Sta Vuzs

STA630- Research Methods
Online Quiz
Lecture# 1 to 43
Shared & Solved by vuZs Team
Mehreen Humayun
www.vuzs.info
On which component of his field notes was Mr. M focused when he expressed in
his notes his thoughts and ideas about what he observed?
Reflection
Protocol
Formal data
Analysis
Reflection is thinking for an extended period by linking recent experiences to earlier
ones in order to promote a more complex and interrelated mental schema. The thinking
involves looking for commonalities, differences, and interrelations beyond their
superficial elements.
Which of the following is NOT a longitudinal study?
Trend study
Census study
Panel study
Cohort study
There are three types of longitudinal research: time series, panel, and cohort.
A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
Standardized tests
Interviews
Secondary data
Observations
Secondary Data: The data may be a time bound collection of information (population
census) as well as spread over long periods of time (unemployment trends, crime rate).
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What is opposite of a variable?

A constant
An extraneous variable
A dependent variable
A data set
The opposite of a variable is a constant.
A literature review requires;
planning
clear writing
good writing
All of the given option
A literature review requires planning and good, clear writing, which requires lot of
rewriting.
When we say that science is parsimonious, we mean that:
Scientific theories are based on laws.

We must be careful because causes can occur after specific effects.
The best scientific theories are those that offer the simplest explanations for a
law.
Science accurately describes a wide range of behavior.
Parsimonious is a big word for "simple." Really good scientists can explain a whole lot
by saying only a little.
If the control variable has no effect on the bivariate relationship then it is:
Spurious relationship.
Not spurious relationship.
Both A & B.
None of the above.
A researcher controls for a third variable by seeing whether the bivariate relationship
persists within categories of the control variable. In other words, the control variable has
no effect. When this is so, the bivariate relationship is not spurious.
Which term technically describes a situation in which an observer's work in a

first-grade classroom disrupts the normal routines due to the curiosity of the
students?
Observer effect
Participant effect
Non participant bias
Observer bias
Testing is most likely to negatively affect internal validity when_______.
The information tested is attitudinal in nature

The time between pre- and posttest is short
The instrument is unreliable
The participants are very low scorers
A researcher is interested in nonverbal behavior among young adults. The

researcher goes to public gathering places in town and observes smiles,
gestures, gaze, and touch. This is an example of;
Blind observation
Quasi-experimentation
Naturalistic observation
Field experimentation
Which of the following is included in research proposal?
Data analysis
Results
Literature review
Conclusions section
“Skepticism” is a norm of science. It is better explained by which of the following

statement?
Combining the previous knowledge

Critical reading of the previous researches
Providing the proper references of qouted text
Locating research reports in libraries
Which type of research address major societal change?
Experimental Research
Action Research
Social Research
Historical Comparative Research
Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at
an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?
Primary data
Secondary data
Experimental data
Field notes
The person who leads a focus group discussion is called a __________.
Anchor
Facilitator
Moderator
Recorder
Focus Group Moderator: The person who leads a focus group discussion.
Categorical measures are forms of measurement classified as:
Measures that reflect quantitative differences.

Measures that reflect qualitative differences
Measures that do not require mutual exclusivity or exhaustiveness when devising a

measuring system.
Rationale measures.
If variables a and b are highly correlated, then
there is a strong relationship between a and b

a causes b
b causes a
there is no relationship between a and b1.
In a study of the relationship between self-concept and resilience for males and
for females, the minimal acceptable sample size for the whole study would be
10
30
60
90
Which section of a research report sets the stage for the report and indicates
where in the report each component, tables, and figures can be found?
Preliminary pages
Table of contents
Main body
Appendices
Table of Contents: The table of contents is based on the final outline of the report, but it
should include first-level subdivisions. For short reports it is sufficient to include only the
main divisions. If the report includes many figures and tables, lists of these should
immediately follow the table of contents.
Which of the following is the least obtrusive and most accurate method for
recording data in an interview?
Note taking
Videotaping
Audiotaping
Writing notes after the interview.
Which of the following is an excellent way to enhance the validity of

observational data collection?
Spend an extended period of time in the field.

Obtain participant trust.
Recognize your own biases.
All of the above.
Which of the following is a measure in which a researcher adds

or combines several distinct indicators of a construct into asingle score?
Scale
Index
 Quizs
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 Categories
 Behavior
 Big Questions
 Blinds
 Census
 Chemotherapy Treatment
 Classifieds
 Quizs
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 Categories
 Behavior
 Big Questions
 Blinds
 Census
Unidimensionality
Weighting
An index is a measure in which a researcher adds or combines several distinct
indicators of a construct into a single score.
Which type of research address major societal change?
Experimental research
Action research
Social research
Historical comparative research
Historical comparative research is a powerful method for addressing big questions: How
did major societal change take place?
In which of the following sampling methods People are available such as

volunteer or can be easily recruited?
Simple random sampling

Cluster sampling
Systematic sampling
Convenience sampling
Which of the following can be referred as semantic analysis?
Latent coding
Accretion
Count behaviors
Intensity
Latent Coding: A researcher using latent coding (also called semantic analysis).
Which of the following group that does not receive the experimental
treatment condition?
Experimental group
Control group
Treatment group
Independent group.
Which of the following is a measure of inflation?
Scale
Consumer price index
Weighting
Unidimensionality
Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of inflation and is widely followed by many
investors.
Which of the following is newer method of survey?
Mail survey
E-mail survey
Field survey
Chapter 9
Multiple Choice Questions for Final Terms
Shared and composed by Mehreen Humayun
www.vuzs.info
1. Analysis of covariance is:
a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific

variables
b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
c. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
d. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables
2. To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems, a

researcher has one group solve math problems in a quiet room and another
group solve math problems in a noisy room. The group solving problems in the
noisy roomcompletes 15 problems in one hour and the group solving problems in
the quiet room completes 22 problems in one hour. In this experiment, the
independent variable is ____________ and the dependent variable is
_____________.
a. The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problems

b. The number of problems solved; the noise level in the room
c. The noise level in the room; the number of problems solved
d. The noise level in the room; the difficulty of the problems
3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for

which of the following threats to internal validity:
a. History
b. Differential selection
c. Additive and interactive effects
d. Differential attrition
4. When all participants receive all treatment conditions, the study is susceptible
to:
a. Order effects
b. Carryover effects
c. Analysis of covariance
d. a and b
5. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school

performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status (SES) is a
potential extraneous variable in her study, she picks children to study who are
only from low SES homes. The control technique she used in this study was:
a. Matching
b. Random assignment
c. Holding the extraneous variable constant
d. Statistically controlling the extraneous variable
6. Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect?

a. The effect of one independent variable (on a DV) depends on the level of
another independent variable
b. Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variables
c. Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment conditions are
administered
d. The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable
7. Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to
statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable?
a. Experimental control
b. Differential influence
c. Matching
d. Analysis of covariance
8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?

a. Presence technique
b. Amount technique
c. Type technique
d. Random technique
9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to
determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment
variable is introduced into the research setting.
a. One-group pretest-posttest design
b. Pretest-posttest control group design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. Both b and c
10. Counterbalancing is _________.

a. Usually based on random selection of participants
b. Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlled
c. Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*
d. All of the above
11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Participant group
d. Independent group
12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls
for both known and unknown variables?
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design
b. Matching
c. Random assignment
d. Analysis of covariance
13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the
________.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Treatment group
d. Independent group
14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can
be controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a. Random assignment
b. Matching
c. Counterbalancing
d. None of the above
15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to
groups in an experimental study?
a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)
b. Even versus odd numbers
c. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program
d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best
16. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?

a. Carryover effect
b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects
d. Matching
17. A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design.

a. Research designs
b. Research measurements
c. Dependent variables
d. Independent variables
18. Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival
hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment?
a. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
b. Posttest-only control-group design
c. Pretest-posttest control-group design
d. Both b and c are excellent designs
19. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the independent
variable that is presented to the differentcomparison groups is known as _____.
a. Amount technique
b. Absence technique
c. Type technique
d. Presence technique
20. Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the order
in which the treatment conditions are administered?
a. Carry-over effect
b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects
21. When manipulating the independent variable in an educational experiment,
which of the following describes this method?
a. An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence technique
b. The researchers varies the amount of the independent variable that is administered
c. The researcher varies the type of the independent variable
d. All of the above are possible
22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes

precedence over all other methods?
a. Matching individual participants
b. Holding extraneous variables
c. Building the extraneous variable into the research design
d. Counterbalancing
e. Randomly assign research participants to the groups
23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify
the effect produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable
d. Confounding variable
24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental
treatment conditions.
a. Factorial design
b. Repeated measures design
c. Replicated design
d. Pretest-posttest control-group design
25. A factorial design is one in which ____.

a. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the dependent
variable
b. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent
and interactive effects on the dependent variable
c. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine
their independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable
d. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects
26. The design in which one group of research participants is administered a treatment
and is then compared, on the dependent variable, with another group of research
participants who did not receive the experimental treatment is ____.
a. One-group posttest-only design
b. One-group pretest-posttest design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. time series design
27. _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable.

a. Interaction effect
b. Reactive effect
c. Main effect
d. Proactive effect
28. A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is
influenced by participation in a prior treatmentcondition is known as ____.
a. Counterbalancing effect
b. Carryover effect
c. Treatment effect
d. Order effect
29. Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two independent
variables?
a. There is only one main effect present
b. There are two main effects present
c. There are two main effects and an interaction effect present
d. All of the above are possible
30. Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants are randomly
assigned to the levels of one independent variable but participants take all levels on
another independent variable?
a. One-group pretest-posttest
b. Pretest-posttest control-group design
c. Factorial design
d. Factorial design based on a mixed model
Chapter 18
Multiple Choice Questions
1. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of the first author is cited
followed by et al.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
2. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you should
a. State the first and last name of the author
b. Use the author, date citation method
c. Use an asterisk and a footnote
d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis
3. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?

a. IQ
b. sec. for second
c. yr. for year
d. mo. for month
4. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.

a. Italics
b. Abbreviations
c. Headings
d. Both a and b
5. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research report of you study
for a conference or for publication is
a. Whether the study is free from flaws
b. Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or publication
c. Whether others would be interested in the work
d. All of the above
6. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research reports?
a. You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias.
b. You should avoid labeling people whenever possible
c. You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possible
d. All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines
7. Regarding disabilities, writers should “avoid equating people with their disabilities” such as in
mentally retarded people.
a. True
b. False
8. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.

a. True
b. False
9. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?

a. A stroke victim
b. A person who has had a stroke
10. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report.
a. True
b. False
11. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.

a. True
b. False
12. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are below ten.
a. True
b. False
13. You should double space all material in the manuscript.

a. True
b. False
14. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?
a. Results
b. Abstract
c. Method
d. Footnotes
15. The Introduction section should not be labeled.

a. True
b. False
16. The abstract should be about how many words?

a. 50
b. 75
c. 120
d. 300
17. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.

a. True
b. False
18. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Results
d. Discussion
19. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and participants did
during the research study?
a. Introduction
b. Abstract
c. Procedure
d. Design
20. References should be single spaced.

a. True
b. False
21. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.

a. True
b. False
22. When writing the qualitative results section, an overriding concern should be to provide
sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your assertions.
a. True
b. False
23. When writing the qualitative results section, you will need to find an appropriate balance
between description and interpretation.
a. True
b. False
24. Diagrams, matrices, tables, and figures should never be used in qualitative research reports.
a. True
b. False
25. Your textbook authors argued that in qualitative research it is important to fit the research
findings back into the relevant research literature even if the study is exploratory.
a. True
b. False
Chapter 6
(The answers are provided after the last question.)
1. According to your text, how many points should a rating scale have?
a. Five
b. Four
c. Ten
d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points
2. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is your
current age?”
1-5
5-10
10-20
20-30
30-40
a. The categories are not mutually exclusive
b. The categories are not exhaustive
c. Both a and b are problems
d. There is no problem with the above set of response categories
3. You should mix methods in a way that provides complementary strengths and nonoverlapping
weaknesses. This is known as the fundamental principle of mixed research.
a. True
b. False
4. According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking place
when?
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
c. In the future (prospective questions)
d. All of the above
5. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?

a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs
b. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs
c. Avoid double-barreled questions
d. All of the above
e. Only b and c
6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.

a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Experiments
d. Observations
7. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?

a. Official documents
b. Personal documents
c. Archived research data
d. All of the above
8. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their response
is called a ____________.
a. Response set
b. Probe
c. Semantic differential
d. Contingency question
9. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier
time by a different person for a different purpose?
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Experimental data
d. Field notes
10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s
predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words
11. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.

a. Confirmatory data
b. Qualitative data
c. Predictive data
12. Which of the following is true concerning observation?

a. It takes less time than self-report approaches
b. It costs less money than self-report approaches
c. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they do
d. All of the above
13. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes; it is also called
___________ observation.
a. Structured
b. Naturalistic
c. Complete
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 Levels
 Job
 Additive
 Cells
 Compared
 Comparisons
 Concerned
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 Levels
 Job
 Additive
 Cells
 Compared
d. Probed
14. As discussed in chapter 6, when constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the

following except ______.
a. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Use natural language
c. Understand your research participants
d. Pilot your test questionnaire
15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):

a. Interview protocol
b. Event sampling
c. Summated rating scale
d. Ranking
16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that are used by
educational researchers?
a. Observation
b. Interviews
c. Questionnaires
d. Checklists
17. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the sequence
and wording can be modified during the interview is called:
a. The interview guide approach
b. The informal conversational interview
c. A closed quantitative interview
d. The standardized open-ended interview
18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Focus groups
e. All of the above are methods of data collection
19. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that way?” is known as a:
a. Probe
b. Filter question
c. Response
d. Pilot
20. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
a. Standardized tests
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Observations
21. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is being
studied. This researcher may be which of the following?
a. A complete participant
b. An observer-as-participant
c. A participant-as-observer
22. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?

a. Questionnaires
b. Focus groups
c. Correlational method
d. Secondary data
23. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the immediate context or
course of things?
a. Interview guide approach
b. Informal conversational interview
c. Closed quantitative interview
d. Standardized open-ended interview
24. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do you mean?, Why do you
feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:
a. Contingency questions
b. Probes
c. Protocols
d. Response categories
25. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 15 principles to which you should adhere.
Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Avoid double-barreled questions
c. Avoid double negatives
d. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct
Chapter 7
1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is
called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method
b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. An Equal probability selection method
2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?

a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within
each ethnic group at random.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number
table to pick cases from the table.
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.
3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?

a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough
subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
4. Which of the following statements are true?

a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger
the sample needed
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger
the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval
5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the
original sampling?
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1
b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond
6. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e.,
EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Proportional stratified sampling
d. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique
e. All of the above are EPSEM
7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?

a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling
8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from
which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample
9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?

c. Quota sampling
10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling
11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?
a. Every year
b. Every five years
c. Every ten years
d. Twice a year
12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling
method called ______.
b. Cluster sampling
d. Convenience sampling
13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the
appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience
samples from those groups?
a. Proportional stratified sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. One-stage cluster sampling
d. Two-stage cluster sampling
14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that disconfirm
the researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as _______________.
a. Extreme case sampling
b. Typical-case sampling
c. Critical-case sampling
d. Negative-case sampling
15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a research study with a
population of 120,000?
a. 242
b. 331
c. 377
d. 384
16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the
research participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota
17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your
chapter?
b. Proportional stratified sampling
c. Cluster random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
18. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by gender, and
then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on
which we would divide the population is called the _____.
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable
d. Sampling variable
19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the
population is called which of the following?
a. A datum
b. A statistic
c. A parameter
d. A population
20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is
returned to the population before the next member is selected is called _________.
a. Sampling without replacement
b. Sampling with replacement
c. Simple random sampling
21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

a. Cluster sampling
c. Quota sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling
22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its
efficiency?
a. One stage cluster sampling
c. Two stage cluster sampling
d. Quota sampling
23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.
a. Cluster sampling
b. One-stage sampling
c. Two-stage sampling
d. Probability proportional to size or PPS
24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.

a. Sampling
b. Census
c. Survey research
25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the population size
is of what size?
a. 500 or less
b. 100 or less
c. 1000 or less
d. you should always use a sample
26. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?

a. Purposive
b. Quota
c. Convenience
d. Cluster
27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a
study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population?
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Random sampling
28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Statistic
d. Element
29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1
and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?
a. Simple Random Sampling
b. Stratified Random Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Cluster sampling
30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a
population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.
b. Quota sampling
d. Snowball sampling
Chapter 2
www.vuzs.info
1. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?

a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above
2. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings?

a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above
www.vuzs.info
3. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a. the collection of nonnumerical data
b. an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c. research that is exploratory
d. research that attempts to generate a new theory
4. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called

___.
a. a constant
b. a variable
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship
5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):

a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. intervening variable
www.vuzs.info
6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:

a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment
7. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics
except:
a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of
interest
b. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d. it uses the inductive scientific method
8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of
cause-and-effect relationships?
a. nonexperimental Research1
b. experimental Research
www.vuzs.info
9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?

a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable
10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher
cannot manipulate the independent variable.
a. basic research
b. quantitative research
c. experimental research
d. causal-comparative and correlational research
www.vuzs.info
11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?

a. resistance to manipulation
b. manipulation of the independent variable
c. the use of open-ended questions
d. focuses only on local problems
12.. A positive correlation is present when _______.

a. two variables move in opposite directions.
b. two variables move in the same direction.
c. one variable goes up and one goes down
d. several variables never change.
13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and
the quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research
e. mixed model research
www.vuzs.info
14. Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research
within a stage or across two of the stages in the research process is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research
e. mixed model research
15.. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?
a. experimental research
b. historical research
c. replication
d. archival research
www.vuzs.info
16. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. ethnography
d. correlational research
17.. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a. age, temperature, income, height
b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c. gender, religion, ethnic group
d. both a and b
18.. What is the opposite of a variable?

a. a constant
b. an extraneous variable
c. a dependent variable
d. a data set
19. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which the primary
independent variable of interest is categorical?
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. qualitative research
d. mixed research
20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?

a. age
b. annual income
c. grade point average
d. religion
www.vuzs.info
21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.
a. variable
b. method
c. constant
d. control group
22. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two
variables, it is very important to avoid _______.
a. checking the strength of relationship
b. jumping to the conclusion of causality
c. checking the direction of the relationship
d. expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient
www.vuzs.info
23. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools.

She develops a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She
believes that parent involvement has an impact on children by increasing their
motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent involvement leads
to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student achievement.
Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study?
a. Manipulated variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Confounding variable
d. Mediating or intervening variable
24. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research
methods?
a. Experimental
b. Causal-comparative
c. Correlational
d. Ethnography
25. Which correlation is the strongest?

a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00
26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated
www.vuzs.info
Answers:
1. c
2. b
3. b
4. b
5. c
6. d
7. a
8. b
9. d
10. d
11. b
12. b
13. d
14. e
15. b
16. b
17. d
18. a
19. a
20. d
21. c
22. b
23. d
24. a
25. d
26. a
STA630 solved MCQs from web

www.vuzs.info
1. The first step in the marketing planning process is to:

a. Select the target market(s)
b. Define the marketing objectives
c. Specify each element of the marketing mix
d. Assess the environmental opportunities and constraints
e. Develop an implementation plan
2. Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research
question, "What impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of Brand B?"
a. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B usage.
b. The new advertising campaign will impact Brand B usage.
c. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B trial.
d. The new advertising campaign will cause increased Brand B usage at the
expense of Brand C.
e. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B's market penetration.
www.vuzs.info
3. Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing a proposal?
a. Understanding the purpose behind the request for proposal
b. Understanding the problem situation
c. The appearance/form of the proposal
d. Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client
e. Knowing as much as possible about the proposal recipients
4. A ________ scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according
to the characteristic of interest.
a. Ratio
b. Ordinal
c. Nominal
d. Interval
e. Dichotomous
5. A telephone company is interested in obtaining customers' reactions to a new service

package. Which of the following primary research methods would be most effective in
reaching this audience to obtain their feedback?
a. Mall intercept interviews
b. An Internet survey
c. Telephone interviews
d. A mail survey
e. Focus groups
6. When issues to be addressed are personal, sensitive, or subject to strong social

norms, a qualitative research technique generally recommended is:
a. Focus groups
b. Mini-groups
c. Laddering
d. Symbolic analysis
e. Projective research
7. What type of sample involves some form of random selection so that every member
of the sampling frame has an equal, non-zero chance of being included in the sample?
a. Probability sample
b. Census equivalent sample
c. Zero-bias sample
d. All-inclusive sample
e. Non-probability sample
www.vuzs.info
8. Conditions favoring the use of a sample over a census include a:
a. Small population size
b. Long time frame
c. Small budget
d. High cost of sampling errors
e. Low cost of non-sampling errors
9. Increasing the size of the sample is likely to:

a. Decrease sampling error but increase non-sampling error
b. Increase sampling error but decrease non-sampling error
c. Decrease both sampling error and non-sampling error
d. Increase both sampling error and non-sampling error
e. Increase sampling error but have no impact on non-sampling error
www.vuzs.info
10. An advantage of computer-assisted telephone interviewing is:

a. Interviewing time is reduced
b. Data quality is enhanced
c. Questionnaires do not have to be coded
d. There is little opportunity for interviewer bias
e. This method tends to achieve high response rates compared to other methods
11. If a company is interested in determining the in-store shelf exposure of their brand
versus competitive brands, the most effective way to obtain this information is via:
a. Scanner data
b. In-store intercepts with consumers observed purchasing a product in the
category
c. Telephone interviews with individuals who made a recent category purchase
d. An audit
e. Diary panel data from individuals making purchases in the category
www.vuzs.info
12. Which of the following is false with regard to the benefits of multiple-choice
questions over open-ended questions?
a. The use of multiple-choice questions reduces interviewer bias
b. Multiple-choice questions are easier to design
c. Multiple-choice questions are less costly for coding and data processing
d. Multiple-choice questions are quicker to administer
e. The use of multiple-choice questions results in higher cooperation for self-
administered surveys
13. Detailed and unambiguous instructions are particularly important for:

a. Interviewer-administered personal interviews
b. Computer-assisted telephone surveys
c. Mail surveys
d. Computer-assisted personal interviews
e. Internet surveys
14. If an interview is conducted with a respondent who does not meet
the qualifications for a study, what kind of bias has occurred?
a. Position bias
b. Respondent bias
c. Lifestyle bias
d. Non-response bias
e. Instrument bias
www.vuzs.info
15. Setting quotas for hard-to-reach respondents is one way to minimize _______ bias.
a. Respondent
b. Interviewer
c. Instrument
d. Non-response
e. Sampling
16. Which of the following is an example of an issue that would be checked in a field
edit?
a. Completion of all questions on a questionnaire
b. Legible writing
c. Single responses to all multiple choice questions
d. Logical answers between questions (i.e., attributes should be rated high if
purchase interest is high)
e. The accuracy of a respondent's phone number (if this information is collected)
www.vuzs.info
17. The telephone rings, you answer, and the caller asks you to respond to a survey.
After a few questions, the caller begins to offer you the opportunity to purchase land at a
local lake for a summer home. This practice is known as _______ and is ______ in
many countries.
a. Frugging, unethical
b. Frugging, illegal
c. Sugging, unethical
d. Sugging, illegal
e. Sugging, ethical
18. Eliminating a respondent's survey due to many questions being left blank is referred
to as:
a. Pairwise deletion
b. Neutral value deletion
c. Casewise deletion
d. Imputed response deletion
e. Variable deletion
19. To standardize a scale, subtract ____ from ____ and divide by _____.
a. The standard deviation, the variance, the mean
b. The mean, each score, the standard deviation
c. Each score, the standard deviation, the mean
d. Each score, the mean, the variance
e. The standard deviation, the variance, each score
www.vuzs.info
20. If a nominal scale is used, it is permissible to calculate which of the following
statistics?
a. Mean
b. Standard deviation
c. Range
d. Percentile
e. Mode
21. Multicollinearity occurs when:

a. There are high intercorrelations among the independent variables
b. The independent variables are mutually exclusive
c. The independent variables are irrelevant
d. There are too many independent variables
e. The dependent variable cannot be predicted by the independent variables
22. The key objective of data analysis is to:

a. Understand relationships between variables
b. Calculate statistics
c. Obtain the distribution of responses for each question
d. Create tables which display the survey results
e. Provide those reading the report with as much detail as possible about the
survey results
www.vuzs.info
23. Which of the following is the best way to staff a research department?
a. Keep staffing levels low just in case the work slows down; during particularly
busy times the staff can put in more hours.
b. Keep staffing levels high, so that adequate resources are always available for
peak times.
c. Develop a broad range of skill sets in each employee so there is flexibility
in what can be assigned to each researcher in order to balance workloads.
d. Keep overhead down by exclusively using independent contractors who are paid
only for the work they do on specific assignments.
e. Fill as many positions as possible with part-time rather than full-time staff to have
the flexibility of increasing or decreasing hours based on workloads.
24. Which of the following is a general rule for research department budgeting?
a. Establish a fixed budget that does not allow for deviations.
b. Obtain client input in the research budgeting process.
c. Try to establish as high a budget as possible in order to have extra
dollars available for unanticipated issues requiring investigation.
d. Allocate fewer resources to projects focused on current information needs, and
greater resources to the investigation of future issues.
e. Consider the budget as simply a starting point for the allocation of resources
since needs change over time and flexibility is important.
25. A recent study of car owners indicated that 10% felt Brand A had the best quality,
9% felt Brand B did, and 6% felt other models did. The remainder had no opinion. The
advertising claim that most car owners who gave an opinion believe that Brand A has
thebest quality is an example of _____ which is _______.
a. Biased research, unethical
b. Effective advertising, ethical
c. Misleading reporting, unethical
d. Incomplete reporting, unethical
e. Accurate reporting, ethical
STA630 solved MCQs from new quizzes 9/7/2010
Which of the following is NOT a longitudinal study?

Select correct option:
Trend study
Census study
Panel study
Cohort study
The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called:
Sampling validity
External validity
Construct validity
Internal validity1
Under which of the following research method is not applicable?

Health care
Business
Government offices
Imaginary worlds
Rationalism is the application of:
Research solution
Logic and arguments
Reasoning
Previous findings
Which of the following means that all the items in a scale or index fit together or measure
a single construct?
Scale (NOT SURE)

Index
Unidimensionality
Weighting
The purpose of a literature review is to:
Help you find out what is already known about this area.
Identify any inconsistencies or gaps in the literature.
Demonstrate an awareness of the theoretical context in which the current study can be
located.
Find what is already known, identify gaps demonstrate awareness.
If a measure is consistent over multiple occasions, it has:
Inter-rater reliability
Construct validity
Internal validity
Test-retest reliability
Which of the following is not a feature of theoretical framework?
Making an inventory of variables

Specify the direction of relationship
Presenting findings
Making an inventory of propositions
Quantitative data is?
Expressed in numerical form

Concerned with how things are expressed
Big data
Small data
Which of the following concerns is MOST likely to become a problem if Mr. Baber uses
purposive sampling techniques?
Generalizability from the sample to the population.(MH,vuZs)

Statistically equal groups.
Subjects participating in the study.
Selection of participants who are thought to be informative, articulate, and experienced with
the research topic and setting.
Generalizability is the foremost concern when using non-random sampling techniques, of which
purposive sampling is one.
What is a relationship between the literature survey and the theoretical framework?
Provides a solid foundation for developing the latter

Literature survey helps in the identification of the relevant variables
The theoretical framework explains the theory underlying these relations
All of the gven options
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of qualitative data?

Thick, rich descriptions
Unorganized
Voluminous
Concise and succinct
Ref: http://wps.prenhall.com/chet_airasian_edresearch_8/0,11083,2527149-
content,00.utf8.html
Setting quotas for hard-to-reach respondents is one way to minimize _____ bias.
Interviewer
Respondent
Instrument
Sampling (not sure)
The key objective of data analysis is to:
Calculate statistics
Understand relationships between variables
Obtain the distribution of responses for each question
Create tables which display the survey results
What is the basis of the Scientific Method?
To test hypotheses in conditions that are condusive to its success.

To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis.
To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled
conditions that challenge the hypothesis.
To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely.
The number of people who complete a survey in relation to the number of people contacted
to participate is called the:
Response set
Response rate
Response bias
Respondents
Which of the following is not something a researcher will have to consider when thinking
about their sample size?
Time and cost.

Non-response.
Length of questionnaire.
Heterogeneity of population.
How is nominal data presented?
In order
In discrete categories
Units of equal distance
Data where there is a true zero
Which of the following is NOT a legitimate research problem as stated?

What is the relationship between the number of books children read and their reading
scores?
Should competitive games be banned from elementary schools?
What does it mean to be a special needs child "included" in Ms. Amara’s fourth grade class?
What are the major legal principles applied to educational cases decided by the Supreme
Court?
Which of the following is most beneficial to read in an article?

Methods
Introduction
Figures
References
Which of the following is an example of an issue that would be checked in a pilot testing?
Completion of all questions on a questionnaire

Legible writing
Single responses to all multiple choice questions
Logical answers between questions (i.e., attributes should be rated high if
purchase interest is high)
Which of the following describes the nature of qualitative data interpretation?

Reflection
Integrative
Explanatory
Reflection, integrity, explanation
What is required if there is a chance that data could harm the respondents?
Change of results
A signed form detailing the types of limits
Free consent of respondents
All of the given options
Which type of sampling strategy is exemplified by selecting two types of individuals: those
who are extremely happy and those who are extremely sad?
Snowball
Intensity
Homogeneous
Purposive
If a nominal scale is used, it is permissible to calculate which of the following statistics?

Mean
Range
Percentile
Mode
The researcher protects the confidentiality in following ways, Except;
Obtaining signed nondisclosure documents.

Restricting access to data instruments where the respondent is identified.
Disclosure of data subsets.
Restricting access to respondent identification.
When accessing the internet, which of these steps is the most essential?
Recording the full URL
Noting the access dates
Downloading material to be referenced
They are all equally important
Research solution
Logic and arguments
Reasoning
Previous findings
If an interview is conducted with a respondent who does not meet the qualifications for a
study, what kind of bias has occurred?
Respondent bias
Position bias
Non-response bias
Instrument bias
What is the reason for consulting handbooks, yearbooks, encyclopedias, or reviews in the
initial stages of identifying a research topic?
They are readily available.

They provide an overview of the issues related to a topic.
They are primary sources.
They avoid reporting statistical data so one can interpret the results more easily.
What does Ordinal scale NOT imply?
Characteristics of nominal scale

Rank the object
Does not provide magnitude of object
Provide rate
Which of the following is the BEST hypothesis?
Students taking formative quizzes will perform better on chapter exams than
students not taking these quizzes.
Taller students will have higher test scores than shorter students.
Students taught in a cooperative group setting should do better than students in a
traditional class.
Students using laptops will do well.
Quantitative social researchers rarely claim to have established causality because:

They are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability tests.
They do not believe that this is an appropriate goal to be striving for.
They keep forgetting which of the variables they have manipulated.
They tend to use cross-sectional designs, which produce only correlations.
An advantage of computer-assisted telephone interviewing is:
Interviewing time is reduced

Data quality is enhanced
Questionnaires do not have to be coded
There is little opportunity for interviewer bias
In which of the following sampling methods People are available such as volunteer or can be
easily recruited?
Simple random sampling

Cluster sampling
Systematic sampling
Convenience sampling (MH,vuZs)
What type of the interview that is in which questions are already prepared?
Telephonic interview
Personal interview
Unstructured interview
Structured interview
The facts that should be collected to measure a variable, depend upon the
Conceptual understanding
Dictionary meaning
Operational definition
All of the above
When you are confident that the experimental manipulation produced the changes you
measured in the dependent variable, your study probably has good______ validity.
Construct
Internal
External
Causal
Which of the following can be referred as a Reputational sampling?

Purposive Sampling
Quota Sampling
Convenience Sampling
Snowball Sampling
Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information
about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily?
Case study
Laboratory observation
Survey
What does it mean if two variables have a positive correlation?
As one variable increases, so does the other

As one variable increases, the other decreases
The correlation between the two variables is 0
The correlation between the two variables is greater than 1.0
Chapter 7
1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method

b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. An Equal probability selection method
2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate

b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within
each ethnic group at random.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to
pick cases from the table.
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.
3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?
a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups

b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough
subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
4. Which of the following statements are true?
a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the
sample needed
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger
the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval
5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the
original sampling?
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1

b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond
6. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method (i.e., EPSEM) in
which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected?
c. Proportional stratified sampling
d. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique
e. All of the above are EPSEM
7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?
a. Snowball sampling
c. Quota sampling
e. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling
8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample
has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique

b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample
9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?

c. Quota sampling
10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling
11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?
a. Every year
b. Every five years
c. Every ten years
d. Twice a year
2. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method called
______.

b. Cluster sampling
d. Convenience sampling
13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the appropriate sample
sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience samples from those groups?
a. Proportional stratified sampling

b. Quota sampling
c. One-stage cluster sampling
d. Two-stage cluster sampling
14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that disconfirm the
researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as _______________.
a. Extreme case sampling

b. Typical-case sampling
c. Critical-case sampling
d. Negative-case sampling
15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a research study with a population
of 120,000?
a. 242
b. 331
c. 377
d. 384
16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research
participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota
17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed in your chapter?

b. Proportional stratified sampling
c. Cluster random sampling
18. If we took the 500 people attending a school inNew York City, divided them by gender, and then took
a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we would
divide the population is called the _____.
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable
d. Sampling variable
19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the population is
called which of the following?
a. A datum
b. A statistic
c. A parameter
d. A population
20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to
the population before the next member is selected is called _________.
a. Sampling without replacement
b. Sampling with replacement
c. Simple random sampling
21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?
a. Cluster sampling
c. Quota sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling
22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its efficiency?
a. One stage cluster sampling

c. Two stage cluster sampling
d. Quota sampling
23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.
a. Cluster sampling
b. One-stage sampling
c. Two-stage sampling
d. Probability proportional to size or PPS
24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.
a. Sampling
b. Census
c. Survey research
25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the population size is of
what size?
a. 500 or less
b. 100 or less
c. 1000 or less
d. you should always use a sample
 Quizzes
 Categories
 Blog
 Bureau
 Census
 Chances
 Characteristics
 Comparisons
 Confidence
 Data Analysis
 Quizzes
 Categories
 Blog
 Bureau
 Census
 Chances
 Characteristics
 Comparisons
26. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?
a. Purposive
b. Quota
c. Convenience
d. Cluster
27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you
are interested in making statements about the larger population?
b. Quota sampling
d. Random sampling
28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Statistic
d. Element
29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k,
and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?
a. Simple Random Sampling
b. Stratified Random Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Cluster sampling
30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a
specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.
b. Quota sampling
d. Snowball sampling
1.Dalessha developed a pure model of the "street walker" prostitute to help her study a lare city hetto. She
is usin a(n):
a. Parsimony
b. Ideal Type **
c. Metaphor
d. Jaron
2.Dr. Smith said that social science cannot be value neutral, and a ood study requires puttin results into action
to help peoplechane society. Dr. Smith uses which approach to social science?
a. Positivism
b. Interpretative Social Science
c. Critical Social Science **
3.Henry Hoson conducted an experiment in which he tested the theory that the intensity of social
interaction amon people increases if they are anxious. What type of study is this most likely to be?
a. Cost Benefit Analysis
b. Explanatory Research **
c. Content Analysis
d. Exploratory Research
4. For the positivist approach to research, a theory looks like:

a. A series of positive statements about the world.
b. A loical system of laws, axioms, and propositions. **
c. A critique which claims that people are bein mislead.
d. A political proram of action and social chane.
5. In exploratory research one does all of the followin, EXCEPT:

a. Become familiar with the basic facts, people and concerns involved.
b. enerate many ideas and develop tentative hypotheses.
c. Determine the feasibility of doin additional research.
d. Test a theory or explanation. **
6. Professor Tun-jen Chen wanted to study the cause for thousands of people from
Hon Kon movin to Vancouver, British Columbia. In order to establish temporal order in his causal arument he
must show which of the followin:
a. There is a correlation between events in Hon Kon and a decision to move.

b. Events occurred in Hon Kon before people moved to Vancouver.
c. A fear for the future of Hon Kon and no other reason caused the move to
Vancouver.
d. All of the above. **
7.Social research methods include all of the followin, except:

a. Surveys
b. Therapy **
c. Experiments
d. Interviews
8. A local human service oranization contacted Mr. Tanaka. The oranization asked him to conduct a study to
identify the difficulties and problems of the elderly in the local community so that the oranization could develop
social prorams to help them. What type of study would this be?
a. Needs assessment *
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Plannin, Prorammin and Budetin System
d. Summative Evaluation Research
9. Which best summarizes the main oal of descriptive research?

a. Advance knowlede about an underlyin process or complete a theory.
b. Develop a detailed picture of a situation or issue. **
c. Extend a theory or principle into new areas or issues.
d. Provide evidence to support or refute an explanation.
10.A research method in which subjects respond to a series of items in a

questionnaire:
a. random sample.
b. taret roup.
c. experiment.
d. Survey. **
11.Elizabeth Bethouse conducted a study of amblin establishments operated by
American Indian roups. She examined two establishments operated by different
tribes. Durin the study she spent many hours at each establishment and ained a
detailedknowlede of the tribal leaders, amblin employees and amblin customers.
She also investiated how the establishments wereoranized, their impact on
economic development in the area and how tribal members saw them. She
conducted:
a. a case study **
b. a summative evaluation study
c. a cohort study
d. action research
12. What is the purpose of basic social research or basic socioloy?

a. Solve social problems and find which policies are best.
b. Improve social prorams so they become more effective.
c. Invent new taxonomies and jaron.
d. Create fundamental knowlede about how the social world works. **
13. Which approach says that the purpose of research is to study the creation of
social meanin?
a. Positivism
b. Interpretative Social Science **
c. Critical Social Science
14. Social research methods are:

a. Ways to ather information to answer a question about the social
world. **
b. Ways to convince people to participate in a study.
c. Ways to manipulate people.
d. Ways to increase the number of friends you have.
15. Which of the followin is not an example of a qualitative research method:

a. Ethnoraphy
b. Time series**
c. Covert Observation
d. Informal or Personal Interviews
16. A friend makes the followin comment: “Persons who rew up with a much older siblin tend to treat the
older siblin as a parentfiure.” She is makin a:
a. Verstehen
b. Theory
c. Relativism
d. eneralization **
17. Joe Foss studied ender differences in attitudes toward mathematics and science amon 45
first rade students. Over the next twelve years he studied the same 45 children when they were in the
fifth, eihth and twelfth rades. This is what type of research?
a. Case study research
b. Cross-sectional research (a study on a cross-sectional sample)
c. Panel study research (a study on a panel sample) **
d. Action-oriented research
18. A research method in which a researcher asks study participants several conversational style questions
and does not provide a set of responses to choose from:
a. case study
b. interview **
c. comparative method
d. quantitative study
19. All of the followin characterize applied socioloical research except which one?
a. Doin research is usually part of a job assinment and
sponsors/supervisors who are not professional researchers willjude/use
the results.
b. Success is based on whether sponsors/supervisors use the results in

decision-makin.
c. The primary concern is with the internal loic and rior of the
research desin, so a researcher attempts to reach the absolute
norms of scientific rior and scholarship. **
d. Research projects are limited by the demands and interests of

employers or sponsors.
Page 1 of 2
Shared By Fawad
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What is a 'grand theory'?
a) One that was proposed by one of the major theorists in the sociological tradition
b) One that is highly abstract and makes broad generalizations about the social world
c) An intermediate level explanation of observed regularities
d) A particularly satisfactory theory that makes the researcher feel happy
What does an empiricist believe?
a) We should not apply natural science methods to social science research

b) It is the sociologist's aim to understand the meaning of social action
c) Knowledge, in the form of 'facts', should be gained through sensory experience
d) Research conducted within the British empire was biased and unreliable
An inductive theory is one that:
a) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis

b) Does not allow for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
c) Uses quantitative methods whenever possible
d) Allows theory to emerge out of the data
What is the epistemological position held by a positivist?
a) There is no substitute for an in-depth, hermeneutic understanding of society

b) Scientific research should be based on value-free, empirical observations
c) Events and discourses in the social world prevent us from having direct knowledge of the natural order
d) It is important to remain optimistic about our research, even when things go wrong
The interpretivist view of the social sciences is that:
a) Their subject matter is fundamentally different to that of the natural sciences

b) We should aim to achieve the interpretive understanding of social action
c) It is important to study the way people make sense of their everyday worlds
d) All of the above
Which of the following is an ontological question?
a) Should I use questionnaires or interviews in my project?

b) What can (and should) be considered acceptable forms of knowledge?
c) How long is it since I last visited the dentist?
d) Do social entities have an objective reality, external to social actors?
The constructionist ontological position suggests that:
a) Social phenomena and their meanings are constantly being accomplished by social actors
b) Individuals are born into a world of rules and structures that they cannot change
c) Building and construction work presents an ideal opportunity to exercise the sociological imagination
d) Social facts and objects have an external reality, independently of the people who perceive them
The qualitative research strategy places a value on:
a) Using numbers, measurements and statistical techniques

b) Generating theories through inductive research about social meanings
c) Conducting research that is of a very high quality
d) All of the above
Which of the following is an example of value-free research?
a) Conscious partiality
b) Sympathy for the underdog
c) Unstructured interviewing
d) None of the above
An important practical issue to consider when designing a research project is:
a) Which theoretical perspective you find most interesting

b) Whether or not you have time to retile the bathroom first
c) How much time and money you have to conduct the research
d) Which colour of ring binder to present your work in
Why do you need to review the existing literature?
a) To make sure you have a long list of references

b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
d) To help in your general studying
To read critically means:
a) Taking an opposing point of view to the ideas and opinions expressed

b) Skimming through the material because most of it is just padding
c) Evaluating what you read in terms of your own research questions
d) Being negative about something before you read it
Which two of the following are legitimate frameworks for setting out a literature review: 1. Constructing inter-textual
coherence, 2. Deconstruction of textual coherence, 3. Problematizing the situation, 4. Resolving discovered
problems?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 4
A systematic literature review is:

a) One which starts in your own library, then goes to on-line databases and, finally, to the internet
b) A replicable, scientific and transparent process
c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area
d) A responsible, professional process of time-management for research
What is meta-analysis?
a) A technique of correcting for the errors in individual studies within a survey of a large number of studies,
to demonstrate the effect of a particular variable
b) A process of secondary-data gathering to assemble all the possibilities for a variable's effects
c) A substitute for original research, which is justified by constraints of time or money
d) A specialized step in a computer software program (SPSS e.g.)
What is meta-ethnography?
a) A technique for reviewing literature based exclusively on ethnographic studies

b) A technique for synthesizing interpretations drawn from a number of separate qualitative studies of the
same phenomena
c) A process used to make generalizations from a range of qualitative studies
d) A process of surveying only that literature contained within a single library
What is a narrative literature review?

a) An historically-based review, starting with the earliest contributions to the field
b) A review based exclusively on stories about companies, in book and case-study form
c) A paraphrase style of reviewing which does not require referencing
d) An initial impression of the topic which you will understand more fully as you conduct your research
a) Recording the full URL

b) Noting the access dates
c) Downloading material to be referenced
d) They are all equally important
According to the Harvard referencing convention, which is the correct reference?
a) Bryman, A. (2008, 3e) Social Research Methods, Oxford; Oxford University Press
b) Bryman (2008, second edition), Oxford University Press
c) Bryman, Alan, Social Research Methods (2008: OUP)
d) Bryman, A. Social Research Methods (2008)
Which of the following statements about plagiarism is most accurate?
a) It is so easy to "copy and paste" from the internet that everyone does it nowadays. If a proper reference is given,
where is the harm in that?
b) How can we say for sure where our own ideas come from exactly? If we tried to give a reference for everything we
could never hope to succeed.
c) Any suggestion that we have written what another actually wrote is morally wrong. Anyway, the whole
point of a literature review is to show what we have read and what we thought about it.
d) Plagiarism is such an awful crime that those found guilty should be obliged to wear a scarlet "P" on their clothing
What is a research design?
a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory

b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods
c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data
If a study is "reliable", this means that:
a) It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted

b) The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions
c) The findings can be generalized to other social settings
d) The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated
"Internal validity" refers to:
a) Whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables

b) Whether or not the findings are relevant to the participants' everyday lives
c) The degree to which the researcher feels that this was a worthwhile project
d) How accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts
Lincoln & Guba (1985) propose that an alternative criterion for evaluating qualitative research would be:
a) Impressiveness
b) Trustworthiness
c) Joyfulness
d) Messiness
Naturalism has been defined as:
a) Viewing natural and social objects as belonging to the same realm

b) Being true to the nature of the phenomenon under investigation
c) Minimising the intrusion of artificial methods of data collection into the field
d) All of the above
In an experimental design, the dependent variable is:
a) The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed
b) The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other
c) A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research
d) An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined
What is a cross-sectional design?
a) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes

b) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood
c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time
d) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time
Page 2 of 2
Survey research is cross-sectional and therefore:
a) High in replicability but low in internal validity

b) High in internal validity but low in reliability
c) High in ecological validity but low in external validity
Panel and cohort designs differ, in that:
a) Cohort studies involve quantitative research, whereas panel studies are qualitative
b) A panel study does not need rules to handle new entrants to households
c) Only a cohort study will suffer from sample attrition
d) A panel study can distinguish between age effects and cohort effects, but a cohort design cannot
Cross cultural studies are an example of:
a) Case study design

b) Comparative design
c) Experimental design
What is rhetoric?
a) The type of rapport that is usually established in in-depth interviews

b) An ancient form of poetry
c) A technique used to assess the external reliability of a data source
d) The attempt to persuade or convince an audience, often through writing
Which of the following is not usually found in a report of a quantitative study?
a) Measurement
b) Introduction
c) Confession
d) Results
The introductory section of a research report should aim to:
a) Identify the specific focus of the study

b) Provide a rationale for the dissertation, or article
c) Grab the reader's attention
d) All of the above
What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research report?
a) It explains how concepts were operationally defined and measured

b) It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions
c) It contains a useful review of the relevant literature
d) It outlines the methodological procedures that were employed
In a report of quantitative research, an empiricist repertoire serves to:
a) Confuse the reader with long and technical words

b) Demonstrate the researcher's reflexivity about their role in the research process
c) Give the impression that the results were objective and logically inevitable
d) Provide a confessional tale of what went wrong in the procedure
Which of the following is not normally included in a written account of qualitative research?
a) An introduction, locating the research in its theoretical context

b) An explanation of the design of the study
c) A discussion of the main findings in relation to the research questions
d) A decision to accept or reject the hypothesis
Postmodernist theorists challenge the idea of objective truth by arguing that:
a) There are many possible ways of interpreting and representing social reality
b) It is important to uncover the social laws that operate in an external reality
c) Only women have the unique standpoint needed to be able to make universal truth claims
d) All of the above
Apart from postmodernism, what other intellectual trend has stimulated an interest in the way social scientists use
rhetorical devices in their writing?
a) Positivism
b) Social studies of science
c) Traditional ethnography
d) Existentialist philosophy
A reflexive social researcher will be inclined to write about:
a) The effects that their values, biases and theoretical leanings might have had upon the data collection and
analysis
b) The way in which their findings unfolded naturally and inevitably through logical deduction
c) The way in which their findings are objectively truthful and valid
d) The unproblematic and straightforward procedures of designing research, building a rapport with participants and
interpreting the findings
The three forms of ethnographic writing that Van Maanen (1988) identifies are:
a) Positivist stories, interpretivist stories and realist stories
b) Native accounts, tourist accounts and voyeuristic accounts
c) Realist tales, confessional tales and impressionist tales
d) Feminist accounts, ethnomethodological accounts and postmodern accounts
Which of the following is not a problem associated with using web sites as sources of data?
a) The sample of web sites is only as good as the keywords used to search for them
b) It is difficult to find any web sites about most topics in social research
c) New web sites are constantly appearing while others are disappearing
d) The content of web sites is likely to change as they are updated
What is distinctive about asynchronous online communication?
a) The interviewer and their respondents write at different times

b) It cannot take place on the World Wide Web
c) It occurs in real time, with participants responding to questions immediately
d) It cannot be conducted by email
What is a virtual ethnography?

a) The use of visual data rather than written texts for content analysis
b) A technique used to facilitate online focus groups
c) A study that uses participant observation but not interviewing
d) An ethnographic study of an online community or social setting
Which of the following is a practical problem associated with asynchronous focus groups?
a) It is difficult to send out a welcome message to participants this way

b) Moderators cannot be available online 24 hours a day
c) Not all participants will have access to the required conferencing software
d) Participants do not have enough time to write detailed responses
An advantage of conducting an interview online rather than face-to-face is that:

a) It saves time and money as no travelling is involved
b) Informants have more time to give detailed, considered responses
c) There is no need to transcribe the data
d) All of the above
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of conducting focus groups online?
a) Those who are fastest at typing may dominate the discussions

b) It is more difficult to establish rapport without non-verbal cues
c) Normally shy participants may find it easier to "speak" in this setting
d) It is easier for people to ignore questions or drop out of the study
The two ways of distributing on-line surveys are:
a) Quantitatively and qualitatively

b) With an interview schedule or an observation schedule
c) By email and via the World Wide Web
d) Face-to-face or by post
What is the main advantage of an attached email questionnaire over an embedded one?
a) It retains more of the original formatting and so tends to look more attractive
b) It requires less expertise for the respondent to open and reply to it
c) Recipients will be reassured that the message does not contain a virus
d) It is easier to code the answers from this type of questionnaire
Why is it argued that samples recruited online are not representative of the general population?
a) Because online researchers only use random probability sampling methods

b) Because Internet users are most likely to be white, young and middle class
c) Because women are less likely than men to volunteer for online social research
What is the advantage of using Internet surveys to supplement traditional postal questionnaires?
a) Postal questionnaires generally produce a higher response rate

b) It makes all of the data more directly comparable
c) Online social surveys generally produce a higher response rate
d) It allows people to respond in the way that is most convenient for them
What is the name of one of the arguments that suggests that research methods are inextricably linked to
epistemological commitments?
a) Triangulation argument
b) Postmodern argument
c) Embedded methods argument
d) Positivist argument
Which version of the debate about multi-strategy research suggests that quantitative and qualitative research are
compatible?
a) Technical version
b) Methodological version
c) Epistemological version
d) Feminist version
What is triangulation?
a) Using three quantitative or three qualitative methods in a project

b) Cross-checking the results found by different research strategies
c) Allowing theoretical concepts to emerge from the data
d) Drawing a triangular diagram to represent the relations between three concepts
How might qualitative research facilitate quantitative research?
a) By providing hypotheses that can later be tested

b) By helping with the design of survey questions
c) By informing the schedule of a structured interview
d) All of the above
How might quantitative research facilitate qualitative research?
a) By identifying specific groups of people to be interviewed

b) By showing the frequency of different responses to a survey item
c) By imposing a rigorous positivist framework on it
d) By combining laboratory experiments with structured observation
Whereas quantitative research tends to bring out a static picture of social life, qualitative research depicts it as …
a) Symmetrical
b) Statistical
c) Processual
d) Proverbial
How might qualitative research help with the analysis of quantitative data?
a) By identifying a sample of respondents for a follow-up study

b) By providing hard, statistical data about them
c) By making the research more value-laden and subjective
d) By helping to explain the relationship between two variables
How can multi-strategy research help us to study different aspects of a phenomenon?

a) By reducing the standard deviation of scores around the mean
b) By allowing the researcher to interview first women, and then men
c) By revealing both the macro and the micro level
d) By making it unnecessary to have more than one stage in the research process
When might unplanned multi-stage research be described as a "salvage operation"?
a) When the researcher abandons their original strategy and starts all over again
b) When the second research strategy is used to explain unexpected or puzzling results
c) When there is a paradigm shift from quantitative to qualitative research
d) When it is ethically unsound to use only one research strategy
Which of the following is not a feature of multi-strategy research?
a) It is inherently superior to mono-strategy research

b) It must be competently designed and conducted
c) It must be appropriate to the research questions
d) The skills of all researchers must be well integrated
Why is it important for structured interviews to follow a standardized procedure?
a) To increase validity, as the interview can be adapted for each respondent

b) To increase reliability, because all respondents receive the same interview stimulus
c) To allow for an in-depth exploration of the topic
d) To make it easier for untrained interviewers to carry out complex surveys
Standardizing the interview schedule can reduce interviewer variation in terms of:
a) The way in which questions are phrased by the interviewer

b) The order in which questions are asked
c) The procedures used to code and analyse survey data
d) All of the above
Research Methods –STA630
Lesson 1-25
MCQ’s Solved by vuZs Team
Mehreen Humayun
www.vuzs.info
Ms. Roshi has been coordinating the Annual Festival at her school for the last several
years. She wants to be sure the students and parents enjoy the festival again this year.
On which source is she LEAST likely to rely when making decisions about what to do?
Tradition
Personal experience
Research
Expert opinion
Ref: It is likely that traditions, personal experiences, and expert opinions have served
Ms. Casillas well in the past and will continue to do so in the future. The limitations
associated with these sources of knowledge are not going to jeopardize the success of
the festival. Given this situation, research is far too cumbersome.
“Skepticism” is a norm of science. It is better explained by which of the following statement?
Combining the previous knowledge

Critical reading of the previous researches
Providing the proper references of qouted text
Locating research reports in libraries
Lesson 9
Skepticism is the norm of science. It means that you should not accept what is written
simply on the basis of authority of its having been published. Question what you read,
and evaluate it.
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Which of the following provides a solid basis foundation for the theoretical framework?
Survey
Literature Review
Experiment
Referencing
Lesson 8
Helps in developing theoretical framework.
In _________ definition, a concept is explained in terms of other concepts.
Working definition
Theoretical definition
None of the given options
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“The extensive use of chocolate causes pimples”. The given hypothesis is a (an):
Descriptive hypothesis
Explanatory hypothesis
Non-Directional hypothesis
Co-relational hypothesis
Lesson 7
Explanatory (causal) hypotheses: Imply the existence of, or a change in, one variable
causes or leads to a change in the other variable.
Which of following statement is true?
Theory and Research are dichotomous

Theory and Research are interrelated
There is no difference between Theory and Research
None of the given statements is true
Lesson 4
Theory and Research: the Dynamic Duo: Theory and research are interrelated; the
dichotomy between theory and research is an artificial.
Personal interview
Ref: Structured interview: Sometimes referred to as a patterned interview, the structured
interview is very straightforward. The interviewer has a standard set of questions that are
asked of all candidates.
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Mr. Haris is interested in studying the shared beliefs and practices of the teachers in a
small rural school. He is likely to use which research design?
Action research
Historical research
Ethnography
Grounded theory
Lesson 38
Ethnography comes from cultural anthropology. Ethno means people or a folk distinct by
their culture and graphs refers to describing something. Thus ethnography means
describing a culture and understanding another way of life from the native point of view.
It is just an understanding the culture of people from their own perspective.
To what extent our results can be accurately generalized to other
participants, situations, and times?
What is ordinal data?
Ordinary data
Well behaved data
Ranked data
Numbers
Ref: Ordinal data are categorical data where there is a logical ordering to the
categories.
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The independent variable is;

The variable manipulated in order to observe its effects
The variable that is measured
The free spirited variable
A confounding variable
Lesson 06
Independent variable:
Presumed cause presumed effect
Stimulus
Predicted from …
Antecedent
Manipulated
Predictor
Preliminary Data Collection may be considered as part of --------------.
Descriptive research
Explananory research
Exploratory research
Lesson 12
Preliminary Data Collection: This step may be considered as part of the exploratory
research.
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Cover letter must include the following information, except:
How was the respondent selected?

Data collecting tools
Motivation for the respondent
Importance of research topic which is going to be conducted
Lesson 21
Cover Letter: The cover letter that accompanies the questionnaire or is printed on the first
page of the questionnaire is an important means of inducing a reader to complete and
return the questionnaire. In the letter tell why the study is important, who is sponsoring
the study, how was the respondent selected, assuring the anonymity of the respondent
could help in establishing rapport and motivating the respondent to respond.
Descriptive and Explanatory Research are the classifications of research on the basis
of:
Use of the research

Time dimension
Techniques used
Purpose of the research
Lesson 3
Descriptive research presents a picture of the specific details of a situation, social setting,
or relationship. The major purpose of descriptive research, as the term implies, is to
describe characteristics of a population or phenomenon.
Explanatory Research: When we encounter an issue that is already known and have a
description of it, we might begin to wonder why things are the way they are. The desire
to know “why,” to explain, is the purpose of explanatory research.
Basic and Applied Research are the classifications of research on the basis of:
Use of the research

Time dimension
Techniques used
Lesson 3
Basic Research: Basic research advances fundamental knowledge about the human
world. It focuses on refuting or supporting theories that explain how this world operates,
what makes things happen, why social relations are a certain way, and why society
changes.
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Applied Research: Applied researchers try to solve specific policy problems or help
practitioners accomplish tasks.
What is a cross-sectional research?
A study of one particular section of society

A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time
The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time
One that is conducted when environment is uncertain
Lesson 3
Cross-Sectional Research: In cross-sectional research, researchers observe at one
point in time.
Before a researcher specified the relationship among variables, he must have a (an):
Inventory of variables
Inventory of propositions
Arrangement of propositions
Schematic diagram
According to scientific method, which of the following is Not an empirical reality?
Emotions
God’s reward for good deeds
Satisfaction
None of the given options
Ref: The empirical reality is the reality that can be deduced from repeatable
observations of the senses.
Which of the following best describes qualitative data coding?
Numerically representing the concepts identified by the participants

Identify data segments that contain general episodes
Adding all of the scores together and describing them statistically
Dividing data in parts that represent single thoughts
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“High productivity is positively associated with Job commitment”. The given hypothesis is a (an):
Descriptive hypothesis
Explanatory hypothesis
Non-Directional hypothesis
Co-relational hypothesis
Lesson 7
Correlational hypotheses: State merely that the variables occur together in some specified manner without
implying that one causes the other. Such weak claims are often made when we believe that there are more
basic causal forces that affect both variables. For example:
Level of job commitment of the officers is positively associated with their level of efficiency.
The logic of purposive sampling is:
That a random sample can generalize to a population.

That a few information-rich participants studied in depth yield many insights about a topic.
To include all participants, even though they are not all relevant to the problem.
To use participants because the researcher has access to them.
Endeavors to explain, predict, and/or control phenomena are the goal of

a) tradition.
b) inductive logic.
c) deductive logic.
d) the scientific method.
2. Ms. Casillas has been coordinating the Halloween Festival at her school for the
last several years. She wants to be sure the students and parents enjoy the
festival again this year. On which source is she LEAST likely to rely when making
decisions about what to do?
a) Tradition
b) Personal experience
c) Research
d) Expert opinion
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3. Ms. Turner is thinking about changing her instructional approach to a more

mastery-learning orientation. She is interested in knowing more about this topic
as well as its effectiveness when working with elementary school students. On
which source should she rely for such information?
a) Tradition
b) Research
c) Intuition
d) Personal experience
4. The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it is

more
a) reliable.
b) systematic.
c) accurate.
d) all of these.
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5. The application of the scientific method to the study of educational problems is
called
a) inductive reasoning.
b) deductive reasoning.
c) educational research.
d) grounded theor
6. Which of the following statements characterizes educational research?
a) It furthers our understanding of educational issues, questions, or problems.

b) It raises new topics for study.
c) It provides information that can improve teaching and learning.
d) All of these.
7. Which of the following steps of the scientific method is exemplified by the

researcher reviewing the literature and focusing on a specific problem that has
yet to be resolved?
a) Identify a topic.
b) Describe the procedures to collect information.
c) Analyze the collected information.
d) State the results of the data analysis.
8. If a researcher (1) identified a topic and a specific educational problem related

to it, (2) carefully described the ways by which data was collected and analyzed,
and (3) wrote a report reflecting on this work and its contribution to what is
known about the topic, her work can BEST be described as
a) educational research.
b) quantitative research.
c) qualitative research.
d) evaluation.
9. Which of the following is a limitation of educational research?

a) Research cannot answer value-based problems.
b) Researchers have ethical and legal responsibilities that can constrain their work.
c) It is difficult to fully describe the depth of participants' perspectives given the
complexity of human behavior.
d) All of these.
www.vuzs.info
10. What is the reason for consulting handbooks, yearbooks, encyclopedias, or

reviews in the initial stages of identifying a research topic?
a) They are readily available.

b) They provide an overview of the issues related to a topic.
c) They are primary sources.
d) They avoid reporting statistical data so one can interpret the results more easily.
11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research topic?
a) It is ethical.
b) It can be investigated through the collection and analysis of data.
c) It focuses on a philosophical or ethical issue.
d) It is theoretically or practically significant.
www.vuzs.info
12. Which of the following is NOT a legitimate research problem as stated?
a) What is the relationship between the number of books children read and their reading
scores?
b) Should competitive games be banned from elementary schools?
c) What does it mean to be a special needs child "included" in Ms. Pierre's fourth
grade class?
d) What are the major legal principles applied to educational cases decided by the U.S.
Supreme Court?
13. Which of the following is the least appropriate research problem?
a) Does studying Latin improve the standardized vocabulary test scores of seventh
grade students?
b) Does drilling fifth grade students with multiplication facts improve their standardized
test scores?
c) What is the relationship between students' math attitudes and math achievement?
d) Should students have access to controversial novels in school?
Key: 1-d; 2-c; 3-b; 4-d; 5-c; 6-d; 7-a; 8-a; 9-d; 10-b; 11-c; 12-b; 13-d
Which of the following refers to the extent that all information collected in a questionnaire
addresses a research question that will help the decision maker address the current business
problem?
► Accuracy
► Counter balanced
► Relevance
► Frequency
Reference:
Question Relevancy
A questionnaire is relevant to the extent that all information collected addresses a
research question
that will help the decision maker address the current business problem
(zh,vuzs,jan11)
After a researcher has stated the specific problem to be studied in an experiment,

he must then develop a(n):
Theory
Conclusion
Hypothesis
Summary of the data
Personal interview
Which method of sampling is least likely to produce bias?
Opportunity Sampling
Random Sampling
Stratified Sampling
Quasi-random sampling
Which type of question is most likely to be used when the researcher is just
starting to explore what people think about a particular topic?
Closed-ended
Open-ended
Structured
Semi structured
www.vuzs.info
Which method of sampling is least likely to produce bias?
Opportunity Sampling
Random Sampling
Stratified Sampling
Quasi-random sampling
Which of the following is false with regard to the benefits of multiple-choice

questions over open-ended questions?
Multiple-choice questions are easier to design
Multiple-choice questions are less costly for coding and data processing
Multiple-choice questions are quicker to administer
The use of multiple-choice questions results in higher cooperation for self-administered
surveys
www.vuzs.info
Which of the following true about the relationship between theory building and
data collection?
When studies come out as expected, inductive support for the theory is gained.
If an experiment fails, discarding the experiment is an example of affirming the
consequent.
When a hypothesis is not supported, virtually nothing has been learned about the
theory.
A good theory will be inclusive enough to explain every possible research outcome.
What is one way that distortions can be produced in self report data?
Lying
Social desirability bias
Faulty memory
www.vuzs.info
When you are confident that the experimental manipulation produced the
changes you measured in the dependent variable,your study probably has good
________ validity.
Construct
Internal
External
Casual1
(mh,vuzs)
The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it is
more;
Reliable
Systematic
Accurate
In which of the following Tests, we give extra training to the interviewer in case of
big research funded by an organization?
Test Run
Pilot Test
Post Hoc Test
T- Test
If a nominal scale is used, it is permissible to calculate which of the following

statistics?
Mean
Range
Percentile
Mode
A one tailed hypothesis predicts-----------
The future
The lottery result
The frequency of the effect
The direction of the effect
www.vuzs.info
Which of the following provides insight into the complexity of using interviews?
Potential influence of gender or cultural differences between interviewer and
interviewee
The accuracy of the interviewee's responses
The different semantic meanings of the language being used
Accuracy, influences and language used
www.vuzs.info

Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing a proposal?

Understanding the problem situation
The appearance/form of the proposal
Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client
Knowing as much as possible about the proposal recipients

Health care
Business
Government offices
Imaginary worlds
www.vuzs.info
Which of the following is a concept?
Leadership.
Total Quality Management.
Human Resource Management.
In which way does a ratio scale measurement differ from
an interval measurement?
It measures larger or smaller scores on some underlying dimension.
It implies the existence of an absolute zero value.
It requires the mutual exclusivity of all cases.
It requires that exhaustiveness is applied to all observations.
If a researcher was studying the use of various instructional approaches to the "multiple
intelligences" of his students, he is likely to be conducting which type of research?
Basic
Applied
Evaluation
Grounded theory
www.vuzs.info
An operational definition is:
One that bears no relation to the underlying concept.
An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept.
A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures.
One that refers to opera singers and their work.
In the statement 'an examination of the effects of discretionary behaviour on employee

performance' employee performance is the:
Independent variable
Dependent variable
Extraneous variable
Causal variable
www.vuzs.info
Quantitative researcher's preoccupation with generalization is an attempt to:

Develop the law like findings of the natural sciences.
Boost their chances of publication.
Enhance the internal validity of their research.
Demonstrate the complex techniques of statistical analysis.
Which one of the following tasks is NOT accomplished by theoretical framework?

Elaborate the relationship among the variables
Explain the logic underlying the relationship between the variables.
Describe the nature, and direction of the relationships among the variables.
Relates the previous studies.
What is required if there is a chance that data could harm the respondents?
Change of results
A signed form detailing the types of limits
Free consent of respondents
www.vuzs.info
Which of the following is not an example of deception?
A part of the truth is not communicated to the respondent
To observe code of ethics
To leak out information regarding any confidential matter
To create bias between respondents before the survey
Which of the the following is not included in Objects?

Tables
People
Books
Weight
The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is
called:
Sampling validity
External validity
Construct validity
Internal validity
If a nominal scale is used, it is permissible to calculate which of the following
statistics?
 Quizs
 Quizzes
 Lottery Results
 Calculate
 Levels
 Identification
 Interests
 Absolute Zero
 All Cases
 All Information
 Quizs
 Quizzes
 Lottery Results
 Calculate
 Levels
 Identification
 Interests
 Absolute Zero
Mean
Range
Percentile
Mode
www.vuzs.info
All of the following are true about theories, except;
They organize and summarize existing knowledge about a topic.

They are tentative until the facts prove them true.
They provide possible explanations for the phenomenon under study.
They lead to testable hypotheses through the process of deduction.
(MH,vuZs)
Research questions are crucial because they will:

Guide your decisions about what data to collect and from where.
Help you decide which research area interests you.
Ensure that your findings have external validity.
Prevent you from thinking about research strategies.

To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled
conditions that challenge the hypothesis.
www.vuzs.info
Procedures determining what two issues are rarely used in quantitative research?
Objectivity and subjectivity

Reliability and validity
Accessibility and replicability
Quality and quantity
Ms. Laiba has decided to use the test at the end of the textbook to measure the
achievement levels of the students in her study. Which of the following BEST describes
the chapter test?
Definition
Construct
Variable
Operationalized variable
STA630 1st
Quiz
Shared by Power Girls
Who join our conference and help us in solving these quizzes.
Helpful Links:
http://wps.prenhall.com/chet_airasian_edresearch_8/38/9865/2525549.cw/index.htm
l
http://www.oup.com/uk/orc/bin/9780199284986/01student/cqs/
http://www.uk.sagepub.com/breakwell/mcq.htm
Question # 1
The following journal article would be an example of _____ research; "The benefits of
florescent lighting on production in a factory setting."
Applied
Interview
Basic
Stupid
Question # 2
Which of the following is a concept?Select correct option:
Leadership.
Question # 3
After you locate a source, you should write down all details of the reference, except;
Full names of the authors
Titles
Volumes
Price
Question # 4
The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it is more;
Reliable
Systematic
Accurate
Question # 5
Question # 6
To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions that challenge the
hypothesis.
Reference & Explanation:
http://www.experiment-resources.com/definition-of-the-scientific-method.html
The principles and empirical processes of discovery and demonstration considered characteristic
of or necessary for scientific investigation, generally involving the observation of phenomena, the
formulation of a hypothesis concerning the phenomena, experimentation to demonstrate the truth
or falseness of the hypothesis, and a conclusion that validates or modifies the hypothesis.
Question # 7
Which of the following is not a concept?
Leadership
Total Quality Management
Human Resource Management
IQ
Explanation:
Concepts are the building blocks of theory, each of which represents a label given to a common element
of the social world. IQ is a measure of the concept of intelligence, it is not a concept in itself.
Question # 8
Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research question,
"What impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of Brand B?"
The new advertising campaign will impact Brand B usage.
The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B trial.
The new advertising campaign will cause increased Brand B usage at the expense of Brand C.
The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B's market penetration.
Question # 9
Which one of the following is not an assumption of science?
There are reoccurring patterns in the world.
Events happen because of preceding causes.
We can discover solutions to problems of interest.
Theoretical explanations must agree with common sense.
Question # 10
A review that only demonstrates familiarity with an area is rarely published but it often is part of
an educational program is which type of review?
Integrative reviews
Theoretical reviews
Self-study reviews
Historical reviews
Reference & Explanation:Page # 26, Lecture # 08
Self-study reviews increase the reader’s confidence. A review that only demonstrates familiarity with an
area is rarely published but it often is part of an educational program. In addition to giving others
confidence in a reviewer’s command of field, it has the side benefit of building the reviewer’s self
confidence.
Question # 11
A literature review requires;
planning
clear writing
good writing
All of the given option
Page # 29, Lecture # 9
A literature review requires planning and good, clear writing, which requires lot of rewriting. Keep your
purposes in mind when you write, and communicate clearly and effectively.
Question # 12
The facts that should be collected to measure a variable, depend upon the
Conceptual understanding
Dictionary meaning
All of the above
Question # 13
Which of the following is the BEST hypothesis?
Students taking formative quizzes will perform better on chapter exams than students not taking
these quizzes.
Taller students will have higher test scores than shorter students.
Students taught in a cooperative group setting should do better than students in a traditional class.
Students using laptops will do well.
Explanation:
The second alternative meets the four criteria; all other alternatives do not.
Question # 14What is an hypothesis?
A prediction of a relationship between certain variables.
An experiment that tests certain predictions.
An independent variable.
A dependent variable.
Reference:
http://www.uk.sagepub.com/breakwell/downloads/mcq/mcq_04/mcq_04.htm
Question # 15
Operational definition is also called a working definition stated in terms of specific testing or
measurement criteria. The concepts must have empirical referents (i.e. we must be able to count,
measure, or in some other way gather thee information through our senses).
Question # 16
What research is?
A lab experiment
A report
A systematic Enquiry
A procedure
http://wps.prenhall.com/chet_leedy_practical_8/0,9599,1569572-,00.htmlResearch is the systematic
process of collecting and analyzing information to increase our
understanding of the phenomenon under study. It is the function of the researcher to contribute to
the understanding of the phenomenon and to communicate that understanding to others. This
chapter explains what research is and what it is not. Eight characteristics of research are
presented. The process of research as a helical cycle is discussed.
Question # 17
If a researcher is studying the effect of using laptops in his classroom to ascertain their
merit and worth, he is likely conducting which type of research?
Basic
Applied
Evaluation
Experimental
Question # 18
In the statement 'an examination of the effects of discretionary behaviour on employee
performance' employee performance is the:
Independent variable
Dependent variable
Extraneous variable
Causal variable
Explanation:
The dependent variable is the variable that we are looking to explain, hence in this case it is
employee performance. Discretionary behaviour is the independent variable which is to be
manipulated so as to assess its causal relationship with employee behaviour.
Question # 19
The most difficult sources to locate are;
Dissertations
Policy Reports and Presented Papers
Government Documents
Scholarly Books Reference & Explanation:
Policy Reports and Presented Papers. The most difficult sources to locate are policy reports
and
presented papers. They are listed in some bibliographies of published studies; some
are listed in the
abstracts or indexes.
Question # 20
A concept is a generalized idea about---- .

A class of objects
Attributes
Occurrences
A concept is a generalized idea about a class of objects, attributes, occurrences, or processes that
has been given a name. In other words a concept is an idea expressed as a symbol or in words.
Question # 21
What is the reason for consulting handbooks, yearbooks, encyclopedias, or reviews in the
initial stages of identifying a research topic?
They are readily available.
They provide an overview of the issues related to a topic.
They are primary sources. They avoid reporting statistical data so one can interpret the results more
easily.
Explanation:
The sources mentioned in this question are all secondary sources, and secondary sources provide
overviews of the topics being investigated.
 Quizs
 Quizzes
 New product development
 Prediction
 Advertising Campaigns
 Agree
 Attribute
 Banner advertising campaign
 Bibliographie
 Bibliographies
 Quizs
 Quizzes
 Prediction
Question # 22
What is opposite of a variable?
A constant
An extraneous variable
A dependent variable
A data set
Question # 23
Qualitative and Quantitative Research are the classifications of research on the basis of
Use of the research
Time dimension
Techniques used
Reference & explanation:
Page # 46, lecture # 15
One difference between the two styles involves timing.
Question # 24
The organization of concepts in sequence from the most concrete and individual to the
most general indicates is:
An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept.The degree of abstraction
An operational definition
The organization of concepts in sequence from the most concrete and individual to the most
general indicates the degree of abstraction.
Question # 25
The most critical areas of an article to read is;
Results section
Introduction
Abstract
Limitations
Question # 26
_______ meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurements.
Unambiguous
Vague
Clear
Dictionary
Vague meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurement.
Question # 27
Research solution
Logic and arguments
Reasoning
Previous findingsReference & Explanation:
http://books.google.com/books?id=875TTxildJ0C&pg=PA232&lpg=PA232&dq=
%22Rationalism+is+the+application+of
%22&source=bl&ots=W9vyQpV_ie&sig=ionJi1mPwBa-XYwE-
iKjwoKtqlI&hl=en&ei=cMTZS6TLCtOxrAfD5q2jDw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnu
m=2&ved=0CA8Q6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=%22Rationalism%20is%20the%20application
%20of%22&f=false
Question # 28
To give your dissertation a proper academic appearance, with lots of references
Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
To find out what is already known about your area of interest
To help in your general studying
Question # 29
The application of the scientific method to the study of business problems is called;
Inductive reasoning
Deductive reasoning
Business research
Grounded theory
Question # 30
Question # 31
Which one of the following creates problems of measurements of a concept?
Unambiguous meanings
Vague meanings
Clear meanings
Dictionary meanings
Vague meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurement.
Question # 32
Which of the following is a discrete variable?
Age
Nationality
Test score
Income
Explanation:
A discrete variable is one that cannot take on all values within the limits of the variable. For
example, responses to a five-point rating scale can only take on the values 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. The
variable cannot have the value 1.7. A variable such as a person's height can take on any value.
Variables that can take on any value and therefore are not discrete are called continuous.
Question # 33
Which of the following is a discrete variable?
height
age
miles per gallon
number of children
Explanation:
A discrete variable is one that cannot take on all values within the limits of the variable. For
example, responses to a five-point rating scale can only take on the values 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. The
variable cannot have the value 1.7. A variable such as a person's height can take on any value.
Variables that can take on any value and therefore are not discrete are called continuous.
Question # 34According to Empiricism, which of the following is the ultimate source of all our concepts
and knowledge?
Perceptions
Theory
Sensory experience
Logics and arguments
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/rationalism-empiricism/
The dispute between rationalism and empiricism concerns the extent to which we are dependent
upon sense experience in our effort to gain knowledge. Rationalists claim that there are
significant ways in which our concepts and knowledge are gained independently of sense
experience. Empiricists claim that sense experience is the ultimate source of all our concepts and
knowledge.
Question # 35
Basic
Applied
Evaluation
Grounded theory
Explanation:
The theory of multiple intelligences is fairly well established, and this researcher is trying to
understand how to use this theory in the classroom. In addition, there is no assessment of merit or
worth to suggest this could be evaluation research, nor is there any sense that the researcher is
conducting the research to solve a local, isolated problem.
Question # 36
Health care
Business
Government offices
Imaginary worlds
(MH,vuZs)
Question # 37
Which of the following statements is false?
Discrete variables allow measurement of an infinite number of fractions of units of measurement.
Discrete variables can only have whole number values.
Continuous numbers can only have whole number values.
Continuous measures do not allow for scores that fall between two number values.
http://www.uk.sagepub.com/breakwell/downloads/mcq/mcq_03/mcq_03.htm
Page # 19, Lecture 06
Any variable that has a limited number of distinct values and which cannot be divided into
fractions, is a discontinuous variable. Such a variable is also called as categorical variable or
classificatory variable, or discrete variable. Some variables have only two values, reflecting the
presence or absence of a property: employed-unemployed or male-female have two values. These
variables are referred to as dichotomous. There are others that can take added categories such as
the demographic variables of race, religion. All such variables that produce data that fit into
categories are said to be discrete/categorical/classificatory, since only certain values are possible.
An automotive variable, for example, where “Chevrolet” is assigned a 5 and “Honda” is assigned
a 6, provides no option for a 5.5 (i.e. the values cannot be divided into fractions).
Question # 38
To explain, predict, and/or control phenomena are the goal of----------------------
Tradition
Inductive logic
Deductive logic
The scientific method
Question # 39
Which of the following is most beneficial to read in an article?
MethodsIntroduction
Figures
References
Question # 40
Which of the following is not a function of clearly identified research questions?
They guide your literature search.
They keep you focused throughout the data collection period.
They make the scope of your research as wide as possible.
They are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument.
http://www.oup.com/uk/orc/bin/9780199284986/01student/cqs/ch03/?view=Standard
It is important to formulate some clear research questions from the outset of your project, because
completely open-ended research can lead to the collection of too much data and a lack of focus
for the analysis. If you decide on some fairly specific research questions before designing your
project, it will help to guide your literature search, data collection and analysis, as well as form a
coherent argument throughout your dissertation
1. The following journal article would be an example of _______ research;

"The benefits of florescent lighting on production in a factory setting."
Applied
Interview
Basic
Stupid (hint: don't select this one)
2. The ________ is only useful if the concepts, ideas, questions, etc. to be

investigated are both testable and falsifiable.
Independent Variable
Dependent Variable
Experimental Method
Scientific Method
3. Many experiments conducted at universities have Introductory Psychology
students act as participants, and then generalize the findings of the study to the
general public. In this case, ALL college students in the US can be considered the
"population", but those students who participated in the experiment themselves
are called the:
control group
sample
experimental group
guinea pigs
4. If you take the S.A.T. exam four times and you receive the same score all four
times, we may conclude that the test is ______ but not necessarily _____.
valid; reliable
reliable; accurate
reliable; valid
valid; important
5. In order for an experiment to be considered a TRUE EXPERIMENT there must
be both random assignment of subjects/participants to groups, and _______.
equal numbers of males and females
preliminary testing to see if participants are eligible
approval of an internal review board
manipulation of an Independent Variable
6. Marsha, Jan, and Cindy are participants in a psychological study of the
effectiveness of three different psychedelic drugs. Each participant is assigned to
one and only one condition, receiving only one type of drug, in order to examine
the effects of each drug from one group to the next. This is a _____ design.
between-subjects
within-subjects (repeated measures)
I have no clue
experimental
7. A correlation coefficient of +0.92 means that as one variable increases, the
other variable:
increases
decreases
is not affected
is impossible to predict
8. If a participant in an experiment believed that she was expected to act in a
certain way, and therefore did not act completely honestly or naturally, her
behavior would fit the definition of:
experimenter bias
control
demand characteristics
subjective behavior
9. After a Psychologist has stated the specific problem to be studied in an
experiment, he/she must then develop a(n):
theory
conclusion
hypothesis
summary of the data
10. Which of the following would allow me to have the MOST control over
environmental variables when conducting a research study?
true experimental design
quasi-experimental design
survey
case study
11. What identifies psychology as a scientific discipline?
its professional status
methods used in studying its subject matter
its subject matter
amount of education needed to be a psychiatrist
12. Hypothesis refers to __________:
the outcome of an experiment
a conclusion drawn from an experiment
a form of bias in which the subject tries to outguess the experimenter
a tentative statement about the relationship
13. Statistics are used by researchers to:
analyze the empirical data collected in a study
make their findings sound better
operationally define their variables
ensure the study comes out the way it was intended
14. What is the final step of a scientific investigation?

analyze data
collect data
report the findings
determine whether the hypothesis was supported
15. What is the variable called, in an experiment, that is manipulated by the
researcher?
stimulus
control
dependent
independent
16. What is the purpose of a control group?
make the experiment easier to analyze
show the value of the dependent variable when the independent variable is not being
manipulated
to be able to better evaluate the effect of the independent variable
to control all variables
17. When does random assignment occur?
when subjects have an equal chance to be assigned to any condition and/or
group in a study
when a subject can choose its group and study
none of the above
all of the above
18. Beth goes to a fast food restaurant and records how many people order
hamburgers versus cheeseburgers and whether or not they order a coke versus a
diet coke. Beth is involved in a __________:
case study
naturalistic observation
survey
experiment
19. What technique would be useful in determining why a specific toddler is afraid
to go to bed?
descriptive study
case study
a placebo
experiment
20. What is one way that distortions can be produced in self report data?
lying
social desirability bias
faulty memory
all of the above
. Which of the following describes single-blind experiments?

(A) They are experiments in which the subjects don’t know whether they are
receiving a real or fake drug or treatment
(B) They help reduce placebo effects
(C) They help reduce bias in research
(D) All of the above
2. What does it mean if two variables have a positive correlation?

(A) As one variable increases, so does the other
(B) As one variable increases, the other decreases
(C) The correlation between the two variables is 0
(D) The correlation between the two variables is greater than 1.0
3. In what type of study does a researcher study an individual subject in depth?

(A) Naturalistic observation
(B) Laboratory observation
(C) Case study
(D) Survey
4. How can we determine if a test has good validity?

(A) It produces the same result when it is given at different times to the same
group of people
(B) It produces the same result no matter which version of the test is used
(C) It measures what it is supposed to measure
(D) All of the questions on it can be answered accurately by the subject
5. What is the variable called that a researcher manipulates in an experiment?

(A) Dependent variable
(B) Independent variable
(C) Extraneous variable
(D) None of the above
6. What is the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a data
distribution called?
(A) Mode
(B) Standard deviation
(C) Range
(D) Median
7. The social desirability bias can affect which of the following?

(A) The validity of a test
(B) The reliability of a test
(C) Self-report data
(D) None of the above
8. Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get

information about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily?
(A) Naturalistic observation
(B) Case study
(C) Laboratory observation
(D) Survey
9. What is a common way of controlling extraneous variables in an experiment?

(A) Random assignment
(B) Double-blind procedure
(C) Single-blind procedure
(D) Using animal subjects
10. When doing research involving deception with human subjects, researchers have an
obligation to do which of the following?
(A) Tell subjects the truth about the study’s purpose and methods after the study is
completed
(B) Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects
(C) Let subjects withdraw from the study at any time if they don’t want to keep
participating
(D) All of the above
Practice Quiz
Chapter 5
Measurement Concepts
1. A reliable measure has more measurement error than an unreliable measure.
True
False
2. An indicator of reliability based on the correlations of each item in a measure
with every other item is called:
Cronbach's alpha
Split-half reliability
3. A measure is reactive if it changes the behavior being measured.
True
False
4. A researcher developed a measure of shyness and is now asking whether this

measure does in fact measure a person's true state of shyness. This is a
 Quizs
 Fakes
 Hamburgers
 Quizzes
 Job
 Afraid
 All College
 Analyze Data
 Behavior
 Quizs
 Fakes
 Hamburgers
 Quizzes
 Job
 Afraid
 All College
question of:
reactivity.
construct validity.
reliability.
5. Scores on a final exam are related to student grade point average, the amount
of time spent studying for the exam, and class attendance. What type of validity
is demonstrated in this case?
convergent validity.
discriminant validity.
criterion validity.
6. Nominal scales of measurement have no quantitative properties.

True
False
7. Which of the following variables does NOT have ratio scale properties?
job satisfaction rating
reaction time to respond when a stimulus is presented
distance (in inches) that two people stand from each other when
conversing
8. My measure allows me to successfully predict future behavioral outcomes. My
measure has:
Criterion validity
Face validity
9. Unobtrusive measures reduce the problem of reactivity.

True
False
10. Whenever you divide people into groups, you probably using a nominal scale
level of measurement.
True
False
4. The statement, "Interviewers rate job applicants more favorably when they are
wearing a pleasant scent than when they have no scent" is an example of:
description of behavior.
prediction of behavior.
explanation of behavior.
5. The statement, "A pleasant scent increases favorability of ratings because the
scent creates a positive emotional state in the interviewer" is an example of:
3. Which of the following would result in finding more articles when using
PsycINFO?.
happiness AND marital satisfaction
happiness OR marital satisfaction
4. You found an important article published in 1990. What resource would you
use to find articles that have cited your article since then?
Psychological Abstracts
PsycINFO
Social Science Citation Index
5. Which of the following is NOT true of theories?
Explain currently known facts.
Rarely change once formulated.
Generate new knowledge.
7. You are reading a paragraph in a journal article; the topic of the paragraph is
the implications of the results for future research. Which section of the article are
you reading?
Introduction
Results
Discussion
4. A researcher records the tips left at a restaurant. The amount of the tip is
related to size of the check, and the number and gender composition of people in
the party. According to regulations, this research would be classified as:
No risk
Minimal risk
Greater than minimal risk
5. Which is not a reason for a debriefing session?
Required by Health and Human Services regulations.
Deal with issues of stress or deception.
Education about psychological research.
4. Which is NOT a problem when the nonexperimental method is used to study
relationships between variables?
Direction of cause and effect
Behavior is only measured
A "third" variable may be responsible for the relationship.
5. Which of the following relationships would most likely be studied with the
nonexperimental method?
The effect of parental use of alcohol on aggressive behavior of
children.
The effect of distraction while studying on test performance.
The effect of defendant attractiveness on juror decisions.
. In an experiment, some participants took a standard printed exam; others took
the exam using a computer administration procedure. Scores obtained with the
two exam procedures were compared. The independent variable was
__________ and the dependent variable was __________.
exam type; exam score.
exam score, exam type.
participant gender, exam procedure
Which of the following is used to make sure that the participants in each
condition of an experiment are equivalent?
Experimental control
Randomization
2. A researcher devised a coding system to analyze the messages on an Internet
bulletin board discussion of the controversy concerning Elian Gonzalez, the
Cuban boy who was rescued after a boat accident in the ocean between
Cuba
and the United States. This study used:

content analysis.
naturalistic observation.
systematic observation.
4. A researcher videotaped people while viewing political debates. Raters viewed
segments of the tapes and recorded whether the people were smiling. This study
used:
systematic observation.
naturalistic observation.
content analysis.
5. A researcher tries to explain why a particular observation does not fit with a
theory that is used to explain other observations. This is called:
inter-rater reliability.
negative case analysis.
internal validity.
7. A researcher accessed information on the Internet from a series of surveys of
women that was conducted during the 1970s and 1980s. The data were
analyzed to examine changes in attitudes and behaviors over time. Which of the
following methods was used?
systematic observation
case study
archival research
8. When two or more judges make ratings of observed behaviors, it is important
to examine:
inter-rater reliability.
test-retest reliability.
9. A psychologist conducts a study that uses data collected from many cultures in
the world. The researcher probably used:
Human Relations Area Files
PsycINFO
2. You wish to make a precise estimate about the characteristics of a population
of individuals. You should use:
quota sampling.
probability sampling.
accidental sampling.
10. A researcher studies memory by talking to groups of people in their 50s, 60s,
and 70s about memory problems that they have experienced and worried about.
This study has collected:
quantitative data.
qualitative data.
. The number of people who complete a survey in relation to the number of
people contacted to participate is called the:
response set.
response rate.
response bias.
6. The question, "Do you think that television should have less violence and
fewer shows about sex" is considered:
double-barreled.
loaded.
open-ended.
7. Which type of questions should be first in a questionnaire or interview?
questions about demographics such as age and gender
questions about attitudes and behaviors
8. Which type of question is most likely to be used when the researcher is just
starting to explore what people think about a particular topic?
closed-ended
open-ended
10. Which is most likely to yield qualitative data?
Mail survey
Focus group
Telephone interview
2. A researcher studied the effect of defendant physical attractiveness on juror
decisions. The attractive person was 20 years old, and the unattractive person
was a 45-year old. The problem here is that:
age is confounded with attractiveness.
it is very difficult to operationally define physical attractiveness.
attractiveness is not related to perceptions of guilt.
4. The same people participate in each condition of an experiment. What type of
design is this?
repeated measures (within-subjects)
independent groups (between-subjects)
matched pairs
6. Complete counterbalancing means that:
there were no practice effects
all possible orders of the IV were used
all Latin squares were constructed
9. All things being equal, which design is more likely to result in a statistically
significant effect?
Independent groups
Repeated measures
10. You identified the 15 employees in a large organization who were absent
from work the most days during the previous month. You require these
employees to attend a one-day program on time and stress management in an
attempt to reduce absenteeism. In the following month, all of the employees
improved their attendance. The improvement could be caused by the program or
it might be due to:
statistical regression.
mortality
instrument decay
1. In an experiment, words with either feminine or masculine connotation were
presented on a computer screen. The participant pressed one key when they
perceived a masculine word and another key when it was perceived as feminine.
Reaction time was the dependent variable. The experimenter used a:
staged manipulation
straightforward manipulation
2. The dependent variable was score on a measure of comprehension of

material. Virtually everyone in all conditions of the experiment answered all
questions correctly. Researchers refer to this situation as a:
floor effect.
ceiling effect.
similarity effect.
4. You are concerned that participants in your study may be figuring out exactly
what you are studying. You are worried about:
demand characteristics.
experimenter expectancies.
placebo effects.
6. The session that the experimenter holds with participants following an
experiment is called:
deception.
informed consent.
debriefing
7. The galvanic skin response (GSR) is a measure of:

anxiety.
muscle tension.
8. A good way to "debug" a study is to run a:
placebo group.
pilot study.
9. An experiment was conducted entirely on the Internet. This procedure
probably eliminated the problem of:
demand characteristics.
experimenter expectancies.
informed consent.
10. A researcher is designing a study on the effect of defendant attractiveness on

juror decisions. To investigate whether participants perceive the two defendants
as different in attractiveness, the researcher should use a:
sensitive dependent measure.
manipulation check.
strong manipulation.
7. A documentary film director made a series of films about the lives of a set of
children when they were 7, 14, 21, 28, and 35 years of age, i.e, the films 7-Up
and 14-Up.. What type of "research design" is this?
cross-sectional
longitudinal
sequential
8. When Donald Campbell compared fatalities in Connecticut and nearby states

before and after a police speeding crackdown, the ___________ design was
used.
interrupted time series
control series
longitudinal
10. After comparing the effects of jail and a drug treatment program on persons
convicted of drug-related offenses, a researcher analyzed the societal costs of
each. The researcher has conducted:
outcome evaluation
needs assessment
economic efficiency assessment
1. You want to know if males and females differ in preferences for dogs and cats
as pets. You ask males and females to indicate whether they prefer dogs, cats,
or neither dogs nor cats. When you describe your results, you will compare:
means.
percentages.
medians.
2. You want to know if males and females differ in the length of recommended
sentence for someone found guilty of driving under the influence of alcohol. You
ask males and females to indicate the number of weeks of jail time the convicted
person should receive. When you describe your results, you will compare:
means
percentages
medians
4. You conducted a survey of students in your school. You report that half the
students work 25 hours per week or less. The statistic you used is the
mean.
median.
mode
5. Couples who share more similar attitudes indicate that they are more satisfied
with their relationship. This reflects a ___________ correlation.
positive
negative
7. A researcher assessed the following variables in a sample of teenage males:
aggressive behavior, anger, loneliness, and perceived social support from family
and friends. In addition to examining the correlations among these variables, the
researcher tested a proposed model of how these variable are related to one
another. The researcher is using a:
partial correlation analysis.
structural equation model.
multiple regression analysis.
10. A multiple correlation is a correlation between one variable and
another variable that is measured on a ratio scale.
a combined set of variables.
a manipulated variable
2. The ability to infer that that the independent variable caused the effect on the
dependent variable is called:
internal validity
external validity
criterion validity
3. When you discuss the extent to which your results would apply to other people
or settings, you are concerned with:
internal validity
external validity
criterion validity
5. A replication in which the original procedures are duplicated is called a(n)
_______________ .
exact replication
conceptual replication
systematic replication.
. A study on fear of medical procedures was conducted in a room on campus that
had been decorated as a doctor's office has:
experimental realism
mundane realism
replicability
8. The participants in the study became very involved in a computer simulation.

This study has:
experimental realism
mundane realism
replicability
10. A study conducted outside the confines of a standard laboratory/classroom is

called a:
field experiment
mundane experiment
meta-analysis
Chapter 01
I
Question 1
What is a 'grand theory'?
a) One that was proposed by one of the major theorists in the sociological tradition
b) One that is highly abstract and makes broad generalizations about the social world
c) An intermediate level explanation of observed regularities
d) A particularly satisfactory theory that makes the researcher feel happy
Question 2
What does an empiricist believe?
a) We should not apply natural science methods to social science research
b) It is the sociologist's aim to understand the meaning of social action
c) Knowledge, in the form of 'facts', should be gained through sensory experience
d) Research conducted within the British empire was biased and unreliable
Question 3
An inductive theory is one that:
a) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis
b) Does not allow for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
c) Uses quantitative methods whenever possible
d) Allows theory to emerge out of the data
Question 4
What is the epistemological position held by a positivist?
a) There is no substitute for an in-depth, hermeneutic understanding of society
b) Scientific research should be based on value-free, empirical observations
c) Events and discourses in the social world prevent us from having direct knowledge of the natural
order
d) It is important to remain optimistic about our research, even when things go wrong
Question 5
The interpretivist view of the social sciences is that:
a) Their subject matter is fundamentally different to that of the natural sciences
b) We should aim to achieve the interpretive understanding of social action
c) It is important to study the way people make sense of their everyday worlds
d) All of the above
Question 6
Which of the following is an ontological question?
a) Should I use questionnaires or interviews in my project?
b) What can (and should) be considered acceptable forms of knowledge?
c) How long is it since I last visited the dentist?
d) Do social entities have an objective reality, external to social actors?
Question 7
The constructionist ontological position suggests that:
a) Social phenomena and their meanings are constantly being accomplished by social actors
b) Individuals are born into a world of rules and structures that they cannot change
c) Building and construction work presents an ideal opportunity to exercise the sociological imagination
d) Social facts and objects have an external reality, independently of the people who perceive them
Question 8
The qualitative research strategy places a value on:
a) Using numbers, measurements and statistical techniques
b) Generating theories through inductive research about social meanings
c) Conducting research that is of a very high quality
d) All of the above
Question 9
Which of the following is an example of value-free research?
a) Conscious partiality
b) Sympathy for the underdog
c) Unstructured interviewing
Question 10
An important practical issue to consider when designing a research project is:
a) Which theoretical perspective you find most interesting
b) Whether or not you have time to retile the bathroom first
c) How much time and money you have to conduct the research
d) Which colour of ring binder to present your work in
Chapter 02
Instructions
Choose your answers from a-d by clicking the radio button next to each choice and then press 'Submit' to
get your score.
Question 1
What is a research design?
a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods
c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data
Question 2
If a study is "reliable", this means that:
a) It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted
b) The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions
c) The findings can be generalized to other social settings
d) The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated
Question 3
"Internal validity" refers to:
a) Whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables
b) Whether or not the findings are relevant to the participants' everyday lives
c) The degree to which the researcher feels that this was a worthwhile project
d) How accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts
Question 4
Lincoln & Guba (1985) propose that an alternative criterion for evaluating qualitative research would be:
a) Impressiveness
b) Trustworthiness
c) Joyfulness
d) Messiness
Question 5
Naturalism has been defined as:
a) Viewing natural and social objects as belonging to the same realm
b) Being true to the nature of the phenomenon under investigation
c) Minimising the intrusion of artificial methods of data collection into the field
d) All of the above
Question 6
In an experimental design, the dependent variable is:
a) The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed
b) The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other
c) A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research
d) An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined
Question 7
What is a cross-sectional design?
a) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes
b) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood
c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time
d) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time
Question 8
Survey research is cross-sectional and therefore:
a) High in replicability but low in internal validity
b) High in internal validity but low in reliability
c) High in ecological validity but low in external validity
Question 9
Panel and cohort designs differ, in that:
a) Cohort studies involve quantitative research, whereas panel studies are qualitative
b) A panel study does not need rules to handle new entrants to households
c) Only a cohort study will suffer from sample attrition
d) A panel study can distinguish between age effects and cohort effects, but a cohort design
cannot
Question 10
Cross cultural studies are an example of:
a) Case study design
b) Comparative design
c) Experimental design
d) Longitudinal design
Chapter 03
Instructions
get your score.
Question 1
Which of the following requirements for a dissertation may depend on your institution?
a) Whether an abstract should be included
b) The format for referencing
c) The word limit
d) All of the above
Question 2
The role of a project supervisor is to:
a) Make sure you keep to your schedule and deadlines
b) Provide intellectual support, guidance and critical feedback
c) Negotiate access to the research setting on the student's behalf
d) Give you a reading list
Question 3
You can manage your time and resources best, by:
a) Working out a timetable
b) Finding out what resources are readily available to you
c) Calculating a budget for likely expenditure
d) All of the above
Question 4
What did Marx (1997) mean when he suggested that "intellectual puzzles and contradictions" can be a
possible source of research questions?
a) The researcher may feel that there is a contradiction in the literature, presenting a "puzzle" to
be solved
b) Students can develop their IQ levels by attempting to solve intellectual puzzles
c) Unless you can find a logical contradiction, you have no basis for conducting research
d) All of life is a puzzle, so any aspect of life can be researched
Question 5
How can you tell if your research questions are really good?
a) If they guide your literature search
b) If they are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument
c) If they force you to narrow the scope of your research
d) All of the above
Question 6
Which of the following should be included in a research proposal?
a) Your academic status and experience
b) The difficulties you encountered with your previous reading on the topic
c) Your choice of research methods and reasons for choosing them
d) All of the above
Question 7
Which of the following should you think about when preparing your research?
a) Your sample frame and sampling strategy
b) The ethical issues that might arise
c) Negotiating access to the setting
d) All of the above
Question 8
Why is it helpful to keep a research diary or log book while you are conducting your project?
a) To give you something to do in the early stages of your research when nothing is happening
b) Because funding councils generally demand to see written evidence that you were working every
day during the period of the research
c) To keep a record of what you did and what happened throughout the research process
d) It can be added to your dissertation to ensure that you reach the required word limit
Question 9
What can you do to ensure your physical safety during your research?
a) Be alert to the possibility of exposure to danger
b) Avoid interviewing alone in the respondent's residence
c) Make sure someone knows where you are and how you can contact them in an emergency
d) All of the above
Question 10
What practical steps can you take before you actually start your research?
a) Find out exactly what your institution's requirements are for a dissertation
b) Make sure you are familiar with the hardware and software you plan to use
c) Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics committee
d) All of the above
Chapter 04
Instructions
get your score.
Question 1
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 The Word
 The Collection
 Answers
 Levels
 Achieve
 Bathroom Cabinets
 Bathroom Remodel
 Binder
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 The Word
 The Collection
 Answers
 Levels
 Achieve
a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
d) To help in your general studying
Question 2
To read critically means:
a) Taking an opposing point of view to the ideas and opinions expressed
b) Skimming through the material because most of it is just padding
c) Evaluating what you read in terms of your own research questions
d) Being negative about something before you read it
Question 3
Which two of the following are legitimate frameworks for setting out a literature review: 1. Constructing intertextual
coherence, 2. Deconstruction of textual coherence, 3. Problematizing the situation, 4. Resolving
discovered problems?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 4
Question 4
A systematic literature review is:
a) One which starts in your own library, then goes to on-line databases and, finally, to the internet
b) A replicable, scientific and transparent process
c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area
d) A responsible, professional process of time-management for research
Question 5
What is meta-analysis?
a) A technique of correcting for the errors in individual studies within a survey of a large
number of studies, to demonstrate the effect of a particular variable
b) A process of secondary-data gathering to assemble all the possibilities for a variable's effects
c) A substitute for original research, which is justified by constraints of time or money
d) A specialized step in a computer software program (SPSS e.g.)
Question 6
What is meta-ethnography?
a) A technique for reviewing literature based exclusively on ethnographic studies
b) A technique for synthesizing interpretations drawn from a number of separate qualitative
studies of the same phenomena
c) A process used to make generalizations from a range of qualitative studies
d) A process of surveying only that literature contained within a single library
Question 7
What is a narrative literature review?
a) An historically-based review, starting with the earliest contributions to the field
b) A review based exclusively on stories about companies, in book and case-study form
c) A paraphrase style of reviewing which does not require referencing
d) An initial impression of the topic which you will understand more fully as you conduct your
research
Question 8
a) Recording the full URL
b) Noting the access dates
c) Downloading material to be referenced
d) They are all equally important
Question 9
According to the Harvard referencing convention, which is the correct reference?
a) Bryman, A. (2008, 3e) Social Research Methods, Oxford; OxfordUniversity Press
b) Bryman (2008, second edition), Oxford University Press
c) Bryman, Alan, Social Research Methods (2008: OUP)
d) Bryman, A. Social Research Methods (2008)
Question 10
Which of the following statements about plagiarism is most accurate?
a) It is so easy to "copy and paste" from the internet that everyone does it nowadays. If a proper
reference is given, where is the harm in that?
b) How can we say for sure where our own ideas come from exactly? If we tried to give a reference for
everything we could never hope to succeed.
c) Any suggestion that we have written what another actually wrote is morally wrong. Anyway,
the whole point of a literature review is to show what we have read and what we thought about it.
d) Plagiarism is such an awful crime that those found guilty should be obliged to wear a scarlet "P" on
their clothing.
Chapter 05
Instructions
get your score.
Question 1
There is a tendency for debates about ethics in social research to focus on the most extreme cases of
ethical transgression. Why might this create a misleading impression?
a) Because these studies did not actually take place
b) Because it makes social researchers look like nasty, unscrupulous people
c) Because this implies that ethical concerns do not pervade all social research
d) Because most social research is in fact ethically sound and infallible
Question 2
Which of the following ideas is not associated with the stance of situation ethics?
a) Anything goes
b) Principled relativism
c) The end justifies the means
d) No choice
Question 3
Why is it argued that ethical transgression is pervasive in social research?
a) Because most researchers do not bother to follow a professional code of ethics
b) Because researchers rarely provide their participants with all the information they might want
to know about a project
c) Because it helps us to justify the more extreme forms of unethical conduct that we prefer to pursue
d) Because sociologists want to present themselves as inconsiderate and careless
Question 4
Which of the following is a form of harm that might be suffered by research participants?
a) Physical injury
b) Stress and anxiety
c) Impaired development
d) All of the above
Question 5
Why is it important that personal data about research participants are kept within secure, confidential
records?
a) So that the participants cannot find out what has been written about them
b) In case individuals, places or organizations can be harmed through identification or
disclosure of personal information
c) So that government officials, teachers and other people in authority can have easy access to the
data
d) To enable the researcher to track down individuals and find out more about their lives
Question 6
Which method is most commonly associated with a lack of informed consent?
a) In-depth interviewing
b) Qualitative content analysis
c) Covert observation
d) Structured interviewing
Question 7
Why is it "easier said than done" to ensure that the principle of informed consent is adhered to?
a) It is not practicable to present every participant with all the information about the study
b) Sometimes it is desirable to withhold certain pieces of information, such as the length of time an
interview will take
c) If the participants knew exactly what the researcher was intending to study, they might change their
behaviour
d) All of the above
Question 8
Apart from the fact that it is "not a nice thing to do" (p125), what is an important ethical disadvantage of
deceiving participants?
a) It can damage the professional reputation of the researcher and their discipline
b) It makes it more difficult to gain access to deviant or hidden populations
c) It means that records of personal data about the participants cannot be made anonymous
Question 9
Which of the following factors does not add a political dimension to the research process?
a) The researcher's values, beliefs and prior assumptions
b) The response rate of a social survey
c) The vested interests of the funding body
d) A gatekeeper's concerns about representation
Question 10
Whose side did Becker suggest the social researcher should take?
a) The underdog
b) The fat cat
c) The cash cow
d) The sitting duck
Chapter 06
Instructions
Choose your answers from a-d by clicking the radio button next to each choice and then
press 'Submit' to get your score.
Question 1
a) One that bears no relation to the underlying concept
b) An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept
c) A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures
d) One that refers to opera singers and their work
Question 2
The importance of measurement in quantitative research is that:
a) It allows us to delineate fine differences between people or cases
b) It provides a consistent device or yardstick
c) It allows for precise estimates of the degree of relationship between concepts
d) All of the above
Question 3
The difference between measures and indicators is that:
a) Measures are unambiguous quantities, whereas indicators are devised from common sense
understandings
b) Indicators have a more direct relationship to the underlying concept than measures
c) Measures are intuitively devised and then applied as if they were direct indicators of a concept
d) Indicators are unambiguous quantities, whereas measures are subjective and value-laden
Question 4
The split-half method is used as a test of:
a) Stability
b) Internal reliability
c) Inter-observer consistency
d) External validity
Question 5
Which of the following is not a form of measurement validity?
a) Concurrent validity
b) Face validity
c) Conductive validity
d) Convergent validity
Question 6
a) They are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability tests
b) They do not believe that this is an appropriate goal to be striving for
c) They keep forgetting which of the variables they have manipulated
d) They tend to use cross-sectional designs, which produce only correlations
Question 7
One of the preoccupations of quantitative researchers is with generalization, which is a
sign of:
a) External validity
b) Internal reliability
c) External reliability
d) Internal validity
Question 8
Quantitative research has been criticised because:
a) The measurement process suggests a spurious and artificial sense of accuracy
b) The reliance on instruments and procedures makes it high in ecological validity
c) It underestimates the similarities between objects in the natural and social worlds
d) All of the above
Question 9
The term 'reverse operationism' means that:
a) The theories we devise will often hinder our attempts to measure concepts
b) The measurements we devise can sometimes help to develop a theory
c) Techniques such as factor analysis have no place in social research
d) Driving instructors always make you practice the most difficult manoeuvre
Question 10
Written accounts of quantitative research rarely include the results of reliability and
validity tests because:
a) Researchers are more interested in reporting their operational definitions
b) Researchers don't really think that these tests are important
c) Journal editors have banned these kinds of articles
d) Researchers are more interested in reporting their substantive findings
Chapter 07
Instructions
Question 1
A sampling frame is:
a) A summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey
b) An outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample
c) A list of all the units in the population from which a sample will be selected
d) A wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers
Question 2
A simple random sample is one in which:
a) From a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected
b) A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalize
c) The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups
d) Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected
Question 3
It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when:
a) The population is widely dispersed geographically
b) You have limited time and money available for travelling
c) You want to use a probability sample in order to generalise the results
d) All of the above
Question 4
The standard error is a statistical measure of:
a) The normal distribution of scores around the sample mean
b) The extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the population mean
c) The clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale
d) The degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified
Question 5
What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the sampling error?
a) It reduces the sampling error
b) It increases the sampling error
c) It has no effect on the sampling error
Question 6
Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?
a) Snowball sampling
b) Stratified random sampling
c) Quota sampling
d) Convenience sampling
Question 7
Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:
a) Access deviant or hidden populations
b) Theorise inductively in a qualitative study
c) Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame
d) All of the above
Question 8
Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?
a) The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample
b) Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to constitute a representative
sample
c) The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard error
d) It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinions
Question 9
The findings from a study of young single mothers at a university can be generalised to
the population of:
a) All young single mothers at that university
b) All young single mothers in that society
c) All single mothers in all universities
d) All young women in that university
Question 10
The term 'data processing error' refers to:
a) Activities or events related to the sampling process, e.g. non-response
b) Faulty techniques of coding and managing data
c) Problems with the implementation of the research process
d) The unavoidable discrepancy between the sample and the population
Chapter 08
Instructions
Question 1
Why is it important for structured interviews to follow a standardized procedure?
a) To increase validity, as the interview can be adapted for each respondent
b) To increase reliability, because all respondents receive the same interview stimulus
c) To allow for an in-depth exploration of the topic
d) To make it easier for untrained interviewers to carry out complex surveys
Question 2
Standardizing the interview schedule can reduce interviewer variation in terms of:
a) The way in which questions are phrased by the interviewer
b) The order in which questions are asked
c) The procedures used to code and analyse survey data
d) All of the above
Question 3
Closed ended questions are those that:
a) Have a fixed range of possible answers
b) Prevent respondents from allocating themselves to a category
c) Encourage detailed, elaborate responses
d) Relate to the basic demographic characteristics of respondents
Question 4
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviewing?
a) Researchers do not have to spend so much time and money on travelling
b) Some people in the target population may not own a telephone
c) It can be difficult to build rapport over the telephone
d) Interviewers cannot use visual cues such as show cards
Question 5
The acronym "CATI" stands for:
a) Camera-activated telescopic interviewing
b) Computer-assisted telephone interviewing
c) Corrective anti-terrorist interviewing
d) Critical analysis of telepathic interviewing
Question 6
Which of the following might you include in an introductory letter to respondents?
a) An explanation of who you are and who is funding your research
b) An overview of what the research is about and how the data will be collected
c) A statement of their ethical rights to anonymity, confidentiality, etc.
d) All of the above
Question 7
A filter question is one that:
a) Ensures that all respondents are asked every question on the schedule and in the same order
b) Leaves a space for respondents to write long and detailed answers
c) Helps the interviewer to avoid asking irrelevant questions by directing them elsewhere on the
schedule
d) Allows supervisors to distinguish between good and bad interviewers
Question 8
Which of the following is not advised when planning the question order of a structured
interview?
a) Be wary of asking an earlier question that alters the salience of later questions
b) Expect some variation in the order in which questions are asked
c) Leave questions about sensitive or embarrassing issues until later in the interview
d) Group the questions into logically organised sections
Question 9
A show card is:
a) One that prevents respondents from expressing their opinions about a statement
b) One that encourages explicit discussion of sensitive or personal information
c) One that prompts respondents to choose from a range of possible answers
d) One that researchers must present when they compete at pony club events
Question 10
The response set of "acquiescence" can be a problem in that:
a) Some people consistently agree or disagree with a set of questions or items
b) Respondents tend to give answers that they think are socially desirable
c) The structured interview is so conducive to reciprocity that male respondents find it hard to stop
talking
d) Researchers who wear very strong perfume will distract their respondents
Bryman: Social Research Methods: 3e
Chapter 09
Instructions
Question 1
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Self-completion questionnaires are a type of postal survey
b) Postal surveys can include self-completion or email surveys
c) Self-completion questionnaires can include postal or email surveys
d) Email surveys are a type of postal questionnaire
Question 2
One of the advantages of self-completion questionnaires over structured interviews is
that:
a) They are quicker and cheaper to administer
b) They create interviewer effects
c) They have greater measurement validity
d) They are less prone to inter-coder variation
Question 3
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of self-completion questionnaires compared
to structured interviews?
a) The respondent can read the whole questionnaire before answering the first question
b) The researcher cannot ask many closed-ended questions
c) The researcher cannot probe or prompt respondents for more detail
d) The respondent may not answer all questions, resulting in missing data
Question 4
Which of the following steps can be taken to improve response rates to a self-completion
questionnaire?
a) Write a personalized covering letter to introduce the research
b) Enclose a stamped addressed envelope with a postal questionnaire
c) Send out polite reminder letters
d) All of the above
Question 5
Why is it generally better to present fixed choice answers in vertical rather than
horizontal form?
a) It takes up less space on the page
b) It encourages respondents to choose more than one answer
c) It allows questions to be spread over more than one page
d) It makes the layout of the questionnaire more clear and unambiguous
Question 6
When using a Likert scale with a long list of items, it is usually better to:
a) Arrange the answers horizontally, in abbreviated form
b) List the answers vertically, for each consecutive item
c) Omit any instructions about how to select an answer
d) List all questions on one page and all answers on another
Question 7
In order to identify response sets in a Likert scale, you could:
a) Pre-code all items consistently from 1-5
b) Reverse the scoring of pre-coded answers
c) Only include items about socially desirable behaviours
d) Include explicit instructions to respondents not to deceive you
Question 8
Corti (1993) makes a distinction between two types of researcher-driven diary:
a) Valid and reliable diaries
b) Quantitative and qualitative diaries
c) Structured and free-text diaries
d) Open or closed answer diaries
Question 9
The 'time-use' diary can provide quantitative data about:
a) The amount of time respondents spend on certain activities every day
b) The subjective meanings that concepts of 'time' have for different people
c) The way respondents make sense of their life stories in narrative form
d) The historical significance of clocks, watches and other devices for measuring time
Question 10
One advantage of using diaries in quantitative research is that:
a) There is little danger of attrition, as respondents tend to be highly motivated
b) They are likely to elicit data about sensitive issues or deviant activities
c) They highlight the thoughts, feelings and experiences that are unique to each respondent
Chapter 10
Instructions
Question 1
An open question is one that:
a) Allows respondents to answer in their own terms
b) Does not suggest or provide a limited range of responses
c) Can help to generate answers for closed questions
d) All of the above
Question 2
In order to post-code answers to open questions, it is necessary to:
a) Count the frequency with which each answer has been given
b) Categorise unstructured material and assign a code number to each category
c) Identify the three most commonly cited responses and give them a code
d) Find out where each respondent lives and make a note of their postcode
Question 3
Which of the following is not an advantage of using closed questions in a survey?
a) It reduces the risk of variability in the way answers are recorded
b) It makes answers easier to process and analyse
c) They prevent respondents from giving spontaneous, unexpected answers
d) Closed questions are quicker and easier for respondents to complete
Question 4
Informant factual questions are those that:
a) Enquire about personal details such as age, income and occupation
b) Ask people about the characteristics of a social setting or entity that they know well
c) Seek to find out about people's attitudes and opinions on a range of topics
d) Try to identify the normative standards and values held by a social group
Question 5
Which of the following is a general rule of thumb for designing questions?
a) Always bear in mind your research questions
b) Never ask a closed question
c) Always use vignettes rather than open questions
d) Use ambiguous terms to put respondents at ease
Question 6
You should avoid using double-barrelled questions in a survey because:
a) They rely too much on a respondent's memory
b) They make the questions too long, so respondents lose interest
c) They are too abstract and general in scope
d) They confuse respondents by asking about two different things
Question 7
Leading questions should also be avoided because:
a) They suggest ways of answering and so may bias the results
b) They create a mismatch between the question and its possible answers
c) They involve negative terms and unnecessary jargon
d) They ask about several different things at the same tim
Question 8
A vignette question is one that asks respondents to think about:
a) Family obligations to care for sick relatives
b) An intensely painful and sensitive issue in their personal life
c) A scenario involving imaginary characters in a realistic situation
d) Their favourite kind of salad dressing
Question 9
The value of piloting a questionnaire is that it helps you to:
a) Test out your questions on some of the people who will be in the final sample
b) Identify and amend any problems in the question wording, order and format
c) Find out what a trained pilot would think of the subject matter
d) All of the above
Question 10
A question bank is a useful resource for:
a) Studying the way questions have been successfully used in previous surveys
b) Stealing other people's questions without their permission
c) Learning more about your topic so that you can devise leading questions
d) Keeping the money from your funding agency in a safe place
Chapter 21
Instructions
get your score.
Question 01
Which of the following is not a criteria suggested by Scott (1990) as a way of assessing the quality of documents?
a) Representativeness.
b) Credibility.
c) Validity.
d) Authenticity.
The fourth criterion suggested by Scott (1990) is that of meaning. This refers to the extent that a document is
clear and comprehensible.
Question 02
How does the use of personal diaries for data collection in qualitative research differ from their same use in
quantitative research?
a) Diarists are given more scope in terms of what they write about.
b) Diarists are asked to complete multiple-choice questions relating to their working day.
c) Diarists are required to report the exact number of relevant interactions they have had.
d) Diarists have to use the medium of art to express their feelings.
The use of diaries in qualitative research means that the diarist has less of a structure about what they have
to write. Bowey & Thorpe (1986) is a good example of the use of this research method.
Question 03
Which of the following questions should the researcher ask when considering the credibility of personal documents?
a) Is the purported author of the document the real author?
b) Has the document survived because it is favourable towards a certain organisation?
c) Does the document actually report the true feelings of the author?
d) Does the document contain codes that are hard to decipher?
This is an important assessment of the credibility of any personal document along with the factual accuracy
of reports.
Question 04
What is the problem with using a photograph of employees from a company brochure as a research source?
a) It may be difficult to re-print in published material.
b) It may not be representative of an employee's day to day experience of the company.
c) It might deflect attention away form the main focus of the research.
d) It may effect the anonymity of the employees in the picture.
This is an important assessment of the credibility of any personal document along with the factual accuracy
of reports.
Question 05
What type of document is often used by researchers conducting organizational post mortem research?
a) Private diaries.
b) Photographs.
c) Emails.
d) Public documents.
A number of researchers have looked at critical events and disasters and have used
publicly available documents to conduct their analyses.
Question 06
What particular use are organizational documents not in the public domain often put to by qualitative researchers?
a) To gain an insight into past managerial decisions.
b) To make profitability comparisons with other companies.
c) To assess the impact of marketing material.
d) All of the above.
Processual studies of organisations often use internal organizational documents to build up a 'timeline' of
organizational change.
Question 07
What impact might the idea of active audience/readers have on business researcher's data analysis?
a) It is possible that readers will resist the meaning intended by authors of texts.
b) It is possible that different researchers will have different interpretations of certain texts.
c) It is possible that the conclusions derived from certain data will be a reflection of the business researcher's
personal interpretation.
The argument that there is no one dominant way to read and interpret a text means that business
researchers must approach their data analysis with caution.
Question 08
What is distinctive about qualitative content analysis in comparison with quantitative data analysis?
a) It is a much more laborious process.
b) It allows for the constant reassessment of themes and categories.
c) It is much more explicit form of analysis.
d) It is much easier for other researchers to replicate.
In qualitative content analysis there is much greater movement between conceptualization, data collection,
analysis and interpretation than in quantitative content analysis.
Question 09
What contribution has semiotic analysis made to studies of advertising?

a) It has identified universal signs that apply across cultures.
b) It has established the correct way of presenting certain images.
c) It has shown how the same message can be interpreted in different ways.
d) It has demonstrated the links between advertising and purchasing.
Semiotic analysis aims to uncover the hidden meanings that reside in texts and as a result it has been able
to show how the same text, or advertisement, can have different meanings for different people.
Question 10
What is a critical hermeneutic approach?

a) One that incorporates all possible interpretations of a text.
b) One that attempts to understand a text from the author's perspective.
c) One that uses modern cultural standards to assess historical texts.
d) One that separates the researcher's personal interpretation from the analysis.
A critical hermeneutic approach makes an attempt to analyse a text not just from the perspective of the
author but also from the social and historical context of its production.
Chapter 22
Instructions
Choose your answers from a-d by clicking the radio button next to each choice and then press 'Submit' to get your
score.
Question 01
Why are general approaches to qualitative data analysis described as iterative?

a) Because they are based on formal, established guidelines.
b) Because they allow for the research process to follow a strictly linear trajectory.
c) Because there is a repetitive interplay between collection and analysis of data.
d) Because they should not fly too close to the sun.
Iterative means that analysis starts after some of the data have been collected and that the implications of
this analysis then inform the next stage of data collection.
Question 02
Which of the following is a potential limitation of analytic induction?

a) It is too rigorous to be described as a qualitative method of analysis.
b) It is unable to specify the necessary conditions for phenomena to occur.
c) It does not allow for reformulation of an identified hypothesis.
Analytic induction can identify what is sufficient for certain phenomena to occur but not what is necessary
Question 03
The two central features of grounded theory are:

a) codification and quantification.
b) the identification of theory and its testing against collected data.
c) linearity and simplicity.
d) the development of theory from data and recursiveness.
Grounded theory is based on the idea that theories should be induced from collected data and that this
should, in turn, inform additional data collection.
Question 04
What is the difference between coding in grounded theory and quantitative data analysis?
a) In grounded theory coding begins soon after the collection of initial data.
b) In grounded theory no pre-conceived codes are utilised.
c) In grounded theory different types and levels of coding are recognized.
Coding is the key process in grounded theory as it forms a major part of the iterative loop that is grounded
theory's dominant feature.
Question 05
According to Strauss and Corbin (1990) selective coding is the procedure of:
a) breaking down, examining and categorizing data.
b) putting data back together in new ways and making connections between categories.
c) choosing the core category and relating it to other categories.
d) establishing the causal relationships within the data.
Coding is the key process in grounded theory as it forms a major part of the iterative loop that is grounded
theory's dominant feature.
Question 06
Which of the following can represent a criticism of grounded theory?

a) There is no such thing as theory-neutral observation.
b) The social world is not 'out there' awaiting discovery.
c) Language is constitutive as well as reflective.
d) Data collection is not a straight forward linear process.
The notion that a researcher adopting a grounded theory approach can suspend their awareness of certain
theories and concepts can be questioned. It is more likely that what the researcher sees is conditioned by a
range of different factors.
Question 07
Which of the following is not an additional problem associated with grounded theory?
a) The time it takes to transcribe interviews and to engage in a genuinely iterative process.
b) The reluctance of researchers using grounded theory to adopt natural scientific methods.
c) The vague nature of many key points relating to the practice of grounded theory.
d) The fragmentation of data in different categories.
This could not be a criticism levelled at grounded theory because, as a qualitative research method, it
explicitly rejects the application of natural science methods to the social world.
Question 08
In what way does the practice of coding introduce an element of quantification into grounded theory?
a) The significance of data is sometimes based on its frequency within the whole data set.
b) Coding can allow for the researcher to measure the likelihood that a particular issue applies to the entire
population.
c) The core category should always be defined in advance of data collection.
d) None of the above.
Many researchers using grounded theory code their data on the basis of the number of times certain issues
occur within their analysis.
Question 09
What is the benefit of subjecting qualitative data to secondary analysis?

a) It overcomes ethical concerns about informed consent.
b) It enables the data to be analysed without the hindrance of a contextual understanding.
c) It is more likely that the findings will be published.
d) It can exploit the large volume of qualitative data that is under-explored.
Whilst a number of significant problems remain with the secondary analysis of qualitative data, there are
opportunities for researchers to exploit because of the volume of data that is cast aside as part of the
analysis.
Question 10
Narrative analysis in management research enables the researcher to:

a) relate all of their thought processes during data analysis.
b) discard all data that does not adhere to storytelling guidelines.
c) identify how managers make sense of their environment.
d) assess how managers will react in certain circumstances.
A narrative analysis allows the researcher to look at what different stories told by managers and others,
reveal about their attitudes towards the organisation.
Chapter 23
Instructions
get your score.
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 The Collection
 Answers
 Levels
 Categories
 Identification
 Approaches
 Assessments
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 The Collection
 Answers
 Levels
 Categories
Question 01
What does the acronym 'CAQDAS' stand for?

a) Computer-Assisted Qualitative Data Analysis Software.
b) Complicated Analytical Questions Deserving Answers Soon.
c) Constant Aggravation Queried Directly And Swiftly.
d) Content Analysis Quantification: Durkheim and Statistics.
CAQDAS is one of the most significant developments in qualitative research over the last twenty years. The
label refers to a group of software packages such as NVivo, NUD*IST and ATLAS/ti, which are used for
qualitative data analysis.
Question 02
How is CAQDAS different from quantitative data analysis software?

a) It only works on Apple Mac computers.
b) It requires detailed knowledge of statistics.
c) There is no industry leader.
d) The programs do the analysis for you.
Within the field of quantitative data analysis SPSS is the most widely known and used statistical software
package, but with regard to CAQDAS there is no equivalent industry leader. Some of the most popular
programs today are NVivo, NUD*IST and ATLAS/ti, but other researchers may prefer MAXqda or the
Ethnograph.
Question 03
Which of the following is not a criticism of the use of CAQDAS in business research?
a) It reinforces the idea that code-and-retrieve is the only way to conduct qualitative analysis.
b) It results in the fragmentation of data and a loss of narrative flow.
c) It may not be suitable for focus group data.
d) It is not very fast or efficient at retrieving sections of data.
Various criticisms have been levelled at CAQDAS, including the idea that it has created a new orthodoxy of
'code-and-retrieve' qualitative analysis, that it fragments the data and that it is only useful for certain kinds of
qualitative data. However, most researchers would agree that CAQDAS offers a faster and more efficient way
of analyzing qualitative data than doing so by hand.
Question 04
Which of the following is not an advantage of using CAQDAS in business research?

a) It makes the process of qualitative data analysis more transparent.
b) It is faster and efficient than analyzing by hand.
c) It involves learning skills that are specific to each program.
d) It helps you to map out the relations between ideas and themes in the data.
There are numerous advantages to using CAQDAS, most of which centre on its speed and efficiency and the
way in which mapping out 'coding trees' of related ideas helps you to develop a grounded theory. While each
CAQDAS program is unique and involves different screens, functions and ways of representing the data, the
basic techniques of importing, coding, retrieving and searching will be common to all of the programs and
so provide you with a useful transferable skill.
Question 05
In what format should you import your project documents from Word into NVivo?
a) .jpeg or .mpeg
b) .txt or .rtf
c) .html or .htm
d) .doc or .mp3
You should import your documents from Word either without any formatting (as plain text files: .txt) or with
some formatting retained (in rich text format: .rtf).
Question 06
In which window can you read through, edit and code your documents?
a) Document Browser.
b) Node Explorer.
c) Project Pad.
d) Launch Pad.
Having imported the project files that you want to analyze, you can open each one and edit it as if it were a
Word document using the Document Browser. This is also where you can code your documents by applying
nodes to sections of the data.
Question 07
What are the two types of node used in NVivo?

a) Seed nodes and weed nodes.
b) Shrub nodes and grub nodes.
c) Flower nodes and power nodes.
d) Tree nodes and free nodes.
NVivo uses 'nodes' to represent codes or other items of information about the data in your project. There are
two main types of node: tree nodes are created as part of a network of inter-related concepts, while free
nodes are created independently of all other nodes.
Question 08
The Node Explorer dialog box allows you to:

a) apply codes to the data.
b) browse, edit or delete nodes.
c) create a memo document.
d) save and close your project file.
The Node Explorer dialog box appears if you click on 'Explore Nodes' from the Project Pad. Here you can
browse, edit/change or delete nodes, which allows you to modify your coding tree as the analysis
progresses. To apply the nodes (as codes) to the data, you need to open the document browser.
Question 09
What are in vivo codes?

a) Codes that were established before the data collection began.
b) Codes that reflect abstract theoretical concepts.
c) Codes derived from the language of research participants.
d) Higher level categories of codes, incorporating various node trees.
You can code the data using either the conceptual codes that appear in the node tree and as free nodes, or in
vivo codes. The latter term refers to codes that are derived from the words or phrases research participants'
use, as they appear in the text of an interview transcript or fieldnotes.
Question 10
Which of the following is a kind of search that can be carried out in NVivo?
a) Single node search.
b) Intersection search.
c) Specific text search.
There are three main types of search that you can conduct in NVivo: you can collect all the data coded under
a particular node (single node search), find data that have been coded by two or more particular nodes
(intersection search), or locate all the instances in which 'strings' of specific words or phrases are used
(specific text search). All of these can be accessed from the Search Tool dialog box, which you can reach
from the Project Pad.
Chapter 24
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following is not a characterization of the natural sciences?

a) The natural sciences are possessed with an epistemological unity.
b) The natural sciences are a complex area just like the social sciences.
c) The practices of natural scientists are revealed in their written accounts.
d) All natural scientists can be charged with the term positivist.
A significant difficulty with the way in which differences between research methods are presented is that
they are based on a characterization of the natural sciences as something which it is not.
Question 02
Qualitative research often adheres to a natural science model because:

a) it rejects all attempts to deduce theory in advance.
b) it places a large degree of emphasis on understanding context.
c) it can be used to investigate specific and tightly defined problems.
d) it is always constructivist in nature.
Not all qualitative research follows a grounded theory model as it is often used to address specific issues
that are defined in advance; similar to the methods commonly associated with the natural sciences.
Question 03
In what way does quantitative research study meaning?

a) Through detailed description of context.
b) Through careful observation of specific actions in the workplace.
c) Through an attempt to reveal the influence of capitalist structures on everyday life.
d) Through the exploration of attitudes via extensive survey questions.
The claim of qualitative researchers to be better able to gain access to a respondent's point of view is often
assumed, rather than demonstrated. Quantitative research's use of prior questioning to seek out different
attitudinal positions may give it better access to meaning.
Question 04
Why is it problematic to suggest that the choice of business research method reveals ontological and epistemological
assumptions?
a) Because business research should not be concerned with these issues.
b) Because the correspondence between a research strategy and a set of ontological and epistemological
assumptions is not straight forward.
c) Because the choice of research method is dictated by the research question.
d) Because the correspondence between a research strategy and either ontology or epistemology is impossible to
define.
Research methods are much more 'free-floating', in terms of their epistemological and ontological position,
than is often assumed when highlighting the divide between quantitative and qualitative research.
Question 05
Quantitative research does not always adhere to a deductive model because:

a) Its findings frequently suggest new departures and theoretical contributions.
b) Many survey-based studies are subjected to exploratory analyses.
c) There is a great deal of creativity in quantitative data analysis.
Quantitative research is not simply about theory testing; it can also be used to suggest new ways of viewing
the social world. Correspondingly qualitative research can also be used to test pre-conceived theories.
Question 06
Which method of data collection commonly associated with qualitative research can be seen as artificial?
a) Ethnography.
b) Participant observation.
c) Semi-structured interview.
Because an interview requires some degree of planning and preparation, and will normally remove the
interviewee from their workstation, it can be said to be an artificial situation.
Question 07
What does Gephart (1988) mean by the term ethnostatistics?
a) The collection of statistical data using ethnographic methods.
b) The study of the use of statistics as a rhetorical device.
c) The use of statistical analysis by the participants of the research.
d) The statistical analysis of one specific context.
Ethnostatistics can be used to show how the language of statistics is used to persuade audiences of certain
arguments through the acquisition of greater legitimacy.
Question 08
Which form of data analysis can be applied to ethnographic accounts to establish links between in-depth accounts
and statistical analysis?
a) Discourse analysis.
b) Content analysis.
c) Mulitvariate analysis.
d) Bivariate analysis.
Hodson (1996) shows how a content analysis of ethnographies allows for quantitative and qualitative
research strategies to be closely linked.
Question 09
What is quasi-quantification?
a) Statistical analysis based upon synthetic data.
b) The application of quantitative methods in feminist research.
c) The allusions to quantity made by qualitative researchers.
d) The testing of the suitability of specific statistical tests.
Qualitative researchers often use terms such as 'many', 'often' or 'frequently' thereby alluding to the
importance of quantification in their data analysis.
Question 10
What benefit is there to qualitative researchers in providing information on the frequency of a particular perspective?
a) They are more likely to get published if they can report a high frequency.
b) It gives the reader a clear sense of the relative prevalence of the perspective.
c) It is useful for quantitative secondary analysis.\
d) All of the above
Qualitative researchers often use terms such as 'many', 'often' or 'frequently' thereby alluding to the
importance of quantification in their data analysis.
Question 01
Organizational ethnography is distinctive because:
a) it is concerned with social behaviour.
b) it is conducted across a larger number of environments.
c) it is concerned with social relations that are related to goal-directed activities.
d) its methodological reputation is subject to more intense challenge.
Rosen (1991) argues that organizational ethnography is concerned with social relations that are related to
goal-directed activities, whereas traditional anthropologyis more concerned with social relations in general.
Question 02
What is the difference between ethnography and participant observation?
a) Ethnography is concerned with an organisations culture, whereas participant observation is concerned with an
organisations strategy.
b) Ethnography refers to the method and the written product of the research, whereas participant
observation refers only to the method.
c) Ethnography is more subjective, whereas participant observation is more objective.
d) Ethnography allows for a longer period of immersion in a particular context than participant observation.
Distinguishing between ethnography and participant observation is often very difficult. However, one
important difference is that ethnography can sometimes be a more holistic term relating the product of the
research as well as the method.
Question 03
Which of the following is not an example of a 'classic' organizational ethnography?

a) Beynon's (1975) study of the Ford Motor Company's Halewood plant.
b) Wylie's (1972) study of door to door salesmen.
c) Roy's (1958) period as a machine operator.
d) Watson's (1994) investigation into managerial identity.
(a), (b), and (c) are all essential reading for any business researcher wishing to undertake a period as either
ethnographer or participant observer.
Question 04
When arranging access which attribute should ethnographers be prepared to adopt?

a) Ignorance.
b) Arrogance.
c) Invisibility.
d) Opportunism.
Buchannan, Boddy and McCalman (1988) suggest that researchers engaging in ethnography must be
prepared to balance what is desired against what is possible, and that they should be prepared to react to
different opportunities that arise.
Question 05
Which of the following is an ethical question that researchers undertaking a covert ethnography should ask
themselves?
a) What form should the findings be published in?
b) Does it ensure the principle of 'informed consent'?
c) How can the response rate be increased?
Informed consent ensures that research participants agree to participate on the basis of information
supplied to them. Covert ethnography means that it is impossible to obtain this.
Question 06
A researcher conducting an overt ethnography which involves them fully experiencing the job of a call centre operator
adopts which of the following roles?
a) Complete participant.
b) Participant-as-observer.
c) Observer-as-participant.
d) Complete observer.
The participant-as-observer actually participates in the daily lives of those they are studying but is also open
about their research. Delbridge (1998) is an example of a researcher adopting this role.
Question 07
To 'go native' means:

a) the researcher takes paid employment from the organisation they are researching.
b) the researcher adopts a covert role.
c) the researcher loses sight of their role as a researcher.
d) the researcher begins a relationship with a key informant.
'Going native' is the term used to describe an ethnographer who becomes so involved in their ethnographic
role that they no longer regard themselves as a researcher.
Question 08
Why might an ethnographer wish to avoid taking an active work-role as part of their ethnography?
a) They might be asked to become involved in something illegal or requiring deception.
b) They might expect to be paid for any work that they do.
c) They might believe that this will exploit there position as researcher.
d) They might fear 'going native'.
Most ethnographers find that it is hard not to become involved in various tasks or they will lose credibility.
Nevertheless the danger of being involved in something illegal or deceptive is a danger that the researcher
needs to be aware of.
Question 09
Which of the following is not a general principle for researchers to bear in mind when they are taking field notes?
a) Notes should be vivid and clear.
b) Copious amounts of notes should be taken if possible.
c) If notes are taken immediately after something interesting has been seen they can be written up when
the data collection has finished.
d) Tape recorders can be used to take brief notes.
It is vital that the ethnographer writes up field notes at the end of each day at the research site so that they
are more likely to record all important information. If the notes are not expanded upon until all data
collection has finished then the ethnographer may be unable to recall specific occurrences that informed
their findings.
Question 10
Why is bringing an ethnography to an end often difficult for ethnographers?

a) Because of the enjoyment that many ethnographers experience.
b) Because it is a relaxed form of data collection.
c) Because it is unstructured it lacks an obvious end point.
d) Because writing up is a task to be avoided.
Not only can it be difficult for ethnographers to identify a definite end point the disengagement from the
research site has to be managed in an effective manner.
Chapter 18
Question 01
Why might qualitative researchers regard interviewing an attractive alternative to participant observation?
a) It is easier to accommodate into the researchers personal life.
b) It gives a better insight into the day to day functioning of the research site.
c) It is a considerably less time-consuming process.
d) It reduces the problem of reactivity.
Conducting interviews tends to require less of a sustained absence from work and/or family life than a
traditional ethnography. One important point to make though is that due to transcription and analysis it is
not necessarily less time consuming.
Question 02
Which of the following is a quality associated with qualitative interviewing as opposed to quantitative interviewing?
a) Replicability.
b) Generalizability.
c) Flexibility.
d) Sustainability.
Flexibility is important in a qualitative interview because it allows for the researcher to explore issue that
emerge during the actual interview.
Question 03
What is the difference between the types of answers that qualitative and quantitative interviews look to generate?
a) Qualitative interviews aim to generate one word answers, whereas quantitative interviews aim to generate in-depth
responses.
b) Qualitative interviews aim to generate answers relating to any unspecified topic, whereas quantitative interviews
aim to generate answers about one issue.
c) Qualitative interviews aim to generate detailed answers to certain questions, whereas quantitative
interviews aim to generate shorter, more easily codifiable responses.
d) Qualitative interviews aim to generate predictable responses, whereas quantitative interviews aim to generate less
predictable answers.
One of the fundamental differences between the two overall types of interview is the amount of detail that
they seek within an interview situation.
Question 04
Which of the following researchers is conducting a semi-structured interview?

a) The researcher who has a schedule of fifty questions that they need answered by the participant.
b) The researcher who has planned only one question in advance.
c) The researcher who does not wish to use a tape recorder.
d) The researcher who has a guide which states some specific topics to be covered.
During a semi-structured interview the interviewee will have a great deal of leeway as to how they wish to
reply, although the interviewer will have a guide about topics that they wish to cover.
Question 05
Which of the following is not a specific challenge facing business researchers who wish to conduct qualitative
interviews?
a) Scheduling time with a senior manager.
b) Managers unwillingness to allow subordinates to leave productive activity.
c) The scarcity of potential research sites.
d) Maintaining confidentiality and anonymity at all stages of the research project.
There is a obviously a significant number of organisations for business researchers to choose from when
planning a research project, however the other challenges identified may need to be overcome for the
research to be successful.
Question 06
According to Kvale (1996) a successful interviewer is being sensitive when they:

a) relate what is said to what has been said.
b) listen attentively to what is said and how it is said.
c) give a purpose for the interview and rounding it off.
d) respond to what is important to interviewee.
Being sensitive is important because it will allow the interviewer to assess which issues are of particular
importance to the interviewee.
Question 07
Why should a business researcher record and transcribe interviews?

a) It allows a more thorough examination of what the interviewee has said.
b) It allows the researcher to demonstrate their technical proficiency.
c) The response of participants can be more readily shared with senior management.
d) It overcomes all possible ethical considerations.
Having an accurate record of the interview on a tape recording means not only that analysis is easier, but
also that the actual interview will not be punctuated by the researcher having to take notes.
Question 08
A practical tip for transcribing interviews is to:

a) get the respondent to do it.
b) transcribe only those sections of an interview that are important.
c) invest in the latest voice recognition software.
d) all of the above.
There is little point in transcribing information that is unlikely to be relevant to the research, and so
transcribing only those parts that are useful can reduce time significantly.
Question 09
Which of the following is an example of a dilemma that might face feminist business researchers conducting
qualitative interviews with women?
a) What role to adopt when interviewing male managers?
b) How many female employees should be interviewed for a representative sample?
c) How to overcome the issue of false consciousness?
d) What data to use when publishing findings?
A significant dilemma for feminist researchers (and possibly all qualitative researchers) is when the
respondent's interpretation of their experience and that of the researcher, experience a tension. The
researcher may be tempted to assume that the respondent is simply unaware of the way in which they are
being exploited and can therefore be said to have a false consciousness.
Question 10
Why does qualitative interviewing have an advantage over participant observation when it comes to longitudinal
research?
a) Repeat interviews are easier to organise.
b) It allows for a better exploration of key issues.
c) It is a more focused research method.
d) Participant observers are prone to 'go native' during longitudinal research.
Re-visiting research sites for follow up interviews is likely to be easier than arranging a series of subsequent
observations.
Chapter 19
Question 01
What is the difference between a focus group and a group interview?

a) A focus group is used only for political research, whereas group interviews are more widely used in the social
sciences.
b) A focus group is used at the planning stage of a research project, whereas a group interview is part of the actual
data collection.
c) A focus group is used to discuss a wide range of issues, whereas a group interview looks at one specific topic.
d) A focus group is used to analyse group interaction, whereas a group interview is used as a straight
forward data collection tool.
This is an important distinction because focus groups can be said to allow the researcher to think about not
just what people said but also how they said it in relation to others in the group.
Question 02
What particular role do focus groups have in business research?

a) They overcome the issue of organising individual interviews with senior managers.
b) They help to bypass the issues of anonymity and confidentiality.
c) They allow for an open discussion of power relations in the workplace.
d) They help individuals work together to identify potential solutions.
The dynamics of focus group discussion make it a useful way for organisational actors to consider new and
innovative ways of overcoming problems.
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How have focus groups been used in market research?
a) To assess the popularity of various existing products.
b) To help plan new HR strategies.
c) To discuss reactions to new advertisements.
d) To allow for research into farmers opinions.
Along with testing of new products market research often uses focus groups to assess reaction to new
advertisements.
Question 04
Which of the following is not a reason why it is preferable to tape record a focus group session?
a) It is quicker and easier to make brief notes about what is said.
b) It enables the researcher to identify which people are acting as opinion leaders.
c) Without a tape recording it is difficult to keep an accurate record of who said what.
d) It allows for analysis of how certain points are put forward.
The difficulty of making an accurate written record of an individual interview during the actual session is
drastically increased during a focus group. As a result tape recording is very important for this particular
method.
Question 05
What does the term theoretical saturation mean in reference to the number of focus groups to conduct?
a) The degree to which the researcher is able to present information about complex social theories.
b) The extent that the issues discussed across focus groups contradict each other.
c) When different groups are consistently making similar points about the major issues under discussion.
The achievement of theoretical saturation is not something that can be identified in advance, but will be
recognised by the researcher when the focus groups are not introducing any new insights into the
discussion of particular issues.
Question 06
When is it important for the focus group moderator to involve themselves in the discussion?
a) When the participants become passionate about the subject.
b) When the participants begin to discuss a completely unrelated topic.
c) When the moderator disagrees with a point being made.
d) When the moderator wants to praise a particular response from a participant.
It is important that a focus group is given a fairly free rein so that the discussion flows naturally, however the
moderator may wish to re-focus the participants of they begin to go off at a tangent. Having said this it is
also important to bear in mind that this tangent may also be of interest.
Question 07
Which of the following questions might be explored by using an employee focus group?
a) What is the extent of employee theft in the workplace?
b) Which manager is the least trusted by employees and why?
c) What are employee attitudes to corporate image?
d) What links are there between salary level and personal productivity?
It is likely that this is the only issue that employees would be willing to discuss in a group environment. The
others may all be issues that employees do not wish to reveal their attitudes to in front of colleagues.
Question 08
Disagreements in a focus group should be encouraged because:

a) they take the focus away from the specific issue under discussion.
b) they engender greater reflection on the part of participants.
c) they enhance the possibility of physical confrontation.
d) they help to create a negative atmosphere after the group has finished.
Disagreements in a focus group environment can allow the moderator to explore the reasons behind
differences of opinion and also allow participants to think about why they hold certain beliefs.
Question 09
By using the focus group method which issue can feminist researchers avoid?
a) Decontextualization.
b) Deconfiguration.
c) Destabilization.
d) Degenderization.
Decontextualization involves studying an individual without an appreciation of a social context. The benefit
of focus groups for feminist researchers is that as part of a group dencontextualization is minimized.
Question 10
Which of the following is not regarded as a limitation of focus groups?
a) The potential for the group to conform to one dominant opinion.
b) It does not allow for large volumes of data to be collected.
c) Organization of focus groups is not straight forward.
d) The researcher has less control over the proceedings.
Focus groups actually produce a very high volume of data in a short space of time, hence there is a
challenge for the researcher to both record, transcribe and analyse this data efficiently.
Chapter 20
Question 01
What is different between the way that traditional business research views language and the way that methods such
as conversation and discourse analysis do?
a) Traditional business research emphasizes the correct use of grammar, whereas CA and DA are concerned more
with modern grammar usage.
b) Traditional business research aims to develop a universal business language, whereas CA and DA are more
concerned with maintaining distinctive usage.
c) Traditional business research sees language as resource through which business is conducted, whereas
CA and DA see it as a topic in itself.
d) Traditional business research emphasizes the importance of managerial language, whereas CA and DA are more
concerned with that of workers.
Conversation and discourse analysis regard language as not just being reflective of what is going on in
organisations; instead, through these methodologies, language is seen what makes organisations.
Question 02
Ethnomethodology is:
a) a research methodology that looks at prioritises the role of ethnic minorities.
b) the study of covert research methods.
c) the study of how ethnography can be combined with social surveys.
d) the study of the methods of accomplishing social order.
Ethnomethodology argues that the social order does not pre-exist and it therefore focuses on how this order
is achieved through social action. It is regarded as the basis for conversation analysis.
Question 03
Which of the following is a definition of indexicality?

a) The process of completing the index to a written text.
b) The idea that the meaning of spoken words depends upon the context in which it is used.
c) The idea that the meaning of any social act can be universally categorised.
d) The process of drawing up definitions of words used in everyday language.
Along with reflexivity, indexicality is a central idea in ethnomethodology and is relevant to understanding
conversation analysis.
Question 04
Why is conversation analysis sometimes described as having a positivist orientation?

a) Because it is a multi-faceted approach to data collection and analysis.
b) Because it uses rigorous and systematic procedures for data analysis.
c) Because of its emphasis of prior theoretical commitments.
d) Because of its concern with such things as organisational culture.
Conversation analysis has a number of features that are in tune with qualitative research, however other
features such as its emphasis upon systematic procedures for data analysis mean that it can be linked with
positivism.
Question 05
Which of then following is not an assumption of conversation analysis?

a) Theories of talk can be deduced in advance of data analysis.
b) Talk is viewed as exhibiting patterned sequences.
c) Talk is structured and cannot be ascribed to an individual's personal characteristics.
d) The nature of social order must be induced out of data.
Despite the suggestion that CA has much in common with positivist research it differs significantly in that it
has an inductive approach to theory development.
Question 06
Which of the following business issues can CA make a contribution to our understanding of?
a) The development of the double-entry bookkeeping system to modern accounting methods.
b) The use of balanced scorecards in organisational performance.
c) The range of rhetorical devices used in corporate boardroom meetings.
d) The importance of adjacency pairs in corporate boardroom meetings.
Adjacency pairs are an example of the tools used in conversation analysis. Rhetorical devices are more
commonly associated with discourse analysis.
Question 07
How does discourse analysis differ from conversation analysis?
a) Discourse analysis places less emphasis on naturally occurring talk.
b) Discourse analysis has a less uniform approach to language analysis.
c) Discourse analysis can be applied to a range of different texts.
Discourse analysis is not a total opposite to conversation analysis however it is important to stress that it is
a more wide ranging methodology because it looks to analyse the use of language in many different forms.
Question 08
Why might a charismatic leader use rhetorical devices?

a) To provoke a response from competitors.
b) To establish the organisation's rules and regulations.
c) To provoke identification and commitment amongst followers.
Rhetorical devices are a form of discourse that frame how something is formed and socially constructed; the
leaders image in this case.
Question 09
Why might the researcher using discourse analysis be interested in corporate mission statements?
a) Because they are a way of categorising organisations.
b) Because they are indicators of corporate performance.
c) Because they are used to convey certain managerial values.
d) Because they are a legal requirement.
Corporate mission statements are a way of conveying certain messages which are designed to ensure that
employees identify with the organisation. Through a discourse analysis we can see the mechanisms through
which this can occur.
Question 10
Why has discourse not been of interest to mainstream management and business research?
a) It applies only to employees.
b) It is less focused on action.
c) It is does not allow for participant involvement.
d) It is not sufficiently focused on corporate performance.
Discourse analysis tends to focus on how organisations are constructed, whereas much mainstream
management research is concerned with actions that these corporations can take to be more successful.
Chapter 07
Instructions
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Question 01
What is a sampling frame?

a) The report of a pilot study.
b) The selection of specific individuals to participate in the research.
c) A summary of the research process.
d) The listing of all units in the population from which the sample will be selected.
It is important to identify a sampling frame so that a representative sample can then be taken from within
a specified unit.
Question 02
How will a researcher usually prevent a significant sampling error?

a) Interview all respondents in advance.
b) Issue questionnaires to the entire sampling frame.
c) Put all the names in a hat.
d) Use probability sampling.
Probability sampling allows the researcher to apply tests of statistical significance which then allow
inferences to be made about the overall sampling frame.
Question 03
If an organisation has 12,000 employees and the researcher is able to interview 250 the probability of inclusion in the
sample is?
a) 1 in 96.
b) 1 in 20.
c) 1 in 48.
d) 1 in 250.
Simple random sampling assumes that each member of the population has an equal probability of inclusion
in the sample. The probability is calculated via a sampling fraction with the total population being divided by
the sample size.
Question 04
If a researcher wishes to obtain a nationally representative sample of trade union members but does not have the
resources to travel long distances what method of sampling could they use?
a) Stratified random sampling.
b) Multi-stage cluster sampling.
c) Simple random sampling.
d) Snowball sampling.
Multi-stage cluster sampling allows interviewers to concentrate their research more than simple random or
stratified sampling.
Question 05
Which of the following is not something a researcher will have to consider when thinking about their sample size?
a) Time and cost.
b) Non-response.
c) Length of questionnaire.
d) Heterogeneity of population.
In general bigger is better when considering sample size however all researchers need to be aware of the
limitations of their resources.
Question 06
Which of the following is an example of convenience sampling?

a) A stratified random sample of CEO's drawn from the top 100 UK companies.
b) A random sample of employees who are absent from work through stress.
c) Managers attending a seminar on corporate social responsibility organised by the researcher.
d) Illegal workers.
It is possible that the researcher could take the opportunity of issuing a questionnaire to these managers
whilst they are at the seminar. It is unlikely that the researcher will come across the other options in
as convenient a manner.
Question 07
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Which of the following is not a benefit of snowball sampling?
a) It can be used when there is difficulty in creating a sampling frame.
b) It is always representative of the population.
c) It can be used within a qualitative research strategy.
d) It can be used to reflect relationships between people by tracing connections.
Snowball sampling is unlikely to be representative of the population because of the difficulty in establishing
a sampling frame. The sampling frames that apply when snowball sampling is relevant are usually fluid and
constantly shifting.
Question 08
Quota sampling is used intensively in which type of research?

a) Market research.
b) Experimental research.
c) Action research.
d) Ethnographic research.
Commercial research and political opinion polling are other types of research that use quota sampling.
Question 09
The findings from a study of decision making processes within a UK financial services company can be generalized
to:
a) decision making processes in all financial services companies.
b) decision making processes in the all UK companies.
c) decision making processes in the researched companies.
d) none of the above.
Business and management researchers should be cautious of overgeneralizing findings beyond the
researched organization to alternative cultures.
Question 10
As part of survey research design the sample was selected by the HR manager. What sort of error could this lead to?
a) Sampling error.
b) Sampling related error.
c) Data collection error.
d) Data processing error.
The choices made by the HR manager may have been non-random and could also have reflected a bias on
the part of the individual making the choices.
Chapter 08
Instructions
score.
Question 01
What is the benefit of standardizing the asking of questions?

a) Each interview will last for exactly the same length of time.
b) A survey questionnaire can be delivered to a room full of people.
c) Answer variation will be 'true' and not due to the interview context.
d) The interviewer can predict the answers that the interviewee will give.
Standardization means that any variation between respondents cannot be put down to the way that the
question was asked or the answers recorded in the course of the administration of the survey.
Question 02
A closed question means:

a) the respondent is given a limited choice of possible answers.
b) the final question of the interview.
c) the interviewer can embellish the interviewee's answer.
d) the responses are difficult to codify.
By limiting the number of possible answers that the interviewee can give, their answers are easier to code
and it also reduces the potential for interviewer variability.
Question 03
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a) The telephone interviewer cannot use visual aids.
b) It is difficult to ascertain if the correct person is replying.
c) People who do not have access to a telephone cannot be interviewed.
d) Telephone interviews are cheap and quick to administer.
This factor is more pronounced when the sample is geographically spread.
Question 04
Which of the following issues should not be mentioned in an introductory statement?

a) The information will be kept confidential.
b) What the findings of the research are.
c) Who is funding the research.
d) Why the respondent has been chosen.
It is not possible to indicate the findings of the research during the data collection period. It is very important
that the other issues are mentioned in an introductory statement.
Question 05
Which of the following questions should come at the start of a question section on corporate social responsibility?
a) How strongly do you feel about corporate social responsibility?
b) Are you in favour of corporate social responsibility?
c) Have you heard of corporate social responsibility?
d) Why are you in favour of corporate social responsibility?
Within each section general questions should precede specific ones. If the interviewee has not heard
of corporate social responsibility the additional questions will become irrelevant.
Question 06
The benefit of using a show card to prompt the interviewee is:

a) that the interviewee does not have to speak.
b) the interview can be conducted over the telephone.
c) the interviewer does not have to read the same thing out on numerous occasions.
d) the interviewer can demonstrate their artistic skills.
When using something like a Likert scale having the possible answers written out will prevent the interviewer
from having to repeat the scale for each question.
Question 07
Which of the following is an example of critical incident method?

a) Asking respondents to describe their response to different advertisements.
b) Asking respondents to talk aloud whilst they are completing a performance appraisal form.
c) Asking respondents to tell a story of an interaction they had with senior management.
Critical incident technique can be used either as part of a quantitative or qualitative research strategy. It
involves interviewing respondents about particular events in order to understand their significance.
Question 08
The repertory grid method is based on which theory?

a) Personal motivation theory.
b) Personal destruction theory.
c) Personal consumption theory.
d) Personal construct theory.
Personal construct theory (Kelly:1955) is an attempt to identify the interpretative processes whereby an
individual constructs meaning in relation to his or her social context.
Question 09
Which of the following is an example of acquiescence?

a) The interviewee answers in a way that they think is socially desirable.
b) The interviewee tends to agree or disagree with a set of questions.
c) The interviewee draws on and creates meaning at the same time.
d) The interviewee agrees to do anything that the interviewer asks them.
Acquiescence can be overcome by ensuring that some questions within a particular set imply an opposite
stance.
Question 10
Which of the following is not part of the feminist critique of structured interviewing?
a) All structured interviews are conducted with men.
b) When women interview women using this method it implies a hierarchical relationship.
c) It gives the impression of exploitation.
d) It prevents the feminist researcher from developing genuine relationships with respondents.
The feminist critique of structured interviewing has much in common with wider criticisms of quantitative
research and has led to many feminist researchers adopting a qualitative research strategy.
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Chapter 09
Instructions
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Question 01
Which of the following is not an advantage of the self-completion questionnaire over the structured interview?
a) It is cheaper to administer.
b) It is quicker to administer.
c) It is easier to prompt the interviewee.
d) It is easier to remove interviewer effects.
Because the self-completion questionnaire is completed without the researcher present it is not possible for
them to assist respondents who are struggling to understand a specific question.
Question 02
Which of the following are disadvantages of the self-completed questionnaire?

a) Inability to confirm who completed the questionnaire.
b) Its unsuitability for some kinds of respondents.
c) Inability to ask many questions that are not directly relevant to the respondent.
A number of the disadvantages of self-completed questionnaires stem from the absence of the interviewer.
Question 03
Which of the following statements might assist response rates?

a) Please photocopy the questionnaire five times and pass on to your work colleagues.
b) Please make sure that the questionnaire is completed with a fountain pen.
c) Please read the attached journal article on the ontological foundations of positivism prior to completing the
questionnaire.
d) Please put the completed questionnaire in the enclosed stamped addressed envelope and place in the
mail out tray.
Enclosing a stamped addressed envelope is very important if the researcher wishes to achieve an acceptable
response rate.
Question 04
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What should the researcher do if they have achieved a low response rate?
a) Fill in some more questionnaires themselves.
b) Abandon the research project entirely.
c) Recognize and accept the possible limitations of a low response rate.
A substantial amount of published material is based on research that has a low response rate. The
researcher in this situation should include a discussion of what the implications of a low response rate are
for their research.
Question 05
One of the following statements is correct.

a) A questionnaire should run to at least twenty pages.
b) The questions should have no spaces between them so that the whole questionnaire looks small.
c) Only questionnaires that are A3 size achieve high response rates.
d) Clear presentation is more important than overall size.
If questions are cramped together so that they are difficult to differentiate from each other this is more likely
to reduce the completion rate than if the questionnaire is a little bit longer.
Question 06
Should closed answers be arranged:

a) horizontally.
b) vertically.
c) diagonally.
d) circuitously.
Question 07
Which of the following is likely to happen if clear instructions are not given as how the respondent should answer the
question?
a) Respondents may delete inappropriate answers rather than select appropriate ones.
b) Respondents may choose only one answer when they need to choose as many as apply.
c) Respondents may complete questions that are not relevant to them.
Clear instructions are vital as they allow for the respondent to move quickly and efficiently through the
questionnaire which may in turn aid response rate.
Question 08
Which of the following is not a major use of diaries in business research?

a) The diary as a method of data collection.
b) The diary as a document.
c) The diary as a log of researcher's literature search.
d) The diary as a log of the researcher's activities.
A diary can be an effective way of gaining an accurate record of respondent's daily routine.
Question 09
Which of the following is not a suitable topic for research using a diary?
a) The amount of time managers spend on particular activities.
b) The frequency with which managers undertake particular tasks.
c) The locations in which a trade union representative has discussions with individual members.
d) The volume of female managers in the retail industry.
Stewart (1967) used the diary method to look at managerial time.
Question 10
Which of the following comments demonstrates a process of attrition on the part of a diary respondent?
a) 'the researcher never checks that I am completing my diary correctly'.
b) 'I can't be bothered to complete this diary anymore'.
c) 'I keep forgetting to include the number of phone calls I make each day'.
d) 'I have decided to use the diary to record all of my personal thoughts and feelings'.
There is a danger that the respondent will lose interest in completing the diary and so will fail to record
accurate data.
Chapter 10
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following is an advantage of open questions?

a) They allow respondents to answer in their own terms.
b) They prevent respondents from giving unusual answers.
c) They allow respondents to put less effort into their answer.
d) They allow respondents to code their answers in advance.
An open question means that the respondent is not forced to use terminology that is decided by the
researcher in advance.
Question 02
What is the difference between a closed question and an open question?

a) A closed question means that the chances of unreliable post-coding is small, whereas an open question means
that there is a possibility of data processing error.
b) A closed question allows for the researchers terminology to be used, whereas an open question allows the
respondent to use terms they are familiar with.
c) A closed question allows for easy processing, whereas coding an open question can be very time consuming.
Both closed and open questions have a range of advantages and disadvantages and their use depends upon
the research strategy and research design that have been selected.
Question 03
Which of the following is an example of a question about normative standards and values?
a) How many workers are employed at this plant?
b) What is your attitude towards the management at this plant?
c) Do you always cast your vote in trade union elections?
d) Are you aware of the main features of the European Union Directive for informing and consulting employees?
Answer (c) is asking for the respondent to reveal a behavioural norm. These types of questions are closely
related to question about attitudes and beliefs.
Question 04
If one of your research questions is 'what role do HR Departments play in manufacturing companies?' which of the
following questions should you include in your questionnaire?
a) Does your organisation manufacture red cars or blue cars?
b) How much corporation tax did your organisation pay in the last financial year?
c) Does your organisation employ a Director of HR?
d) Does the HR Department have an annual Christmas party?
It is important to keep in mind your overall research questions so that you ask questions that will contribute
to your answering of these questions.
Question 05
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Why is it important to avoid ambiguous terms when designing questions?
a) Respondents may not understand the question.
b) Respondents may operate with a different frame of reference.
c) Respondents may think the question is less important.
d) Respondents may have to ask for help when completing the questionnaire.
An ambiguous term such as 'often' or 'management' may mean different things to different respondents.
Question 06
Which of the following is a double-barrelled question?

a) How satisfied are you with the performance appraisal system?
b) How satisfied are you with investment levels in new and existing software packages?
c) How satisfied are you with the organisations marketing strategy?
d) How satisfied are you with the levels of customer satisfaction?
Double-barrelled questions are ones that ask about two things. This question should in fact be split into two,
one about existing software and one about new software.
Question 07
Questions that include negatives should be avoided because:

a) The respondent may miss out the negative word.
b) The respondent may be unsure how to answer if the question includes a double negative.
c) The respondent may be led by the question.
When using a Likert scale it can be difficult to avoid asking a question with a negative, however the
researcher should attempt to avoid them if possible.
Question 08
Why is asking a vignette question about ethical behavior beneficial?

a) Because it allows for an abstract discussion of ethical values.
b) Because it ensures that the respondent does not have to reflect on their own ethicality.
c) Because it anchors the choice in a situation and prevents an unreflective reply.
d) Because it prevents the researcher from discussing sensitive issues.
By discussing a specific situation it is more likely that the respondent will reflect on their actual behaviour
rather than simply give a reply that matches normative values.
Question 09
Piloting questions is important because:

a) it enables the researcher to clear up any confusion.
b) it enables the researcher to collect additional data.
c) it enables the researcher to get an idea of likely response rate.
d) it enables the researcher to see if their questions can fly.
Piloting can be crucial in seeing not just that the survey questions work well, but also that the research
instrument is suitable.
Question 10
Which of the following is not an advantage of using existing questions?

a) They will have already been piloted for you.
b) You will be able to investigate any reliability and validity testing that has taken place.
c) You will be able to claim your work is entirely original.
d) You will be able to make comparisons with other research.
You are advised to contact the researchers concerned in order to seek permission to use questions that they
have devised.
Chapter 11
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following is not an example of a problem with using social survey research to investigate behaviour?
a) Respondents tend to answer by giving the most socially desirable answer.
b) Respondents may inadvertently omit key terms in the question.
c) Respondents may not give an honest reply to what they see as a threatening question.
d) Respondents may be unwilling to reveal information as they believe they are likely to be identified.
An advantage of social survey research is that the researcher can ensure that the anonymity of the
respondent is maintained by administering the same questions to each individual.
Question 02
What is structured observation?

a) The analysis of tall buildings.
b) A technique in which the researcher observes behaviour from one position in the workplace.
c) A technique in which the researcher uses specific rules for behavior observation.
d) A technique in which the researcher observes behavior from a covert location.
Structured observation involves the researcher formulating in advance the rules of an observation. These
rules inform observers about what behaviors they should look for and how they should record them.
Question 03
In Mintzberg's (1973) study of managerial work, structured data were collected by which method?
a) A mail record which described each piece of mail and the action taken to respond to it.
b) A travel record which described the number of times a manager travelled between regional offices.
c) A lunch record which described the time managers took for lunch breaks.
d) A banter record which described all of the informal humorous conversations managers had with subordinates.
Mintzberg also used a chronology record and a contact record during his study of managers. These
described that activity patterns and the verbal contact of managers.
Question 04
When devising an observation schedule it is important that the observer:

a) has a clear focus about who or what they are observing.
b) uses a recording system that is easy to operate.
c) uses mutually exclusive and inclusive categories.
Even if the observer is able to achieve each of these things there will still be an element of interpretation on
their part when completing the schedule.
Question 05
Which of the following is a strategy for observing the behaviour of a bank manager in a structured fashion?
a) A daily observation of their morning briefing to the branch.
b) Observations of their interactions with customers.
c) Four observations during the day lasting twenty-five minutes each.
d) Observation of all filing conducted by the manager each day.
By spacing observations throughout the day it is more likely that the observer will be able to ensure the
generalizability of the research into bank managers.
Question 06
Following Martin & Bateson (1986) an observation of a specific individual for a set period of time is an example of:
a) scan sampling.
b) focal sampling.
c) ad libitum sampling.
d) behaviour sampling.
Focal sampling involves the observer recording all examples of whatever forms of behaviour are under
review.
Question 07
The difference between inter-observer consistency and intra-observer consistency is:

a) inter-observer consistency refers to the degree to which different observers agree, whereas intra-observer
consistency refers to the degree one observer remains consistent over time.
b) inter-observer consistency refers to the need for all observations to be conducted at identical times, whereas intra-
observer consistency refers to the need for one observer to observe only one behaviour.
c) inter-observer consistency refers to the practice of observers observing each other, whereas intra-observer
consistency refers to the practice of observer self-assessment.
d) inter-observer consistency refers to the degree the subjects demonstrate the same behaviours, whereas intra-
observer consistency refers to the degree that the subjects demonstrate different behaviours.
Both inter-observer consistency and intra-observer consistency are important tests for the reliability of
structured observations.
Question 08
What is the benefit of a conducting a structured observation using a field stimulation?

a) It is an overtly ethical form of research.
b) It ensures that the subjects are fully informed of the research.
c) It reduces the problem of subject reactivity.
d) It is usually conducted outdoors.
A researcher using a field stimulation such as mystery shopping is more likely to observe natural behavior
because the subject does not know they are being observed; something which can lead to ethical concerns.
Question 09
Which issues can be observed more effectively during an organisational simulation than in a 'real' organizational
setting?
a) Time managers spend on customer complaints.
b) Distance managers walk each day.
c) Decision making and problem solving.
d) Attitudes towards health and safety.
By contriving a situation the researcher can not only look in more detail at issues such as problem solving
and decision making but they also have the ability to collect a large amount of data in a relatively short
period of time.
Question 10
A criticism of structured observation is that it:

a) neglects the context within which behaviour occurs.
b) neglects the links between behaviour and personality.
c) neglects the role of the structures of capitalism that influence behaviour.
d) neglects the importance of language in organizational settings.
By ignoring the wider context within which subjects operate there is a tendency for structured observation to
aim at universal explanations for behaviour which may play down differences between, for example, different
occupations.
Chapter 12
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following questions can be answered using content analysis?

a) How do managers behave in the face of employment insecurity?
b) How do the media report corporate re-branding exercises?
c) What effect does organizational size have on marketing strategy?
d) What are the most popular leisure activities amongst the over-50s?
Content analysis is often used to examine the mass media and the manner in which it covers certain issues.
Question 02
Which of the following is not a main characteristic of content analysis?

a) Quantification of the content of selected texts.
b) Systematic analysis.
c) Discursive deconstruction.
d) Objectivity.
Content analysis can either focus on the apparent content of a text or its latent content, however either way
its focus remains very much on the quantification of the data.
Question 03
What is the first stage of sampling when conducting a content analysis on media reports?
a) Record all television news programmes for a week.
b) Define which part of the media is going to be analysed.
c) Assess the timescales within which you are going to select texts.
d) Identify how each variable will be coded.
It is important when undertaking a content analysis of the mass media that the first task undertaken, when
identifying a sample, is which type of media will the research focus upon.
Question 04
What is the benefit of focussing a content analysis on specific words?

a) It enables the researcher to assess a text's grammatical sophistication.
b) It enables the researcher to measure the time taken to construct the text.
c) It enables the researcher to show which interpretative frameworks are used in the text.
d) It enables the researcher to judge the future use of specific words in specific contexts.
Researchers who use content analysis to count the frequency of certain words, sentences or phrases are
then able to infer from this which interpretative frameworks different authors are drawing from.
Question 05
What is a coding schedule?

a) A form into which all the data relating to an item is entered.
b) A form ensuring that all of the different categories are mutually exclusive.
c) A form which sets out the interpretative framework of the researcher.
d) A form which measures the relationship between different categories.
A coding schedule is the item that the coder will use to record all of the information relevant in a specific
text. A new schedule is required for each text.
Question 06
What does a coding manual contain?

a) Information about the research questions.
b) Information about the research subjects.
c) Information about how the different coding categories are to be defined.
d) Information about how many times the different coding categories are used in a text.
The coding manual is sometimes referred to as the content analysis dictionary. It is a statement of
instructions to coders that specifies the categories that will be used to classify the text.
Question 07
What must a researcher be aware of when using a term such as management in a coding scheme?
a) Potential confusion because the term management can have different meanings.
b) Potential confusion because management does not form one single unit of analysis.
c) Potential confusion because management has different meaning in different languages.
Because a term such as management can have different meanings it is vital that a coding scheme is clear
about the manner in which it is to be used.
Question 08
Which of the following is an advantage of content analysis?

a) It is a very transparent form of research.
b) It is able to easily incorporate a longitudinal element.
c) It minimises the impact of the researcher on the subject of study.
Content analysis is a flexible method that allows for information about a wide range of issues to be
generated.
Question 09
Which of the following is true?

a) It is impossible to issue the same instructions to all coders.
b) It is impossible to devise coding manuals that do not require coders to undertake some interpretation.
c) It is impossible to understand the social world by studying the mass media.
d) It is impossible to use content analysis to look at elite groups.
This is one of the disadvantages of content analysis because coders act as knowledge participants whose
interpretations may not necessarily correspond.
Question 10
Content analysis can be criticised because:

a) it is an obscure and opaque method.
b) it focuses solely on questions of why in business research.
c) relevant documents are hard to obtain.
d) it is atheoretical as it focuses on what can be measured not what is theoretically important.
By focusing on what can be measured content analysis can be accused of diminishing the importance of
theoretically significant information. This is not necessarily true of all content analyses.
Chapter 07
Instructions
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Question 01
What is a sampling frame?

a) The report of a pilot study.
b) The selection of specific individuals to participate in the research.
c) A summary of the research process.
d) The listing of all units in the population from which the sample will be selected.
It is important to identify a sampling frame so that a representative sample can then be taken from within
a specified unit.
Question 02
How will a researcher usually prevent a significant sampling error?

a) Interview all respondents in advance.
b) Issue questionnaires to the entire sampling frame.
c) Put all the names in a hat.
d) Use probability sampling.
Probability sampling allows the researcher to apply tests of statistical significance which then allow
inferences to be made about the overall sampling frame.
Question 03
If an organisation has 12,000 employees and the researcher is able to interview 250 the probability of inclusion in the
sample is?
a) 1 in 96.
b) 1 in 20.
c) 1 in 48.
d) 1 in 250.
Simple random sampling assumes that each member of the population has an equal probability of inclusion
in the sample. The probability is calculated via a sampling fraction with the total population being divided by
the sample size.
Question 04
If a researcher wishes to obtain a nationally representative sample of trade union members but does not have the
resources to travel long distances what method of sampling could they use?
a) Stratified random sampling.
b) Multi-stage cluster sampling.
c) Simple random sampling.
d) Snowball sampling.
Multi-stage cluster sampling allows interviewers to concentrate their research more than simple random or
stratified sampling.
Question 05
Which of the following is not something a researcher will have to consider when thinking about their sample size?
a) Time and cost.
b) Non-response.
c) Length of questionnaire.
d) Heterogeneity of population.
In general bigger is better when considering sample size however all researchers need to be aware of the
limitations of their resources.
Question 06
Which of the following is an example of convenience sampling?

a) A stratified random sample of CEO's drawn from the top 100 UK companies.
b) A random sample of employees who are absent from work through stress.
c) Managers attending a seminar on corporate social responsibility organised by the researcher.
d) Illegal workers.
It is possible that the researcher could take the opportunity of issuing a questionnaire to these managers
whilst they are at the seminar. It is unlikely that the researcher will come across the other options in
as convenient a manner.
Question 07
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Which of the following is not a benefit of snowball sampling?
a) It can be used when there is difficulty in creating a sampling frame.
b) It is always representative of the population.
c) It can be used within a qualitative research strategy.
d) It can be used to reflect relationships between people by tracing connections.
Snowball sampling is unlikely to be representative of the population because of the difficulty in establishing
a sampling frame. The sampling frames that apply when snowball sampling is relevant are usually fluid and
constantly shifting.
Question 08
Quota sampling is used intensively in which type of research?

a) Market research.
b) Experimental research.
c) Action research.
d) Ethnographic research.
Commercial research and political opinion polling are other types of research that use quota sampling.
Question 09
The findings from a study of decision making processes within a UK financial services company can be generalized
to:
a) decision making processes in all financial services companies.
b) decision making processes in the all UK companies.
c) decision making processes in the researched companies.
d) none of the above.
Business and management researchers should be cautious of overgeneralizing findings beyond the
researched organization to alternative cultures.
Question 10
As part of survey research design the sample was selected by the HR manager. What sort of error could this lead to?
a) Sampling error.
b) Sampling related error.
c) Data collection error.
d) Data processing error.
The choices made by the HR manager may have been non-random and could also have reflected a bias on
the part of the individual making the choices.
Chapter 08
Instructions
score.
Question 01
What is the benefit of standardizing the asking of questions?

a) Each interview will last for exactly the same length of time.
b) A survey questionnaire can be delivered to a room full of people.
c) Answer variation will be 'true' and not due to the interview context.
d) The interviewer can predict the answers that the interviewee will give.
Standardization means that any variation between respondents cannot be put down to the way that the
question was asked or the answers recorded in the course of the administration of the survey.
Question 02
A closed question means:

a) the respondent is given a limited choice of possible answers.
b) the final question of the interview.
c) the interviewer can embellish the interviewee's answer.
d) the responses are difficult to codify.
By limiting the number of possible answers that the interviewee can give, their answers are easier to code
and it also reduces the potential for interviewer variability.
Question 03
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a) The telephone interviewer cannot use visual aids.
b) It is difficult to ascertain if the correct person is replying.
c) People who do not have access to a telephone cannot be interviewed.
d) Telephone interviews are cheap and quick to administer.
This factor is more pronounced when the sample is geographically spread.
Question 04
Which of the following issues should not be mentioned in an introductory statement?

a) The information will be kept confidential.
b) What the findings of the research are.
c) Who is funding the research.
d) Why the respondent has been chosen.
It is not possible to indicate the findings of the research during the data collection period. It is very important
that the other issues are mentioned in an introductory statement.
Question 05
Which of the following questions should come at the start of a question section on corporate social responsibility?
a) How strongly do you feel about corporate social responsibility?
b) Are you in favour of corporate social responsibility?
c) Have you heard of corporate social responsibility?
d) Why are you in favour of corporate social responsibility?
Within each section general questions should precede specific ones. If the interviewee has not heard
of corporate social responsibility the additional questions will become irrelevant.
Question 06
The benefit of using a show card to prompt the interviewee is:

a) that the interviewee does not have to speak.
b) the interview can be conducted over the telephone.
c) the interviewer does not have to read the same thing out on numerous occasions.
d) the interviewer can demonstrate their artistic skills.
When using something like a Likert scale having the possible answers written out will prevent the interviewer
from having to repeat the scale for each question.
Question 07
Which of the following is an example of critical incident method?

a) Asking respondents to describe their response to different advertisements.
b) Asking respondents to talk aloud whilst they are completing a performance appraisal form.
c) Asking respondents to tell a story of an interaction they had with senior management.
Critical incident technique can be used either as part of a quantitative or qualitative research strategy. It
involves interviewing respondents about particular events in order to understand their significance.
Question 08
The repertory grid method is based on which theory?

a) Personal motivation theory.
b) Personal destruction theory.
c) Personal consumption theory.
d) Personal construct theory.
Personal construct theory (Kelly:1955) is an attempt to identify the interpretative processes whereby an
individual constructs meaning in relation to his or her social context.
Question 09
Which of the following is an example of acquiescence?

a) The interviewee answers in a way that they think is socially desirable.
b) The interviewee tends to agree or disagree with a set of questions.
c) The interviewee draws on and creates meaning at the same time.
d) The interviewee agrees to do anything that the interviewer asks them.
Acquiescence can be overcome by ensuring that some questions within a particular set imply an opposite
stance.
Question 10
Which of the following is not part of the feminist critique of structured interviewing?
a) All structured interviews are conducted with men.
b) When women interview women using this method it implies a hierarchical relationship.
c) It gives the impression of exploitation.
d) It prevents the feminist researcher from developing genuine relationships with respondents.
The feminist critique of structured interviewing has much in common with wider criticisms of quantitative
research and has led to many feminist researchers adopting a qualitative research strategy.
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Chapter 09
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following is not an advantage of the self-completion questionnaire over the structured interview?
a) It is cheaper to administer.
b) It is quicker to administer.
c) It is easier to prompt the interviewee.
d) It is easier to remove interviewer effects.
Because the self-completion questionnaire is completed without the researcher present it is not possible for
them to assist respondents who are struggling to understand a specific question.
Question 02
Which of the following are disadvantages of the self-completed questionnaire?

a) Inability to confirm who completed the questionnaire.
b) Its unsuitability for some kinds of respondents.
c) Inability to ask many questions that are not directly relevant to the respondent.
A number of the disadvantages of self-completed questionnaires stem from the absence of the interviewer.
Question 03
Which of the following statements might assist response rates?

a) Please photocopy the questionnaire five times and pass on to your work colleagues.
b) Please make sure that the questionnaire is completed with a fountain pen.
c) Please read the attached journal article on the ontological foundations of positivism prior to completing the
questionnaire.
d) Please put the completed questionnaire in the enclosed stamped addressed envelope and place in the
mail out tray.
Enclosing a stamped addressed envelope is very important if the researcher wishes to achieve an acceptable
response rate.
Question 04
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What should the researcher do if they have achieved a low response rate?
a) Fill in some more questionnaires themselves.
b) Abandon the research project entirely.
c) Recognize and accept the possible limitations of a low response rate.
A substantial amount of published material is based on research that has a low response rate. The
researcher in this situation should include a discussion of what the implications of a low response rate are
for their research.
Question 05
One of the following statements is correct.

a) A questionnaire should run to at least twenty pages.
b) The questions should have no spaces between them so that the whole questionnaire looks small.
c) Only questionnaires that are A3 size achieve high response rates.
d) Clear presentation is more important than overall size.
If questions are cramped together so that they are difficult to differentiate from each other this is more likely
to reduce the completion rate than if the questionnaire is a little bit longer.
Question 06
Should closed answers be arranged:

a) horizontally.
b) vertically.
c) diagonally.
d) circuitously.
Question 07
Which of the following is likely to happen if clear instructions are not given as how the respondent should answer the
question?
a) Respondents may delete inappropriate answers rather than select appropriate ones.
b) Respondents may choose only one answer when they need to choose as many as apply.
c) Respondents may complete questions that are not relevant to them.
Clear instructions are vital as they allow for the respondent to move quickly and efficiently through the
questionnaire which may in turn aid response rate.
Question 08
Which of the following is not a major use of diaries in business research?

a) The diary as a method of data collection.
b) The diary as a document.
c) The diary as a log of researcher's literature search.
d) The diary as a log of the researcher's activities.
A diary can be an effective way of gaining an accurate record of respondent's daily routine.
Question 09
Which of the following is not a suitable topic for research using a diary?
a) The amount of time managers spend on particular activities.
b) The frequency with which managers undertake particular tasks.
c) The locations in which a trade union representative has discussions with individual members.
d) The volume of female managers in the retail industry.
Stewart (1967) used the diary method to look at managerial time.
Question 10
Which of the following comments demonstrates a process of attrition on the part of a diary respondent?
a) 'the researcher never checks that I am completing my diary correctly'.
b) 'I can't be bothered to complete this diary anymore'.
c) 'I keep forgetting to include the number of phone calls I make each day'.
d) 'I have decided to use the diary to record all of my personal thoughts and feelings'.
There is a danger that the respondent will lose interest in completing the diary and so will fail to record
accurate data.
Chapter 10
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following is an advantage of open questions?

a) They allow respondents to answer in their own terms.
b) They prevent respondents from giving unusual answers.
c) They allow respondents to put less effort into their answer.
d) They allow respondents to code their answers in advance.
An open question means that the respondent is not forced to use terminology that is decided by the
researcher in advance.
Question 02
What is the difference between a closed question and an open question?

a) A closed question means that the chances of unreliable post-coding is small, whereas an open question means
that there is a possibility of data processing error.
b) A closed question allows for the researchers terminology to be used, whereas an open question allows the
respondent to use terms they are familiar with.
c) A closed question allows for easy processing, whereas coding an open question can be very time consuming.
Both closed and open questions have a range of advantages and disadvantages and their use depends upon
the research strategy and research design that have been selected.
Question 03
Which of the following is an example of a question about normative standards and values?
a) How many workers are employed at this plant?
b) What is your attitude towards the management at this plant?
c) Do you always cast your vote in trade union elections?
d) Are you aware of the main features of the European Union Directive for informing and consulting employees?
Answer (c) is asking for the respondent to reveal a behavioural norm. These types of questions are closely
related to question about attitudes and beliefs.
Question 04
If one of your research questions is 'what role do HR Departments play in manufacturing companies?' which of the
following questions should you include in your questionnaire?
a) Does your organisation manufacture red cars or blue cars?
b) How much corporation tax did your organisation pay in the last financial year?
c) Does your organisation employ a Director of HR?
d) Does the HR Department have an annual Christmas party?
It is important to keep in mind your overall research questions so that you ask questions that will contribute
to your answering of these questions.
Question 05
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Why is it important to avoid ambiguous terms when designing questions?
a) Respondents may not understand the question.
b) Respondents may operate with a different frame of reference.
c) Respondents may think the question is less important.
d) Respondents may have to ask for help when completing the questionnaire.
An ambiguous term such as 'often' or 'management' may mean different things to different respondents.
Question 06
Which of the following is a double-barrelled question?

a) How satisfied are you with the performance appraisal system?
b) How satisfied are you with investment levels in new and existing software packages?
c) How satisfied are you with the organisations marketing strategy?
d) How satisfied are you with the levels of customer satisfaction?
Double-barrelled questions are ones that ask about two things. This question should in fact be split into two,
one about existing software and one about new software.
Question 07
Questions that include negatives should be avoided because:

a) The respondent may miss out the negative word.
b) The respondent may be unsure how to answer if the question includes a double negative.
c) The respondent may be led by the question.
When using a Likert scale it can be difficult to avoid asking a question with a negative, however the
researcher should attempt to avoid them if possible.
Question 08
Why is asking a vignette question about ethical behavior beneficial?

a) Because it allows for an abstract discussion of ethical values.
b) Because it ensures that the respondent does not have to reflect on their own ethicality.
c) Because it anchors the choice in a situation and prevents an unreflective reply.
d) Because it prevents the researcher from discussing sensitive issues.
By discussing a specific situation it is more likely that the respondent will reflect on their actual behaviour
rather than simply give a reply that matches normative values.
Question 09
Piloting questions is important because:

a) it enables the researcher to clear up any confusion.
b) it enables the researcher to collect additional data.
c) it enables the researcher to get an idea of likely response rate.
d) it enables the researcher to see if their questions can fly.
Piloting can be crucial in seeing not just that the survey questions work well, but also that the research
instrument is suitable.
Question 10
Which of the following is not an advantage of using existing questions?

a) They will have already been piloted for you.
b) You will be able to investigate any reliability and validity testing that has taken place.
c) You will be able to claim your work is entirely original.
d) You will be able to make comparisons with other research.
You are advised to contact the researchers concerned in order to seek permission to use questions that they
have devised.
Chapter 11
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following is not an example of a problem with using social survey research to investigate behaviour?
a) Respondents tend to answer by giving the most socially desirable answer.
b) Respondents may inadvertently omit key terms in the question.
c) Respondents may not give an honest reply to what they see as a threatening question.
d) Respondents may be unwilling to reveal information as they believe they are likely to be identified.
An advantage of social survey research is that the researcher can ensure that the anonymity of the
respondent is maintained by administering the same questions to each individual.
Question 02
What is structured observation?

a) The analysis of tall buildings.
b) A technique in which the researcher observes behaviour from one position in the workplace.
c) A technique in which the researcher uses specific rules for behavior observation.
d) A technique in which the researcher observes behavior from a covert location.
Structured observation involves the researcher formulating in advance the rules of an observation. These
rules inform observers about what behaviors they should look for and how they should record them.
Question 03
In Mintzberg's (1973) study of managerial work, structured data were collected by which method?
a) A mail record which described each piece of mail and the action taken to respond to it.
b) A travel record which described the number of times a manager travelled between regional offices.
c) A lunch record which described the time managers took for lunch breaks.
d) A banter record which described all of the informal humorous conversations managers had with subordinates.
Mintzberg also used a chronology record and a contact record during his study of managers. These
described that activity patterns and the verbal contact of managers.
Question 04
When devising an observation schedule it is important that the observer:

a) has a clear focus about who or what they are observing.
b) uses a recording system that is easy to operate.
c) uses mutually exclusive and inclusive categories.
Even if the observer is able to achieve each of these things there will still be an element of interpretation on
their part when completing the schedule.
Question 05
Which of the following is a strategy for observing the behaviour of a bank manager in a structured fashion?
a) A daily observation of their morning briefing to the branch.
b) Observations of their interactions with customers.
c) Four observations during the day lasting twenty-five minutes each.
d) Observation of all filing conducted by the manager each day.
By spacing observations throughout the day it is more likely that the observer will be able to ensure the
generalizability of the research into bank managers.
Question 06
Following Martin & Bateson (1986) an observation of a specific individual for a set period of time is an example of:
a) scan sampling.
b) focal sampling.
c) ad libitum sampling.
d) behaviour sampling.
Focal sampling involves the observer recording all examples of whatever forms of behaviour are under
review.
Question 07
The difference between inter-observer consistency and intra-observer consistency is:

a) inter-observer consistency refers to the degree to which different observers agree, whereas intra-observer
consistency refers to the degree one observer remains consistent over time.
b) inter-observer consistency refers to the need for all observations to be conducted at identical times, whereas intra-
observer consistency refers to the need for one observer to observe only one behaviour.
c) inter-observer consistency refers to the practice of observers observing each other, whereas intra-observer
consistency refers to the practice of observer self-assessment.
d) inter-observer consistency refers to the degree the subjects demonstrate the same behaviours, whereas intra-
observer consistency refers to the degree that the subjects demonstrate different behaviours.
Both inter-observer consistency and intra-observer consistency are important tests for the reliability of
structured observations.
Question 08
What is the benefit of a conducting a structured observation using a field stimulation?

a) It is an overtly ethical form of research.
b) It ensures that the subjects are fully informed of the research.
c) It reduces the problem of subject reactivity.
d) It is usually conducted outdoors.
A researcher using a field stimulation such as mystery shopping is more likely to observe natural behavior
because the subject does not know they are being observed; something which can lead to ethical concerns.
Question 09
Which issues can be observed more effectively during an organisational simulation than in a 'real' organizational
setting?
a) Time managers spend on customer complaints.
b) Distance managers walk each day.
c) Decision making and problem solving.
d) Attitudes towards health and safety.
By contriving a situation the researcher can not only look in more detail at issues such as problem solving
and decision making but they also have the ability to collect a large amount of data in a relatively short
period of time.
Question 10
A criticism of structured observation is that it:

a) neglects the context within which behaviour occurs.
b) neglects the links between behaviour and personality.
c) neglects the role of the structures of capitalism that influence behaviour.
d) neglects the importance of language in organizational settings.
By ignoring the wider context within which subjects operate there is a tendency for structured observation to
aim at universal explanations for behaviour which may play down differences between, for example, different
occupations.
Chapter 12
Instructions
score.
Question 01
Which of the following questions can be answered using content analysis?

a) How do managers behave in the face of employment insecurity?
b) How do the media report corporate re-branding exercises?
c) What effect does organizational size have on marketing strategy?
d) What are the most popular leisure activities amongst the over-50s?
Content analysis is often used to examine the mass media and the manner in which it covers certain issues.
Question 02
Which of the following is not a main characteristic of content analysis?

a) Quantification of the content of selected texts.
b) Systematic analysis.
c) Discursive deconstruction.
d) Objectivity.
Content analysis can either focus on the apparent content of a text or its latent content, however either way
its focus remains very much on the quantification of the data.
Question 03
What is the first stage of sampling when conducting a content analysis on media reports?
a) Record all television news programmes for a week.
b) Define which part of the media is going to be analysed.
c) Assess the timescales within which you are going to select texts.
d) Identify how each variable will be coded.
It is important when undertaking a content analysis of the mass media that the first task undertaken, when
identifying a sample, is which type of media will the research focus upon.
Question 04
What is the benefit of focussing a content analysis on specific words?

a) It enables the researcher to assess a text's grammatical sophistication.
b) It enables the researcher to measure the time taken to construct the text.
c) It enables the researcher to show which interpretative frameworks are used in the text.
d) It enables the researcher to judge the future use of specific words in specific contexts.
Researchers who use content analysis to count the frequency of certain words, sentences or phrases are
then able to infer from this which interpretative frameworks different authors are drawing from.
Question 05
What is a coding schedule?

a) A form into which all the data relating to an item is entered.
b) A form ensuring that all of the different categories are mutually exclusive.
c) A form which sets out the interpretative framework of the researcher.
d) A form which measures the relationship between different categories.
A coding schedule is the item that the coder will use to record all of the information relevant in a specific
text. A new schedule is required for each text.
Question 06
What does a coding manual contain?

a) Information about the research questions.
b) Information about the research subjects.
c) Information about how the different coding categories are to be defined.
d) Information about how many times the different coding categories are used in a text.
The coding manual is sometimes referred to as the content analysis dictionary. It is a statement of
instructions to coders that specifies the categories that will be used to classify the text.
Question 07
What must a researcher be aware of when using a term such as management in a coding scheme?
a) Potential confusion because the term management can have different meanings.
b) Potential confusion because management does not form one single unit of analysis.
c) Potential confusion because management has different meaning in different languages.
Because a term such as management can have different meanings it is vital that a coding scheme is clear
about the manner in which it is to be used.
Question 08
Which of the following is an advantage of content analysis?

a) It is a very transparent form of research.
b) It is able to easily incorporate a longitudinal element.
c) It minimises the impact of the researcher on the subject of study.
Content analysis is a flexible method that allows for information about a wide range of issues to be
generated.
Question 09
Which of the following is true?

a) It is impossible to issue the same instructions to all coders.
b) It is impossible to devise coding manuals that do not require coders to undertake some interpretation.
c) It is impossible to understand the social world by studying the mass media.
d) It is impossible to use content analysis to look at elite groups.
This is one of the disadvantages of content analysis because coders act as knowledge participants whose
interpretations may not necessarily correspond.
Question 10
Content analysis can be criticised because:

a) it is an obscure and opaque method.
b) it focuses solely on questions of why in business research.
c) relevant documents are hard to obtain.
d) it is atheoretical as it focuses on what can be measured not what is theoretically important.
By focusing on what can be measured content analysis can be accused of diminishing the importance of
theoretically significant information. This is not necessarily true of all content analyses.
a. it most simply means “explanation”

b. it answers the “how” and “why” questions
c. it can be a well developed explanatory system
d. all of the above are correct
a. it most simply means “explanation”

b. it answers the “how” and “why” questions
c. it can be a well developed explanatory system
d. all of the above are correct
Which of the following is not a feature of theoretical framework?
Making an inventory of variables

Specify the direction of relationship
Presenting findings
Making an inventory of propositions
Which of the following is an example of deception in business research?

The obtaining of company material without permission.
The researcher wearing a disguise during an observation.
The researcher representing their research as being about a different topic.
The researcher failing to ask permission to interview someone.
Measurement reliability refers to the:
Accuracy of the scores

Consistency of the scores
Dependency of the scores
Comprehensiveness of the scores vuzs
A good qualitative problem statement:
Defines the independent and dependent variables

Conveys a sense of emerging design
Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find.

By informing participants that the research is about something different than it actually
is, the researcher is purposefully deceiving the participant. To some degree this is
prevalent in all research so that researchers can maximise the natural response to the
questions asked.
The validity of a measure refers to the:
Particular type of construct specification

Comprehensiveness with which it measures the construct
Accuracy with which it measures the construct
Consistency of the measurement
An experimental design allows us to test for causal connections between variables,

because one of the variables (the 'independent' variable) is manipulated to track
changes in the other (the 'dependent' variable). However, most social survey research
uses cross-sectional designs, where such manipulation is not possible. Consequently,
degrees of co-relation between variables can be determined but causality remains
inferential. If you gave answer (b), you should recognize that very few researchers are
interested in mere descriptions of things. They usually want to find out why things are
the way they are so that they can be remedied or replicated. Causality is an appropriate
goal, simply difficult to achieve.
Ms. Laiba has decided to use the test at the end of the textbook to measure the
achievement levels of the students in her study. Which of the following BEST describes
the chapter test?
Definition
Construct
Variable
http://wps.prenhall.com/chet_airasian_edresearch_8/0,11083,2525945-
content,00.utf8.html
How can we determine if a test has good validity?
It produces the same result when it is given at different times to the same group of
people
It produces the same result no matter which version of the test is used
It measures what it is supposed to measure
All of the questions on it can be answered accurately by the subject
http://www.sparknotes.com/psychology/psych101/researchmethods/quiz.html
The issue here is with the application of the research findings to people who were not
part of the research focus. If we select our sample of respondents randomly from the
population as a whole, we can be quite sure that the findings can be applied to the
whole population. But if we interviewed people casually, we could not generalize our
findings beyond the actual people interviewed. This is the essence of external validation
of research: how universally can the research findings be applied? It must be said that
even with random sampling, we have no right to apply our findings to other populations,
no matter how strong the temptation.
A______scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according to the
characteristic of interest.
Ratio
Nominal
Interval
Dichotomous
Bias is defined as;
The distortion of responses based on gender, ethnicity, race, or language

A lack of validity
A lack of reliability
A poor interpretation of a student's score
The elaboration of the variables in the theoretical framework addresses which type of
qestions?
Why we expect certain relationships to exist

How we expect certain relationships to exist
Both of the given questions
None of the given questions
What is the final step of a scientific investigation?
Analyze data
Collect data
Report the findings
Determine whether the hypothesis was supported
An indicator of reliability based on the correlations of each item in a measure with every
other item is called:
Cronbach's alpha
Split-half reliability
Inter item ratio
http://methods.fullerton.edu/quiz_ch5.html
The number of people who complete a survey in relation to the number of people
contacted to participate is called the:
Response set
Response rate
Response bias
Respondents
http://methods.fullerton.edu/quiz_ch7.html
Which of the following is likely to reduce the validity of a test?
Unclear test directions

Ambiguous test items
Untaught items
http://wps.prenhall.com/chet_airasian_edresearch_7/5/1488/381171.cw/index.html
Which of the following is NOT an unethical issue?
Invoicing irregularities
Avoiding legal liability
Misrepresenting results
Seek approval for research
Which of the following is likely to reduce the validity of a test?

Unclear test directions
Ambiguous test items
Untaught items
Measurement reliability refers to the:
Accuracy of the scores
Consistency of the scores
Dependency of the scores
Comprehensiveness of the scores

By informing participants that the research is about something different than it actually is, the researcher
is purposefully deceiving the participant. To some degree this is prevalent in all research so that
researchers can maximise the natural response to the questions asked.
The validity of a measure refers to the:

Particular type of construct specification
Comprehensiveness with which it measures the construct
Accuracy with which it measures the construct
Consistency of the measurement
An experimental design allows us to test for causal connections between variables, because one of the
variables (the 'independent' variable) is manipulated to track changes in the other (the 'dependent'
variable). However, most social survey research uses cross-sectional designs, where such manipulation
is not possible. Consequently, degrees of co-relation between variables can be determined but causality
remains inferential. If you gave answer (b), you should recognize that very few researchers are interested
in mere descriptions of things. They usually want to find out why things are the way they are so that they
can be remedied or replicated. Causality is an appropriate goal, simply difficult to achieve.
Ms. Laiba has decided to use the test at the end of the textbook to measure the achievement levels of the
students in her study. Which of the following BEST describes the chapter test?
Definition
Construct
Variable
http://wps.prenhall.com/chet_airasian_edresearch_8/0,11083,2525945-content,00.utf8.html

It produces the same result when it is given at different times to the same group of people
The issue here is with the application of the research findings to people who were not part of the research
focus. If we select our sample of respondents randomly from the population as a whole, we can be quite
sure that the findings can be applied to the whole population. But if we interviewed people casually, we
could not generalize our findings beyond the actual people interviewed. This is the essence of external
validation of research: how universally can the research findings be applied? It must be said that even
with random sampling, we have no right to apply our findings to other populations, no matter how strong
the temptation.
A ______ scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according to the characteristic of
interest.
Ratio
Nominal
Interval
Dichotomous
Bias is defined as;
A lack of validity

It produces the same result when it is given at different times to the same group of people
A telephone company is interested in obtaining customers' reactions to a new service package. Which of
the following primary research methods would be most effective in reaching this audience to obtain their
feedback?
An Internet survey
Telephone interviews
A mail survey
Focus groups

Reference
The researcher protects participant’s confidentiality in several ways:
Restricting access to participant identification.
Revealing participant information only with written consent.
Restricting access to data instruments where the participant is identified.
Not disclosing data subset.
1. A good qualitative problem statement:
a. Defines the independent and dependent variables

b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find
www.vuzs.info
2. The “tool” function of theory is to:

a. Summarize existing knowledge
b. Summarize existing hypotheses
c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
d. Suggest new theories
3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:

a. Identify the design of the study2
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study2
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study
www.vuzs.info
4. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive
development of school age children” not a good statement of a quantitative research
question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and cognitive
development
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular
activities
to conduct the study
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different extracurricular
activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding of
the variables being investigated
www.vuzs.info
5. A qualitative research question:

a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct
6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the
flowchart of the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question,
hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose
www.vuzs.info
7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information
obtained via the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
a. True
b. False
8. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:

a. Identifying a researchable problem
b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
e. Developing a research plan
9. Sources of researchable problems can include:

a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above
www.vuzs.info
10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research
questions is that:
a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions
b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer
11. Which of the following is a function of theory?

a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory
12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the
researcher to do which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above
www.vuzs.info
13. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection

is not recommended by grounded theorists.
a. True
b. False
14. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched?

a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction
b. Description of educational practices
c. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in
schools
d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use
www.vuzs.info
15. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during
the literature review?
a. ERIC
b. PsychINFO
c. SocioFILE
d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases
16. Computer database searches can be done:

a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b. At the library
c. Online
d. All of the above
17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:

a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above
www.vuzs.info
18. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study”

generally ______.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. All of the above
e. b and c
19. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or “poorly
stated”? “The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing
encounters of patients with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings that are
engendered by such encounters. The study was conducted on one of the surgical units
and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community hospital.”
a. It is a well stated
b. It is poorly stated
www.vuzs.info
20. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?

a. “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on academic
performance?”
b. “What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall grade
point average during the football season?”
21. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher
will
address
b. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures,
and
materials
c. Specify the variables of interest
d. All of the above
www.vuzs.info
22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research
plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion
23. Research hypotheses are ______.

a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c
24. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.

a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed
www.vuzs.info
25. A research plan _____.
a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above
26. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies

a. The research participants
b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
d. The planned research procedures
e. a, c and d
27. The Introduction section of the research plan

a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative research,
it includes
the research hypothesis
d. All of the above
www.vuzs.info
28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
e. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas
www.vuzs.info
Answers:
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. d
5. c
6. a
7. a
8. d
9. d
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 Answers
 Internet Phone
 Prediction
 Academic Performance
 Alabama high school football
 C and d
 Cd-rom
 Cognitive Development
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 Answers
 Internet Phone
 Prediction
10. b
11. d
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. d
16. d
17. d
18. e
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. b
23. d
24. b
25. d
26. e
27. d
28. e
1. Accepting the information in professor's lecture without asking about the basis of the
information is a reliance on authority.
True
False
2. Intuition and authority can be good sources of ideas.
True
False
3. Applied research is not guided by the theories and findings of basic research.
True
False
4. The statement, "Interviewers rate job applicants more favorably when they are
wearing a pleasant scent than when they have no scent" is an example of:
www.vuzs.info
5. The statement, "A pleasant scent increases favorability of ratings because the scent
creates a positive emotional state in the interviewer" is an example of:
6. An empirical test of an idea about behavior must be conducted so the idea can either
be supported or refuted.
True
False
www.vuzs.info
1. A prediction is a statement about the expected relationship between variables

True
False
2. The method section of a research report includes a description of exactly how the
study was designed and conducted.
True
False
3. Which of the following would result in finding more articles when using PsycINFO?.
happiness AND marital satisfaction

happiness OR marital satisfaction
www.vuzs.info
4. You found an important article published in 1990. What resource would you use to
find articles that have cited your article since then?
Psychological Abstracts
PsycINFO
Social Science Citation Index
5. Which of the following is NOT true of theories?

Explain currently known facts.
Rarely change once formulated.
Generate new knowledge.
www.vuzs.info
6. When the results of a study are consistent with a theory, our confidence in the theory
increases.
True
False
7. You are reading a paragraph in a journal article; the topic of the paragraph is the
implications of the results for future research. Which section of the article are you
reading?
Introduction
Results
Discussion
If a nominal scale is used, it is permissible to calculate which of the following statistics?

Mean
Range
Percentile
Mode
The key objective of data analysis is to:

Calculate statistics
Understand relationships between variables
Obtain the distribution of responses for each question
Create tables which display the survey results
Question # 3 of 15
Bias is defined as;


A lack of validity
Question # 4 of 5
Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information
about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily?
Case study
Laboratory observation
Survey
Question # 5 of 15
What is the first step in the research process?

Preliminary data collection

Problem definition Theoretical
framework
Define broad problem area
Step I: Formulating a Research Problem
Formulating a research problem is the first and most important step in the research process.
A research problem identifies your destination: it should tell you, your research supervisor and your
readers what you intend to research.
Question # 6 of 15
When you are confident that the experimental manipulation produced the changes you
measured in the dependent variable, your study probably has
good ___________ validity.
Construct Internal
External
Causal
Internal
Question # 7 of 15
What is a relationship between the literature survey and the theoretical framework?
Provides a solid foundation for developing the latter
Literature survey helps in the identification of the relevant variables
The theoretical framework explains the theory underlying these relations
There is a relationship between the literature survey and the theoretical framework whereby the former
provides a solid foundation for developing the latter. Literature survey helps in the identification of the
relevant variables, as determined by the previous researches. This in addition to other logical connections
that can be conceptualized forms the basis for the theoretical model. The theoretical framework elaborates
the relationships among the variables, explains the theory underlying these relations, and describes the
nature and direction of the relationships.
Question # 8 of 15
In which way does a ratio scale measurement differ from an interval measurement?
It measures larger or smaller scores on some underlying dimension.

It implies the existence of an absolute zero value.
It requires the mutual exclusivity of all cases.
It requires that exhaustiveness is applied to all observations.
http://books.google.com/books?id=Eo2HMtTjz0gC&pg=PA56&lpg=PA56&dq=It+implies+the+existence+o
f+an+absolute+zero+value&source=bl&ots=rcK4H9iA8M&sig=HLMji_muYxECLIxEdYBmYk-
faPI&hl=en&ei=n676S5bUHdHBrAe61cC9Cg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBIQ6
AEwAA#v=onepage&q=It%20implies%20the%20existence%20of%20an%20absolute%20zero%20value&
f=false
Question # 9 of 15
All of these are characteristics of scientific methods of research except, it is
Cumulative Deterministic
Unethical (handouts pg#5)
Rationalism
)
Question # 10 of 15
The elaboration of the variables in the theoretical framework addresses which type of
questions?
Why we expect certain relationships to exist How
we expect certain relationships to exist
Both of the given questions
None of the given questions
Question # 11 of 15
Which of the following is the least appropriate research problem?

Does studying Latin improve the standardized vocabulary test scores of

seventh grade students?
Does drilling fifth grade students with multiplication facts improve their standardized test
scores?
What is the relationship between students' math attitudes and math achievement?
Should students have access to controversial novels in school?
http://shafiqurrehman1.livejournal.com/1890.html
Question # 12 of 15
A ________ scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according to
the
characteristic of interest.
Ratio Nominal
Interval
Dichotomous
http://www.georgiacenter.uga.edu/is/mr/quiz/checkquiz.phtml
Question # 13 of 15
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research topic?

It is ethical.
It can be investigated through the collection and analysis of data.
It focuses on a philosophical or ethical
issue. It is theoretically or practically significant.
http://wps.prenhall.com/chet_airasian_edresearch_8/0,11083,2525651-content,00.utf8.html
Question # 14 of 15
Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing a proposal?
Understanding the problem situation The

appearance/form of the proposal
Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client
Knowing as much as possible about the proposal recipients
http://www.georgiacenter.uga.edu/is/mr/quiz/checkquiz.phtml
Question # 15 of 15
The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is
called
Sampling validity
External validity
Construct validity
Internal validity
. External validity refers to: the extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other
populations and settings
1. Which of the following dimensions of information does correlational analysis NOT provide?
c. cause and effect.
2. A sociologist wants to know if the proportion of Americans who supports gay marriage has changed
over the last 10 years. The best research method for investigating this topic is:
b. analysis of survey data.
3. Suzanne is a subject participating in a study. As part of the study, she gave an electric shock to
another subject who made an error on a word recall task. At the end of the study, an experimenter told
Suzanne that the study really concerned obedience to authority, that it is normal for subjects to obey the
experimenter, and it is important to understand obedience. The experimenter’s explanation is an example
of:
d. debriefing.
4. Professor Smith hypothesizes that how much students sleep each night may influence their
performance on math tests. According to this proposition, hours of sleep is the ______________ and
math test score is the ____________________.
a. independent variable, dependent variable.
5. The two conditions that must be met for social psychology research to be
considered experimentation are:
a. random assignment, relevant variables other than the independent variable are held constant.
6. A random sample is:

b. a sample in which each person in a given population is equally likely to be selected.
7. According to the symbolic interactionist perspective, people can only communicate if

c. They have a consensus of meaning.
8. Mike and Hillary meet at a party, and engage in a discussion of politics. According to Heider’s balance
theory, which of the following outcomes would illustrate an imbalanced relationship:
b. Mike likes Hillary; he supports the Republicans and she is an avid Democrat.
9. Which of these processes guides human behavior, according to social exchange theory?
c. Maximizing gains.
10. Naomi is driving to the hospital very quickly, because she is taking her sick child in for an emergency
surgery. On the drive to the hospital, she exceeds the speed limit and runs through a stop sign. She is
apprehended by the police, and eventually goes to court to resolve the matter. The presiding judge
operates at a level of post-conventional morality. What might the judge say about the situation?
c. It’s okay that Naomi violated the speed limit; the health of her child is more important than
abiding by the law.
11. Which of the following is NOT a basis for moral judgments according to Piaget?
c. Whether actor has internalized norms of “right” and “wrong.”
12. External validity refers to:

b. the extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other populations and settings.
13. In the play stage of the formation of the self, children

b. take the role of others one at a time.
14. The subset of self-concepts that constitutes the self at a particular time in a particular situation is
called:
d. Situated self.
15. Which of the following statements accurately characterizes Baumrind’s theory of social class
differences in socialization styles?
a. The best way to raise children is with high warmth and high control.
16. Tracy would like to get along well with her boss. In an attempt to understand and predict her boss’s
behavior, Tracy tries to imagine what it would be like to be the boss. Tracy’s behavior is an example of:
b. role-taking.
17. Which of the following statements is true about peers as agents of socialization?
a. Peers often teach each other lessons and reinforce messages that are in opposition to the
messages taught by other socializing agents, including parents and teachers.
18. Reinforcement theory argues that a person’s behavior is:

b. governed by external events, especially rewards and punishments.
19. The belief that people usually behave in ways that conform to norms and social expectations is a
central tenet of which theoretical perspective?
a. role theory.
20. When Danny was young, he witnessed his mother praising his father for doing chores around the
house. When Danny grows up, he also helps his spouse with household chores. This is an example of:
c. observational learning.
Examples of full credit answers, Sociology 319, Exam #1
1. Test-retest versus split-half method
Test-retest and the split-half method are two different ways for testing the reliability of a survey. Test-
retest is the least practical of the two, where the survey would be given to the same cluster of individuals
at different points in time. Test-retest becomes less of use since the surveyees might answer the same as
in the first survey in order to be consistent. The split-half method is the more beneficial of the two options
since a group of questions, which measure the same component, are divided into two groups of questions
within the survey, perhaps in the beginning and at the end. Test-rest example: issue a survey today and
then once more in two weeks. Split-half method you would divide a group of questions measuring how
“caring” someone is.
2. Participant observation
Participant observation is a form of field study that involves the researcher studying a particular group by
involving themselves in the group activities. There are some problems with this type of study. The
researcher may display certain types of bias in their research due to connections they may make with
those they observe. The members of the group being studied may act differently than normal due to the
awareness of an outsider entering the group. An example of this form of field study could be that of a
researcher who wants to study the social structure of boxing in poor areas. The researcher becomes
involved in the boxing community and actually boxes himself, to enter this private social world.
3. Cognitive dissonance
Cognitive dissonance is the theory that people seek to maintain cohesion in their cognitions when attitude
and behavior contradict each other. In response to a contradiction, a person may change his/her attitude
or behavior, trivialize the behavior, find information supporting his newly changed attitude, or deny the
occurrence of the behavior. People will often choose the least drastic and easiest mechanisms. An
example: Calvin is a staunch opponent of affirmative action. One day he enters a conversation with
several coworkers about affirmative action. They are all minorities who are for affirmative
action. Calvin agrees with them but trivializes the behavior later, claiming to himself the peer pressure to
conform was too much.
4. I and me
This theory by Mead says the self is made up of the “I” (the active subject” and the “me” (the passive
object). The self is complete when one can function smoothly between the “I’ and the “me”. Children
usually develop this distinction (and therefore the whole self around the age of 4) when language
develops because language is very important for this “I” and “me” relationship to work. This uses symbolic
interaction theory.
5. Looking glass self

The looking glass self is a theory outlined by Cooley. It states that our sense of self is derived from our
interactions with others and depends on (a) our ability to perceive ourselves as we think others perceive
us; (b) how we feel others judge us; and (c) how we feel about these perceived judgments. The looking
glass self is apparent on shows like “American Idol” where the person auditioning turns out to be a terrible
singer. When the judges disapprove of their performance they may say “but all my friends say I sing well.”
This reflects one’s perception of how others see him or her and how it has influenced his/her self-concept
as a good singer.
6. Racial socialization
Racial socialization, like socialization, is the process by which members of a particular race learn the
beliefs, culture, values, norms, rules etc. of the particular ethnic/racial group to which they belong. This is
important because it prepares the individual for how to live in society as a member of a particular race
and how he/she may deal with difficulties pertinent to being a member of that race such as discrimination
from other groups. An example of such lessons learned through racial socialization would be “don’t drive
on that street alone at night if no one else like you is around” or “don’t trust white people.”
C. Essay question (25 points)
One of the most widely documented findings in social psychology is that adolescent girls have lower self-
esteem than their male peers. Policy makers have hired you to help them understand the reasons for this
pattern, and to offer advice for practices that may help to eliminate girls’ disadvantage. You are to
address each of these issues in your brief report:
(1) what is “self-esteem” and why is it an important concept? [4 points]
(2) briefly describe three of the following five theories that are generally used to explain self-esteem
patterns: social comparison theory; reflected appraisals; psychological salience/centrality; self-perception
theory; and self-discrepancy theory. [12 points]
(3) how would each of the 3 theories discussed in part (2) explain the gender gap in self-esteem? Your
discussion can be speculative, but should draw on your knowledge of gender socialization. [5 points]
(4) based on your knowledge of social psychology, what recommendations would you give to policy
makers or educators hoping to boost girls’ self-esteem? [4 points]
(1) Self-esteem is the attitude we hold toward ourselves, or the overall evaluation we have for the self. It’s
an important concept because it affects our behaviors, thoughts, and feelings.
(2) According to the social comparison theory, people are constantly seeking to evaluate themselves.
Since there is no objective base to measure ourselves, we compare ourselves with people who are
similar to us in important traits. Usually when we compare ourselves with people superior to us, our self-
esteem is compromised. When we compare down, our self-esteem is enhanced. However, this is not
always the case. When we associate ourselves with superiors, our self-esteem might “bask in the
reflected glory” of others.
According to the psychological salience theory, our self-esteem depends largely on domains central to
our identity. For example, a social activist might care much more about her leadership skills than her
artistic aptitude. So her weaknesses can’t compromise her self-esteem much if it’s from a domain
peripheral to her self-concept.
According to the self-discrepancy theory, who we are, what we should be and what we’d like to be affect
our self-esteem. When our actual self does not match with what we ought to be (often dictated by role
expectations) we feel guilt and fear. When the actual self falls short of our idealized self, we feel sad and
depressed. Thus, self-esteem is compromised when discrepancy exists between the actual self and the
other two selves.
(3) Social Comparison Theory: When a girl sees her teaching praising the intellectual quality of her male
classmate’s work, whereas she only got comments on her neat handwriting, she perceives the boy as
superior to her intellectually. Thus her self-esteem in the intellectual domain is lowered.
Psychological Salience Theory: When a girl believes appearance is more important than knowledge,
she’ll downplay her mediocre grades and overemphasize her taste in fashion. This method protects her
self-esteem temporarily but it shifts her self-esteem, to a different domain from what the general culture or
economy expects.
Self-Discrepancy Theory: An athletic and outspoken girl feels pressure to conform to feminine
expectations from her parents. Her actual self and ought self are in conflict and her sense of self-esteem
is weakened.
(4) If teen magazines used more real-life images of women rather than supermodels, then girls would
have a more realistic comparison base when they reflect on their body images. A lower of attractive
standards in models might boost girls’ self-esteem. A more radical approach would be to replace teen
magazines with literary and scientific journals for young adults. Self-esteem rested on physical
appearance is too easily crushed in any case.
101. Which of the following is characteristic of action research?
A. Variables are tightly controlled
B. Results are generalizable
C. Data are usually qualitative
D. Results demonstrate cause-and-effect relationships
102. If a researcher is studying the effect of using laptops in his classroom to
ascertain their merit and worth, he is likely conducting which of the
following types of research?
A. Experimental
B. Applied
C. Basic
D. Evaluation
103. Exploratory research addresses which of the following types of
question?
A. If
B. How
C. Why
D. What
104. Which of the following is not the source for getting information for
exploratory research?
A. Content analysis
B. Survey
C. Case study
D. Pilot study
105. Which of the following is the main quality of a good theory?
A. A theory that has survived attempts at falsification
B. A theory that is proven to be right
C. A theory that has been disproved
D. A theory that has been falsified
106. Which of the following is not a concept?
A. Leadership
B. Total Quality Management
C. Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
D. Human Resource Management
107. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is
known as:
A. Discontinuous variable
B. Dependent variable
C. Independent variable
D. Intervening variable
108. Which of the following is the opposite of a variable?
A. An extraneous variable
B. A dependent variable
C. A data set
D. A constant
109. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical
variable?
A. Age
B. Annual income
C. Grade point average
D. Religion
110. “Income distribution of employees” in a specific organization is an
example of which of following type of variable?
A. Discontinuous variable
B. Continuous variable
C. Dependent variable
D. Independent variable
111. “There is no relationship between higher motivation level and higher
efficiency” is an example of which type of hypothesis?
A. Alternative
B. Null
C. Co relational
D. Research
112. Which of the following is not a role of hypothesis?
A. Guides the direction of the study
B. Determine feasibility of conducting the study
C. Identifies relevant and irrelevant facts
D. Provides framework for organizing the conclusions
113. Hypothesis test may also be called as:
A. Informal test
B. Significance test
C. Moderating test
D. T-test
114. Which type of review compares how different theories address an issue?
A. Context review
B. Integrated review
C. Theoretical review
D. Methodological review
115. After you locate a source, you should write down all details of the
reference, EXCEPT;
A. Volumes
B. Titles
C. Price
D. Full names of the authors
Shared and compiled by

Erum Rana [email protected]
51. When there is a need to apply different data collection methods to different parts of
the population, the best sampling method would be
i. Double sampling
ii. Cluster sampling
iii. Stratified random sampling
iv. Systematic random sampling
52. The sampling technique in which every element of the population has an equal, nonzero
probability of being selected in a sample, is called
i. Probability sampling
ii. Convenience sampling
iii. Purposive sampling
iv. Quota sampling
53. Target population is also called
i. Population
ii. Survey population
iii. Population element
iv. Population frame
54. Which one of them is the method for probing the respondent?
i. Repeat the question
ii. Give an expectant pause
iii. Repeat the respondent’s reply
iv. All of the given options
Note: The correct options are highlighted in blue.
55. Which one of the following sets is the measure of central tendency?
a. Mean, standard deviation, mode
b. Mean, median, standard deviation
c. Arithmetic mean, median, mode
d. Standard deviation, internal validity, mode
85. In ___________, the researcher attempts to control and/ or manipulate the variables in
the study.
1. Experiment
2. Hypothesis
3. Theoretical framework
4. Research design
86. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect
produced by the ____.
1. Dependent variable
2. Extraneous variable
3. Independent variable
4. Confounding variable
87. A measure is reliable if it provides consistent ___________.
1. Hypothesis
2. Results
3. Procedure
4. Sensitivity
88. The interview in which questions are already prepared is called ________.
1. Telephonic interview
2. Personal interview
3. Unstructured interview
4. Structured interview
89. The numerical description that describe sample may be expected to differ from those
that describe population because of random fluctuations inherent in sampling process.
1. Sampling design
2. Non-probability sampling
3. Sampling error
4. Probability sampling
90. In ______________ , each population element has a known and equal chance of
selection.
1. Purposive sampling
2. Quota sampling
3. Stratified sampling
4. Simple random sampling
91. ______ is the evidence that the instrument, techniques, or process used to measure
concept does indeed measure the intended concepts.
1. Reliability
2. Replicability
3. Scaling
4. Validity
92. A researcher is interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She
interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are
considered as:
1. Primary sources
2. Secondary Sources
3. External critics
4. Internal critics
93. Which of the following is NOT true about stratified random sampling?
1. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
2. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population
proportions
94. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large
enough subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
4. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
95. Experimental design is the only appropriate design where_________ relationship can
be established.
1. Strong
2. Linear
3. Weak
4. Cause and Effect
96. Rationalism is the application of which of the following?
A. Logic and arguments
B. Research solution
C. Reasoning
D. Previous findings
97 On which of the following, scientific knowledge mostly relies?
A. Logical understanding
B. Identification of events
C. Prior knowledge
D. All of the given options (MH,vuZs)
98. Which of the following refers to research supported by measurable
evidence?
A. Opinion
B. Empiricism
C. Speculation
D. Rationalism
99. Research method is applicable in all of the following fields, EXCEPT;
A. Health care
B. Religion
C. Business
D. Government offices
100. All of the following are true statements about action research, EXCEPT;
A. Data are systematically analyzed
B. Data are collected systematically
C. Results are generalizable
D. Results are used to improve practice

56-In lab experiment the effect of Variables is controlled to evaluate the causal relationship.
a. Extraneous
b. Moderate
c. Intervening
d. All of the above
57-Internal validity refers to .
a. Researcher’s degree of confidence.

b. Generalizability
c. Operationalization
d. All of the above
58-Which of the following is the weakest experimental design?
a. One group pretest-posttest design

b. Quasi- experimental design
c. Two group posttest only design
d. Ex post facto design
59-How many times the students appear in the research class is the example of _________.
a. Intensity
b. Space
c. Frequency
d. Direction
60-Disadvantage of content analysis is .
a. Researcher can increase the sample size

b. Provides access on the subjects to which researcher does have physical access.
c. Sometime documents provide incomplete account to the researcher
d. Spontaneous feelings can be recorded when they occurred
61-. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to “An experimental design is a
set of procedures specifying:”
a. How the test units (subjects) are to be divided into homogenous sub samples.
b. What independent variables or treatments are to be measured?
c. What dependent variables are to be measured?
d. How the extraneous variables are to be controlled?
62-. Time consumed in mall intercept interview is .

a. High
b. Moderate
c. Low
d. Nil
63-. “Teacher should create a friendly environment in the classroom” this is the type of .
a. Leading question
b. Loaded question
c. Double Barreled
d. Burdensome question
64-. Departmental stores selected to test a new merchandising display system is the example
of .
a. Quota sampling
c. Judgmental sampling
65-Discrete variable is also called……….
1.
A. Categorical variable
B. Discontinuous variable
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
66“Officers in my organization have higher than average level of commitment”

Such a hypothesis is an example of……….
A. Descriptive Hypothesis
B. Directional Hypothesis
C. Relational Hypothesis
D. All of the above
67-‘Science’ refers to……….

A. A system for producing knowledge
B. The knowledge produced by a system
C. Both A & B
68-Which one of the following is not a characteristic of scientific method?
1.
A. Deterministic
B. Rationalism
C. Empirical
D. Abstraction
69-The theoretical framework discusses the interrelationships among the……….

A. Variables
B. Hypothesis
C. Concept
D. Theory
70-………research is based on naturalism.
1.
A. Field research
B. Descriptive research
C. Basic research
D. Applied research
71-Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are known as………
1.
A. Mall interviews
B. Mall intercept interviews
C. Brief interviews
D. None of the given options
72-……… is used to obtain the freest opinion of the respondent, by asking general question
before a specific question.
1.
A. Research technique
B. Qualitative technique
C. Funnel technique
D. Quantitative technique
73-In, ……… the interviewer and members jointly control the pace and direction of the
interview.
M. Field interview
N. Telephonic interview
O. Both A and B
P. None of the given options
74-Randomization of test units is a part of ………
1.
A. Pretest
B. Posttest
C. Matching
D. Experiment
75. ___________research is based on naturalism.

A. Field research
C. Basic research
D. Applied research
76. Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are known as_________
A. Mall interviews
C. Brief interviews
77. ____________is used to obtain the freest opinion of the respondent, by asking
general question before a specific question.
C. Funnel technique
78. In, ____________the interviewer and members jointly control the pace and
direction of the interview.
A. Field interview
B. Telephonic interview
C. Both A and B
79. Randomization of test units is a part of ______________
A. Pretest
B. Posttest
C. Matching
D. Experiment
81. Internal validity refers to .
b. Generalizability
d. All of the above
82. How many times the students appear in the research class is the example of
_________.
a. Intensity
b. Space
c. Frequency
d. Direction
83. Time consumed in mall intercept interview is .
a. High
b. Moderate
c. Low
d. Nil
84. Departmental stores selected to test a new merchandising display system is
the example of .
a. Quota sampling

16-Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are known as:
A. Mall interviews
C. Brief interviews
17-WATS lines provided by long distance telephone service at fixed rates. In this regard, WATS is the
abbreviation of:
E. West Africa Theological Seminary
F. Washtenaw Area Transportation Study
G. Wide Area Telecommunications Service
H. World Air Transport Statistics
18-A list of questions which is handed over to the respondent, who reads the questions and
records the answers himself is known as the:
I. Interview schedule
J. Questionnaire
K. Interview guide
L. All of the given options
19-One of the most critical stages in the survey research process is:
M. Research design
N. Questionnaire design
O. Interview design
P. Survey design
20-Question that consists of two or more questions joined together is called a:
Q. Double barreled question
R. General question
S. Accurate question
T. Confusing question
21-The number of questionnaires returned or completed divided by the total number of eligible people
who were contacted or asked to participate in the survey is called the:
U. Response rate
V. Participation rate
W. Inflation rate
X. None of the given options
22-To obtain the freest opinion of the respondent, when we ask general question before a specific
question then this procedure is called as the:
Y. Research technique
Z. Qualitative technique
AA. Funnel technique
BB. Quantitative technique
23-A small scale trial run of a particular component is known as:
CC. Pilot testing
DD. Pre-testing
EE. Lab experiments
FF.Both A & B
24-Field testing of the questionnaire shows that:
GG. Respondents are willing to co-operate
HH. Respondents are not willing to co-operate
II. Respondents do not like any participation
JJ. All of the given options
25- Service evaluation of hotels and restaurants can be done by the:
KK. Self-administered questionnaires
LL. Office assistant
MM. Manager
NN. None of the given options
26. ___________research is based on naturalism.
A. Field research
C. Basic research
D. Applied research
27- Personal interviews conducted in shopping malls are known as_________
A. Mall interviews
C. Brief interviews
28. ____________is used to obtain the freest opinion of the respondent, by asking
general question before a specific question.
C. Funnel technique
29. In, ____________the interviewer and members jointly control the pace and
direction of the interview.
A. Field interview
B. Telephonic interview
C. Both A and B
30. Randomization of test units is a part of ______________
A. Pretest
B. Posttest
C. Matching
D. Experiment
32. Internal validity refers to .
b. Generalizability
d. All of the above
33. How many times the students appear in the research class is the example of
_________.
a. Intensity
b. Space
c. Frequency
d. Direction
34. Time consumed in mall intercept interview is .
a. High
b. Moderate
c. Low
d. Nil
35. Departmental stores selected to test a new merchandising display system is
the example of .
a. Quota sampling
36. In ___________, the researcher attempts to control and/ or manipulate the variables in
the study.
1. Experiment
2. Hypothesis
3. Theoretical framework
4. Research design
36. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect
produced by the ____.
1. Dependent variable
2. Extraneous variable
37. Independent variable
4. Confounding variable
3. A measure is reliable if it provides consistent ___________.
1. Hypothesis
2. Results
3. Procedure
4. Sensitivity
38. The interview in which questions are already prepared is called ________.
1. Telephonic interview
2. Personal interview
3. Unstructured interview
4. Structured interview
39. The numerical description that describe sample may be expected to differ from those
that describe population because of random fluctuations inherent in sampling process.
1. Sampling design
2. Non-probability sampling
3. Sampling error
4. Probability sampling
40. In ______________ , each population element has a known and equal chance of
selection.
1. Purposive sampling
2. Quota sampling
3. Stratified sampling
4. Simple random sampling
41. ______ is the evidence that the instrument, techniques, or process used to measure
concept does indeed measure the intended concepts.
1. Reliability
2. Replicability
3. Scaling
4. Validity
42. A researcher is interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She
interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are
considered as:
1. Primary sources
2. Secondary Sources
3. External critics
4. Internal critics
42. Which of the following is NOT true about stratified random sampling?
1. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
2. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population
proportions
3. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large
enough subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
4. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample
43. Experimental design is the only appropriate design where_________ relationship can
be established.
1. Strong
2. Linear
3. Weak
4. Cause and Effect
45. All the persons involved in the collection of data and supervision of data collection
process are called
i. Fieldworkers
ii. Researchers
iii. Research assistants
iv. None of the given options
46. While terminating the interview, the fieldworker should not do one of the following:
i. He should record all the responses made by the interviewee before leaving.
ii. He should thank the interviewee.
iii. He should close the interview hastily.
iv. He should answer all the questions the respondent asks concerning the nature
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 The Collection
 Answers
 Africas
 Air Transport
 Arithmetic
 Assistant Office
 Basic Research
 Blog
 Online Quiz
 Quizzes
 The Collection
 Answers
 Africas
 Air Transport
 Arithmetic
and purpose of the study.
47. Which one of these is a type of Interviewee bias?
i. The respondent does not tell his true income, age, or contact information.
ii. The fieldworker fails to probe the interviewee properly.
iii. The fieldworker contacted the wrong person for interview.
iv. The fieldworker asks the questions in wrong order.
48. A magazine conducts a survey and asks its readers to cut the questionnaire from the
magazine, fill it and send it via mail. It is a type of
i. Purposive sampling
ii. Snowball sampling
iii. Sequential sampling
iv. Convenience sampling
49. The height distribution of a few students in a school is an example of
i. Statistic
ii. Population
iii. Parameter
iv. Element
50. A researcher wants to conduct a survey of the drug users. Which type of sampling
technique will be most appropriate here?
i. Sequential sampling
ii. Snowball sampling
iii. Quota sampling
iv. Convenience sampling

http://www.vuzs.info/
Select the most suitable option.

1. Which is not a source of existing statistics?
A. Government
B. International agencies
C. Personal interviews
D. Private sources
2. Followings are the advantages of secondary data except
A. Non-Reactivity
B. Selective survival
C. Low cost
D. Spontaneity
3. Following are the disadvantages of secondary data except
A. Longitudinal analysis
B. Sampling bias
C. Coding difficult
D. Incompleteness
4. The coding of the secondary data may be difficult because of
A. Differences in content or subject matter
B. Lack of standardization
C. Differences in length and format
D. All of these
5. The researcher must be concerned about the following problems while using
secondary data in research.
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Both of these
D. None of these
6- Hypothesis refers to
A. The outcome of an experiment
B. A conclusion drawn from an experiment
C. A form of bias in which the subject tries to outguess the experimenter
D. A tentative statement about the relationship
7- Statistics is used by researchers to
A. Analyze the empirical data collected in a study

B. Make their findings sound better
C. Operationally define their variables
D. Ensure the study comes out the way it was intended
8- A literature review requires
A. Planning
B. Good & clear writing
C. Lot of rewriting
D. All of the above
9- A literature review is based on the assumption that
A. Copy from the work of others
B. Knowledge accumulates and learns from the work of others
C. Knowledge disaccumulates
D. None of the above option
10- A theoretical framework
A. Elaborates the r/s among the variables
B. Explains the logic underlying these r/s
C. Describes the nature and direction of the r/s
D. All of the above
11- Which of the following statement is not true?
A. A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project
B. A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of successfully conducting the
proposed research project
C. A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project
D. A research proposal is just like a research report and written before the research project
12- Preliminary data collection is a part of the
A. Descriptive research
B. Exploratory research
C. Applied research
D. Explanatory research
13- Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating
A. Primary data
B. Secondary data
C. Qualitative data
14- After identifying the important variables and establishing the logical reasoning in
theoretical framework, the next step in the research process is
A. To conduct surveys
B. To generate the hypothesis
C. To focus group discussions
D. To use experiments in an investigation
15- The appropriate analytical technique is determined by
A. The research design
B. Nature of the data collected
C. Nature of the hypothesis
D. Both A & B
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STA630 Research Methods Quiz

MCQs Solved With Ref by vuZs Team
STA630 - Research Methods - Question # 1 of 15

>
Basic
Applied
Evaluation
Grounded theory
Which of the following statements is false?
>
Discrete variables allow measurement of an infinite number of fractions of units of measurement.
Discrete variables can only have whole number values.
Continuous numbers can only have whole number values.
Continuous measures do not allow for scores that fall between two number values.
Which one of the following creates problems of measurements of a concept?
>
Unambiguous meanings
Vague meanings
Clear meanings
Dictionary meanings
Which of the following is not a concept?
>
Leadership
Total Quality Management
Human Resource Management
IQ
What research is?
>
A lab experiment
A report
A systematic Enquiry
A procedure
Which of the following is a concept?
>
Leadership.
When we say that science is parsimonious, we mean that:
>
Scientific theories are based on laws.
We must be careful because causes can occur after specific effects.
The best scientific theories are those that offer the simplest explanations for a law.
Science accurately describes a wide range of behavior.
http://books.google.com/books?id=AUDoy-
lSe_EC&pg=PP1&dq=inauthor:"Donald+H.+McBurney"&ei=7ebZS7ayLqrgkQTYhLmECA&cd=1#v=onep
age&q=science%20is%20parsimonious&f=false

Why, as scientists, do we not want to rely on authority for explanations?
>
Those in authority are often wrong.
Those in authority cannot be challenged.
Those in authority rely too much on objective information.
Those in authority often have no common sense.
The ________ is only useful if the concepts, ideas, STA630 - Research Methods - Questions, etc.
to be investigated are both testable and falsifiable.
>
Independent Variable
Dependent Variable
Experimental Method
Scientific Method
>
D
evising measures of concepts is shown as step 4 in the process of quantitative research (fig. 6.1, p141).
Bryman points out that this step is often referred to as operationalization, in other words the series of
separate steps we will take to make our research work for us. This is very important when we think about
tests of validity of the research. The operational definition is, therefore, the very opposite of abstract,
attempting to phrase the concept so precisely as to make it capable of being tested in the research
context.

_________ meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurements.
>
Unambiguous
Vague
Clear
Dictionary
To say that a theory is falsifiable is to say that;
>
It is based on results that are not replicable.
Investigators have replaced it with a simpler or more accurate theory.
We can imagine results that would contradict it.
It is so vague that it fits any and all possible results.
According to Empiricism, which of the following is the ultimate source of all our concepts and
knowledge?
>
Perceptions
Theory
Sensory experience
Logics and arguments

>
To give your dissertation a proper academic appearance, with lots of references
Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
To find out what is already known about your area of interest
To help in your general studying

>

In ______________ we collect same type of information from different respondents in different times.
>
Cohort study
Time series Research
Panel study
Case studies
(zh,vuzs)
1. A psychologist using the method of naturalistic observation would

a.carefully design controlled situations in which to observe behavior1.
b.rely on observations of subjects' responses to questionnaires.
c.observe behavior as it happens outside the laboratory or clinic.
d.make records of the behavior of clients treated in therapy.
2.In a study of effects of alcohol on driving ability, the control group should be
given
a.a high dosage of alcohol.
b.one-half the dosage given the experimental group.
c.a driving test before and after drinking alcohol.
d.no alcohol at all.
3. A scientific explanation that remains tentative until it has been adequately
tested is called a(n)
a.theory.
b.law.
c.hypothesis.
d.experiment.
4. A study to determine the degree of relationship between two events is called

a.naturalistic observation.
b.the correlational method.
c.a controlled experiment.
d.the survey method.
5. __________ is an ability to evaluate, compare, analyze, critique, and synthesize

information.
a.Critical thinking
b.Transductive thinking
c.Deductive thinking
d.Creative thinking
6. The phrase "a theory must also be falsifiable" means

a.researchers misrepresent their data.
b.a theory must be defined so it can be disconfirmed.
c.theories are a rich array of observations regarding behavior but with few facts to
support them.
d.nothing.
7. The products of naturalistic observation are best described in terms of

a.explanation.
b.theory.
c.prediction.
d.description.
8. A teacher believes that one group of children is very bright and that a second
is below average in ability. Actually, the groups are identical, but the first group
progresses more rapidly than the second. This demonstrates
a.the self-fulfilling prophecy.
b.the placebo effect in a natural experiment.
c.observer bias in naturalistic observation.
d.the ethical problems of field experiments.
9. A psychologist observes the confrontation between two rival neighborhood

gangs from the window of an abandoned building. This method of collecting
observations is best described as
a.experimental regression.
b.naturalistic observation.
c.controlled experimentation.
d.clinical case study.
10. In an experiment to find out if taking ginseng increases IQ scores, the IQ

scores would be
a.the independent variable.
b.a control variable.
c.an extraneous variable.
d.the dependent variable.
11. Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of naturalistic

observation?
a.It provides an overabundance of information.
b.It deals with behavior not tampered with by outside influences.
c.It limits biased observations through careful record keeping.
d.It does not identify the cause of observed behavior.
12. Subjects are said to be assigned randomly when

a.they are assigned to experimental and control groups from a sample which is
representative of the larger population.
b.they each have an equal chance of being assigned to either the experimental or
control group.
c.they are assigned to experimental and control groups so that the groups differ on
some critical variable before the experiment begins.
d.neither the experimenter nor the subject knows whether the subject is in the
experimental or control group.
13. A psychologist watches the rapid eye movements of sleeping subjects and
wakes them to find they report that they were dreaming. She concludes that
dreams are linked to rapid eye movements. This conclusion is based on
a.pure speculation.
b.direct observation.
c.deduction from direct observation.
d.prior prediction.
14. To prevent ethical abuse in psychological research, the APA has suggested
that
a.psychologists must treat all subjects with respect and concern for the subject's
dignity.
b.psychologists must avoid deception with using human subjects.
c.all data collected from a person must be made public.
d.all psychological harm to subjects must be corrected by counseling.
15. A common method for selecting representative samples is to select them

a.randomly from the larger population.
b.strictly from volunteers.
c.by threatening or coercing institutionalized populations.
d.from confidential lists of mail order firms.
16. Three major ethical concerns of psychological researchers are deception, lasting
harm to subjects, and
a.morality of the question under investigation.
b.loss of future research possibilities.
c.falsified results.
d.invasion of privacy.
17. An experimenter conducts an experiment on the effects of a drug to control

hallucinations. He declares the results to be "statistically significant," which
usually means that
a.even though appropriate statistics were used, no differences could be detected
between experimental and control groups.
b.the results have important implications for theory or practice.
c.differences between experimental and control groups of this size occur by chance only
5 times out of 100 (or less).
d.differences between experimental and control groups were so large they could never
occur by chance alone.
18. We wish to test the hypothesis that music improves learning. We compare
test scores of students who study to music with those who study in silence.
Which of the following is an extraneous variable in this experiment?
a.the presence or absence of music
b.the students' test scores
c.the amount of time allowed for the studying
d.silence
19. The statistical technique that combines results of a large number of studies is
called
a.experimental correlation.
b.statistical linear analysist.
c.meta-analysis.
d.hypothetical analysis.
20. An experiment is performed to see if background music improves learning.

Two groups study the same material, one while listening to music and another
without music. The independent variable is
a.learning.
b.the size of the group.
c.the material studied.
d.music.
21 The chief function of the control group in an experiment is that it

a. allows mathematical relationships to be established.
b. provides a point of reference against which the behavior of the experimental group
can be compared.
c. balances the experiment to eliminate all extraneous variables.
d.is not really necessary.
22. Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the strongest
relationship between two sets of variables?
a.-0.98
b. 0.90
c. 0.00
d. 1.20
23. The most powerful research tool is a (an)

a.clinical study.
b.experiment.
c.survey.
d.correlational study.
ANSWER: B
24. A major disadvantage of the experimental method is that

a.private funding can never be obtained.
b.APA Ethical Review Committees often do not approve of the research techniques.
c.there is a certain amount of artificiality attached to it.
d.subjects are difficult to find for research projects.
ANSWER: C
25. A researcher determines that the crime rate in a large city fluctuates with the
phases of the moon. He concludes that the gravitational pull of the moon
influences human behavior. He has committed what error?
a.He incorrectly inferred correlation from causation.
b.He incorrectly inferred causation from correlation.
c.He failed to measure the gravitational pull to test his hypothesis.
d.He has overlooked the placebo effect.
ANSWER: B
26. Students who do better in high school tend to do better in college. This is an
example of
a.a negative correlation.
b.a zero correlation.
c.a positive correlation.
d.a perfect correlation.
ANSWER: C
27. In the traditional learning experiment, the effect of practice on performance is

investigated. Performance is the __________ variable.
a.independent
b.extraneous
c.dependent
d.control
ANSWER: C
28. Collection of observable evidence, precise definition, and replication of

results all form the basis for
a.scientific observation.
b.the scientific method.
c.defining a scientific problem.
d.hypothesis generation.
ANSWER: B
29. An advantage of the experimental method in psychology is

a.the identification of a cause- and-effect relationship.
b.similar to the correlational method in that causality is determined.
c.that the surroundings are always similar to real life experiences.
d.that it is an informal way to investigate behavior.
ANSWER: A
30.A correlation coefficient of 0 means that there is

a.a strong negative relationship between the two variables.
b.a strong positive relationship between the two variables.
c.a perfect positive relationship between the two variables.
d.no relationship between the two variables.
ANSWER: D
The independent variable in an experiment is
Answer: the variable that the experimenter chooses to manipulate.
In order to summarize or organize a series of observations in some meaningful way,

psychologists may develop
Answer: theories.
Basic ethical guidelines for psychological researchers include

Answer: providing results and interpretations to participants.
What best describes a double-blind experimental procedure?

Answer: Half the subjects get the experimental procedure, half the placebo; which they receive is not
known to subjects or experimenters.
A set of exact procedures that represent particular variables is called a(n)

Answer: operational definition.
A friend states that since he has been taking vitamin C, he has not had a single cold. His
observation has little value in assessing the effects of vitamin C because
Answer: there was no control group for comparison.
A simple experiment has two groups of subjects called

Answer: the control group and the experimental group.
An example of the "experimenter effect" would be a situation in which the experimenter

Answer: unknowingly hints to subjects what is expected of them.
Which of the following is considered by the text to be a pseudo-psychology?

Answer: astrology
To investigate the effects of a particular study method on student performance, two different
methods are tried, each with a different group of subjects. If only the experimenter knows which
method is under investigation, the procedure being used is described as
Answer: a single blind.
The results of carefully controlled observations of Clever Hans and his ability to solve math
problems showed
Answer: he was cued by the owner looking up or down.
The study of unusual events is to __________ as information from a large number of people is to
__________.
Answer: clinical method; survey method
One of the limitations of the survey method is

Answer: that replies may not be accurate.
I work at a university, and my research is designed to be of immediate use in the classroom. My

research would be called
Answer: applied.
In terms of critical thinking and testing, results should be

Answer: metaanalytical.
A variable, such as the personality of a subject, that might affect the outcome of an experiment
would be controlled by
Answer: random assignment of subjects.
In my experiment, I am going to investigate how sleep affects anxiety. The number of hours of
sleep the subjects have is called the __________ variable.
Answer: independent
With respect to astrology, palmistry, and phrenology, it can be said that

Answer: all are pseudo-psychology's.
A major problem with the survey method is

Answer: obtaining a representative sample of subjects to be questioned.
An observation that the higher the air temperature, the lower the activity of test animals would be
an example of a
Answer: negative correlation.
To assess clients' abilities, a phrenologist would want to

Answer: examine their skulls.
To replicate an experiment means to

Answer: repeat the experiment using either identical or improved research methods.
The conditions that a researcher wishes to prevent from affecting the experiment are called
Answer: extraneous variables.
One of the characteristics of the scientific method is

Answer: repeatable results.
In the simplest experiment, the two groups of subjects are treated exactly alike except for the
__________ variable.
Answer: independent
The steps involved in the scientific method include?

Answer: experimentation
__________ is an inherent part of the scientific method.

Answer: observation
The story of Clever Hans, the mathematical horse, illustrates the use of controlled observation to
test a series of
Answer: hypotheses.
When subjects in an experiment are chosen so that each has an equal chance of being in either
the experimental group or the control group, we say that the subjects have been assigned
Answer: randomly.
The survey method involves

Answer: careful questioning of a representative sample of people.
What type of method can be used in order to create a real world laboratory.
Answer: field experiment
To be confident that a cause-and-effect relationship exists, it is necessary to

Answer: perform a controlled experiment.
An experiment is performed to test the effects of sleep deprivation on rote memory. In this
experiment, the dependent variable is the
Answer: rote memory scores.
The fortune teller who studies your palm carefully before announcing that "great fortune lies in
your immediate future" is practicing __________ psychology.
Answer: pseudo
Research on the benefit of aspirin to prevent heart attacks used only male subjects in the sample.
Both men and women are given this advice. The problem with this recommendation reflects
Answer: gender bias.
To estimate the degree of the relationship between birth order and achievement motivation, a
researcher would do a(n) __________ study.
Answer: correlational
In the method of naturalistic observation, psychologists

Answer: set out to actively observe subjects in their natural environments.
Two variables may be said to be causally related if

Answer: all extraneous variables are controlled, and the independent variable creates consistent
differences in behavior of the experimental group.
The problems of observers seeing only what they expect to see is called
Answer: observer bias.
Giving placebos in drug experiments is necessary to

Answer: control for the effects of suggestion and expectation.
The following could serve as an _______ "College women who are anxious tend to want to be
together."
Answer: experimental hypothesis
Theories explain results, predict future outcomes, and

Answer: guide research for future studies.
A correlation coefficient of -1.09 indicates a(n)

Answer: error in computation.
A representative sample is an essential element of the

Answer: survey method.
The effects of brain injury on personality would usually be investigated by the use of the
Answer: case study method.
One of the limitations of the case study is that

Answer: there are no control groups.
A scientist wants to find out if there is empirical evidence for a relationship between caffeine
and aggressive behavior. She would
Answer: test the idea by conducting an experiment.
The essence of the experimental method is

Answer: using control to identify cause-and-effect connections.
If you're trying to establish a causal relationship between a reinforcer and increased performance,
you should use a(n) __________ method.
Answer: experimental
In a weight-reduction experiment, an overweight individual was given what the researcher called a
new type of diet pill that would help curb the desire to eat. In fact, the pill really contained
powdered milk, but ever since the individual started taking the diet pill, he has reported that his
desire to eat has decreased. This illustrates the
Answer: placebo effect.
An educated guess about what is controlling some behavior is called

Answer: a hypothesis.
A correlation coefficient is best characterized as a(n)

Answer: measure of the extent of the relationship between two variables.
In order to determine the cause of behavior, the questions we ask must be

Answer: testable.
A common sense approach to psychology is

Answer: often contradicted by empirical evidence.
Responding to a substance like a sugar pill as if it were a drug is called

Answer: the placebo effect.
The control group and the experimental group in an experiment are treated exactly the same
except for the
Answer: independent variable
A field experiment is one that

Answer: uses the "real world" as a laboratory.
Characteristics of the scientific method include

Answer: controlled observation.
A correlational study is one that determines

Answer: the relationship between two events
61.
The following type of method can be used in order to create a real world laboratory.
a.correlational coefficients
b.field experiment
c.ok
case study
d.random assignment
ANSWER: B
62.
To be confident that a cause-and-effect relationship exists, it is necessary to

a.engage in naturalistic observation.
b.develop a positive correlation.
c.perform a controlled experiment.
d.test for a negative correlation.
ANSWER: C
63.
An experiment is performed to test the effects of sleep deprivation on rote memory. In this ex
periment, the dependent variable is the
a.number of hours subjects go without sleep.
b.rote memory scores.
c.number of subjects deprived of sleep in the experimental group.
d.correlation between hours of sleep and fatigue.
ANSWER: B
64.
The fortune teller who studies your palm carefully before announcing that "great fortune lies
in your immediate future" is practicing __________ psychology.
a.applied
b.commonsense
c.pseudo-
d.forensic
ANSWER: C
65.
Research on the benefit of aspirin to prevent heart attacks used only male subjects in the sam
ple. Both men and women are given this advice. The problem with this recommendation reflects
a.gender bias.
b.courtesy bias.
c.cultural bias.
d.age bias.
ANSWER: A
66.1
To estimate the degree of the relationship between birth order and achievement motivation, a r
esearcher would do a(n) __________ study.
a.naturalistic
b.inventory
c.correlational
d.experimental
ANSWER: C
67.
In the method of naturalistic observation, psychologists

a.haphazardly encounter behavior as it naturally occurs.
b.set up controlled experiments by which they uncover causal elements in behavior.
c.set out to actively observe subjects in their natural environments.
d.interview subjects at different ages.
ANSWER: C
68.
Two variables may be said to be causally related if

a.they show a strong positive correlation.
b.all extraneous variables are controlled, and the independent variable creates consistent dif
ferences in behavior of the experimental group.
c.they are observed to co-vary on many separate occasions.
d.they have been observed in a laboratory setting.
ANSWER: B
69.
The problems of observers seeing only what they expect to see is called
a.observer bias.
b.the experimenter effect.
c.the effects of the observer.
d.the halo effect.
ANSWER: A
70.
Giving placebos in drug experiments is necessary to

a.counteract the random assignment of subjects.
b.counteract the side effects of the drug.
c.control for the effects of suggestion and expectation.
d.keep control subjects from knowing they have been given the drug.
ANSWER: C
71.
Which of the following could serve as an experimental hypothesis?

a.Although 25% of U.S. drivers say that they use the seatbelts in their cars, only 14% really
do.
b.A case history of multiple personality appeared to be caused by traumatic childhood experien
ces.
c.College women who are anxious tend to want to be together.
d.As the temperature increases, the number of hit batters in baseball increases.
ANSWER:C
72. Theories explain results, predict future outcomes, and
a.rely only on naturalistic observations.
b.guide research for future studies.
c.rely only on surveys.
d.rely only on case studies.
ANSWER: B
73. Which of the following coefficients of correlation indicates the weakest relationship bet
ween two sets of variables?
a.0.08
b.-0.29
c.0.48
d.-1.00
ANSWER: A
74. A correlation coefficient of -1.09 indicates a(n)

a.strong positive correlation.
b.strong negative correlation.
c.cause/effect relationship.
d.error in computation.
ANSWER: D
75. A representative sample is an essential element of the

a.survey method.
b.psychoanalytic method.
c.natural experiment or case study.
d.clinical method.
76. The effects of brain injury on personality would usually be investigated by the use of th
e
a.experimental method.
b.case study method.
c.naturalistic observation method.
d.survey method.
ANSWER: B
77. One of the limitations of the case study is that

a.there are few subjects for which it is applicable.
b.there are no control groups.
c.it is not applicable to the study of bizarre behavior.
d.it requires a large and expensive sample size.
ANSWER: B
78. A scientist wants to find out if there is empirical evidence for a relationship between c
affeine and aggressive behavior. She would
a.interview people to get their opinions.
b.correlate newspaper accounts and the types of beverages consumed.
c.test the idea by conducting an experiment.
d.research what other experts had thought.
ANSWER: C
79. The essence of the experimental method is

a.accurate calculation of correlation's.
b.obtaining direct reports from subjects about their subjective experiences.
c.careful measurement and record keeping.
d.using control to identify cause-and-effect connections.
ANSWER: D
80. If you're trying to establish a causal relationship between a reinforcer and increased pe
rformance, you should use a(n) __________ method.
a.clinical study
b.experimental
c.survey
d.correlational
ANSWER: B
81.
In a weight-reduction experiment, an overweight individual was given what the researcher calle
d a new type of diet pill that would help curb the desire to eat. In fact, the pill really con
tained powdered milk, but ever since the individual started taking the diet pill, he has repor
ted that his desire to eat has decreased. This illustrates the
a.
curvilinear relationship.
b.
effect of extraneous variables.
c.
natural experiment.
d.
placebo effect.
ANSWER: D
82.
An educated guess about what is controlling some behavior is called

a.
experimental control.
b.
a hypothesis.
c.
an experimental variable.
d.
a theory.
ANSWER: B
83.
A correlation coefficient is best characterized as a(n)

a.
measure of the extent of the relationship between two variables.
b.
index of the causal direction between an independent and dependent variable.
c.
indication of the likelihood that an experimental finding will be replicated by others.
d.
measure of the likelihood that observed differences may be attributed to chance.
ANSWER: A
84. In order to determine the cause of behavior, the questions we ask must be
a.
tentative.
b.
testable.
c.
based on theory.
d.
novel.
ANSWER: B
85.
A common sense approach to psychology is

a.
the most reliable.
b.
often contradicted by empirical evidence.
c.
the basis for most psychological theories.
d.
the basis for collecting data (observed facts).
ANSWER: B
86.
Responding to a substance like a sugar pill as if it were a drug is called

a.
the placebo effect.
b.
an extraneous factor.
c.
variability.
d.
psychosomatic illness.
ANSWER: A
87.
The control group and the experimental group in an experiment are treated exactly the same exc
ept for the
a.
dependent variable.
b.
independent variable.
c.
extraneous variables.
d.
replication variables.
ANSWER: B
88.
A field experiment is one that

a.
uses the "real world" as a laboratory.
b.
tests a field or "range" of independent variables.
c.
differs little from naturalistic observation.
d.
requires no measurement of dependent variables.
ANSWER: A
89.
Characteristics of the scientific method include

a.
anecdotal definition.
b.
controlled observation.
c.
analysis formulation.
d.
adherence to inductive thinking or common sense reasoning.
ANSWER: B
90.
A correlational study is one that determines

a.
the relationship between the independent and the dependent variable.
b.
the effects of the observer on the observed.
c.
cause-effect relationships.
d.
the relationship between two events.
ANSWER: D

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STA630- Research Methods

Which of the following is NOT a longitudinal study?

A census taker often collects data through which of the following?

What is opposite of a variable?

A literature review requires;

When we say that science is parsimonious, we mean that:

Scientific theories are based on laws.

Which term technically describes a situation in which an observer's work in a

Testing is most likely to negatively affect internal validity when_______.

The information tested is attitudinal in nature

A researcher is interested in nonverbal behavior among young adults. The

Which of the following is included in research proposal?

“Skepticism” is a norm of science. It is better explained by which of the following

Combining the previous knowledge

Which type of research address major societal change?

The person who leads a focus group discussion is called a __________.

Categorical measures are forms of measurement classified as:

Measures that reflect quantitative differences.

Measures that do not require mutual exclusivity or exhaustiveness when devising a

If variables a and b are highly correlated, then

there is a strong relationship between a and b

Which of the following is an excellent way to enhance the validity of

Spend an extended period of time in the field.

Which of the following is a measure in which a researcher adds

Which type of research address major societal change?

In which of the following sampling methods People are available such as

Simple random sampling

Which of the following can be referred as semantic analysis?

Which of the following is a measure of inflation?

Which of the following is newer method of survey?

1. Analysis of covariance is:

a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific

2. To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems, a

a. The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problems

3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for

5. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school

6. Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect?

8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?

10. Counterbalancing is _________.

16. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?

17. A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design.

22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes

25. A factorial design is one in which ____.

27. _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable.

3. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?

4. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.

8. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.

9. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?

11. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.

13. You should double space all material in the manuscript.

15. The Introduction section should not be labeled.

16. The abstract should be about how many words?

17. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.

20. References should be single spaced.

21. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.

5. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?

6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.

7. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?