M13 CAD Study Guide: Radio

(updated by AETT 12)

(version 1.2)

Both amplitude modulated (a.m.) and frequency modulated (f.m.) carriers are commonly used for airborne systems.

Approximate bands for microwave frequencies

Letter designation Frequency range (GHz)
L 1-3
S 2.5-4
C 3.5-7.5
X 6-12.5
K 12.5-40
Q 33-50

Airborne radio frequency utilization

System Frequency band
Omega 10-14 kHz
Decca 70-130 kHz
Loran C 100 kHz
ADF 200-1700 kHz
h.f. comm. 2-30 MHz
Marker 75 MHz
ILS (Localizer) 108-112 MHz
VOR 108-118 MHz
v.h.f. comm. 118-135.975 MHz
ILS (Glideslope) 320-340 MHz
DME 960-1215 MHz
SSR (ATC) 1030 (interrogation)and 1090 MHz (reply)
Radio altimeter 4.2-4.4GHz
Weather radar (C) 5.5 GHz
Doppler (X) 8.8 GHz
Weather radar (X) 9.4 GHz
Doppler (K) 13.3 GHz

SATCOM L-band (Aircraft – Satellite); C-band (Satellite-Ground station)

ELT 121.5 MHz (VHF) and 243.0 MHz (UHF) 406 MHz (satellite)
ACARS 131.550MHz (VHF)
ULB 37.5 kHz (pulsed once per second)
1) Aircraft installation delay(AID)
a) Time delay between the transmit and receive in the feeder line*
b) Time delay between transmitter and receiver when ground is connected to feeder
[Feeder line: between transmitter and receiver. AID: feeder line with respect to the height above ground  p197]
2) Waveguide aerial pressurization
a) [normal, ambient]
b) cabin pressure* [if wave guide is connected to weather radar.]
c) near vacuum
3) Half wave dipole…
a) All direction
b) Along the dipole
c) Right angle to the dipole
4) Vertical wave produced by
a) vertical dipole
b) horizontal dipole
c) horizontal unipole*
5) Vertical whip antenna
a) highly directional*
b) polarization in perpendicular
c) non-directional
[The antenna can take various forms: whip, blade or suppressed. Whip antenna is to be found on smaller aircraft and are mounted so as to
receive and transmit vertically polarized waves.]
[Being vertically mounted causes the whip antenna to have vertical polarization. Whips are thought of as omnidirectional, because they radiate
equally in all directions in a horizontal plane, although they have a conical blind zone directly above them.]
6) A quarter wave waveguide shorted circuit
a) ….. series …
b) Similar to parallel resonant high Q factor* [high inductance → high Q factor]
c) Similar to parallel resonant low Q factor
[A short-circuited section of transmission line less than a quarter-wave-length long acts as an inductance, the value of the inductive reactance
increasing as the electrical length approaches λ/4]
[An open-circuited section less than a quarter-wave-length long Ideal reactance curve
is a capacitive stub, the value of the capacitive reactance

Inductive
decreasing as the electrical length approaches λ/4]
[Suppose a 300 ohms line is feeding an aerial which presents
reactance to the line. Since the line is mismatched, maximum Q
power transfer is not achieved. However, a point can be found on
the line near the load where the impedance is 300 ohms resistive
with a capacitive component in parallel. A short-circuited
matching stub placed across the line at this point presents an
inductive reactance to the line and this is adjusted so that it
exactly balances the capacitive reactance caused by the
mismatch. The stub inductance and the line capacitance form a O P1 P Frequency

Capacitive
parallel resonant circuit, of very high impedance, which is
effectively in parallel with the load. The load on the transmission
line is thus simply a 300 ohms resistance (i.e. equal to Z0 ) and
the line is correctly terminated.]
7) When aerial resonant frequency is shorter Q1
than signal frequency, the tuning can be
done by adding
a) capacitance*
b) inductance
c) lengthen the aerial electrically
8) Capacitor in aerial
a) will lengthen aerial [by removing capacitor]
b) will shorten aerial* [used for low frequency antenna]
c) no effect
[If it is wished to operate an aerial of length at a frequency represented by OP, the inductive reactance of the aerial, of value PQ, can be
cancelled by inserting in the aerial a capacitor of value P1Q1]
9) Signal input (stand clear or clear of noise?)
a) easily identifiable signal
b) audio warning with no noise
c) signal clear of noise*
10) Lines used in pulse network, length will determine
a) frequency
b) amplitude*
c) no effect
11) To use a section of a transmission line for pulse generation, the length of wire has what effect?
a) reduce frequency (may be)
b) reduce amplitude
c) no effect
[Inductance increase if length increase.]
12) Critical characteristic of antenna
a) method of attachment
b) its length & method of attachment
c) its length, polarization & directivity*
13) Hertz antenna (Electromagnetism, an ungrounded half-wave antenna)
a) is the vertical from of basic Marconi antenna
b) consists of two lengths of wire, each length at half wavelength of radio signal (may be)
c) can change voltage and current from zero to maximum one length of wire
[(Electromagnetism) Marconi antenna system of which the ground is an essential part, as distinguished from a Hertz antenna.]
14) Transmission line… balun
a) RG58A/U loan
b) Balance… unbalance
15) Peaking antenna
a) matching of internal impedance of receiver to the internal impedance of transmitter
b) adjust the length of antenna to match the wavelength*
c) input capacitor in series or parallel to match………….
16) If the scale of the radio enlarge, the resolution
a) increase
b) remain constant
c) decrease*
17) Coaxial cable connect to a antenna
a) Via balun*
b) direct connect
c) via coaxial T-joint

Communication systems

18) Line of sight (L.O.S) =

a) 1.23√H nm*
b) 0.123√H nm
c) 1.23√H km
[The range available can be approximated by 1.23(√hr + √ht)nm]
19) VHF is line of sight because
a) Ground waves cannot be refracted… sky wave*
b) Aerials are directives
c) Range upon the altitude of aircraft
[Communication by v.h.f. is essentially ‘line of sight’ by direct (space) wave.]
[Additionally, frequencies between approximately 1 and 30 MHz, can be reflected by the F1/F2 Layer, thus giving radio transmissions in this
range a potentially global reach, again along multiply deflected straight lines. The effects of multiple diffraction or reflection lead to
macroscopically "quasi-curved paths".
However, at higher frequencies and in lower levels of the atmosphere, neither of these effects apply. Thus any obstruction between the
transmitting antenna and the receiving antenna will block the signal, just like the light that the eye may sense. ]
20) Aircraft at 10000ft, the ground station approximate
a) 120nm*
b) 480nm
c) 900nm
[Line of sight = 1.23√altitude, ft]
[With the ground station at sea level, the approximate maximum range for aircraft at 10000 and 1000ft (30000 and 3000m) would be 123 and
40nm respectively.]
21) Typical VHF radiating conductor impedance
a) 50 ohms (may be)
b) 72 ohms
c) 600 ohms
[Transmitter Power Output: 24-40 W into a 52Ω load at the end of a 5 ft transmission line.]
[Antenna: Vertically polarized and omnidirectional. To match 52 Ω with VSWR ≦1.5:1.]
22) With 50kHz spacing, a VHF communication receiver offer:
a) 360 channels* [with 50kHz spacing]
b) 500 channels
c) 720 channels [with 25kHz spacing]
[A modern set provides 720 channels at 25 kHz spacing between 108 MHz and 135.975 MHz; until recently the spacing was 50 kHz giving
only 360 channels.]
23) In superhetrodryne VHF receiver squelch circuits control
a) Audio volume circuit??
b) Audio frequency amplifier*
c) gain of the I.F. amplifier
[A squelch circuit disables the receiver output when no signals are being received so preventing noise being fed to the crew headsets
between ground transmissions.]
24) Superhetrodyne’s squelch
a) [muting of AF]* [if no input received from detector]
[Audio frequency]
25) VHF, the advantage to I.F. (intermediate frequency) stage is:
a) I.F. is higher frequency than A.F., so more accurate in decoding
b) I.F. is more easy to control by receiver*
[Active devices such as transistors cannot deliver much amplification (gain) without becoming unstable. So a high frequency signal is
converted to a lower IF for processing. Use an IF to convert the different frequencies of the stations to a common frequency for processing.
The main reason for using an IF is to improve frequency selectivity.]
26) To have better pulse shape
a) wide band I.F. + amplifier
b) narrow band I.F. + amplifier*
[The difference frequency from the mixer, 11.4 MHz, is passed by a crystal filter, providing the desired narrow bandpass, to the i.f.
amplifiers.]
27) A.G.C. (Automatic Gain Control) of a receiver circuit
a) Gain increase if not use*
b) Gain decrease if not use [when signal increases]
[The average output signal level is fed back (AGC) to adjust the gain to an appropriate level for a range of input signal levels.]
[For a very weak signal the AGC has no effect; as the signal increases, the AGC reduces the gain]
28) The electrical wave anti-node is a point on the transmission line:
a) the incidence wave is reflected from the mismatch load
b) max voltage or current value when standing wave existed*
c) min. voltage or current value when standing wave existed
[Standard wave has fixed points of zero current and voltage (nodes) and fixed points of maximum current and voltage (anti-nodes).]
29) VSWR is measured by
a) node at standing wave
b) antinode at standing wave
c) max and min of standing wave*
[SWR: Emax / Emin = Imax / Imin]
30) Optimum standing wave ratio
a) less than 2:1*
b) less than 1:2
[In practice a VSWR of 1:1 is difficult to obtain. A VSWR of 2:1 is usually good enough for communication transmitters but a ratio of
1.2:1 or better is expected with radar transmitters.]
31) VSWR of HF antenna
a) > 2:1
b) < 2:1*
c) > 1:2
32) Standing wave forward voltage 10V, reverse voltage 2V, Voltage Standard Wave Ratio is
a) 2.61*
b) 1.22
c) 1.52
[VSWR = (√P F + √P R) / (√P F - √P R)]
33) Two waves with same frequency, no forward & reverse direction
a) pure standing
b) one wave travel
[When the line is perfectly matched there is no standing wave: Emax equals Emin and the SWR is 1:1]
[Standing waves will always occur when travelling energy is reflected.]
34) Two wave of same frequency but different in magnitude travel in forward & reverse direction:
a) purely a standing wave
 b) ... magnitude... max & min loop (may be)
c) ... travel wave
35) Coupler to transmitter, VSWR keep to be at
a) Maximum
b) Minimum*
36) Coupler is designed to match the impedance of transmitter to antenna impedance…
a) SWR max
b) reflected back to transmitter
c) SWR min*
[SWR = standing wave ratio]

37) Balanced modulator of HF SSB TX

a) Eliminate harmonic & carrier
b) Add or Remove the carrier
c) Eliminate carrier…(may be)
[Single Side band Transmission: low-level modulation is necessary since there is no carrier to modulate at the power amplifier stage, hence
the mic. input is fed to a balanced modulator together with a fixed carrier frequency from the frequency synthesizer. The balanced
modulator output consists of both sidebands, the carrier being suppressed.]
38) HF SSB carrier frequency is
a) transmitted together with USB
b) transmitted together with modulating signal
c) suppressed and re-inserted to receiver*
[SSB = single side band, USB = upper side band]
[Single Sideband Reception: the circuit action on s.s.b. is similar to that on a.m. until after the translator when the translated r.f. is fed to the
product detector along with the re-inserted ‘carrier’.]
39) Operating frequency 10MHz carrier is modulated with low frequency, 10kHz for SSB transmission,
upper side freq component
a) 10010 kHz* [fc + fm]
b) 9990 kHz
40) The installation of the HF system is such that
a) One control unit on the flight deck remote control the HF receiver-transmitter
b) HF coupler system maintain the match efficient between the antenna and transmitter over 1-100
MHz*
c) Fiber glass cover on the antenna shield the electromagnetic wave
[A typical large aircraft h.f. installation consists of two systems]
41) Better Long range resolution
 a) Long frequency transmission
b) Lower frequency transmission*
[If a higher frequency is used the wave will escape from the top of the layer (ionosphere) and the signal will not be received at the far end of
the link.]
42) HF TX capacity of 100 watt in ‘Carrier only’ mode, how much pep if modulation depth is 100%
a) 400 watts
b) 100 watts peak
c) 200 watts*
[B747-123 AMM 23-11-00: Transceiver is capable of transmitting (200 watts pep [peak envelope power] output in USB and 100 watts
carrier)]
43) AM double side band use for detection
a) frequency…
b) duration ….
c) amplitude …. *
44) Audio integration system (AIS) allow crosstalk
a) 60dB attenuate*
b) 60dB amplify
c) not more than 6 dB
45) Audio Integration System (AIS) noise filter
a) First attenuate then amplify*
b) First amplify, then attenuate
46) Intercom system is required
a) Aircraft MTWA > 2700kg for public transport
b) Aircraft with crew with more than one member for passenger aircraft
c) Aircraft with crew with more than one member*
47) Input impedance of audio integrating circuit
a) 100 ohm balanced
b) 600 ohm
c) any value*
48) Electromagnetic microphone
a) AC bias supply
b) DC bias supply
c) Not required bias supply*
49) Ground crew call system for
a) overheating in cooling system
b) alert pilot for some condition
c) both*
[Ground crew call system is used to let ground crew and pilots communicate and alert each other]
[B747-123 AMM 23-43-00: The ground crew call horn also serves as the audible warning device for the INS ground warning circuit and the
equipment cooling ground warning no airflow detection circuit.]
50) Which of the following is known to affect cable noise by vibration?
a) Tribo-electric, ground loop
b) Acoustic, triboelectric, ground loop
c) Ground loop, electromagnetic, tribo-electric*
51) Low Distortion of amplifier signal
a) Class B Amplification
b) Miller integration
c) Video amplification
52) Choke joint is use to
a) Join two waveguide efficiently*
b) minimize reflection at bend
c) ensure waveguide energy to travel in one direction only
[(Electromagnetism) A connection between two waveguides that uses two mating choke flanges to provide effective electrical continuity
without metallic continuity at the inner walls of the waveguide.]
53) Air ground station to satellite band frequency
a) X
b) C*
c) L
[SATCOM satellite downlink to ground earth station: C band. Satellite to AES: L band]
54) X band wavelength satellite
a) 3 cms*
b) 5 cms [C band]
c) 10 cms
55) GPS operation depends on
a) time difference from satellite to aircraft*
b) time difference from aircraft to satellite
56) GPS calculation via,
a) Time between Tx + Rx*
b) Integration of time between Tx + Rx
c) Change of frequency between Tx + Rx
57) Aircraft to SATCOM via
a) Beam pointing unit
b) SATCOM unit [B747-4 upperdeck sidewall?]
[SATCOM consists of Satellite, Aircraft earth station (AES) and Ground earth station (GES).]
[AES consists of Satellite data unit, radio frequency unit, high power amplifier, Low noise amplifier and Antenna]
58) Polled mode of ACARS
a) initiated the communication by the ground station*
b) the crew can communicated to the ground at any time
c) send message for six time before the crew alert
[B747-123 AMM 23-27-00: In the data polled mode, ACARS downlinks data only when “polled: (asked) by the ground station. The
ground station periodically (about every two seconds) polls ACARS for available downlink messages. If ACARS has information for the
ground, an appropriate message is sent automatically. If there is no information, ACARS automatically sends a general poll/response. The data
polled mode ensures system availability when data communications traffic is busy.]
59) ACARS in
a) VHF & HF
b) VHF in 131.55MHz*
[B747-123 AMM 23-27-00: On the ACARS DATA FREQ screen, verify that the correct frequency is displayed, 131.550 MHz.]
60) ACARS OOOI
a) Out of gate, off ground, on ground, in gate* [re B747-4 AMM aircraft with ACARS installed]
61) ACARS
a) 2400 baud*
b) 23K baud
c) 56K baud
[B747-123 AMM 23-27-00: Data is supplied to the transceiver from an encoder/modulator, in the form of 1200/2400 Hz tones. The data is
applied directly to the transceiver modulator for transmission.]
62) ACARS channel [4 of them]
a) 131.55 MHz [carrier]
[For transfer frequency, 1200Hz signifies a bit change, and 2400Hz refers to no bit change reB747-4 AMM23-27-00/001]
63) Flight Data Acquisition Unit (FDAU)  ACARS is to
a) Transmit compressed data to ground
b) Inflight performance data transmit when landing
[The flight performance data may be transmitted to ACARS collects Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) §121.344 parameters for maintenance
and engineering records flight performance data from a plurality of acquisition equipments, such as sensors on an aircraft]
[ACMS monitors performance of engine and will send any abnormal status to Ground station via ACARS.]
64) ELT mounting
a) at CG
b) for vertical impact of 5g
c) for longitudinal axis impact*
[Two type of ELT: Fixed ELT and Portable ELT]
65) Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT), usually locate at
a) near avionics bay
b) near aircraft center of gravity
c) as aft of fuselage as possible *
[Fixed ELT mounted on after fuselage. It consists of three signals: VHF 121.5 MHz, UHF 243 MHz, and 406 MHz for satellite receiving.]
66) ELT engaged when
a) impact force greater than 5 G's in longitudinal
axis*
b) only transmits 263 MHz signal [transmits at 3 frequencies]
c) directional transmission powered by battery pack
67) Where is emergency landing beacon located?
a) After fuselage with 2.5G activation
b) Cockpit
c) After fuselage with 5G activation*

Automatic direction finding

68) Output of ADF loop aerial and sense aerial

 a) in phase
b) anti-phase
c) 90 degree out of phase* [in phase or out of phase]
[The search coil output, after amplification, is phase-shifted by 90 degrees so as to be either in phase or out of phase with the sense antenna
output, depending on the direction of the NDB.]
69) Bearing of ADF(NDB, non-directional beacon) is 60 degrees relative to aircraft heading is 30 degrees, RMI
(Radio magnetic indicator) bearing reading
a) 30
b) 60
c) 90*
[RMI: NDB bearing angle relative to N]
70) ADF protection… screening…
a) Interference
[According to ARINC570, 4 individually shielded coaxial cables insulated and shielded on the main loop antenna, sense antenna should
have double shielding ie triaxial]
71) Automatic Direction Finder (ADF), which rotates?
a) Goniometer, output synchro, 2 phase servo motor*
b) Fixed loop aerial
c) Compass card
[Goniometer measures angle]
72) ADF
a) The best null position [can give bearing]
b) Directional antenna heading direction
[The sense of the connections throughout the system must be correct for the stable null to give the bearing.]
[The first requirement of any ADF is a directional antenna which consists of a fixed loop and Goniometer.]
73) RMI indicator contain:
a) course select error and heading indication???

V.h.f. omnidirectional range (VOR) [108-118 MHz band with channels spaced at 50 kHz]

This band is shared with ILS localizer the VOR being allocated to 160 of the 200 available channels. Of theses 160 channels 120 are
allocated to VOR stations intended for en route navigation while the other forty are for terminal VOR stations (TVOR). The output
power of an en route station will be about 200W providing a service up to 200 nautical miles, its frequency will be within the band 112-118
MHz. A TVOR will have an output power of about 50 W providing a service of up to about 25 nautical miles, its frequency will be within
the band 108-112 MHz, this being the part of the total band shared with ILS localizer. The radiation from a conventional VOR (CVOR)
station is a horizontally polarized v.h.f. wave modulated.

74) VOR AM frequency

a) 10kHz
b) 60Hz
c) 30Hz*
[30 Hz a.m.: the variable phase signal. 9960 Hz a.m.: this is a subcarrier frequency, modulated at 30 Hz with a deviation of ±480 Hz. The 30
Hz signal is the reference phase.]
75) …
a) 30Hz variable AM, 30Hz reference FM*
b) 30Hz variable FM, 30Hz reference AM
c) 90Hz variable AM, 150Hz reference FM
76) VOR at “000”, course heading at “010”,
a) Move to left 10 degrees*
b) Move to right 10 degrees
c) Remain
[If the airplane is north of the station, the bearing of the VOR station is 180
degrees; if the airplane is east of the station, the bearing is 270 degrees.]
77) In VOR, heading is 000, then omnirange bearing
changed to 010, the indicator needle will
a) turn left
b) turn right*
c) turn right initially then go to left
78) Aircraft east of VOR station, variable phase &
reference phase
a) anti-phase [south of VOR station]
b) anti-phase quarture* [AM lag FM by 90 degrees]
c) in phase [north of VOR station]
79) VOR lock disengage when
a) which going away of starting [turning away?]
b) above starting
80) VOR switch off when
a) Aircraft far away from the VOR station
b) Selecting frequency of LOC/VOR*
c) Aircraft passing the VOR station*

Instrument landing system (Localizer: 108.10 – 111.95 MHz, 50 kHz spacing; Glide-slope: 320-340 MHz,
150 kHz spacing)

Directional radio beams, modulated so as to enable airborne equipment to identify the beam centres, define the correct approach path to a
particular runway. In addition vertical directional beams provide spot checks of distance to go on the approach. The total system comprises
three parts, each with a transmitter on the ground and receiver and signal processor in the aircraft. Lateral steering is provided by the localizer
for both front-course and back-course approaches; the glideslope provides vertical steering for the front course only while marker beacons
give the distance checks.

81) 111.3(111.1) MHz is

a) DME [978 - 1213 MHz]
b) VOR [112 - 118 MHz for route navigation]
c) ILS* [108-112 MHz, 50k Hz spacing]
82) Localizer is
a) Vertically polarized
b) Horizontally polarized*
[Same as glide slope]
[The radiation from a conventional VOR (CVOR) station is a horizontally polarized v.h.f. wave modulated.]
83) VOR and ILS which is more sensitive
a) same
b) VOR more sensitive
c) ILS more sensitive*
[The glideslope output is more sensitive than localizer in that typically a 0.5gree off the glidepath will give full-scale deflection (about 0.175
d.d.m.) compared with about 2.5grees off the course line for full-scale deflection.]
84) Autoland left or right on runway
a) VOR
 b) LOC*
85) Localizer full left deflection
a) 0.155 DDM with 90Hz > 150Hz [aircraft to the left of the extended centre line] (may be)
b) 0.155 DDM with 150Hz > 90Hz [aircraft to the right of the extended centre line]
[The horizontally polarized radiated carrier is modulated by tones of 90 and 150 Hz such that an aircraft to the left of the extended centre
line will be in a region where the 90 Hz modulation predominates.]
86) Localizer 150 Hz filter failure
a) Cannot give left indication
b) Cannot give right indication (may be)
c) No change
87) Localizer 150 MHz not equal receiver then vehicle will stay
a) Left
b) Right*
88) Command bar…
a) Difference of 90 Hz and 150 Hz
b) Sum of 90 Hz and 150 Hz
89) Depth of modulation [localizer transmission], “on course”, of localizer
a) 0%
b) 20%*
c) 50%
[Along the centre line an airborne localizer receiver will receive the carrier modulated to a depth of 20 per cent by both 90 and 150 Hz tones.]
[Deviation from the centre line is given in d.d.m. (difference in depth of modulation).]
[Full-scale defection is achieved when the d.d.m. is 0.155, i.e. the aircraft is 2-3 degrees off course.]
90) Airborne ILS system. Flap operation is derived from
a) tone signal
b) R.F. carrier
c) % difference in D.D.M.* [difference in depth of modulation]
91) Signal from NAV receiver to flight control surface
a) same polarity current*
b) phase sensitive DC
92) Localizer receiver signal to flight control
a) Same phase and polarity (may be)
b) Different…
93) Localizer signal from radio navigation receiver unit to flight control channel
a) phase/polarity the same (may be)
b) polarity sensitive DC
c) polarity sensitive AC
94) The depth of modulation “ON COURSE”, for each tone of glide-slope signals:
a) 0 percent
b) 40 percent*
c) 45 percent
[Above the correct glidepath the 90 Hz modulation predominates while on the correct
glidepath the d.d.m. is zero, both tones giving a 40 per cent depth of modulation.]
95) Testing Glide-slope coupling
a) LOC freq selected, G/S mode must be engaged*
b) Beam switch engaged, LOC frequency selected
c) Beam switch disengaged, LOC frequency selected
[Pilot selection of the required localizer frequency on the controller will cause both
localizer and glideslope receivers to tune to the appropriate paired frequencies.]
96) Test Glide-slope on ground
a) select Localizer freq first*
97) Glide-slope 90deg (90 Hz?) with autoland
a) Nose up to flaps back on course*
b) Speedbrakes
c) Aileron
98) Back course of localizer, glide slope deviation
a) not used*
b) still used
99) Microwave Landing System (MLS)
a) The time between the ground signal send and receive
b) Time spacing between 2 pulses*
100) Frequency of outer marker
a) 400Hz* [outer = lowest frequency]
 b) 1000Hz
c) 1300Hz [middle]
[The outer marker is normally located 4.5miles from the runway threshold. The carrier is amplitude-modulated by 400 Hz keyed to give two
dashes per second which can be heard via the AIS and causes a blue (or purple) lamp to flash.]
101) Blue light indicator in a Marker Beacon.
a) 400 Hz ……10 MHz …* [400Hz blue; 1300Hz amber; 3000 Hz white]
b) 1300 Hz ….. [amber]
102) Marker beacon
a) Audio tone …. Morse code … from … NAV receiver (may be)
b) Audio AC signal (6 V) …
c) Beacon Morse code transmission (may be)
[Beacon = 400, 1300, 3000 Hz tone]

Distance measuring equipment (978-1213 MHz)

DME and VOR in fact provide the standard ICAO short-range navigation system. A DME beacon may also be located on an airfield
equipped with ILS, thus giving continuous slant range readout while on an ILS approach, such use of DME is limited at present.
A DME station is typically located at a VOR station or near an instrument landing system (ILS) at an airport. Station delays signal 50
microseconds then retransmits 63 MHz ABOVE or BELOW received frequency. Since the random spacing of the pulse pairs is unique to each
DME unit, the aircraft is able to recognize its own signal when retransmitted by the ground station, and to distinguish it from other DME
transmissions in the same area. The random spacing identification also makes it possible for the aircraft receiver to determine elapsed time
between transmission from the aircraft and the receiving of that signal retransmitted from the ground station. Since this time interval is a
function of the intervening distance between the airplane and the ground station, the aircraft system can display the distance between the
airplane and the ground station.

103) DME installation

a) With VOR panel* [re: RNAV = DME + VOR]
b) With ATC transponder
104) Majority of DME,
a) Related to VOR tuning*
b) Install with the same antenna of ATC
transponder
c) Should place in the top of aircraft
centerline
[When a VOR or LOC frequency is selected on the VHF
navigation control panel, the frequency of the associated DME
station (if there is one) is simultaneously selected.]
105) DME engagement sequence
a) search, pre track, track
b) track, search…
[search and then track]
106) DME pulse gate
a) The same time as interrogator
b) The same rate as interrogator
c) Nothing related to interrogator
107) DME pulse valve …. ?
a) time range
b) pulse width*
c) time duration
108) Jitter of DME refers to
a) P.R.F.
b) random pulse interrogation*
c) interrupt with other aircraft
[Jitter: deliberate random variation of the time interval between successive interrogations. Each interrogator produces a ‘jittering pulse
(pair) repetition frequency (p.r.f.)’ which, over a period of several interrogations, describes a unique pattern since the variations are
random.]
109) In search mode, PRF of DME interrogator
a) 20Hz & DME readout obscured
b) 75Hz & DME readout visible
c) 100Hz & DME readout obscured*
[The p.r.f. is dependent on the mode of operation of the DME: Search 40-150 Average; Track 10-30 Average]
[PRF = pulse repetition frequency]
[The readout will be obscured by a ‘flag’ if of the mechanical type, or will be blanked if electronic.]
110) DME in STANDBY mode when
a) out of range of station*
[When the aircraft is out of range of the beacon to which the airborne DME is tuned, no signals will be received. This state inhibits
interrogations until such time as the aircraft is within range and squitter signals are received.]
111) DME squitter frequency
a) 700 [minimum]
b) 2700/sec*
[The beacon will not reply unless interrogated; the interrogator will not interrogate unless it receives signals, this signal is squitter which is
transmitted from the ground beacon. A beacon must transmit randomly distributed pulse pairs at a repetition rate of at least 700; this minimum
rate includes distance replies as well as squitter.]
[A range-only DME beacon at a constant duty cycle of 2700 pulse pairs per second is not ruled out.]
112) In DME memory mode, flag is indicated
a) In-view…. Stationary
b) Out of view … change
c) Out of view …. Stationary* [readout is maintained steady for 4s,i.e. flag is out of view.]
[A red flag indicates the DME reading is invalid re A330 AMM 31-65-00 pb001]
[If replies are lost an interrogator will not immediately revert to search or auto standby but will enter its memory condition; this may be one of
two types, either static or velocity. With static memory the readout is maintained steady, whereas with velocity memory the readout
continues to change at its last known rate. Memory time will normally lie between 4 and 12 s. if, during memory, replies are re-acquired,
the equipment will continue tracking thus the pilot will have been spared a false warning. At the end of memory, if there are no signals at all
being received, auto standby will ensue; otherwise the equipment will commence searching.]
113) Over station sensor
a) measure station distance
b) rate of ...
c) rate of ...
[Over station sensor cuts out radio deviation signal when the rate of change of radio deviation exceeds 8mV/s ie rate of change becomes
very large as aircraft passes over the station]

ATC transponder

114) ATC transponder

a) 1090 MHz at interval of 20μs* [reply state]
b) 1030 MHz at interval of 20s
c) 1090 MHz at interval of 80s
[ATC = Secondary Surveillance Radar, SSR]
[In every reply two pulses of r.f. 1090 MHz, spaced 20.3 μs apart are transmitted.]
[1030 MHz for all interrogations, 1090 MHz for reply.]
115) Sidelobe suppression circuit in an ATC transponder inhibit replied with the interrogation signal
a) P2 pulse leading the P1 pulse
b) P2 pulse exceeding the P1 pulse in magnitude*
c) P2 pulse operation in anti-phase to the P1 pulse
[The condition for a reply/no reply are: P2 ≧ P1 (no reply); P2 ≦ P1 -9 dB (reply)]
116) Sidelobe suppression…ATC
a) Balanced modular
117) ATC transponder testing
a) cannot be carried out in-flight
b) will stop ATC transmitting
118) Testing of transponder
a) test receiver*
b) … to all …
[Test button on LRU tests circuitry including receiver and
antenna]
119) PRF?
a) pulse per second
b) pulse in secondary radar [Secondary
surveillance radar?]
[PRF = pulse repetition frequency]
[The pulses of r.f. are 0.8 μs wide and at a frequency of 1030 MHz (L band) this being the same for all interrogations.]
120) Traffic Alert system of TCAS
a) Presentation is given for the aircraft that 40 or less before collision
b) Giving aircraft ‘maneuver’ display for ‘thread’
c) …intruder…

Weather avoidance

121) Controller knob of weather radar changes

a) screen brightness and light intensity
122) "Contour" weather radar adjust
a) video gain*
 b) transmitter power
123) Adjusting “knob” in EHSI will alter
a) ILS range
b) Radar display range*
c) VOR range
124) Range accuracy of Radar by adjusting
a) time base .... *
125) Radar range… performance
a) … time duration (may be)
b) pulsating frequency
[The duration of the time-base, i.e. the length of time it takes to traverse the screen, depends on the range selected by the pilot.]
[Use of long pulses will give improved range. i.e. 2.5 μs for longer pulse width; 1 μs for shorter pulse width.]
126) Beamwidth of the radar transmission determines:
a) Azimuth Resolution*
b) Range Accuracy
c) Range Resolution
[A narrow beam is always preferred, since the net effect is to increase range and improve bearing resolution.]
127) Windshear detection system shown on EHSI when
a) Primary radar display failure
b) is on independent system give aural and visual warning*
c) selected EFIS single symbol
[B747-123 AMM 34-43-00: WX (weather) – Places radar system in the normal weather detection mode of operation. The indicator shows
areas of significant rainfall as colored areas on the display. Terrain such as mountains, etc., may also be displayed.]
128) Pilot wants to fly through thunderstorm
a) C band to see behind precipitation
b) X band to use as weather avoidance tool*
c) C band to accurately display levels at storm activity
[B747-123 AMM 34-43-00: The weather radar operates in the X-band and has a penetration range through relatively light intervening rainfall
to detect distance rainfall storm areas up to 320 miles.]
129) When aircraft fly through thunder
a) C band measure precipitation
b) X band used as weather avoidance tool*
c) C band to detect accurately the climate level behind
[X band 9GHz for high echo power]
130) Rx signal 8950Hz, oscillator 500Hz picture illumination and resolution
a) 9200 Hz
b) 8450 Hz*
c) 7250 Hz

Doppler navigation (13.325 and 13.314 GHz)

A Doppler navigator in helicopters is not unusual.

Doppler Effect: the change in received frequency when the transmitter and
receiver are in motion relative to one another.
Doppler shift fD = fr – ft = vft / c
Positive Doppler shift: the receiver and transmitter are moving towards are
another. fR > ft.
Negative Doppler shift: the receiver and transmitter are moving away from each
other. fR < ft.

131) 4 beams Doppler system is capable of providing

a) speed, drift and pitch correction rate
[Doppler provides ground speed and drift angle]

Radio altimeter

132) Radio altitude use

a) continuous wave with frequency modulation with
constant amplitude*
b) continuous wave with amplitude modulation with fix
frequency
c) pulse wave
[The transmission is a continuous wave, constant amplitude, frequency
modulated carrier of 4,300 MHz. ]
133) Radio altitude
 a) 4200 kHz-4400KHz
b) 4200MHz-4400MHz*
c) 200MHz-400MHz
134) Radio altimeter transmitter feeds
a) a mixer and a tracking filter* [re AMM]
b) a mixer and circulator
c) a circulator and a tracking filter
135) Radio altimeter
a) Circuit delay to make up for frequency at low altitude (may be)
b) Pulsating signal
[continuous wave, not pulsating signal]

Area navigation (RNAV)

136) RNAV use [Area navigation equipment]

a) DME + VOR only
b) VOR + GPS
[The advent of airborne computers has now made possible sophisticated
navigation systems including an RNAV system based on VOR/DME.]
[The basic idea is simple; signals from existing VOR and DME co-
located beacons are used to give range and bearing, not to the station
but to a waypoint specified by its range and bearing from the station.]

Entertainment/PA systems

137) Why…Passenger control unit decoder?

a) Transmit attendant call
b) Video signal
138) Passenger Addressing (PA)system
a) background music auto off when making announcement*
b) auto rewind the tape when no signal detect for 1 minute
c) can auto rewind to the selected track.
[The various PA messages have an order of priority assigned to them: pilot’s announcements, attendant’s announcements, prerecorded
announcements and finally boarding music.]
139) PTV/Passenger entertainment element is commonly install in commercial aircraft because
a) Duty free service and cabin maintenance
b) Airshow, flight data entry, video game
c) Overhead video, movie selection*
140) New modern cabin entertainment
a) Install … in maintenance
141) PTV connecting to system......
a) token ring for video modulation
b) via SEB serial communication bus to LCD*
[SEB = seat electronics box]
142) Wire integrity in PTV
a) carried out operational test*
b) software installation + BITE test
c) PAX addressing + PSU
143) PTV CMEU cabin management expansion unit
a) controlled by passenger alphanumeric pad
b) better game -> entertainment loading*
c) addressing...?
144) PTV system, CMEU is
a) enhance system performance
b) loading more games*
c) enhance area distribution for AC power to seat box unit
145) Standard Cabin Entertainment System, signal to the Seat Electronic Unit (SEU)
a) by a time multiplexing system*
b) separate data line for video and audio
146) In advance cabin entertainment system multiplexing
a) Convert serial inputs to parallel output
b) Convert parallel input to serial output*
c) Decoding binary data
[A multiplexer is a device that performs multiplexing; it selects one of many analog or digital input signals and forwards the selected input
into a single line.]
147) RS485 entertainment system bus
a) one to one
b) one to many*
c) two to many
148) Personal entertainment fault send to:
a) central management unit
b) EICAS
c) individual LRU under each seat*
149) Video data from entertainment data system is
a) Digital
b) Analogue ….. 75 ohms …….
c) Digital in video, analogue in audio
[Digital signal is for transmission and storing. Analog signal is input or output signal.]
150) There is a significant change / deviation from pax system [configuration]
a) change the software in pax system*
b) change the deviation in CMC
c) download the software to the LRU

Electrostatic Discharge

151) High risk area of lighting strike

a) nose radome (Zone 1)
b) wing tips and trailing edge(Zone 1)
c) engine inlet (Zone 1)
[B744 AMM 05-51-13: Lightning strike entrance and exit points are usually found in Zone 1, but can also occur in Zone 2 and 3.]
[[B744 AMM 05-51-13: Frequently a lightning strike can enter the nose radome and go out of the airplane at one of the horizontal stabilizer
trailing edges. The external components most likely to be hit are Nose Radome, Nacelles, Wing Tips / Winglets, Horizontal Stabilizer Tips,
Elevators, Vertical Fin Tips, Ends of the Leading Edge Flaps, Trailing Edge Flap Track Fairings, landing Gear, Water Waste Masts and
Pitot Probes.]
152) Lightning discharger connect
a) to discharge wick
b) metallic bond to fuselage*
c) inch
153) Bonding of aircraft is determined by
a) Resistance*
154) Lightning strike, metal strip on composite material
a) conduct current*
b) conduct heat
c) conduct electromagnetic wave
155) Radome electric static is
a) not a problem because it is made of non-conductive material (may be)
b) minimized by anti-static protective coating
c) eliminated by abrasion shield
[Lightning conductors, such as on the inside surface of the non-conducting nose radome, and lightning dischargers connected to the lead-in of
wire antennas and some notch antennas, help conduct any strike to the bulk of the airframe, so preventing damage to equipment.]
[B747-123 AMM 53-51-01: The cone-shapednose radome is constructed of preimpregnated epoxy resin glass fabric material forming inner
and outer skins with a honeycomb core. Eight aluminum diverter strips, installed longitudinally on the radome exterior, provide the
radome with lightning strike protection.]
156) Radome does not affected by static charge
a) Abrasion shield*
b) Conductive coating
157) The lightning prevention materials of Radome
a) part of the radome
b) woven with the radome case
c) adhere to radome* [horizontal metallic strips on radome surface to discharge]
158) Radome is made of what kind of material to prevent ….. ?
a) metal honey comb (wrong)
b) stainless steel (wrong)
c) [fibre glass, PTFE coating]*
159) On radome, the abrasive shield is constructed with what material
a) metal honeycomb
b) stainless steel
c) non-conducting plastic material*
160) Radome
a) cannot paint
b) using non-metallic structure*
c) paint with black paint (conductive)
[“…usually honeycomb made with plastic reinforced with fiberglass…”  p147]
161) For correct static discharge on Radome
a) spark gap
b) static discharger*
162) Static charge on Radome,
a) Arc to metal frame and cause radio interference
b) Prevent radiation of EM wave from radar
c) Cause delimination of honey-comb (may be)
163) Static discharger is designed to??
a) discharge at a control rate
164) Nullifeld static discharger discharge while
a) static discharge low voltage* [steady discharge]
b) static discharge low current [during discharge or when discharged]
c) At high current level
[By providing a number of discharge points at each discharger the voltage is kept low.]
165) Nullfield static discharger
a) small pins to discharge at low level*
b) must be mounted to fixed surface (wrong)
c) conduct fiber (wrong)
[They are attached on some aircraft to the trailing edges of (electrically grounded) ailerons, elevators, rudder, wing, horizontal and
vertical stabilizer tips.]
[B747-123 AMM 23-61-00: The dischargers consist of two metal needles or a carbon wick mounted near the end of a slender rod.]
166) Precipitation static is
a) generated from high speed aircraft
b) endangers safety of aircraft (may be)
c) air flow auto through aircraft by jet exhaust (wrong)
[B747-123 AMM 23-6-00: Precipitation static results from an electric charge accumulated by the airplane striking charged air and moisture
particles.]
[As the aircraft flies through the atmosphere, it picks up electrical charge due to frictional contact with atmospheric particles (precipitation
static) and also while flying through cloud formations, within which very strong electric fields exist (electrostatic induction). Any spark
formed by current s flow between parts will be picked up by radio systems as noise and possibly mask wanted signals.]
167) Precipitation static, HF system is,
a) insulated [Correct if antenna discharging switching system]
b) by static discharge [second choice]
[Precipitation Static: charged precipitation particles that strike antennas and gradually charge the antenna, which ultimately discharges
across the insulator, causing a burst of static.]
Voice Recording system

168) Cockpit voice recorder (CVR) bulk erase only when aircraft is on the ground and
a) engines are shut down
b) wheels are chocked
c) parking brake is set*
[B747-123 AMM 23-71-00: The entire tape may be erased after the airplane has landed and the parking brake has been set.]
[B747-123 AMM 23-71-00: The bulk erase circuit will operate only with the airplane on the ground, power applied to the airplane, and
the parking brake set.]
169) Cockpit Voice Recorder capable records
a) 30 min with 4 separate channel* [minimum]
b) 60 min with 3 separate channel
c) 120 min with 4 separate channel
[B747-123 AMM 23-71-00: The voice recorder system records and preserves a continuing record of the latest 30 minutes of flight crew
communications and conversation. The voice recorder system has four separate inputs for simultaneous recording of any communications
in the flight compartment on 4-track magnetic tape.]
170) Which is NOT used for voice data record system?
a) Paper chart*
b) Electromagnetic

Others

171) Isoprotic radiator

a) Radiate all direction*
b) In a ground wave
c) Is a sky wave
[An energy source that radiates uniformly in all directions]
172) VNAV
a) Throttle
b) Elevator*
c) Aileron
173) 30db attenuation, input 1W, output
a) 1000W
b) 333mW
c) 1mW*
174) Radio power input to FMC
a) DC*
b) AC at 400Hz
c) AC at 150Hz and 90Hz
Remarks:

Vertical polarization: E field is in a vertical plane – is radiated and received via a vertical aerial.
Horizontal polarization: E field is in a horizontal plane – is radiated and received via a horizontal aerial.
Space wave: in free space, all radio wave travel in straight line at the speed of light.
Space wave: sum of the direct wave and the reflected wave.
Ground wave: combination of the space and surface wave in a radio transmission.
A transmission line (feeder): is a system of conductors by means of which electrical energy can be transferred
from one point to another with negligible loss.
The purpose of a transmission line is to transfer energy from a source to some type of load.
Transmission lines are terminated by a practical load such as an aerial or a receiver.
Wave: nodes) zero current and voltage, anti-nodes) maximum current and voltage.
Standing wave ratio: SWR = Emax / Emin = Imax / Imin , if SWR = 1:1, there is no standing wave.
VSWR of 1:1 is difficult to obtain
VSWR of 2:1 is usually good enough for communication transmitters.
VSWR of 1.2:1 or better is expected with radar transmitters.
VSWR = (√PF + √PR) / (√PF - √PR), PF = forward power, PR = reverse power.
A simple transmitting aerial: designed to radiate EM waves.
If the band of frequencies over which the aerial must work is not too wide, the matching problem can be solved by
reducing the Q factor of the aerial, i.e. by reducing the L/C ratio and thus widening the aerial bandwidth.
A thick rod or a tube in place of a thin wire, the VSWR on the main transmission line is brought closer to unity.
The aerial will operate satisfactorily over the required band.
MLS principle: time spacing between two pulse.
One type of radiation is the continuous wave (CW) or un-modulated wave
The carrier wave radiate with equal amplitude
Carrier wave such as the morse code. Type of transmission is called A0(ON), A1(OFF).
Modulated continuous wave (MCW). Type of transmission is called A2
The amplitude-modulated transmitter may have voice of music impressed on its carrier wave (A3).
Intelligence: contain USB & LSB: it must have band width.
Carrier amplitude modulated with a single tone.(This is often referred to as a double side-band(DSB)
transmission.)
a) The carrier = fc
b) An upper side frequency = (fc + fs)
c) A lower side frequency = (fc – fs)
Amplitude modulation: the amplitude of the modulating signal increase so the amplitude of the carrier increases
and vice-verse.
Radio interference: (two categories: Natural and man made).
a) Sparking from brushes in rotating electrical machines (man made): the basic principle of a suppressor is a
low-resist. High inductance chke.
b) Lightning discharges (Natural)
c) The irregular discharge of static built up on the airframe (Natural)
d) Interference due EMFS being induced into signal cables from adjacent cables (Man made).
e) Transient voltages caused by the back EMF produced by switching actions (Man made).
Methods of reducing static:
a) Static discharge resistors (Probe aerials):
i) Quite often resistors are fitted within the equipment.
ii) Path to earth should not be greater than 6Mohm.
b) Adjacent cable pick-up: screened cables.
c) Aerial safety devices: bleed or static drain resistor.
Receiver (General requirement)
a) Selectivity
b) Sensitivity
c) S/N ratio
d) Fidelity
e) Stability
Q = 1/R * √(L/C)
As frequency increase R increase (AC losses)
Q will decrease selectivity gets poorer.
This leads to “adjacent channel interference”
T.R.F. (turned radio frequency)
Disadvantages of T.R.F.:
a) Inability to maintain a constant selectivity (Q) over a wide range of frequencies.
b) Inability to maintain constant sensitivity over a wide range of frequencies.
c) Difficulty in keeping several R.F. stages in turn over a wide range of frequencies.
Reduction of adjacent channel interference:
a) Improve selectivity, a lower operating frequency is required.
b) Sensitivity and stability over the operating range will be improved by lower frequency.
ELT (emergency locator transmitter)
Automatically transmitting a swept-tone-modulated signal simultaneously on both the civil and military
international VHF aeronautical distress frequency (121.5 and 243.0MHz)
AN(HK)O: if the aircraft may in accordance with its certificate of airworthiness carry more than 19 passengers:
a) A public address system; and
b) An interphone system of communication between members of the flight crew and cabin attendants.