
of a Southern woman married to a charismatic but irresponsible man who leaves her with a
daughter she must take great pains to support. In 1927, the novel was made into a musical that
has endured to the present.
4 Other well-known novels by Ferber include Cimarron (1930) and Giant (1952), both of
which were made into movies. These were epic novels about the settlement and growth of the
West, centering on strong female lead characters who marry men lacking the same strength of
character.
16. The phrase embarked on in paragraph 1 is 20. The word protagonist in paragraph 2 is
closest in meaning to closest in meaning to
(A) took a trip to (A) arch enemy
(B) started out on (B) voracious reader
(C) improved upon (C) skilled worked
(D) had an opinion about (D) lead character
17. The word break in paragraph 2 could best 21. The phrase take great pains in paragraph 3
be replaced by is closest in meaning to
(A) rupture (A) work diligently
(B) revelation (B) recognize hurtfully
(C) opportunity (C) accept unequivocally
(D) rest (D) hurt agonizingly
18. The word places in paragraph 2 could best 22. The word endured in paragraph 3 is closest
be replaced by in meaning to
(A) locates (A) lasted
(B) puts (B) tested
(C) recites (C) waited
(D) positions (D) limited
19. The word repudiates in paragraph 2 is 23. The word epic in paragraph 4 could best be
closest in meaning to replaced by
(A) refuses to accept (A) lengthy narrative
(B) lives up to (B) detailed non-fictional
(C) tries to understand (C) emotionally romantic
(D) makes the best of (D) rousing Western
51
PASSAGE THREE (THE HUBBLE TELESCOPE)
Para The Hubble Telescope
1 The Hubble telescope was launched into space with great fanfare on April 25, 1990.
Although there are many powerful telescopes at various locations on Earth, the Hubble
telescope was expected to be able to provide considerably better information because it would
be able to operate from the vacuum of space, without interference from the Earth’s atmosphere.
By launching the Hubble telescope into space, NASA was, in essence, placing an observatory
above the Earth’s atmosphere.
2 Unfortunately, the Hubble telescope was inititally delayed in relaying its first pictures back
from space due to a simple mathematical miscalculation. The Hubble telescope relies upon
certain stars to orient its observation, and astronomers working on the pointing instructions for
the telescope used charts created in 1950, with adjustments for the movements of the stars in
the ensuing period. In making these adjustments, however, astronomers added the amount of
the adjustment rather than subtracting it − a simple checkbook-balancing error. The adjustment
was a change of only half a degree, but by adding half a degree rather than subtracting it, the
telescope’s aim was misdirected by millions of miles.
10. Why does the author mention many 13. The author mentions a simple checkbook-
powerful telescopes at various locations on balancing error in paragraph 2 in order to
Earth in paragraph 1? suggest that
(A) To emphasize the need for telescopes at (A) the astronomers must have difficulties with
various locations on Earth their checkbooks
(B) To show that the Hubble telescope was (B) the adjustment made by the astronomers
different from existing telescopes should have been more than half a degree
(C) To indicate how the atmosphere improves (C) a more balanced approach was needed
the quality of information from space when making adjustments
(D) To emphasize the similarities between the (D) the mistake made by the astronomers was
Hubble telescope and other telescopes a simple, everyday error
11. The author uses the phrase in essence in 14. Why does the author mention the detail
paragraph 2 in order to indicate that the millions of miles in paragraph 2?
information that follows the phrase (A) It reinforces the idea that the mistake had a
(A) provides a simplified description of a (B) huge effect.
previously stated situation (B) It emphasizes the wide range of the Hubble
(B) indicates the cause of a previously stated telescope.
effect (C) It demonstrates that the Hubble telescope
(C) provides further details about a previously travels long distances.
stated main idea (D) It helps the reader to understand how
(D) indicates the classification to which powerful the Hubble telescope is.
previously stated examples belong
52
PASSAGE FOUR (CORAL COLONIES)
Para Coral Colonies
1 Coral colonies require a series of complicated events and circumstances to develop into
the characteristically intricate reef structures for which they are known. These events and
circumstances involve physical and chemical processes as well as delicate interactions among
various animals and plants for coral colonies to thrive.
2 The basic element in the development of coralline reef structures is a group of animals
from the Anthozoa class, called stony corals, that is closely related to jellyfish and sea
anemones. These small polyps (the individual animals that make up the coral reef), which are for
the most part only a fraction of an inch in length, live in colonies made up of an immeasurable
number of polyps clustered together. Each individual polyp obtains calcium from the seawater
where it lives to create a skeleton around the lower part of its body, and the polyps attach
themselves both to the living tissue and to the external skeletons of other polyps. Many polyps
tend to retreat inside of their skeletons during hours of daylight and then stretch partially outside
of their skeletons during hours of darkness to feed on minute plankton from the water around
them. The mouth at the top of each body is surrounded by rings of tentacles used to grab onto
food, and these rings of tentacles make the polyps look like flowers with rings of clustered petals;
because of this, biologists for years thought that corals were plants rather than animals.
3 Once these coralline structures are established, they reproduce very quickly. They build
in upward and outward directions to create a fringe of living coral surrounding the skeletal
remnants of once-living coral. That coralline structures are commonplace in tropical waters
around the world is due to the fact that they reproduce so quickly rather than the fact that they
are hardy life-forms easily able to withstand external forces of nature. They cannot survive in
water that is too dirty, and they need water that is at least 72°F (or 22°C) to exist, so they are
formed only in waters ranging from 30° north to 30° south of the equator. They need a significant
amount of sunlight, so they live only within an area between the surface of the ocean and a few
meters beneath it. In addition, they require specific types of microscopic algae for their
existence, and their skeletal shells are delicate in nature and are easily damaged or fragmented.
They are also prey to other sea animals such as sponges and clams that bore into their skeletal
structures and weaken them.
4 Coral colonies cannot build reef structures without considerable assistance. The many
openings in and among the skeletons must be filled in and cemented together by material from
around the colonies. The filling material often consists of fine sediments created either from the
borings and waste of other animals around the coral or from the skeletons, shells, and remnants
of dead plants and animals. The material that is used to cement the coral reefs comes from
algae and other miscroscopic forms of seaweed.
5 An additional part of the process of reef formation is the ongoing compaction and
cementation that occurs through the process. Because of the soluble and delicate nature of the
material from which coral is created, the relatively unstable crystals of corals and shells break
down over time and are then rearranged as a more stable form of limestone.
6
The coraline structures that are created through these complicated processes are
extremely variable in form. They may, for example, be treelike and branching, or they may have
more rounded and compact shapes. What they share in common, however, is the extraordinary
variety of plant and animal life-forms that are a necessary part of the ongoing process of their
formation.
GLOSSARY
polyps: simple sea animals with tube-shaped bodies
53
Questions
1. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to 8. The word them in paragraph 3 refers to
(A) coral colonies (A) sea animals
(B) events and circumstances (B) sponges and clams
(C) intricate reef structures (C) skeletal structures
(D) chemical processes (D) many openings
2. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to 9. The word borings in paragraph 4 is closest in
(A) the basic element meaning to
(B) the development of coralline reef structures (A) dull pieces
(C) a group of animals (B) strange creatures
(D) the Anthozoa class (C) living beings
(D) powdery remnants
3. The phrase an immeasurable number in
paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to 10. The word ongoing in paragraph 5 is closest
(A) an exact integer in meaning to
(B) a huge quantity (A) mobile
(C) a surprising total (B) continuous
(D) a changing sum (C) increasing
(D) periodic
4. The word minute in paragraph 2 could best
be replaced by 11. The phrase break down in paragraph 5 is
(A) tiny closest in meaning to
(B) light (A) cease functioning
(C) timely (B) interrupt
(D) soft (C) descend
(D) decompose
5. The phrase once-living in paragraph 3 is
closest in meaning to 12. The word that in paragraph 6 refers to
(A) aging (A) variety
(B) dead (B) life-forms
(C) growing (C) part
(D) solitary (D) process
6. The word hardy in paragraph 3 is closest in 13. The word their in paragraph 6 refers to
meaning to (A) coralline structures
(A) difficult (B) complicated processes
(B) fragile (C) rounded and more compact shapes
(C) scarce (D) plant and animal life-forms
(D) rugged
54
Week 14: Overall exam review
(PBT) DETERMINE WHERE SPECIFIC INFORMATION IS FOUND
1. Where in the passage does the author give 3. Where in the passage does the author state
the name of a baby beaver? the age at which beavers must go out on their
(A) Line 1 own?
(B) Line 2 (A) Line 1
(C) Line 3 (B) Line 2
(D) Lines 4-5 (C) Line 3
(D) Lines 4-5
2. Where in the passage does the author
mention the time of year when new baby 4. Where in the passage does the author
beavers are born? indicate why the young beavers must leave
(A) Line 1 their parents' home?
(B) Line 2 (A) Line 1
(C) Line 3 (B) Line 2
(D) Lines 4-5 (C) Line 3
(D) Lines 4-5
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5. Where in the passage does the author 7. Where in the passage does the author
discuss the modern definition of chamber mention music written for four strings?
music? (A) Lines 2-3
(A) Lines 2-3 (B) Lines 4-5
(B) Lines 4-5 (C) Lines 7-9
(C) Lines 8-9 (D) Lines 9-11
(D) Lines 9-11
8. Where in the passage does the author list 10. Where in the passage does the author
the components of a zinc alloy? describe what happens when iron and oxygen
(A) Lines 1-2 interact?
(B) Lines 4-6 (A) Lines 4-6
(G) Lines 9-10 (B) Lines 6-8
(D) Lines 11-13 (C) Lines 10-11
(D) Lines 11-13
9. Where in the passage does the author
present the less routinely used process of
galvanization?
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Lines 4-6
(C) Lines 6-8
(D) Lines 9-10
56
(PBT) DETERMINE THE TONE, PURPOSE, OR COURSE
11. The purpose of this passage is to 13. This passage would probably be assigned
(A) discuss an example of a particular literary reading in which of the following courses?
genre (A) Criminal Law
(B) tell the story of In Cold Blood (B) American History
(C) explain Truman Capote’s reasons for (C) Modern American Novels
writing In Cold Blood (D) Literary Research
(D) describe how Truman Capote researched
his nonfiction novel
57
PASSAGE FIVE (QUESTIONS 14-16)
Line Up to now, confessions that have been obtained from defendants in a hypnotic state
have not been admitted into evidence by courts in the United States. Experts in the field of
hypnosis have found that such confessions are not completely reliable. Subjects in a hypnotic
state may confess to crimes they did not commit for one of two reasons. Either they fantasize
(5) that they committed the crimes or they believe that others want them to confess.
A landmark case concerning a confession obtained under hypnosis went all the way to
the U.S Supreme Court. In the case of Layra v. Denno, a suspect was hypnotized by a
psychiatrist for the district attorney; in a posthypnotic state the suspect signed three separate
confessions to a murder. The Supreme Court ruled that the confessions were invalid because
(10) the confessions had been the only evidence against him.
4. Which of the following best describes the 5. The tone of this passage could best be
author’s purpose in this passage? described as
(A) To explain the details of a specific court (A) outraged
case (B) judicial
(B) To demonstrate why confessions made (C) hypnotic
under hypnosis are not reliable (D) informative
(C) To clarify the role of the Supreme Court in
invalidating confessions from hypnotized 6. This passage would probably be assigned
subjects reading in a course on
(D) To explain the legal status of hypnotically (A) American Law
induced confession (B) psychiatric healing
(C) parapsychology
(D) philosophy
58
PASSAGE SIX (QUESTIONS 17-19)
Line The rate at which the deforestation of the world is proceeding is alarming. In 1950
approximately 25 percent of the Earth’s land surface had been covered with forests, and less
than twenty-five years later the amount of forest land was reduced to 20 percent. This decrease
from 25 percent to 20 percent from 1950 to 1973 represents an astounding 20 million square
(5) kilometers of forests. Predictions are that an additional 20 million square kilometers of forest land
will be lost by 2020.
The majority of deforestation is occurring in tropical forests in developing countries,
fueled by the developing countries’ need for increased agricultural land and the desire on the
part of developed countries to import wood and wood products. More than 90 percent of the
(10) plywood used in the United States, for example, is imported from developing countries with
tropical rain forests. By the mid-1980’s, solutions to this expanding problem were being sought,
in the form of attempts to establish an international regulatory organization to oversee the use of
tropical forests.
17. The author’s main purpose in this passage 19. This passage would probably be assigned
is to reading in which of the following courses?
(A) cite statistics about an improvement on the (A) Geology
Earth’s land surface (B) Geography
(B) explain where deforestation is occurring (C) Geometry
(C) make the reader aware of a worsening (D) Marine Biology
world problem
(D) blame developing countries for
deforestation
59
Week 15: Reading to learn
(IBT) COMPLETE SCHEMATIC TABLES
Directions: Select the appropriate sentences from the answer choices, and match them to the critical
information about the sand dunes to which they relate. THREE of the answer choices will not be used.
This question is worth 3 points.
Amount of sand
Direction of winds
60
Answer Choices (choose 4 to complete the chart):
(1) Ridge and crescent dunes form where the winds blow from one direction.
(2) Crescent dunes are also known as barchan dunes.
(3) Star-shaped dunes form where the winds blow from different directions.
(4) Transverse dunes are created parallel to the wind.
(5) Ridge and star dunes form where there is a lot of sand.
(6) Star-shaped dunes are more stable than crescent dunes.
(7) Crescent dunes form where there is less sand.
Directions: Select the appropriate phrases from the answer choices and match them to the pairs of
words to which they relate. TWO of the answer choices will not be used. This question is worth 4
points.
buckaroo and vaquero
buckaroo and vaccine
vacca and vaccine
61
(IBT) REVIEW IBT EXAM
62
PASSAGE FOUR (NEW WORLD EPIDEMICS)
Line New World Epidemics
A huge loss of life resulted from the introduction of Old World diseases into the Americas
in the early sixteenth century. The inhabitants of the Americas were separated from Asia, Africa,
and Europe by rising oceans following the Ice Ages, and, as a result, they were isolated by
means of this watery barrier from numerous virulent epidemic diseases that had developed
(5) across the ocean, such as measles, smallpox, pneumonia, and malaria. Pre-Columbian
Americans had a relatively disease-free environment but also lacked the antibodies needed to
protect them from bacteria and viruses brought to America by European explorers and colonists.
A devastating outbreak of disease that strikes for the first time against a completely unprotected
population is known as a virgin soil epidemic. Virgin soil epidemics contributed to an
(10) unbelievable decline in the population of native inhabitants of the Americas, one that has been
estimated at as much as an 80 percent decrease of the native population in the centuries
following the arrival of Europeans in the Americas.
1. The word they in the passage refers to 3. The word them in the passage refers to
(A) the inhabitants (A) pre-Columbian Americans
(B) epidemic diseases (B) the antibodies
(C) rising oceans (C) bacteria and viruses
(D) the Ice Ages (D) the arrival of Europeans
2. The word that in the passage refers to 4. The word one in the passage refers to
(A) a disease-free environment (A) a virgin soil epidemic
(B) this watery barrier (B) an unbelievable decline
(C) virulent epidemic diseases (C) the population of native inhabitants
(D) the ocean (D) the arrival of Europeans
63
PASSAGE FIVE (CARNIVOROUS PLANTS)
Line Carnivorous Plants
Unlike the majority of plants that create their nourishment from sunlight, such as the
flowering hyacinth or the leafy choleus or the garden-variety dandelion, a limited number of
plants are able to enhance their diet by fortifying it with insects and other small animals to
supplement the food that they have produced from sunlight. These carnivorous plants can be
(5) categorized as those without moving traps that lure their intended victims and then trap them on
a sticky surface or drown them in a pool of fluid and those with active traps – moving parts that
ensnare prey.
Butterworts are harmless-looking plants with circles of flat and sticky leaves. If an insect
is unfortunate enough to land on one of the seemingly inviting leaves, it sticks to the surface of
(10) the leaf and eventually dies and is digested by the plant.
The pitcher plant is a plant that is shaped like a pitcher and has fluid in the bottom.
Insects are attracted to the pitcher plant by a nectar around the rim of the pitcher opening: when
an insect lands on the rim, it cannot maintain its balance on the slippery surface of the rim and
falls into the opening and drowns in the fluid.
(15) Bladderworts are water plants with traps on their leaves that resemble tiny bubbles. A
small animal may swim by the plant, totally oblivious to the danger posed by the harmless-
looking bladderwort. If the small animal comes too close to the plant, the bubbles open without
warning and the animal is pulled inside the plant and digested.
Probably the best known of the carnivorous plants is the Venus flytrap. This plant
(20) features unusual leaf tips that look like an inviting place for an insect to rest and offers the
enticement of promised food. If an unwary ladybug or dragonfly settles on the leaves of the
Venus flytrap, the two leaves suddenly snap shut, trapping the insect and creating a delicious
meal for the plant.
Directions: Select the appropriate phrases from the answer choices, and match them to the type of
carnivorous plant to which they relate. TWO of the answer choices will not be used. This question is worth
3 points.
Those with active traps
Those with inactive traps
64
Answer key
Passage 2 Edna Ferber
Week 2 (PBT) 3a, 4b Week 8 (iBT) 16b, 17c, 18b, 19a,
Passage 1 Passage 3 The Bald Eagle 20d, 21a, 22a, 23a,
1b, 2c 5c, 6a 1, 2,4, 6 24c
Passage 2 The Golden Age of The Hubble Telescope
3b, 4a Week 5 (iBT) Comics 10b, 11a, 12d, 13d,
Passage 3 Animal congregation 9a, 10c, 11d, 12b, 14a
5d, 6b 1c, 2b, 3a, 4a 13d
Coral Colonies
Passage 4 Chromium Wrigley’s Chewing 1a, 2c, 3b, 4a, 5b, 6d,
7c, 8a, 9b compounds gum 7a, 8c, 9d, 10b, 11d,
5a, 6b, 7a, 8c, 9b 11d, 12a,13b,14d,15c 12a, 13a
Week 2 (iBT)
Week 6 (PBT) Week 10 (PBT) Week 14 (PBT)
Island Plant Life
2, 4, 6 Passage 1 Passage 1 Passage 1
1a, 2d 1d, 2d, 3a, 4c 1c, 2c, 3d, 4d
Ben and Jerry
2, 4, 5 Passage 2 Passage 2
Passage 2
3b, 4d 5d, 6c, 7c, 8d 5a, 6c, 7d
Week 3 (PBT) Passage 3 Passage 3
Week 10 (iBT)
Passage 1 5d, 6a 8a, 9c, 10d
1b, 2d Smog
1b, 2d, 3c, 4a, 5b Passage 4
Passage 2 Week 6 (iBT)
Autism
11a, 12d, 13c
3b, 4c Flatfish
6b, 7d,8a,9c, 10b Passage 5
Passage 3 1d, 2c, 3a, 4d, 5b
14b, 15d, 16a
5a, 6b Limestone caves
Week 11 (PBT) Passage 6
6c, 7a, 8d, 9c, 10d
Week 3 (iBT) Passage 1 17c, 18a, 19b
Week 7 (PBT) 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b, 5c
Popcorn Week 15 (iBT)
1a, 2c Passage 1 Passage 2
6c, 7a, 8c, 9d, 10b Sand dunes
Passage 2 1a, 2c
Passage 3
Amount of sand: 5, 7
3b, 4d, 5d Passage 2 Direction of winds: 1,
3d, 4d, 5b 11d, 12d, 13b, 14a
3
Week 4 (PBT) Passage 3 Passage 4
A surprising
Passage 1 6d, 7a, 8b 15b, 16a, 17c, 18d
connection
1c, 2b, 3d Buckaroo and
Week 7 (iBT) Week 12 (PBT)
Passage 2 vaquero: 2, 7
4d, 5a, 6c Tiger Moths Passage 1
1c, 2d, 3b Buckaroo and
Passage 3 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c vaccine: 5, 8
7c, 8b, 9d The Cambrian Passage 2
Vacca and vaccine:
Explosion 4a, 5c, 6d 1, 4
Week 4 (iBT) 5a, 6a, 7d, 8c
Week 12 (iBT) The Clovis Culture
Lake Baikal 11a, 12d, 13c, 14b,
1d, 2a, 3d, 4c, 5b Week 8 (PBT) Xerography
1d, 2a, 3c, 4c 15d
The Postage Stamp Passage 1
1a, 2b Demographic change New World Epidemics
6c, 7a, 8d, 9b, 10c 10a, 11c, 12a, 13b
Passage 2 5b, 6a, 7d, 8d, 9c
Week 5 (PBT) 3c, 4b Carnivorous plants
Week 13 (iBT) Those with active
Passage 1 Passage 3
Parasitic plants traps: 2, 5
1c, 2a 5c, 6a
11c, 12a, 13b, 14d, Those with inactive
15a traps: 1, 4
65