EXERCISE-4 ..............................................................................................

50
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE .............................................................................. 3 EXERCISE-5 .............................................................................................. 51
SIMPLE EQUATIONS .................................................................................... 3 EXERCISE-6 .............................................................................................. 51
RATIO, PROPORTION - VARIATION ............................................................. 4 EXERCISE-7 .............................................................................................. 52
PERCENTAGES - PROFIT & LOSS - PARTNERSHIPS .................................... 6 EXERCISE-8 .............................................................................................. 53
NUMBERS .................................................................................................... 9 EXERCISE-9 .............................................................................................. 54
GEOMETRY AND MENSURATION ............................................................... 14 EXERCISE-10 ............................................................................................ 55
TIME AND DISTANCE ................................................................................ 21 EXERCISE-11 ............................................................................................ 56
TIME AND WORK ....................................................................................... 24 EXERCISE-12 ............................................................................................ 58
AVERAGES - MIXTURES - ALLIGALIONS.................................................... 25 EXERCISE-13 ............................................................................................ 59
SIMPLE INTEREST- COMPOUND INTEREST .............................................. 27 EXERCISE-14 ............................................................................................ 61
INDICES - SURDS....................................................................................... 28 EXERCISE-15 ............................................................................................ 62
LOGARITHMS ............................................................................................ 29 DATA INTERPRETATION ............................................................................... 63
QUADRATIC EQUATION ............................................................................. 30 TABLES ..................................................................................................... 64
INEQUALITIES AND MODULUS .................................................................. 31 BAR CHARTS............................................................................................. 64
SPECIAL EQUATION .................................................................................. 33 PIE CHARTS .............................................................................................. 65
PROGRESSIONS......................................................................................... 34 LINE GRAPHS ............................................................................................ 66
PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATION ........................................................ 36 STACKED BARS AND THREE DIMENSIONAL GRAPHS ............................... 67
PROBABILITY ............................................................................................ 37 DOUBLE PIE CHARTS ................................................................................ 67
STATISTICS ............................................................................................... 38 MISCELLANEOUS ...................................................................................... 68
NUMBER SYSTEMS .................................................................................... 39 REASONING APTITUDE ................................................................................. 68
TRIGONOMETRY ....................................................................................... 41 NUMBER AND LETTER SERIOUS ............................................................... 68
COORDINATE GEOMETRY ......................................................................... 43 NUMBERS AND LETTEER ANALOGIES ...................................................... 74
FUNCTIONS AND GRAPHS ......................................................................... 44 CODING AND DECODING ........................................................................... 80
OPERATOR BASED QUESTIONS ................................................................ 45 ODD MAN OUT .......................................................................................... 84
DATA SUFFICIENCY ...................................................................................... 47 VENN DIAGRAMS ...................................................................................... 89
EXERCISE-1 .............................................................................................. 47 CLOCKS .................................................................................................... 96
EXERCISE-2 .............................................................................................. 48 CALENDARS .............................................................................................. 98
EXERCISE-3 .............................................................................................. 49 SYMBOLS AND NOTATIONS ..................................................................... 100
 DIRECTION SENSE .................................................................................. 105 WORD SUBSTITUTES .............................................................................. 134
BLOOD RELATIONS ................................................................................. 111 SENTENCE COMPLETION ........................................................................ 135
ANALYTICAL PUZZLES............................................................................. 114 MISSING PART ........................................................................................ 135
VERBAL APTITUDE ..................................................................................... 119 SPOTTING ERRORS ................................................................................. 136
SYNONYM ................................................................................................ 119 THEME DETECTION ................................................................................ 136
DISEASE – HUMAN BODY ........................................................................ 120 WORDS USAGE ........................................................................................ 137
FOREIGN EXPRESSION ........................................................................... 120 PARAGRAPH FORMATION ....................................................................... 137
WORD MATCHING ................................................................................... 120 SENTENCE FORMATION.......................................................................... 138
ONE WORD SUBSTITUTES ....................................................................... 120 MATCHING DEFINITIONS ........................................................................ 139
ANTONYM ................................................................................................ 121 READING COMPREHENSION ....................................................................... 139
PAIR OF ANTONYM .................................................................................. 121 EXERCISE-1 ............................................................................................ 139
IDIOMS .................................................................................................... 121 EXERCISE-2 ............................................................................................ 140
SELECTING WORDS ................................................................................. 122 EXERCISE-3 ............................................................................................ 140
SENTENCE IDENTIFICATION ................................................................... 123 EXERCISE-4 ............................................................................................ 140
SENTENCE CORRECTION ........................................................................ 124 EXERCISE-5 ............................................................................................ 140
JUMBLE WORDS ...................................................................................... 125
SPOTTING ERRORS ................................................................................. 125
ORDERING OF SENTENCES ..................................................................... 126
SENTENCE SELECTION ........................................................................... 128
SENTENCE ANALOGIES ........................................................................... 128
MATCHING DEFINITIONS ........................................................................ 128
ODD SENTENCE OUT ............................................................................... 128
VERBAL ANALOGIES ............................................................................... 129
CLASSIFICATION ..................................................................................... 130
VERBAL REASONING ............................................................................... 131
PHRASES ................................................................................................. 131
MATCHING DEFINITION .......................................................................... 131
CLOSET TEST .......................................................................................... 132
ANALYZING ARGUMENTS ........................................................................ 133
 5. Let Ranjani‘s age be P years
From the data,
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE R = 9+

SIMPLE EQUATIONS => = 9 => R = 18

Rajani‘s age is 18 years. Choice (1)

1. Let the number be x.

6. Let the cost of each Samosa and Puff be Rs.S and Rs.P respectively.
2x = + 12 From the data,
 3x =12 S + 2P = 14 -> (1)
 x =8 3S + P =17 -> (2)
The number is 8. Choice (3) 2x (1) + (2) => 2S + 4P = 28
3S + P = 17
2. Let the present age of Bhargav be ‘b‘. ---------------
Let the present age of Anurag be ‗a‘. 5S + 5P = 17
From the data, The cost of 5 Samosa and 5 Puffs is Rs.45 Choice (2)
(a - 3) = 3(b - 3)
 2b – a =6 ->(1) 7. Let the two digit number be 10x + y. When its digits are reversed it becomes 10y + x
 (a + 2) = 2 (b + 2) The difference is ( 10x + y) – (10y + x)
 => a – 2b = 2 ->(2), = 9x – 9y =9(x – y)
 By solving, b = 8 Given that the two digits differ by 4, (x - y) = 4
 Substituting b = 8 in (1) => a = 18 The difference = 9(x - y) = 9 * 4 = 36 Choice (3)
The present age of Anurag is 18 years. Choice (2)
8. Let the three digit number be 100x + 10y + z.
3. Let the age of Gouthan be ‗m‘ and that of Girija be ‗n‘. When the digits are reversed it becomes 100z + 1oy + x.
From the data, The difference is (100x + 10y + z) – (100z + 1oy + x)
M = 4n -> (1) = 99x – 99z= 99(x - z)
(m + 4) = 3(n + 4) -> (2) The difference is always divisible by 99, irrespective of values of x, y and z. Choice (4)
Substituting (1) in (2)
 4n +4 =3n + 12 9. Let the three digit number be 100a + 10b + c
 n=8 The difference is (100a +10b + c) – (100c + 10c + a)
m =4n = 4 * 8 =32 =99a – 99c = 99(a – c)
The age of Goutham is 32 years. Choice (4) Given that the first and the last digit of the number differ by 3 a - c = 3
The difference = 99 (a – c) = 99 * 3 = 297 Choice (3)
4. Let the cost of each pencil and each pen be Rs.x and Rs.y respectively. From the data,
2x + 3y = 8 -> (1) 10. Let the number be divided into x and y.
3x + 2y = 7 -> (2) From the data,
Adding (1) and (2) , we get 5x + 5y = 15 X2 – y2 = 48 (x - y)
The cost of 5 pencils and 5 pens is Rs.15 (x + y) (x - y) = 48 (x – y) => x + y = 48
Note that in some cases it is not necessary to solve individually for x and y. Choice (1) The number = x + y = 48 Choice (4)

Note for the Questions 11, 12, 13 and 14.

Suppose there are two linear equations in two variables, a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 2 * (2) => 6x + 18y = 36 -> (4)
And a2x + b2y + c2 = 0, where a1, b1, c1, a2, b2, c2 are the coefficients of x and y. Equations (3) and (4) are same i.e. infinite solutions are possible Choice (3)
(i) The set of equations has a unique solution when
14. 4x + 5y = 22 -> (1)
≠ 3x + 4y = 17 -> (2)
(1) – (2) =>
(ii) The set of equations has infinite solutions, when
x + y = 5 -> (3)
= =
3x + 4y = 17 --- (2)
(iii) The set of equations has no solutions, when 3x + 3y = 15 --- (1) * 3
= ≠ - -
---------------------
11. Let the cost of each sharpener and eraser be S and E respectively. y=2
From the data, Substituting y = 2, in (3) we get …. x + 2 = 5 => x=3
3S + 4E = 25 -> (1) There is only one solution possible Choice (2)
4S + 3E = 24 -> (2)
(1) + (2) => 15. Let the cost of each chocolate, cake and milk shake be Rs.a, Rs.b and Rs.c respectively.
7S + 7E = 49 From the data,
 7(S + E) = 49 => S + E = 7 -> (3) 2a + 4b + 3c = 17 -> (1)
(1) – (3) * (3) => a + 2b = 4 -> (2)
The corresponding coefficients of a and b in both the equations are in the same ratio
3S + 4E = 25 i.e., We can find the value of c
3S + 3E = 21 (1) – 2 * (2) =>
- - - 2a + 4b + 3c = 17
----------------- 2a + 4b =8
E=4 ------------------------
Substituting E = 4, in (3) we get 3c = 9
3 + 4 = 7 => S= Rs.3 C=3
The cost of each sharpener Rs.3 and that of each eraser is Rs.4 Choice (2) The cost of each milk shake is Rs.3. Choice (3)

12. 2x + 4y = 8 ->(1)
3x + 6y = 8 ->(2)
Multiplying the equation (1) with 3
RATIO, PROPORTION - VARIATION
 6x + 12y = 24 ->(3)
1. Let the number of chocolates Rita got be 3x
Multiplying the equation (2) with 2
The number of chocolates that Sita got be 2x
 6x + 12y = 20 ->(4)
Total number of chocolates is 2x + 3x = 5x
From (3) & (4), we find that, the two equation are inconsistent.
But total number of chocolates is 25
There is no solution for the set of equations i.e. Zero solution. Choice (1)
i.e. 5x = 25
=> x = 5
13. 2x + 6y = 12 -> (1)
The number of chocolates, that Rita got is 3x = 3 x 5 = 15 Choice (2)
3x + 9y = 18 -> (2)
3 * (1) => 6x + 18y = 36 -> (3)
2. a:b=2:7
2a : 3b = 2 x 2 : 7 x 3 = 4 : 21 Choice (1) 8. Let the marks obtained in maths, physics and chemistry be 2x, 3x and 4x respectively.
i.e. Total marks = 2x + 3x +4x = 9x = 189
3. x: y = 3: 7 --- (1) x = 21
y : 3 = 7 : 4 --- (2) i.e. The marks obtained in maths is 2x = 2 x 21 = 42 Choice (2)
from (1) and (2) we have
x : y : z = 3 : 7 : 4, since y = 7 in both the ratios. 9. Let the number of working days and the salary be x and y respectively.
i.e. x : z=3 : 4 Choice (4) yαx
 y = kx.
4. Let the numbers be x and y. From the data.  25 = k * 10,000
= 10,000 = k.25
k = 400
7x = 3y --- (1)
If x = 26,
x + y = 20 --- (2)
y = x * k = 26 * 400 = RS.1 0,400 Choice (4)
(1) + 3 x (2) •
7x = 3y
3x + 3y = 60 10. x α
-------------------------  xy = k
1 0x + 3y =3y + 60  9 * 30 = k
 10x = 60 If x = 6, y = = 45 Choice (1)
 x = 6; y = 20 - 6 = 14.
i.e. The smaller number is 6. Choice (4) 11. A α B. C
 A = k . BC
5. a : b=7 : 4 300 = k (20) (50)
By applying component and dividend we get
 K=
(a + b): (a - b) = (7 + 4) : (7 - 4) = 11 : 3 Choice (1)
When A = 900, c = 60
6. p: q=4:1 900 = * B * 60
p = a + b, q = a - b B = 50 Choice (1)
(a + b) : (a - b) = 4 : 1
By applying component and dividend 12. P α (Q + R)
We get (a + b) + (a - b) : (a + b) - (a - b) = (4+1) : (4 - 1)  P = K (Q + R)
 2a : 2b = 5 : 1 If Q increased by 2 and R inversed by 2, then P increased by4k [ i.e. P = k(Q + R + 4)].
a:b=5:3 Choice (3) Since k is not known, 4k cannot be found. Choice (4)

7. Let the number of male employees be 8x and the number of female employees be 7x 13. x α
Total number of employees = 8x + 7x = 15x = 30  xyz = k
x=2 when x = 5, y = 7 and z = 8
i.e. Number of male employees is 16 and that of female employees is 14. k=5*7*8
If two female employees are recruited then the total number of female employees will be when y = 4 and z = 10
14 + 2 = 16 which is equal to that of male employees. x * 4 * 10 = 5 * 7 * 8
Then the ratio becomes 16 : 16 i.e. 1: 1 Choice (2) x=7 Choice (4)
14. Let the salaries of A and B is RS.2x and RS.3x respectively.
Let the expenditure of A and B is Rs.3y and Rs4y respectively. PERCENTAGES - PROFIT & LOSS -
Ratio of Savings = (2x - 3y) : (3x - 4y)
For different values of x and y we get different ratios for savings.
PARTNERSHIPS
We cannot find unique answer. Choice (5)
1. Let 100 be the price of the product, if it is increased by 10%; the price will become 110.If
15. Triplicate ratio of a : b means a3 : b3 this price is decreased by 10%, then the final price will be 99.A decrease of 1%. Any price
a3 : b3 = 8 : 27 = (2)3 : (3)3 when first increased and then decreased by x%, then the Change is (x/10)2 % decrease.
 a:b=2:3 Choice (3) (x/10)2 % = (10/10)2 = 1 % decrease. Choice (2)

16. Sub-duplicate ratio of a : b means : duplicate ration of a : b means a2 : b2 2. Any price if first decreased and then increased by x% then the change is (x/10)2 % decrease.
: = 2 : 3 a:b = 4 : 9 Let Rs.100 be the price of the product, if it decreased by 10%, the price will become Rs.90.
a2 : b2= 16 : 81 Choice (4) If this price is increased by 10% than the final price will be RS.99.
The change is 1 % decrease
17. a = 50% of b = (x/10)2 % = (10/10)2 = 1 % decrease. Choice (2)
 b = 25% of c =
 c = 4b 3. Let the original price be Rs.100. Price after increase = Rs.135. When the price after
a : c = : 4b = 1 : 8 Choice (4) increase is Rs.54, original price = x 100 = Rs.40
Alternately the price of the product after being increased by 35% will become to 1.35 times
18. Let the present ages of the two persons be 3x years and 5x years the original price. The original price = = Rs.40 Choice (3)
From the data,
(3x + 5) : (5x + 5) = 2 : 3 4. Let the salary of each person be Rs.x The total salary = Rs.2x. Total salary after the changes
9x + 15 = 1 Ox + 1 0 in the salaries of the two persons = x (1 +0.1)+ x (1 -0.1) = Rs.2x
 x=5 There is no change in the total Salary. Choice (3)
The present age of the younger person is 3x = 3 x 5 = 15 years. Choice (1)
5. If the price of a product is decreased by 10%. Then it becomes 0.9 times the original price
19. Let the weights of Arun and Bala be 4x kg and 5x kg respectively. ∴The original price = =Rs.80 Choice (4)
4x + 5x = 45
 x=5 6. Let the price of the product ‗B‘ be Rs.100. The price of the product 'A‘ will be Rs.200. Total
Weight of Bala = 5x or 25 kg Choice (4) price of A and B = 100 + 200 = Rs.300. The price of A after 10% Increase = 200×(1.1) =
Rs.220
20. x = A wnere A is constant. The price of B after 25% Increase = 100×(1.25) = Rs.125
A= = =1 Total price = 220 + 125 = Rs.345
i.e. x = The percentage increase = × 100
when y = 216, x = 6 x 100 = 15% Choice (1)
Alternative solution:
= --- (1) 7. Let the price of fan Q be Rs.100, the price of fan P be Rs.300.
Total price of P and Q = 100 + 300 = Rs.400
If x1 = 2, y1 = 8 and y2 = 216, x2 can be found to be 6. Choice (1) The price of P after 10% increase = 300 x (1.1) = Rs.330
 The price of Q after 30% decrease = 100 x (0.7) = RS.70 salary. Choice (4)
Total price = 330 + 70 = Rs.400
No change in the total price. Choice (3) 14. Given that shop keeper incurred a loss of 10% after selling the item at Rs.36
∴90% of the cost price of the item = 36
8. Let the original price be Rs.100 ∴The cost price of the item = x 100 = Rs.40
The price after 25% increase = (1.25) 100 = Rs.125
30% profit = 40 × = Rs.12
The required percentage decrease 100 = 20% Choice (2)
To gain 30%, the shopkeeper should sell the item at
Rs.40 + Rs.12 = Rs.52. Choice (2)
9. Let the number of children in the previous year be x.
The number of children in the current year is 4x. 15. Let the selling price of the product be Rs.100
Percentage increase in the number of children = 300% Choice (4) The cost price of the product = Rs.80
Profit=100-80 = Rs.20
10. Let the total marks of Suresh be 100. Percentage profit = ×100 = 25%
Total marks of Pradeep = (1.1) x 100 = 110 Unless otherwise specified profit percentage is always calculated on the cost price.
The question is to compare the total marks of Suresh with that of Pradeep. Choice (3)
Suresh has got 10 marks less than that of Pradeep.
Suresh got % less than that of Pradeep 16. Let the cost price of each product be RS.1 00
i.e., 9 % less. Choice (3) The selling price of the first product
= 1.16 × 100 = Rs.116
The selling price of the second product
11. Profit = selling price - cost price = 104 - 80 = Rs.24
= 0.92 × 100 = Rs.92
percentage of profit = 100
Total selling price = 116 + 92 = RS.208
x 100 = 30% Choice (3) Overall profit = 208 - 200 = Rs.8
Percentage of profit = x 100 = 4% Choice (1)
12. Selling price = Cost price + Profit = 240 + 30 = RS.270
This selling price is (100 - 10)% of the marked price (M.P) 17. Total money invested = 15000 + 20000 = Rs.35,000
[∵10% is the discount on marked price] B Invested RS.20000.
M.P= => B invested
The market price = × 100 i.e., th of the total investment
= × 100 = Rs.300 Choice (4) ∴ B‘s share = th of the total profit
= × 8400 = Rs.4800 Choice (2)
13. Let the total salary of first 30 employees before hike be Rs. X
∴The total salary of these 30 employees after 20% increase will be x × (1.1) = 1.1x 18. Total cost of 60 items = 60 x 10 = RS.600
Let the total salary of remaining 20 employees before like be Rs.y In order to get a profit of RS.5 per unit the total profit
∴The total salary of these 20 employees after 20% increase will be y × (1.2) = 1.2 y Should be 60 x 5 = Rs.300
Total percentage change in the salary = p% Profit on 20 unit by selling 'at RS.12 each
= × 100 = (12 -10) x 20 = Rs.40
As p depends on the values of x and y we cannot find the percentage increase in the total The profit that is to be obtained on remaining 40 items = 300 - 40 = RS.260
 Profit per Item = = Rs.6.50 24. Cost price for the company is Rs.60
Selling price of each item = 10 + 6.50 = RS.16.50 Choice (3) Selling price for the company is RS.70
Profit = 70 - 60 = RS.10
19. Profit on 3 pieces = Cost price of 2 pieces. Percentage of profit 100 = 16 % Choice (1)
(Selling price - Cost price) of 3 pieces
= Cost price of 2 pieces. 25. Cost price tor the company is Rs.60
=> selling price of 3 pieces = cost price of 5 pieces Selling price for the company is RS.70
=> S.P. of 1 piece = C.P. of pieces Profit for the company = 70 - 10 = RS.1 0
Similarly, Profit for the dealer = 85 - 70 = Rs.15 and
= C.P. of (1 + ) pieces.
Profit for the shopkeeper = 102 - 85 = RS.17
(S.P. - C.P) of one piece C.P of pieces. ∴The shopkeeper got highest profit. Choice (3)
By selling one piece 1 the profit made is equal to of the cost price.
Profit percentage = × 100 = 66 % Choice (1) 26. The cost price of the product is Rs.60
The price after increasing it by 25%
= 1.25 x 60 = Rs75
20. The increase in percentage points = 40% - 30% = 10 percentage points. Choice (2)
The price after increased by 33 %
21. Let the total income of the family before Karan's increment be Rs.100 Karan's income is = (1 + ) ×75 = ×75=RS.100
Rs.30
The selling price = RS.100 Choice (1)
Karan's income after increment is 30 x (1 + ) = Rs.35
Total income of the family = 100 - 30 + 35 = RS.105 27. Anil and Nikhil invest same amount of money for the different time periods. .. The profits
Karan's contribution = × 1 00 = 33 % Choice (1) are shared in the ratio of respective time periods.
The ratio is 8:12 i.e., 2 : 3
22. Let the total income of the family be RS.100 ∴Anil's share is i.e., of the total profit
=> The savings = Rs.30 Which is × 1,000 = Rs.400. Choice (2)
The expenditure = 100 - 30 = RS.70
Given that expenditure on Children education is increased by 10% of the total income i.e.,
28. Rajath invested RS.10,000 for eight months and Manoj invested RS.6,000 for six months.
RS.10 and the new expenditure on children education = Rs.40 Since the savings is constant,
The ratio of profit that is to be shared
savings as a percentage of expenditure towards education = × 100 = 75% Choice (2) 10,000 × 8: 6,000 ×12 = 10: 9
Manoj's Share is of the total profit
23. Let the total income of the family be RS.100 initially
Total expenditure = Rs.60 initially i.e., ×5,700 = RS.2,700 Choice (2)
Total savings = 100 - 60 = Rs. 40 initially
Income of Ramu = Rs. 40 initially 29. Annual income is' equal to the interest accrued/dividend
Income of Ramu after the increment paid = 20000 × = RS.1000 Choice (1)
= 40 × Rs.60
New total savings = RS.60 30. 4.5% premium means the market value is Rs.104.5,
New total income = RS.120 Whereas the face value is RS.100
New total savings = 100 = 50% of the total Choice (2) ∴The number of units of this stock purchased
= = 100
Because the money invested in 6% stock, every stock of face value of RS.100 gives an
 income of RS.6 at the end of the year. ∴The cost of others is increased by 10%
∴100 units will give 100 × 6 = Rs.600 Choice (2) Alternately, when the cost of each of the raw materials A, B and C as well as the total cost is
increase
31. 2.5% discount means the market value is Rs.97.50 10%, the cost of others also increases by 10%. There no need to calculate in this case.
Whereas the face value is Rs.100 Choice (3)
∴The number of units of this stock purchased
= = 200
Because the money invested in 7% stock, every stock of face value of RS.100 gives an
NUMBERS
income of Rs.7 at the end of the year.
1. 38= (34)2= 812= 6561 Choice (3)
∴200 units will give 200 × 7 = RS.1400. Choice (3)
2. 216 = (28)2 = (256)2 = 65536 Choice (2)
32. Number of units of stock purchased
= = 200 3. The tens digit of a perfect square ending with 6 is always odd. So, a perfect square can never
∴Profit on one share = RS.1 07 - RS.92 = RS.15 end with 46. Choice (2)
Profit on 200 shares = 200 × 15 = Rs. 3,000 Choice (3)
4. If a perfect square ends with 5, the tens digit is always 2. Choice (2)
33. 13% discount means the market value RS.87 where as the face value is RS.100
∴The number of units of this stock purchased 5. 4356 is a perfect square whereas 4256 is not. Choice (3)
= = 200
Because, the money invested in 6% stock, every stock of face value of RS.1 00 gives an 6. It is useful for the students to remember the perfect squares up to 502. None of 136, 236,
Income of RS.6 end of the year. 336, 436, 536. 636. 736, 836 and 936 is a perfect square. Choice (2)
∴200 units will give 200 × 6 = RS.1200.
∴ Yield percent = 100 ~ 6.9% ~7% Choice (1) 7. In 169. 529 and 729 A is odd while in 289, A is even. Choice (3)

8. The three-digit perfect squares of the form A6B are 169, 361 and 961. So, whatever be the
34. Number of units that Ajay purchased
number. A is always odd. Choice (1)
= = 30
Income of Ajay at the end of the year = 30 × 8 9. There is only one three-digit square of the form X9Y and that is 196.
= Rs.240 Hence, X + Y = 1 + 6 = 7 Choice (1)
Number of units that Sujan purchased
= = 40 10. The product of an m-digit and an n-digit number will have either (m + n - 1) or (m + n)
Income of Sujan at the end of the year digits.
= 40 × 5 = RS.200 So, the given product has either 14 or 15 digits. Choice (3)
∴ Ajay will get more income than Sujan. Choice (2)
11. The product of m-digit. n-digit and p-digit numbers will have either (m + n + p - 2),
35. Let the total cost price of the product be RS.1 00 (m + n + p - 1) or (m + n + p) digits. So. the given product has 25 or 26 or 27 digits.
Other costs = 100 - (10 + 15 + 15) = Rs.60 Choice (4)
Increased cost of material A, Band C together
= (10 + 15 + 15) ×1.1 = Rs.44 12. The least 15-digit number is 1 x 1014 and its square-root is 1 x 107, an eight-digit number.
∴The new total cost = 100 × 1.1= RS.110 The largest 15-digit number is (1 x 1015 - 1) whose square root is less that x 101 =: 3.-3 x
The new cost of others = 110 - 44 = RS.66 which 10% more than RS.60 101, which is also an eight- digit number. Note that while the square of an eight-digit
 number has either 15 or 16 digits, the square root of a 15-digit number has exactly 8 digits. 23. 0 = = Choice (2)
Choice (2)
24. 0. = = = Choice (3)
13. 2000 < (2ABC) < 3000
=> (2000)4 < (2ABC)4 < (3000)4
(16)(1012) < (2ABC)4 < (81)(1012) 25. 391 = 400 - 9 = 202-32 = (23)(17) not a prime
both (16)(1012) and (81)(1012) have 14 digits. Hence, (2ABC)4 also has 14-digits. Choice (2) 899 = 302 -12 = (29)(31) not a prime
621 is a multiple of 9, not a prime
14. The smallest and the largest 23-digit numbers are [1 x 1022] and [1 x 1023 - 1] respectively. 199 is a prime. (It is not divisible by 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 and 13) Choice (4)
Their cube roots are [3√10 ×107] and [3√100 ×107] (approximately). In either case, the cube
root of a 23- digit number has exactly 8 digits. Note that, though the cube of an eight-digit 26. Twin primes are the prime numbers which differ by 2
number has 22 or 23 or 24 digits, the square root of a 23-digit number exactly has eight 161 = (7)(23)
digits. Choice (2) So, 161 is not a prime.
Hence (161,163) are not twin primes. Choice (4)
Note: In general nth root of a M-digit number will digits if is an integer OR +1 if
Note: Students must be in a position to identify primes less than 200.
is not an integer, where is the greatest integer less than .
27. A number is a multiple of 11, if and only if the difference of the sum of the digits in the
15. Sum of two odd numbers is even. The even number (say 2k) of odd numbers can be written even positions and that in the odd positions is a multiple of 11.
as k such sums. So, it turns out to be sum of k even numbers, which is even. Choice (1) Only for 123321, this is true. Choice (3)

16. The product of any number of even numbers is even. Choice (1) 28. If a number is divisible by 9, the sum of the digits is also a multiple of 9.
Sum of the digits = 28 + A = 36
17. A composite number may be even (like 4, 6..........) or odd (like 9, 15……). Since we do not =>A = 8 Choice (2)
know how many of them are even and how many are odd, we cannot say whether the sum
is even or odd. Choice (3) 29. Since the number 975321A is a multiple of 9, sum of the digits (27 + A) is also a multiple of
9.
18. For the same reason as mentioned above, we cannot say whether the product of odd => 27 + A = 27 or 36 =>A = 0 or 9 Choice (4)
number of composite numbers is even or odd. Choice (3)
30. A number is divisible by 2n or 5n if the number formed by the last n digits, taken in that
19. 2 is the only even prime number. Since we do not know whether 2 is included or not we order (from left to right), is divisible by 2 n or 5n respectively.
cannot say whether the required product is even or odd. Choice (3) So, the number is divisible by 32, if F8768 is divisible by 32.
Since we do not know F, we cannot say. Choice (3)
20. Except 2 all other primes are odd. If all the primes are odd. then their sum would of also be
odd. But since the sum is given as even, hence 2 have to be one of them. Choice (1) 31. Applying the divisibility rule mentioned in the previous solution, we need to know if 9125
is divisible by 625. It is not divisible. Choice (2)
21. 17017=17000+17=17(1001)
= 17(7)(11)(13) = (71)(111)(131)(171) 32. Let N be the number and S be the sum of its digits.
The number of prime factors of 17017 is 4. Choice (4) N=9m+r
S = 9n + r
22. =0. = = Choice (1) N - S = 9 (m - n), a multiple of 9. Choice (2)
Note: A number N and the sum of its digits S have the same 9's remainder.
33. LCM (A,B) x HCF (A,B) = A x B
Given LCM = 144 HCF = 2 42. (56) (75) is not perfect square.
A= 16 The number of ways of writing (56) (75) as a product of two numbers =
=>B = = 18 Choice (1) Choice (2)

34. If LCM (A, B, C) = ABC, then every pair of A, Band C are co-prime. 43. If a number has n distinct prime factors, it can be written as a product of co-primes in 2n-1,
Hence, HCF (A, B) = 1 Choice (1) ways. The given number has two prime factors. So, it can be written as a product of co-
primes in 22 -1= 2 ways. Choice (2)
35. Given HCF (A, B, C) = 1
Let (A, B, C) = (4, 6, 9) 44. The given number has 4 distinct prime factors. Hence it can be written as a product of co-
HCF (4, 6, 9) = 1 primes in 24 -1, i.e., 8 ways. Choice (1)
But LCM (4, 6, 9) = 36
4x6x9 45. The sum of the factors of (23)(34)
Let (A, B, C) = (3, 5, 7) =1815 Choice (2)
LCM (3, 5, 7) = 105 = (3)(5)(7) Choice(3)

36. (36)(63) = (23)(39) 46. 221=(13)(17)

The number of factors of the given number Sum of the factors of 221
= (3+1) (9+1) = 40 Choice (2) = (13+1)(17+18) = 252 Choice (3)

37. A number N is expressed as a product of the powers of its prime factors. If it is a perfect 47. Sum of the factors of a perfect number is twice the number. Hence K=2 Choice (3)
square, the exponents of all the prime powers must be even.
(37) (511) [(3) (5)]5= (312) (516) 48. If a , b, c, …..Are the prime factors of N, then the number of numbers less than N that are
Hence, the number is a perfect square. Choice (1) co-prime to N, is .

38. A number N = aPbq

where a, b are distinct primes is a perfect cube if p, q are multiples of 3. ) 21 Choice (2)
If (p + 1) (q + 1) is odd we can only say that both p and q are even but not whether p and q
are multiples of 3. Choice (3)
49. N = (2 A+2C)(3b)

39. A perfect square will always have an odd number of factors. Choice (2)
Choice (3)
40. 112=121
1112 = 12321
50.
11112 = 1234321
Choice (1)
111112 = 123454321
1111112 = 12345654321 Choice (4)
51. 36=22*32
41. (2 )(3 ) is a perfect square
4 6

The number of ways of writing it as a product of two distinct factors

Choice (1)
 The sum of the co-primes of N less than N=
62. a3 + b3 - c3 + 3abc
Choice (4)
= a3 + b3 + (-c)3 - 3ab (-c)
= (a + b - c) (a2 + b2 + c2 - ab + bc + ca)
52. (9989)(10011)=100002-112 –
=100000000-121 = 99999879 Choice (2) = =a+b–c Choice (3)

53. a+ =3 63. Given that N = 36k + 23

Rem = Rem
=> 2 = a2+ a2+ Choice (3)
= Rem =5 Choice (2)
54. a- = 2
64. Given that N = 36k + 23
=> 2= a2+ a2+ Choice (2)
K is either odd or even.
Let k = 2m + 1 N = 72m + 59
55. x4+x2+1 Rem = 59
= (x4+2x2+1)-x2=(x2+1)2-x2
Let k = 2n N = 72n + 23
= (x2-x+1)(x2+x+1) Choice (2)
Rem = 23 is
56. (7101+18101) is always a multiple of (7+18) i.e., 25. Note that an+bn is always a multiple of Rem = is either 59 or 23 Choice (2)
(a+b) when n is odd. Choice (2)
65. Given N = 36k + 9 = 9 (4k + 1)
57. a+b=10 and ab=23 When N is divided by 45 (a multiple of 9),
a3+b3=(a+b)3-3ab(a+b) the remainder will also be a multiple of 9. Choice (2)
=103 – 3(10)(23) = 1000-690 = 310 Choice (4)
66. LCM (120,180) = 360
58. 272n – 112n=729n-121n LCM [120, 180, 270)
= (729-121)k = 608k = LCM [LCM (120,180), 270)
Note: an-bn is always a multiple of (a-b) Choice (3) =LCM [360, 270) = 1080 Choice (4)

59. an + bn will always be divisible by a + b if n is odd. As n, is odd, always be divisible by 17 + 7 67. HCF (63, 84) = 21
i.e. 24. As 17n + 7n is divisible by 24, it is also divisible by factors of 24 of the options, 3 is HCF [63, 84, 154]
the only factor of 24. Hence 17n + 7n is always divisible by 3. Choice (3) = HCF [HCF (63, 84), 154]
= HCF [21,154) = 7 Choice (2)
60. If a+b+c=0
a3+b3+c3-3abc 68. LCM of fractions first expresses the fractions in the simplest form. They
=(a+b+c)+(a2+b2+c2-ab-bc-ca)
LCM =
=> a3+b3+c3-3abc = 0
=> a3+b3+c3 = 3abc Choice (2) The fractions are
= = = 10 Choice (3)
61. a3+b3+c3 = 3abc => a+b+c=0 or
a2+b2+c2-ab-bc-ca=0
=>a+b+c = 0 or a=b=c Choice (3)
69. For the LCM of fractions, first express the fractions in the simplest form. 76. Using the above logic, the highest power of 2 in 128! Is
HCF = 64 + 32 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 127 Choice (2)

HCF = HCF
77. Rem = Rem
= = Choice (3)
The remainder when the given number is divided by 25
= Rem =4 Choice (3)
70. When finding the HCF of more than two numbers, each number must be involved in the
HCF functions at least once.
78. 2300 = 8100
For e.g. HCF [a, b, c, d]
= HCF [HCF (a, b, c), d] Rem = Rem = Rem =1 Choice (4)
HCF [HCF (a, b, c), HCF (b, c, d) and so on
HCF [a, b, c, d] = HCF [HCF (a, b) HCF (c, d)] Choice (1) 79. Rem = Rem
Rem =4
71. The same rule (as mentioned) above holds good for LCM.
Hence LCM (a, b, c, d, e) Rem
= LCM [LCM (a, b), LCM (c, d) LCM (a, e), LCM (b, c)] Choice (1) = Rem =1 Choice (1)

72. The last digit of 7n repeats in a cycle of 4.

80. Rem = Rem = Rem =7
7 1 7 , 7 2 9 , 7 3 3 , 74 1 , 75 7 , 7 6 9, and so on
7400 = 7 4 (100) 1, Hence 8 - 7 i.e., 1 is to be added to make the sum a multiple of 8. Choice (3)
The last digit of 9n repeats in a cycle of 2.
The last digit of 9" repeats in a cycle of 2. 81. Rem = Rem = (-1)175
91 9 , 9 2 1 , 9 3 9 , 9 4 1, and so on =-1 or 13 - 1= 12 Choice (2)
9 300 = 9 4 (75) 1
The last digit of (7400)(9300) is 1 Choice (1) 82. A number is divisible by 19 If twice the unit's digit when added to the rest of the number
results in a multiple of 19. If the result of twice the unit's digit when added to the rest of the
73. The units digit of 137682533 is the same as the units digit of 82533 number is a large number, we repeat the procedure till we get a number which can readily
The last digit of 8n repeats in a cycle of 4. be identified whether it is a multiple of 19 or not carrying out this process for all the
81 , 8 2 4 , 8 3 2 , 84 6 , 85 8 , 8 6 , 8 5 2 , and so on options it can be found that only 554781 is divisible by 19. Choice (4)
8 =8
2533 4(k) + 1 8 Choice (2)
83. 1 + 3 x 4 2 of 0.5
74. =a–b = 1 + 3 x (4 1) = 1 + 3 (4) = 13 Choice (2)
Here a = 9.77 and b = 3. 68
a - b = 9.77 - 3.68 = 6.09 Choice (1) 84. 5 is present in the first 30 odd numbers. All odd multiples of 5 end with 5.
Hence the product of the first 30 odd numbers ends with 5. Choice (1)
75. In the first 125 natural numbers. The number of multiples of 5 25 the number of
multiples of 25 5 the number of multiples of 125 1 85. Similarly the product of the first 75 even numbers ends with a 0. Choice (3)
The number of 5s 31
Hence the number of zeros = 31 Choice (1) 86. Any prime number greater than 3 is of the form
6k ± 1 where k is a natural number. Choice (2)
87. The product of r consecutive natural numbers is divisible by r !. 98. LCM Model 3
Hence the product of six consecutive natural numbers is divisible by 6! i.e., 720 Choice (1) Given 5k + 1 = 6m + 4 ~ 5k = 6m + 3
k = 3 and m = 2,
88. Each even number is a multiple of 2. Hence the product of 10 even numbers is always The number is of the form n - LCM (5, 6) + 16
divisible by 210. Choice (2) The least such number is 16. Choice (1)

89. Given number is (29) (38) (511). 99. The side of the smallest square that can be formed with dimensions 3 x 2 is LCM (3, 2) i.e., 6
To get a perfect square the exponents of all the prime factors must be even. Hence its area is 36. Choice (3)
Hence it must be multiplied by (21) (51) i.e. 10 Choice (3)
100. A number divisible by 5, 6 and 8 is always divisible by LCM (5, 6, 8) i.e., 120.
90. (37) (511) The three-digit multiples of 120 are 120, 240, 360, 480, 600, 720, 840 and 960. Choice (3)
If the number of 3's and 5's are decreased by 1 each, the number becomes a perfect square.
Hence it must be divided with (31) (51) i.e., 15 Choice (2)
GEOMETRY AND MENSURATION
91. (2 ) (3 ) (5 ) = 2 (3
9 8 7 3(3) ) (5
2(3)+2 )2(3)+1

Hence it must be divided by (32) (51) i.e., 45 to make 1. If two sides of a triangle are a, b and the included angle is C, then the area is given by
the resulting number a perfect cube. Choice (4) ab sin C= (4)(5)(sin 30˚)=5 sq.cm. Choice (3)

92. The least perfect cube greater than 399 is 83 i.e., 512. 2. Given triangle is an isosceles triangle.
Hence 113 must be added to 399 so that the sum is a perfect cube. Choice (3) For an isosceles triangle having sides a, a, b, the area is =
=2 = 12 sq.cm Choice (1)
93. The largest perfect square less than 512 is 484.
Hence 512 - 484 i.e., 28 must be subtracted, so that the resulting number is a perfect square.
3. If the in radius and semi perimeter a triangle are known, then the area of the triangle is
Choice (1)
given by product of the in radius and semi perimeter i.e., Area=rs Choice (4)

94. 9999 = (588)(17) + 3

4. If the three sides and the circum radius of a triangle are known, the area of the triangle is
9996 = (588)17
The largest 4-digit number, which leaves a remainder of 7 when divided by 17 three sides divided by four times the circum radius i.e., area= Choice (2)
is (588 -1) 17 + 7 = 9986 Choice (2)
5. The area of an equilateral triangle having side a is given by
95. 999 = 41 (24) + 15
The area = =4 sq.cm. Choice (3)
984 = (41)(24)
The largest 4-digit number which when divided by 24 leaves a remainder of 18 is
984 + 18 = 1002 Choice (4) 6. The given triangle is a right-angled triangle [ . For a right-angled triangle,
the length of the circum radius is equal to half of the hypotenuse.
96. The (LCM model 1) number is of the form k -LCM( 7,8) + 6= 56k + 6 The length of the circumradius = = 2.5 cm Choice (3)
It is least when k = 0 i.e., 6 Choice (4)
7. The given triangle is a right-angled triangle [ . In right-angled triangle,
97. LCM Model 2 the orthocenter is at the vertex, having the right angle.
The number is of the form LCM (12,18)-7
= 36 - 7 = 29 Choice (4)
 16. Let D be the mid-point of BC. If in a triangle, the three sides are known, then the sum of the
twice the sum of squares of the median to the third side and the half of the third side.
(Apollonius Theorem)
i.e., AB2+ AC2=2 [AD2+ ( ) 2] = 2[AD2+BD2]
42+62= 2[AD2+42]
26= AD2+ 16
From the figure B is the orthocenter. AD= cm. Choice (2)
The required sum= BA+BB+BC = 6+0+8=14cm Choice (1)
17. In a triangle, the angle subtended by two vertices at the in centre is equal to the sum of 90˚
8. The in radius of a triangle is always, less than the half of the smallest attitude. Given the and half of the angle subtended by these vertices at the third vertex.
length of the smallest attitude is 6 cm, the in radius is always less than 3 cm. Choice(3)
BIC =90˚ + = 90˚ + =125˚ Choice (3)

9. In an isosceles triangle, all the four centres i.e., the centroid, the orthocentre, the
18. The triangle is an acute-angled triangle since 72<52+62 i.e., 49<25+36
circumcentre and the in centre lie on the median to the base. The given triangle is an
in an acute-angled triangle, the four centers lie inside the triangle.
isosceles triangle. [ Two sides are equal]
The circumcentre lies inside the triangle. Choice (1)
The area of the quadrilateral formed by the centroid, the orthocenter, the circumcentre
and the incentre is 0. Choice (4)
19. The triangle is an obtuse-angled triangle, since 42>22+32 i.e., 16>4+9
In an obtuse-angled triangle the circumcentre and the orthocenter lies outside the triangle
10. In an equilateral triangle, the centroid and the orthocenter coincide. The orthocenter
Choice (3)
divides each of the medians in the ratio 2:1. [ the centroid divides each of the median in
the ratio 2:1] Choice (3)
20. In centre. The point of contact of three internal bisectors of a triangle is called as the in
centre, and the perpendicular distance from any of the sides to the in centre is called the in
11. In an equilateral triangle all the four centres, i.e., centroid, the orthocenter, the circumcentre
radius. Choice (4)
and the incentre coincide. The area of the triangle formed by the centroid, the incentre
and the circumcentre is zero. Choice (4)
21.

12. The length of the each of the medians = (12) = 6 cm. In an equilateral triangle the
length of the inradius is one-third the median i.e., ( 6 )= 2 cm. Choice (3)

13. The length of each of the medians = (6) = 3 cm. In an equilateral triangle the length of
the circumradius is times the length of the median i.e., ( 3 )= 2 cm. Choice (1)

14. The six triangles formed by drawing three medians to a triangle are of equal area, each of In a triangle a line drawn parallel to one side of a triangle divides the other two sides in the same
which is equal to th of the area of the original triangle. proportion i.e., =
The area of ∆GEC= (area of ∆ABC) = (12) =2 sq.cm. Choice (1) = = 4.5 cm Choice (3)

15. Angle bisector of an angle divides the opposite side in the ratio of the other two sides. 22. In a cyclic quadrilateral sum of the opposite angles is 180˚
i.e., = = BD =2.4 cm. Choice (4) i.e., A+ C=180˚, B+ D=180˚
40˚+ C=180˚ C=140˚
60˚+ R=180˚ =120˚ Choice (4)
23.

The length of UV given by 10 + 20 Given that DE is parallel to BC

=6+8=14 cm Choice (3) ADE = ABC and AED = ACB
∆ADE and ∆ABC are similar.
24. AD=AB-BD=8-6=2 cm
= =
BC= 12cm Choice (3)

26. A heptagon is a polygon with 7 sides.

The number of diagonals for polygon with n sides is
given by for n=7, this is = 14. Choice (3)

27. Here PQR and PST are two secants

PQ (PR)=PS(PT)
PR= PQ+QR = 6+3=9 cm
6(9)=PS(12)
Here ∆ABD and ∆BDC are similar and are similar to ∆ABC, i.e., the attitude drawn from the PS= 4.5cm Choice (4)
vertex of the right angle to the hypotenuse divides the triangle into two triangles, each of which
is similar to the original triangle. 28.
The similar triangles are ∆BDA and ∆CDB
= AD(CD)=BD2
4(9) =BD2 BD=6 cm Choice (2)

25.

OBA=90˚, since radius at the point of contact is always perpendicular to the tangent.
AB2=OA2-OB2=172-82=25(9)
AB=5(3)=15 cm Choice (1)

29.
 Let AB be the chord and C be the foot of the perpendicular from O to AB.
Angle in a semicircle is a right angle
AC2 = OA2-OC2 = 52 – 32=42
BCA= ˚
AC =4 cm and AB=8 cm Choice (4)
AB2=BC2+AC2
102=62+AC2 AC2 = 102-62 =16 4
30.
AC=(4)(2)= 8 cm Choice(2)

35. The volume of a cuboids is equal to (length) (breadth) (height) = (4)(3)(5) = 60 cm3
Choice (4)

36. The longest diagonal of a cuboids with dimensions l, b and h is Choice (3)

37. The lateral surface area of a cube of side a is 4a2 i.e., 4(42) = 64 sq.cm. Choice (4)
AOB= 2 ACB, since, the angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angles
38. Latent surface area of cuboids =(Area of base)(height)=2 (l+b) h Choice (1)
subtended by the arc at any point on the remaining part of the circle. Given AOB=80˚
ACB= 80˚) = 40˚ Choice (3)
39. The total surface area of a cube of side a is 6a2 i.e., 6(3)2 =54 sq.cm Choice (2)

31. The lateral surface area (LSA) of a prism is equal to the product of the perimeter of the base 40. The total surface area of a cuboids=2(l+b)h+ 2lb = 2(lb+bh=hl). This area is 148cm2.
and the height of the prism. 148=2(4b+6b+24)
LSA=2(4+5)(6)=108 sq.cm. Choice (1) 10b=74-24 b=5cm Choice (1)

32. Total surface area of a prism = Lateral surface area + 2(Area of base) 41. Total surface area of a sphere = 4 r2
Lateral surface area= (4)(5)(8)=160 sq.cm. Hemisphere is half of the sphere and its surface area= r2 + r2 =3 r2
Total surface area=160+2(5)(5)=210 sq.cm. Choice (3) [ r2 is due to the surface area of the base]. Choice (3)

33. Volume of a prism =(Area of the base)(Height of the prism)

42. The volume of a sphere with radius r is [ ] r3
=[ ] (62) (10) =90 cm3 Choice (3)
Volume= [ ] (3)3 = 36 cm3 Choice (1)

34.
43. The volume of a cylinder is r2h, when r is the radius and h is the height.
The volume of the right circular cone is r2h
 The fraction of the cylinder that is not covered by the cone is
=2/3 Choice (2) 53. Let the radius of the base be R. The radius of the top of the frustum is . The top of the
frustum and the base of the smaller cone formed after cutting the original cone have equal
44. The prism and pyramid have the same base, height and the area of the base. radii and the smaller cone is similar to the original cone. Let the height of the cone be h.
The required ratio
Volume of pyramid= ( area of base) (height of the pyramid)
The required ratio is =3/1=3:1 Choice(4) = =7:8 Choice (3)

45. Area of a regular polygon 54. Volume of the smaller cone= ( )2( )
= (perimeter) (perpendicular distance from the centre of the polygon to any side). Volume of the original cone= R2h
In a regular hexagon, the perpendicular distance from the centre to any side= (the length
The required ratio = 1:8 Choice (2)
of the side)
Area = ( )(6)(5)( )(5)= sq.cm Choice(3)
55. The height of the smaller cone =
46. Area of the parallelogram = (product of two adjacent sides) (sine of included angle) adius of the smaller cone= =
=3(4) sin (30˚)=12( )= 6 sq.cm. Choice (3) Let l be the slant height of the original cone
l=
47. Total surface area of a pyramid = Lateral surface+ Area of the base.
The slant height of the smaller cone = = =
Lateral surface area= (perimeter of the base) (slant height)
The ratio of the curved surface area of the smaller cone to that of the original cone
Total surface area= 48+(4)(4)=64 sq.cm. Choice (1)
= = 1:4 Choice (2)
48. Total surface area of a cone = curved surface area + area of the base
Curved surface area= (radius)(slant height)= 4 5= 20 sq.cm.
Total surface area=20 +( )(4)2=36 sq.cm. Choice (2) 56. The slant height of the frustum =
[ The slant height of the frustum is the square root of the sum of the squares of height of
49. Lateral surface area of a cone frustum = ( )(slant height) (sum of the top radius and the base the frustum and the difference of the radii]
radius)= (5)(4+6)= 50 sq.cm. Choice (1)
= = =
50. Total surface area of frustum of a pyramid = Lateral surface + sum of the surface area of top The ratio = =1:2 Choice (3)
and that of base. Lateral surface area=( )(sum of perimeters of the base and top) (Slant
height) 57. Let h, l, R be the height, slant height and radius of the original cone.
=( )[4(3)+4(8)](6) = 144 sq.cm. The height of the frustum=
Total surface area= 144+(4)(4)+(8)(8) The height of the smaller cone = h- =
=144+16+64=224 sq.cm. Choice (3) If l3, R3 are the slant height and radius of the smaller cone then from the property of
similar triangles,
51. Slant height= = = 10 cm Choice (1)
= =
52. The volume of the frustum of the come. Rs=
= h (R2+Rr+r2) Choice (3)
 Top radius of the frustum = 65. Area of the cyclic quadrilateral with sides a, b, c and d
= where
The volume of the smaller cone= ( )2 ( )=
s= For the given quadrilateral,
The volume of the frustum = ( ) [R2+R( )+( )2] = (19R2)
s= = 13
The ratio = = 8:19 Choice (4)
∴Area =
= =4 sq.cm Choice (1)
58.
66.

Let S be the side of the base of the original pyramid. From the similar triangle property the side of
base of the smaller pyramid= S = S/2 Let D be a point on the major arc AC
The side of the top of the frustum = S/2
∴ ADC = AOC = 70˚=35˚
The ratio = In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of the opposite angles is 180˚
∴ ADC + ABC = 180˚
= = = 1:7 Choice (4) ABC = 180˚-35˚=145˚ Choice (2)

67. AB is the diameter, therefore the arc ACB is a semicircle. As the angle in a semicircle is
59. Area enclosed by the ring = (62-42)=20 sq.cm. Choice (3)
right angle
∴ ACB = 90˚
60. Area of the rhombus = product of the diagonals BAC = 180˚ - ( ACB + ABC)
= ( )(8)(9)= 36 sq.cm. Choice (2) =180˚ - (90˚ + 30˚) = 60˚ Choice (2)

61. Area of the trapezium = (1/2) (sum of the parallel sides) 68. Angle between the radius and the tangent at the point of tangency is 90˚
Distance between them = (6 + 8)(4) = 28 sq.cm. Choice (3) ∴ PAD= PBO = 90˚
In quadrilateral OAPB AOB = 360˚-( APB + PAO + PBO)
=360˚ - (40˚ + 90˚ +90˚) = 140˚ Choice (1)
62. Area of the quadrilateral = (10) (4 + 5) = 45 sq.cm. Choice (3)
69. AB, CD and IJ are parallel and EF and GH are parallel.
63. Perimeter of the semicircle = πr + 2r We can extend GH
=7π + 297) = 7 + 14 =22 + 14 = 36cm. Choice (4)

64. Area = (πr2)= (72)=15.4 sq.cm. Choice (4)

 72. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles touching each
other externally is 3.

PP1, QQ1, and RR1, are the three common tangents to the two externally touching circles
Choice (3)
∴ ILH = 60˚, since alternate angels are equal and corresponding angels are and corresponding
angles are equal. Choice (2) 73. In a cyclic quadrilateral the sum of opposite angles is 180˚. In parallelogram, opposite angles
are equal and their sum need not be equal to 180˚.In rhombus, opposite angles are equal
70. In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of the opposite angles is 180˚ and their sum need not be equal to 180˚.Now, consider an isosceles trapezium ABCD.
∴ BAD + BCD = 180˚
∴ BAD = 180˚ - 130˚=50˚ Choice (1)

71. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to 2 circles is 4.

In an isosceles trapezium, non-parallel sides are equal and the corresponding angles made
by them with the parallel sides are equal.
i.e., DAB = CBA
And ADC = DCB
Sum of the four angles is 360˚
i.e., DAB + ABC + BCD + CDA = 360˚
ABC + ABC+ ADC+ ADC=360˚
[ DAB = ABC and ADC]
2( ABC+ ADC=360˚
× ABC + ADC = 180˚
Sum of the opposite angles is equal to 180˚
AA1, BB1, CC1 and DD1 are the four common tangents to the above two circles. Choice (4) ∴An isosceles trapezium is necessarily a cyclic quadrilateral. Choice (3)
74. The angles in a segment are equal 6. The length of the train is equal to the distance travelled by the train in 20 seconds.
i,e., ADB = ACB The speed of the train = = 15 m/sec
ADCB=70˚
= = 54 kmph. Choice (2)
From the triangle ABD,
ABD + ADB + DAB =180˚
70˚+ DAB = 180˚ 7. Consider the line joining the centre of the dial and the number 12 on the dial as the
∴ DAB = 60˚ Choice (2) reference line. Measurements of angles made by the two hands, during any specified
interval, are measured with reference to their line. At 12' 0 clock, the two hands coincide
75. After joining the midpoint of the 4 sides of any quadrilateral formed is a parallelogram and and the angle made by each of the hands with the reference line is zero degrees. The angle
its area is half of the area of the original quadrilateral made by the hour hand at 3:30 p.m.
= (3 x 30°) + (30 x 1/2°) = 105°..... (1)
∴The area of this quadrilateral i.e., parallelogram is =36 sq.cm. Choice (1)
The angle made by the minute hand, in 30 minutes
= 30 x 6° = 180° .... (2)
TIME AND DISTANCE Hence, at 3:30 p.m., the minute hand leads the hour hand by
an angle equal to (180° -105°) = 75°.
Hence, the required angle is 75°. Choice (1)
1. The distance between P and Q = 3×60=180 Choice (4)

8. If Q starts from the same point from which P started, then the distance of separation
2. To completely cross the bridge the train has to travel a distance of 300 m +700 m =1000 m
between them is the distance travelled by P in 2 hours,
The speed = 36 kmph =
(because 8:00 a.m. - 6:00 a.m. = 2 hours).
takes Choice (1) The information about the starting points of P and Q is not available.
Hence, the question cannot be answered. Choice (4)
3. The relative speed = (40 + 60) = 1000 kmph.
Time taken for them to meet = = 3 hours. 9. Ajay is travelling with the stream.
The relative speed is (6 + 2)kmph = 8 kmph.
8:00 am + 3 hours = 11:00 am Choice (2)
The time taken to row 24 km distance = = 3 hours. Choice (4)
4. From 9:00 a.m. to 10:00 am, A travels for 1 hour i.e. 60 km. At 10:00 am. B and A are
Separated by 60 km. The relative speed of B with respect to A = 80 - 60 = 20 kmph. (Since, 10. The ratio of speeds of A and B = The ratio of distances travelled by A and B.
A and B are travelling in the same direction) A beats B by 250 m means that by the time A covered 1000 m, B covers only 750 m.
The time taken by B to meet A = = 3 hours. The ratio of speeds of A and B = 1000 : 750 = 4 : 3
At 10:00 a.rn. + 3 hours = 1:00 p.m., B meets A. Choice (2) The speed of B = = 6 m/sec. Choice (2)

5. Let the distance be d. 11. Total distance travelled by A = 3 x 60 + 4 x 95 = 560 km.

Total distance travelled = 2d. Total time taken = 3 + 4 = 7 hours.
Total time taken = Average speed = = 80 kmph Choice (3)
Average speed =
12. Difference in speeds Suresh and Ganesh is 12 - 6 = 6 m/sec.
= = 45 kmph. Choice (3) The difference in number of rounds made = Number of rounds made at 6 m/sec.
i.e. = 72 Choice (4)
13. As the duration of journey at different speeds is constant, the average speed of the journey Hence they meet at 10:36 a.m.
is average of the speeds. i.e. = 50 kmph. Choice (2) [Note: In all such cases, t= (here =24, =54 ) ] Choice (2)

14. Let the distance between P and a be d km. and the required time be t hours. 18. To cross each other completely two trains together have to cover a distance equal to the
sum of the lengths of the trains.
i.e. 700 + 800 =1500 m. Choice (3)
=>d(60 - 40) =4800 => d= 240 km.
t= = 5 hours. 19. The first train would have to gain a total distance of 700 + 800 = 1500 m to cross the second
train completely. Choice (3)
Required speed = = 48 kmph Choice (1)

20. If speed s becomes hen time t becomes , provided the distance is the same.
15. Ratio of speeds of A and B is 100 : 90 = 10 : 9
Ratio of speeds of Band C is 100 : 80 = 10 : 8 Hence, = ;
Ratio of speeds of A, Band C is 100 : 90 : 72. Hence, = t becomes Choice (2)
A : C = 100 : 72
A beats C by 28 meters. Choice (3) 21. The time taken is 20% more than the usual time.
i.e. if t is the usual time , then is the actual time taken.
16. Let the distance between A and B be d km
To meet, they have to cover together a distance, d km. i.e. t has become ;hence speed wil become ,where s is the actual speed. Choice (2)
In one minute the total distance travelled by them
= 22. As we don't know the distance of the race. We cannot find the ratio of speeds and hence we
cannot determine by what distance A beat C. Choice (4)
In 6 minutes they will meet each other. Choice (4)

23. By the time B finishes the race, C requires 20 more seconds to finish the race. 10 seconds
17. P C Q
before that, when A finishes the race, B requires 10 seconds more. C requires 30 seconds to
| t || t |
finish the race.
A A beats C by 30 seconds Choice (3)
10:00 a.m. V 10:00 a.m.
| | 24. Ratio of speeds of A and B
A 24 min. = 1000: (1000 - 100) = 10: 9. Choice (2)
| | 54 min.
Let Vijay and Ajay take t minutes to meet at C. 25. As we don't know either the speed of A or the time taken by A,
=> Vijay takes t minutes to cover PC. we cannot find the ratio of speeds. Choice (4)
But CP is covered by Ajay in 54 minutes.
As distance is same, speeds are in the inverse ratio of times. 26. The ratio of times taken by A, Band C
=> ……(1) = =6:4:3 Choice (3)
Extending the same argument, to the section CQ,
=> ……(2) 27. Let the speed of A be 3x kmph, speed of B is 2x kmph. In one hour B covers a distance of 2x
km. As, at 9:00 a.rn. A and B are travelling in the same direction the relative speed
(1) and (2) are equal; hence, ,
= (3x -2x) kmph = x kmph.
=> = 54 24 and t = 36. To catch, B, A has to gain 2x km.It takes 2 hours to gain 2x km.
At 9:00 a.m. + 2 hours = 11 :00 a.m., they meet Choice (2)
 After a time which is the LCM of (15, 12, 10) see, they will meet right at the starting
28. Let the speed of Tarun be 4x kmph. The speed of Varun is 3x kmph. If Tarun covers a point for the first time after 60 seconds. Choice (1)
distance of 4x km, he gains x km over Varun;
=> to gain x km, he shall cover 4x km. 35. If the angle between the minute hand and hour hand is 90°, then the minute hand has to
Distance between Tarun and Varun is 10 km. gain 180°, to get the angle between both the hands again as 90°.
In order to gain 10 km over Varun, Tarun has to cover 40 km. Choice (2) The time required = minutes
= = 32 minutes Choice (1)
29. For every minute, minute hand gains 5.50 over hour hand. From the time the two hands
Coincide once, to the next time the two hands coincide, minute hand has to gain 360 .
36. In a day, any angle (0° < < 180°) between the two hands (hours and minutes) of a clock
The required time = = minutes. Choice (4)
occurs 44 times. Choice (2)

30. In normal clock for every minute, the minute hand and hour hand coincide with 37. In a day the angle between the two hands is 0° for 22 times and is 180° for 22 times.
each other. As in this clock, for every 65 minutes, coinciding of both hands occurs, the The two hands coincides (i.e. 0°) for 22 times. Choice (1)
clock is running fast i.e. gaining Choice (1)
38. Let the distance be 'd' km. The speed of the boat in still water be u kmph and that of
31. The relative speed, if they are running in the same direction = 12 - 8 = 4 m/sec,As Bharat is current be v kmph.
faster, Bharat has to gain 300 movers Anil in order to meet Anil. …..(1)
The time required = = 75 seconds. …..(2)
The relative speed, if they are running in the opposite directions = 12 + 8 = 20 m/sec.
(2) (1) =2
In order for them to meet, they together have to cover 300m.
By applying component do and dividend,
The time required = = 15 seconds.
= 3 : 1. Choice (1)
The required times are 75 sec and 15 sec. Choice (2)

39. Let the speed of the boat in still water be u kmph and that of the current be v kmph.
32. The time taken by A to complete one round = = 15 seconds.
u – v =12 …. (1)
The time taken by B to complete one round = = 10 seconds. u + v = 18 ….(2)
After a time which is the LCM of (15, 10) seconds, they will meet right at the starting point (2) (1) 2v = 6 v = 3 kmph. Choice (2)
i.e. after 30 seconds. Choice (2)
40. Length of the track = 300 meters
33. Let the three cyclists be A, Band C. Speeds of A and B, respectively, are: 5 m/sec and 8 m/sec.
Let their respective speeds be 5 m/sec, 10 m/sec and 20 m/sec.
Relative speed of A and B = (10 - 5) = 5 m/sec.
Length of the track = 100 meters.
The intervals at which A and B meet = 100/5 = 20 seconds..... (1)
Relative speed of Band C = (20 - 10) = 10m/sec.
The intervals at which Band C meet = 100/10= 10 seconds..... (2)
The interval at which A, Band C meet = LCM of (1) and (2).
= LCM of 10 and 20 = 20 seconds. Choice (4)

34. The times taken by the three cyclists to complete one round each are sec, sec, sec.
i.e. 15 see, 12 sec, 10 sec respectively. Let S be the starting point and let them meet after Kumts of time.
 Let M be the 1st meeting point. Time taken by them to fill the tank
Arc SPM : Arc SOM =5 : 8 as speeds are 5 and 8 meters/sec. = hours = 60 minutes = 72 minutes. Choice (3)
At M, A and B inter change their speeds.
As there is no change in the direction, A covers MOS at speed of 8 meters/see, and hence
6. Ratio of efficiencies of P and Q is : i.e. 4 : 3
takes K units of time to reach S ………... (1)
B continues in the direction of MPS, at a speed of 5 m/sec. In the time the tank is filled completely by both taps working together tap P can fill th

Hence, B takes K units of time to reach S ……... (2) of the tank.

(1) and (2) imply, A and Breach S at the same time; hence, neither reaches first. Choice (3) Note: Here, the actual time taken to fill the tank is not required. Choice (4)

TIME AND WORK 7. A and B together, in one day can do th of the work. i.e, during any specified
interval, are measured with th

1. Number of mandays = 20 x 20 = 400 In 12 days they will complete the work working together. Choice (2)
1 man in one day can complete of the work i.e. th Choice (4)
8. P and Q together can complete th of the work in 1 day between P alone can complete th

2. Number of manhours = 8 6 of the work in 1 day The work done by Q alone in 1 day th of the work.
one man working 8 hours a day needs = 6 days to complete the work Choice (1) In 10 days, Q alone can complete the work Choice (1)

3. Given one man can eat one fruit in one day Eating one fruit represents a work of 1 manday 9. The ratio of efficiencies of the two persons is 2 : 3
by 1 man. In n days, 1 man can eat n fruits. In n days, m men can eat m x n fruits. They Q is faster. He completes i.e. th of the work by the time, the work completes
would do a work of m x n mandays. In 24 days he completes th of the work
8 men in 8 days i.e. in. 8 x 8 = 64 mandays = 64 fruits. Choice (2)
He completes total work in 24 x = 40 days. Choice (1)

4. Filling tap can fill th of the tank in 1 hour

10. Ratio of individual times taken by A and B is 3 : 4.
Emptying tap can empty th of the tank in 1 hour Their efficiencies are in the ratio : =4:3
In 1 hour, the quantity of water filled by both the taps The ratio of work done by them is equal to the ratio of their efficiencies since they work for
working together is th of the tank
the same time.
It takes 12 hours to completely fill the tank. The required ratio is 4 : 3 Choice (4)
Alternative solution:
The emptying tap takes twice the time as the filling tap. Hence emptying tap is half as 11. Ratio of times taken by P, Q and R is 2: 3: 4
efficient as the filling tap. Thus when both work together the tank gets filled at half the rate Their efficiencies are in the ratio of : : =6:4:3
of the filling tap. Hence it takes double the time as that of the filling tap. The ratio of work done in one hour = 6: 4 : 3 Choice (2)
6 hours x 2 = 12 hours. Choice (2)
12. Number of manhours required to complete the work
5. Tap A can fill of the tank in 1 hour. = 4 x 4 x 4 = 64 manhours
Tap B can fill of the tank in 1 hour. Eight men working 8 hours a day completes 8 x 8 = 64 man-hours in one day which is
required total number of manhours.
Tap A and tap B can together fill of the tank
In one day the work will be completed. Choice (4)
i.e. th of the tank in 1 hour.
13. A worked for 4 days the exact time taken by them to complete the work and this will depend upon who starts
The part of the work completed by A is =: th the work
The share of A is of the total earnings i.e. Rs. 1000. Choice (2)
20. A and B take less time to complete the work than Band C take to complete the work
working together. Hence A takes less time than C to complete the work working alone.
14. The ratio of efficiencies of A, Band C is 3 : 4 : 6
Band C take less time to complete the work than A and C take to complete the work
The work done by A was i.e, th of the total work. Choice (3) working together. Hence B takes less time than C to complete the work. C is the slowest
worker. Choice (3)
15. Quantity of ration = 60 kg Quantity of ration consumed by a family of 8 members if each

AVERAGES - MIXTURES -
consumes at 1.5 kg per day
= 8 x 1.5 = 12 kg per day
60 kg is sufficient for = 5 days. Choice (1)
ALLIGALIONS
16. A is 20% more efficient than B.
1. Present average age of the family is 20 years. After 4 years, each person in the family will be
The ratio of efficiencies is 120 : 100 i.e. 6 : 5
older by 4 years. Hence the average also increases by 4 years.
The ratio of work done by A and B is 6 : 5 Choice (2)
So, it is 24 years. Choice (2)

17. The ratio of efficiencies of man and women is 1 : 2. Total weight of the 40 students is '40 x 40 = 1600 kg. Total weight including the weight of
i.e., 2 : 1.The number of mandays required = 6 x 10 = 60 the new student is 1600 + 40 = 1640 kg.
The number of womandays required = 60 = 120 New total number of students is 41.
10 women can complete the work in i.e. 12 days. Choice (4) The average weight of the class = = 40 kg Choice (1)

18. If A starts the work, A can do 1/10th of the work on the 1 st day. B can do 1/15th of the work 3. Let the number persons in each group be x. Total age of the first group = 2 x 30 = 30x
on the 2nd day. In the first two days, 1/6th of the work will be completed. Working in this Total age of the second group = x x 40 = 40x
manner, the work will be completed in 12 days. Similarly if B starts the work, the work will Average age of the two groups combined = = = 35 years Choice (2)
be completed in 12 days. Choice (3)
4. Given the average height of female employees and that of male employees. Also, given total
19. If P starts the work, P can do 1/3th of the work on the 1st day; Q can do 1/5th of the work on number of employees. But as we don't have the information regarding number of female
the 2nd day. In the first two days, 8/15th of the work will be completed. 7/15th of the work employees or male employees, we cannot say anything about the average height of all in
remains on the third day, P completes 1/3 rd of the work. 2/15th of the work remains. This is employees. Choice (4)
completed by Q in another 2/3rd of a day. Hence the work is completed in 3 days.
Similarly, if Q starts the work it can be shown that the work will be completed in 3 days. 5. If there are exactly 30 boys, the average weight of the entire class is obtained from the rule
of alligation table as follows.
The work is completed in less number of days if P starts the work. Choice (1)
Girls Class Boys
Number ..20 ..30
Note: Suppose two persons work on alternate days to complete a work. If the work done by
Weight ..40 .. x ..50
them in 1 day by both working together is 1/nth of the total work and n is an integer, the
approach in solution 21 is to be used to find the time taken by them to complete the work. = = 150 -3x = 2x - 80
Also, in such a case, the work will be completed in the same time irrespective of who starts x= = 46
the work. However, if n is not an integer, the approach is solution 22 is to be used to find As there are possibly more boys, the average could be greater than 46 but not less.Choice (4)
6. Total number of students = 40
Number of boys = 25 15. The quantity of milk in the solution = (16) = 12 liters. To have 25% of milk in new
Number of girls = 40 - 25 = 15.
solution, 75% of water should be there.25% of solution is 12 liters 75% of solution is
Average of the class = = 75 Choice (2)
(75) = 36 liters. Already we have 16 - 12 = 4 liters of water.
36 - 4 = 32 litres of water is to be added Choice (3)
7. Let the number of female and male employees be f and m respectively.
Average salary of all the employees 16. The quantity of pure milk is 100% The profit of 150% should be because of water that is
= = = Rs. 20000 Choice (2) added 100% 10 liters
150% 15 liters
8. Total marks of 5 subjects at an average of 54 are 5 x 54 = 270. 15 liters of water is to be added Choice (2)
Total marks 6 subjects at an average of 60 is 6 x 60 =360
In the sixth subject 360 - 270 = 90 marks are to be scored by Suresh Choice (3) 17. The concentration of milk in the final solution
= =
9. Let the number of girls be 2x, the number of boys is 3x
the rate of concentration of milk to water
Average weight of the class
= 49: (64 - 49) = 49: 15 Choice (4)
= = = = 38 kg Choice (3)
18. The percentage content of milk in the solution
10. The numbers are in the arithmetic progression, therefore the average is the average of
= (100%)
middle two terms if the number of term is even and is the average of middle term if the
number of terms is odd. Here total number of terms is 8. = (100%) = 81%
The average of 4th and 5th terms is the average of sum of all the numbers. The content of milk in 10 line solution = = 8.1 liters. Choice (3)
The average = = 41.5 Choice (1)
19. The average number of chocolates given per child for the boys is 4 and for the girls, it is 5.
11. Total number of chocolates possessed by four children = 4(4) =16 Total number of For the entire group it is 4.4. This data is tabulated below.
chocolates with five children together, after fifth child joined = 5(5) = 25 Boy Group Girl
The number of chocolates with the fifth child Number A B
= number of, chocolates increased = 25 - 16 = 9 Choice (2) Number of class/child 4 4.4 5
From the rule of allegation
12. Total cost of potatoes = 2(5) = RS.10 Total cost of Tomatoes = 3(8) = R$.24 =
Total cost of the vegetables in the = 10 + 24 = RS.34 As a + b = 10, a = 6, b = 4.
Average cost per kg of vegetables in the bag = = Rs. 6.80 Choice (3) There are 4 girls. Choice (3)

13. The quantity of milk present in 10 litre solution = (10) = 4 litres. 20. As the period for which each of these average salaries is drawn is the same i.e. four months,
The quantity of milk after adding 6 litre of pure milk is 4 + 6= 10 Iitres. the average of these salaries will give the average salary for the entire year.
The average salary per month
The percentage of milk in new solution = (100%)= 62.5 % Choice (2)
=

14. The quantity of milk in the solution = 20 = 6 liters. The quantity of water = 20 - 6 = 14 = = Rs. 7000 Choice (2)
liters. To get the ratio 1 : 1, the solution must contain 14 liters of pure milk.
14 - 6 = 8 litres of milk is to be added to get 1 : 1 ratio of concentration. Choice (3) 21. The total cost of the sugar after mixing
= 6(15) + 9(12) = RS.198
 The average cost per kg = = RS.13.20
If the new mixture is sold at RS.13.20 per kg, 4. A=P
then there will be no loss and no gain. Choice (4)
24200 = 2000
22. The smallest of the numbers is 21 and the largest of the numbers is 39. 1.21 = = 1.1 = 0.1
The average should lie between 21 and 39 (both exclusive), i.e. the average is more than 21 r =10% Choice (1)
and less than 39.Except 29 all the three choices are out of range. Choice (2)
5. Interest for first six months
23. Let 10 liter of first solution and 90 liter of second solution are mixed, then the content of
= = Rs. 10
sulphuric acid.= 10 + 10 = 19 liters.
Principal for next six months = 200 + 10 = RS.210
The concentration of sulphuric acid in new solution is 19%. Choice (3)
Interest for next six months
24. The, average income is RS.10,000 per month for 9 months and that is RS.20,000 for 3 = = Rs. 10.5
months. As Rs.10,000 is maintained for greater period; the average income per month for Total interest = 10 + 10.5 = RS. 20.5 Choice (2)
the entire year lies between RS.1 0,000 and RS.15,000. Choice (1)
6. The amounts at the end of each year, in compound interest, are in geometric progression of
25. Total income for the family = 5 x 8,000 = Rs 40,000 In a particular month a
common ratio . Similarly the interests accrue in each year, in compound interest,
total or Rs.800 x 5
= Rs 4000 is decreased are also in geometric progression of the same common ratio, i.e. .
Total income in that month = 40,000 - 4,000 Also > 1, i.e. the progressions are increasing. Also the difference between any
= Rs.36,000 income per person two consecutive terms, say interest for ith year and interest for (i + 1 )th year will be aRi+1 -
= = Rs. 7200 Choice (2)
aRi [Where R = and a = Pr ] = aRi[R - 1], which is also an increasing GP of
common ratio R .Hence, the difference in the interest for the k th and (k + 1)th year will be
SIMPLE INTEREST- COMPOUND more than that for the mth and (m + 1 )th year if k > m. Choice (1)

INTEREST 7. When interest is compounding many times a year, the equivalent rate of interest that will
fetch the same amount of interest, if the interest was calculated annually, is called the
1. I= = = Rs.2000 Choice (1) effective rate of interest. The effective rate of interest is constant for every year. Choice (1)

8. Let the sum be RS.1 00

2. Interest for the first year
The interest for the first six months between
= = Rs. 100
= 100 = Rs. 10.
Principal for the second year
The sum after six months is 100 + 10 = RS.110
= 1,000 + 100 = RS.1,100
The interest for the next six months
Interest for the second year
= 110 = Rs. 11.
= = RS.110
Total interest for the year = 10 + 11 = Rs.21, which is 21% of 100.
Total interest for the two years = 100 + 110 = RS.210 Choice (1)
The effective rate of interest is 21%. Choice (1)
3. I = Amount - Principal = 2.200 - 2.000 = RS.200
r= = = 5% Choice (3)
9. Interest accrued on a certain sum under simple interest is same for every year 15. = 1500 (1.5) =1500
The sum of interests accrued in 6th, 8th and 9th years P = Rs.1,000
= 2.000 + 2,000 + 2,000 = RS.6,000 Choice (1) The present value of RS.1,500 due after 5 years is Rs 1,000. Choice (4)

10. The interests accrued under compound interest are in the geometric progression of common
Ratio = Hence = = 1.1 INDICES - SURDS
r = 10 %.
Alternative solution: 1. = 81
The difference in the interests accrued in the fifth year and sixth year is the interest on the => 2x = 4 [∵ If = , then m=n]
interest accrued in the fifth year. => x = 2 Choice (2)
1,408 - 1,280 = RS.128 is interest accrued on RS.1,280
Rate of interest = 100 = 10% Choice (1) 2. Conjugate of a surd f the form a + is (a - )
∴ The conjugate of - 2, i.e., -2 + is -2 - Choice (4)
11. The amounts for every year under compound interest are in geometric progression of
common ratio = 3. = = =

Hence Similarly,
r = 10 % = × = =
Alternative solution: ∴ + =( )+( ) =2- Choice (1)
The difference in the amounts after five years and six years is the interest on the amount
after five years.
6,050 - 5,500 = 550 is interest on. 5,500 4. = = = = Choice (3)
Rate of interest = 100 = 10% Choice (3)

5. = = + = 2+ Choice (4)
12. P = 2P =2

=4 P = 4P
6. = =
In 14 years the sum will become 4 times itself Choice (1)
= = ( ) Choice (2)
13. P = 2P
=1 =3 = 4P 7. = =
In 21 years the sum will become 4 times itself. Choice (2) The denominator is of the form , the rationalizing factor for which is (a+b).

14. In all the four cases the nominal rate of interest per year is same. If the nominal rate of
interest is constant, then the interest will be more if the number of times compounding is
= ×
done per year is more. In choice (1), the interest is compounded the maximum number of
times. Therefore, the interest will be the maximum. Choice (1) = = = Choice (1)
8. is of the form a-b. 1.
If we multiply (a-b) with we get (24)(18) = (3)(8)(2)(9) = 33 x 24
If we multiply with (27)(16) = (33 )(24 )
(24)(18) = (27)(16)
=1
We get = 4 – 3 =1, which is rational (∴ = 1] Choice (3)
is the rationalizing factor of Choice (3)
2. Given = ,
If a = 1, logx 1 = 0 and logy 1 = 0
9. ∴Irrespective of values of x and y, is equal to .
= If a = 2, =
= = Choice (2) => = [∴ = ]
=> log y = log x
10. as < => y = x, when a =1, x = y.
is greater than Choice (2) In general, x need not be equal to y. Choice (3)

3. + = =
11. = = =
[∴ + = ]
=
=>m = (6)(12) = 72 Choice (4)
Choice (1)

4. – =
12. 6 + 3 = (3)(2) + 3 = 3 (2 + )
To rationalize 3 (2 + ) , we need to multiply –2 [∴ – = ]= = =3 =3 Choice (4)
– 2 is the rationalizing factor of 6 + 3 Choice (2)
5. = = 0 [∴ m0 = 1 and log1 = 0] Choice (4)
13. = 16 =
6. = = =3 [∴ =p ]=3 Choice (2)
=4
= Choice (4)
7. . =1 => . =1
14. = 216 => . =1
= => . =1
= x = 3 and y = 3 Choice (4) => log 3 =log x => x=3 Choice (4)

15.
8. = [∴ = ]
=
= 8 = 2x = = = = Choice (3)
Choice (1)

9. = k => = k [∴ = N] => k = 9 Choice (3)

LOGARITHMS
10. 4 = = = p [∴ If N = then x= ] –
3. x2-8x+9=0. The roots are
∴ p = 81 Choice (1)

11. =
= = = =4
=> = => = The roots are 4 + and 4 - Choice (3)

=> = => =
4. The sum of the root of the equation ax2+bx+c=0 is –b/a
=> x = 9 Choice (2) he sum of the roots of 9
=4 Choice (3)
12. If = , a =1 than x is always equal to y.
Choice (1)
5. Let α, β be the roots of the equation. Given, α + β =11 and
13. =k
αβ=24.
=k
(α-β)2= (α+β)2-4αβ =112- 4(24)= 121 – 9 = 25
=> =k
α-β =5………(1)
= k => k = Choice (3) α+β =11………(2)
(1)+(2) =>22 = 16 => α =8
14. 10,000 lies between and . β =11-8 =3
∴The logarithm of 10,000 to the base 2 lies between 13and14. he roots are 8 ,3. Choice(3)
∴ The integral part is 13. Choice (3)
6. Given the sum of the roots is 7 and product of the roots is 12.
15. Any 20-digit number lies between and . The equation is
∴ the logarithm of a 20-digit number to the base x2 - (sum of the roots) x + (product of the roots) = 0
10 lies between 19 and 20. i.e., x2-7x+12 = 0 Choice(3)
∴The integral part is 19. Choice (2)
7. Discriminant of the quadratic equation ax2+ bx+ c=0 is b2-4ac

QUADRATIC EQUATION The discrimination of 2x2+3x+4=0 is

3 + 4(2)(4) = 9 – 32 = -23
2 Choice(1)

1. The quadratic equation is (x-2)(x-3)=0 8. 3x2+ 6x-5= 0

or x2-2x-3x+6=0 or x2-5x+6=0 Choice (2) Discriminant = 62 -4(3) (-5) =36 +60 =96
96 is not a perfect square.
2. We know that, if s is the sum and p is the product of the =>Discriminant > 0 and not a perfect square.
roots of a quadratic equation then the equation is The roots are conjugate surds Choice(3)
x2-sx-p=0
Note that the constant term in the equation is nothing 9. x2+ kx+ 7=0
but the product of the roots. Discriminant =k2 – (4) (1) (7) = k2- 28
Given s=4, p=15 As we don‘t know whether k2 >28 or k2 =28 or k2 <28,
The quadratic equation is x2-4x+15=0 Choice (1) We cannot say anything about the nature of the roots. Choice(4)
10. (x2-3)3- 4x4 = 0 17. The maximum value for quadratic expression ax2+ bx+ c,
(x2) 3 + 3 x2 (-3) (x2-3) + (-3) 3 -4x4 = 0 where a is negative is given by
x6- 9x4 + 27x2 -27 -4x4 =0
The maximum value of -7x2+ 2x +5 is
=>x6- 13x4 + 27x2 -27 =0
The highest power of x in the equation is called the = = = = =5 Choice(4)
degree of the equation.
The degree of the equation is 6. Choice(3) 18. The maximum value for quadratic expression ax2+ bx+ c,
where a is negative is given by
11. (xn - a)2 =0 The maximum value of -7x2+ 2x +5 is
The highest power of x in the equation is n x 2 =2n
= = = = = 3 Choice(4)
The degree of the equation is 2n.
The equation has 2n roots. Choice (3)
19. If a>0, the quadratic expression ax2+ bx+ c, has its
12. x + 6x +9 =0 =>x –(-6) x +9= 0
2 2 minimum value at -b/2a and if a <0 it has its maximum
The sum of the roots is negative and the product of the value at -b/2a.
roots is positive. Any quadratic expression of the form ax2+ bx+ c
Both the roots are negative. Choice(3) has its maximum or minimum value at –b/2a. Choice(1)

13. To find a new quadratic equation, whose roots are 4 20. Quadratic expression is ax2+ bx+ c
more than the roots of x2+ 7x+ 16= 0,we have to where a>0, given the minimum value of the
replace x by (x - 4). expression.
The equation is (x - 4)2 +7 (x -4) +16= 0
When a<0, given the maximum value of the
=>x2-8x +16 +7x -28 +16 = 0
=>x2 –x- 4 = 0 Choice(3) expression. Choice(4)

14. To find a new quadratic equation, whose roots are

reciprocals of the roots of 3x2+ 5x+ 7= 0, we have
INEQUALITIES AND MODULUS
replace x by 1/x.
1. 2< x ≤ 5 can also be represented as(2,5] Choice(4)
The equation is 3 ( )2 + 5( ) + 7 = 0
=> + +7 = 0 => 3 + 5x + 7x2 = 0 2. x ≤ - 2 => x (- , -2]
7x + 5x+ 3= 0
2 Choice(1) x ≥ 5 => x [5, )
x ≤ - 2 or x ≥ 5 => (- , -2] [5, ) Choice(3)
15. To find a new quadratic equation, whose roots are
half of the equation, x2+ 5x+ 9= 0, we have to 3. x ( ] => 1 ≤ x ≤ 7 Choice(2)
replace x by 2x.
The equation is (2x)2 +5 (2x) +9 = 0 4. x < 3 => x (- , 3] Choice(4)
=>4x2+ 10x +9 = 0 Choice(1)
5. The set of all numbers excluding -2 and including 3 is
16. Here the equation (x -4)2 =0 is given. denoted by (-2,3] Choice(2)
Number of distinct roots = 1 Choice(4)
6. (x – 3)(x + 5) ≤ 0
 => x – 3 ≤ 0 and x + 5 ≥ 0
=> 12. When a and b are positive, the first two options are true, but if a and b are negative
numbers, they are not true. When c > 0, ac > be => a > b, but when c < 0,
is not true. None of the options is always true. Choice (3)

13. x+3 7 => x 4 => x [4, . Choice(1)

14. 5 - 2x 6 => -2x 6 - 5 => -2x 1 => x

x [ , ) Choice(2)
=> x [-5 ,3]
Or x -3 0 15. 4x + 7 > 9 => 4x > 2 => x > => x > Choice(3)
=>
16. x2 - 7x - 18 0 =>(x- 9) (x + 2) 0
-2 x 9
The number of integral values in the interval [-2, 9] is 12. Choice(4)

17. Since |x| is always positive, 20 - |x| 20

The maximum values is 20 Choice (3)
=>No solution
The solution set of(x – 3)(x + 5) 0 if x [-5, 3] Choice (2)
18. Since |3 - 2x| is always positive 6 + |3 - 2x| 6
The expression is equal to 6 when |3 - 2x| = 0
7. -2x - 6 ≥ 0
-2x ≥ 6 3 = 2x => x = Choice (2)
x < -3 Choice (4)
19. |x| < a =>-a < x < a
8. |x + 3|<5=>-5<x + 3<5=>-5-3<x + 3- 3<5 – 3 |x| < 4 => -4 < x < 4
-8 < x < 2 The integral values of x are {-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3} i.e., there are 7 integral values. Choice (1)
The number of integer solutions are -7, -6, -5, -4, -3,-2,-1,0,1
which are 9. Choice (1) 20. Given x is negative
Let x = -a when a is positive
9. If c < 0 and a< b then ac > bc x + = -a + => - (a + )
If c > 0 and a< b then ac < bc We know that the minimum value of a + when a> 0 is 2.
If c = 0 and a< b then ac = bc
The maximum value of - (a + ) is -2
We see that (1) is false, (2) is false but (3) is true. Choice (3)
Hence the maximum value of x + is -2 Choice(4)
10. The set of all real numbers greater than 3 and less than
6 is (3, 6) Choice (1) 21. Since the modulus of a number is always non-negative, the given inequality is true for all
values of x.
11. When a and b are negative real numbers then ab and are always positive a – b is positive. x R. Choice (2)
When a <b, a - b is negative but when a > b, a - b is positive. 2a + 3b is always negative for
all negative values of a and b Choice (1) 22. |3x - 5|< -7.
 Since the modulus of a real number is always non-negative, it can‘t be less than -7.
The solution set is {} Choice (1) 7. Rem = 6 and one of the values of x that satisfies this equation is 2. The possible values of x
are 2, 9, 16, 23, 30………. They form an arithmetic progression with a common difference
23. x2 - 4x + 8 = x2 - 4x + 4 + 4 = (x - 2)2 + 4, which is always positive. Choice (3) of 7. Choice (1)

24. a < b then a2 <b2 or a2 >b2 8. Given 3a + 7b = 72. As 3a and 72 are multiples of 3, b is also a multiple of 3
Choice (1) is not always true. From the options, when b = 6, a = 10. Choice (4)
Similarly, choice (2) and choice (3) are not always true. Choice (4)
9. The given equation is 12x + 7y = 35
25. Since the modulus of a number is always greater than or equal to 0 and |x + 3| and |x – 5|
As Rem = 0, Rem is also 0.
simultaneously cannot be zero, for any real value of x, the number of solutions = 0.
When x = 0, y = 5. This is the only non-negative solution.
Choice (2)
There exists only one non-negative integral solution. Choice (2)

SPECIAL EQUATION 10. Let the number of gel pens, ball point pens and pencils, the student purchased be x, y and z
respectively, Total amount spent is 15x + 5y + 3z = 28
1. Given 2x + 3y = 15, x, y Z+. x is a multiple of 3 when x = 3, y = 3 and when x = 6, y =1 only As x > 0, x = 1 and y = 2 and z = 1
two combinations of positive integral solutions are possible. Choice (3) Only one combination is possible. Choice (1)

2. Given 3x - 7y = 28 and x, y > 0 11. In the problem above, the number of ball point pens purchased, y is 2. Choice (3)
From options x = 14, y = 2satisfy the given equation. Choice (4)
12. Let the number of toys of each variety sold be x, y, z respectively
3. Given, 7x + 4y = 64, x, y The total cost is 100x + 50y + 25z = 300
4y and 64 are multiples of 4 He sold at least one of each variety
Values of x are also multiples of 4 Choice(2) Amount received by selling one of each toy is 100 + 50 + 25= 175
Amount left with him 300 - 175 = 125. For the number of toys sold to be the maximum he
4. Given 4x + 5y = 60. By Inspection x is a multiple of 5 and y is multiple of 4. has to sell toys of the third variety for the remaining amount 125.
The values of x, y are tabulated below For Rs.125 he can sell = 5 toys of this variety.
y 0 4 8 12 The maximum number of toys he can sell = 1 + 1 + 6 = 8 Choice (4)
x 15 10 5 0
4 combinations of values are possible. Choice (4) 13. In order that the total number of toys is the minimum, toys of the first variety have to be
bought for remaining Rs.125
5. Rem ( ) =5 => 4p = 9p1 + 5. He can buy one toy each of the first and third varieties for Rs.125
Rem = 1 , Rem = 3 or Rem =3 .i.e., Minimum number of toys he can sell is = 2 + 1 + 2 or 5. Choice (3)
= 3,7,11,……………….and = 8, 17 ,26……………..
14. Let the number be x and y respectively 7x + 11y = 61
= 8 satisfy the above condition. Choice (4)
Rem = 5 Rem = 5 or 4y = 5y1 + 7
6. Rem( ) = 4 => 4x = 5 +4 Rem =3 Rem = 1 or y1 = 1,5,9….
=> x1 = 0, 4, 8,………… y1 = 1 => y=3 => x= 4. Choice (1)
and x = 1,6,11
x = 5k + 1, where k is any integer. Choice (1) 15. Let the number be 10x + y where (x > y). The sum of the number and the number formed
 by reversing the digits is 10x + y + 10y + x = 88 9 is the arithmetic mean. Choice (1)
11 x + 11 y = 88 or x + y = 8
Possible two-digit numbers such that x > y are 80, 71, 62, 53. There are 4 such numbers. 7. The term is equidistant from first term and term.
Choice (4) Term is the arithmetic mean of first 15 terms.
Sum of first 15 terms = 15 x (eight term)

PROGRESSIONS = 15(4) = 60 Choice (2)

8. In A.P.
1. Arithmetic mean = = ( ) [First term + Last term]
= = = 11 = ( ) [5 + 15] = 110 Choice (2)

Alternative solution: 9. In an A.P., term ( ) = a + (n - 1) d

Arithmetic mean of an AP = = 9 + (7 - 1) 3 = 9 + 6 (3) = 27 Choice (1)
= = = 11 Choice (2)
10. The fourth term is equidistant from the second term and the sixth term.
In a G.P. the fourth term is the geometric mean of the second term and the sixth terms.
2. Geometric mean =
Fourth term = = = 16 Choice (4)
= = =
Note: It can't be -16. The common ratio would be complex and
we are considering only progressions with real terms.
Alternative solution:
Geometric mean of a geometric progression
11. In a G.P.
= = = Choice (2)
= , were r is the common ration, a the first term and in the sum to n terms.
3. The Fourth term is equidistant (3 terms away) from the first and the seventh term in the = = = (3) (80) = 240 Choice (4)
arithmetic progression.
The fourth term is the arithmetic mean of the first term and the seventh term in an A.P.
12. As the average of the term from the beginning and the term from the end is equal to
Fourth term = = = 16 Choice (1) the arithmetic mean, the average of 10 and 20 is the arithmetic mean
4. Sum of the first n terms of an A.P. i.e., the mean is = 15
= = ( ) [2a + (n - 1)d]
In an A.P. as = n (A.M.)
= = ( ) [2(2) + (7 - 1)4] = 100(15) = 1500 Choice (2)
= ( ) [4 + 24] = (28) = 98 Choice (2)
13. Given m, n and p are in A.P.
5. Given first term = 3 and the last term = 31 Let n – m = p – n = k
As we don't know the total number of terms, we cannot find the common ratio. n = m + k, p = m + 2k
We cannot find the sum of first 8 terms of the progression. Choice (4) consider an A.P.
, , , ……. whose common difference is d.
6. Given total number of terms is 13, i.e., n = 13 +d= [ is term]

In an A.P. if n is odd, then term is the arithmetic mean of that A.P.

+ kd = [ n = m + k]
As = , the term is the arithmetic mean. =
Given term is 9 + 2kd = [ p = m + 2k]
=
 log m, log n and log p are in A.P. Choice (1)
- = [ + 2 kd] - [ + kd] = kd
- = - = kd 18. For any two unequal positive numbers a and b
, and are in A.P. >
term, term and term are in A.P. Choice (1) Given =4
Arithmetic mean, >4 Choice (3)
14. Given m, n and p are in A.P.
Let n - m = p - n = k
19. In a G.P.
n = m + k, p = m + 2k
=
Consider a G.P.
= = 3(64) = 192 Choice (3)
, , , ………. whose common ratio is r.
(r) = [ is term]
20. The tenn is equidistant from the first term and the term
( )= = [ m + k = n]
term is the geometric mean of first and ninth tenn and moreover, it is the geometric
( )= = [ m + 2k = p]
mean of first 9 terms, The product of the first n terms in a
= = G.P. =
= = , and are in G.P. Product = = 512 Choice (1)
Term, term and term are in G.P. Choice (2)
21. In G.P. if the number of terms is n which is odd, then the middle term i.e., term is
15. In an A.P. if the sum of the first n terms is zero and n is the geometric mean.
odd, the term is zero. term i.e. the term is the geometric mean i.e., The geometric mean is 4.
i.e., term is zero. Choice (2) Choice (2)

16. Given = 30 and = 30 22. Common ratio = =

= + + …… + = = =2 Choice (2)
+ + …… + =0
The mean of to is 0.
23. Let the geometric progression be a, ar, , …….
Sum of to is zero. Choice (1)
Given a = m (ar + + ……)
ar+ + …… = a=m( )
17. Given m, n and p are in G.P.
Let = = r => mr = 1 - r => mr + r = 1
r= Choice (2)
n = mr and p=
Let log m = a.... (1)
Log n = log (mr) 24. Given a = 1, = 27
= log m + log r [ log (xy) = log x + log y] = 2
Let log r = b 27= (1) => r = 3
log n = a + b .... (2) = = = = 1093 Choice (1)
log p = log ( ) = log m + log ( )
= log m + 2 log r [ log = 2log r] 25. Sum of the first 9 natural numbers = = 45
log p = a + 2b ..... (3)
Sum of the cubes of first n natural numbers = (Sum of first n natural numbers)2
From1,2,3
 Sum of the cubes of first 9 natural numbers = 45 2 = 2025 Choice (2) 21 or = 210 ways. Choice (3)

PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATION 13. The total number of balls in the bag is 3 + 4 + 5 = 12.
Two balls can be selected from 12 balls in 12 or
1. When a dice is rolled n times the number of outcomes is . Choice (3) = 66 ways. Choice (2)

2. When a coin is tossed for (n - 1) times the number of outcomes are . Choice (4) 14. Consider 3 blanks _ _ _.
Since there are 5 digits, each blank can be filled in 5 ways.
3. When a coin is tossed n times the number of ways of getting exactly r heads is n , Total number of ways is 5(5) (5) =' 125. Choice (4)
Choice (2)
15. Since all the digits are even, no odd numbers can be formed. Number of odd numbers
4. We know that formed = 0. Choice (1)
120 = 120 = 120 = 120 Choice (3)
16. Consider four blanks _ _ _ _.
5. We know that n = n! The units place is filled with 5. The remaining three blanks can be filled with 4 digits in 4
35 = 35! Choice (1) ways.
The number of four-digit numbers required is 4(3) (2) or 24. Choice (3)
6. Given n = n
We know that if n = n , then r + s = n 17. Treat all the girls as one unit. Now there are 3 boys and
n = n => n = 5 + 7 = 12 1 unit of girls. They can be arranged in 4! ways.
2n + 1 = 2(12) + 1 = 25 = 300 Choice (2) The two girls can be arranged among themselves in
2! ways.
7. Given n = n , Total number of arrangements 4!2! = 24(2) = 48. Choice (4)
We know that n = n .r! => n = n .r!
=> r! = 1 r = 0 or 1 Choice (4) 18. A straight line is formed by joining any two points.
Two points can be selected from 10 points in 10 or
8. We know that 'n' persons can be arranged in a row in n! Ways here n = 6 => the number = 45ways. Choice (2)
of ways of arranging 6 members in a row = 6! Choice (1)
19. Let the number of sides be n.
9. In the given word GINGER there are six letters of there G : y occurring two times Then the number of diagonals is
the number of 6 letter words are = 360. Choice (4)
Given = 5n => n - 3 = 10 => n = 13 Choice (1)

10. Since one particular member is always included, we have to select 3 members from 9
20. We know that n persons can be positioned around a circle in (n - 1)! ways.
members. This can be done in 9 = 84 ways. Choice (3)
8 persons can be arranged in 7! or 5040 ways. Choice (4)
11. 11.The word COUNTRY has 7 letters. Since the first letter is N, the remaining 6 places can
21. The number of different words that can be formed using all the letters of word TRINETRA
be filled with 6 letters in 6! ways.
The number of words that begin with N is 6! = 720. Choice (1) is or or 10080. Choice (4)

12. We know that there are 21 consonants. 22. 4 boys can be seated in 6 chairs in 6 = 360 ways. Choice (3)
Two consonants can be selected from 21 consonants in
23. n books can be arranged in n! ways greater than 6 is not possible.
Given n! = 720 = 6! => n = 6 The required probability is 0. Choice (1)
6 books can be arranged on a circular shelf in (6 - 1)!
ways = 5! = 120. Choice (1) 4. When three dice are rolled, there are 6(6) (6) or 216 outcomes. The number of ways in
which all the dices show the same number is 6.
24. The number of letters in the word EDUCATION is 9. The required probability = = Choice (2)
4 letters can be selected from these 9 letters in 9 ways. Choice (3)
5. In the given set all the numbers are odd, any two numbers are selected their sum is always
25. Each letter can be posted in 3 ways. even.
Four letters can be posted in 3 (3) (3) (3) or 81 ways. Choice (4) The required probability is 1. Choice (3)

26. Consider 6 blanks_ _ _ _ _ _. 6. The probability of a sure event is 1. Choice (4)

Since the first and the last place are to be filled with K and 'R', the remaining four letters
can be arranged in 4! or 24 ways. Choice (2) 7. The probability of an event always lies in the interval [0, 1) Choice (2)

27. The number of blue balls is 6. 3 balls can be selected from 6 blue balls in 6 ways = 20. 8. Given A and B are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events.
Choice (1) P(A B) = 1 and P(A B) = 0
P(A) + P(B) = 1
28. When two coins are tossed there are 4 possible outcomes. Given P(A) = 3/5
When a dice is rolled there are 6 outcomes The probability of non occurrence of B, is equal to the occurrence of A.
When two coins are tossed arid a dice is rolled, there
P( ) = P(A) = Choice (1)
are 24 outcomes. Choice (2)

9. P(A) + P ( ) = 1 Choice (3)

29. Rahul can invite 5 friends or 6 friends. 5 friends can be invited in 6 ways and 6 friends
can be invited in 6 ways
The total number of required ways = 6 + 6 = 6 + 1 = 7. Choice (3) 10. Probability of getting heads =
Probability of getting tails =
30. Bananas can be selected in 4 ways and apples can be selected in 5 ways. Probability of getting heads or tails is 1. Choice (2)
The number of ways of selecting fruits is = 4 (5) = 20.
The number of ways of selecting one or more fruit is 11. When four dice are rolled, there are 64 or 1296 outcomes.
= 20 -1 = 19. Choice (4) When the outcomes are (1, 1, 1, 1) and (6, 6, 6, 6) the sum is the minimum and maxim
respectively.
PROBABILITY There are 2 possibilities.
The required probability is = . Choice (3)
1. When one coin is tossed, there outcomes, are 2.
When seven coins are tossed, there are 27 or 128 outcomes. Choice (3) 12. If five letters are placed into 5. Corresponding envelopes, then the 6th letter is also placed
into the corresponding envelopes. Exactly five letters cannot be placed into corresponding
2. In a pack of cards there are 26 black cards. envelopes. Probability = 0 Choice (3)
The probability of drawing a black card is = . Choice (4)
13. In February of a leap year we have 29 days. Only one day of the week occurs five times.
Two days can never occur 5 times.
3. When a dice is rolled the outcomes are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} with this dice getting a number
 Required probability = 0. Choice (2) 23. Given P (A) =
P ( ) = 1 - P (A) = 1 - = Choice (4)
14. In a pack of cards, we have two red queens.
Probability of drawing a red queen is = . Choice (1)
24. We know that P (A) always lies in [0, 1]. Choice (1)

15. In the calendar, there is a cycle of 400 years of which 97 are leap years. 25. Probability of an impossible event is 0. Choice (2)
The required probability = Choice (4)

16. We know that STATISTICS

P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A B)
P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A B) 1. Size or length of the class is the difference between the lower (or upper) limits of two
+ - = = Choice (1) successive classes i.e., 34 - 24 = 10. Choice (3)

2. Length or size of the class (Standard definition). Choice (4)

17. Given P (A) = , P (B) =
P( )= ,P( )= 3. Given mid value of a class is 9 whose size of the class is 7.
P( ) = P ( ). P ( ) = . = Choice (3) => Lower limit of the class is 9 - 3 = 6
Upper limit of the class is 9 + 3 = 12
Class interval is 6 – 12 Choice (2)
18. We know that A, B, C are three mutually exclusive and exhaustive events,
P(A) + P(B) + P(C) = 1
0.3 + 0.5 + P(C) = 1 4. Mid value = = = 32.5 Choice (2)
P(C) = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2
P ( ) = 1 - P(C) = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8 Choice (2) 5. The given values are in A.P then the Arithmetic mean
= = =8 Choice (1)
19. When a dice is rolled, there are 6 possible outcomes.
The prime numbers are 2, 3, 7 i.e., there are 3 primes.
6. Mean deviation of 8 and 17 is = 4.5 Choice (3)
The required probability = = Choice (4)
7. Of all the given observations 3 is occurring for 4 times even if the value of x is either 2 or 1
20. In the English alphabet, there are five vowels. still 3 only most occurring value.
The probability of selecting a vowel is . Choice (1) Mode = 3. Choice (1)

21. The probability that one dice shows an odd number is . 8. The boundaries of a class are obtained by subtracting 0.5 form lower limit and adding 0.5 to
upper limit.
The probability that both the dice show an odd number is . = . Choice (2)
The upper boundary of the given class is 14.5. Choice (3)

22. Total number of balls = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10.

9. Range = maximum value - minimum value = 21 - 5 = 16. Choice (4)
The bag contains 2 white balls. The rest are not white.
The probability of drawing a ball that is not white is
10. By adding or subtracting a fixed value to each of the observations of an individual data the
= = . Choice (4) standard derivation of the data does not change.
Standard derivation remains same i.e. unchanged. Choice (3)
 22. If A, G, H are arithmetic mean, geometric mean and harmonic mean of any two positive
11. The sum of deviations about mean is zero. (standard result) Choice (1) numbers respectively, then G2 = A H or = Choice (4)

12. The sum of deviations about median is the least. (Standard result). Choice (2) 23. When each observation of the data is increased or decreased by a constant, the range does
not change. Choice (3)
13. Since given 10 < x < 15 and when arranged the given observations in order the value that
lies between 9 and 21 is the median i.e. x 24. Range = Maximum Value - Minimum Value
Median of the data is x. Choice (3) 17 = Maximum Value – 88
Maximum Value = 88 + 17 = 105 Choice (2)
14. We know that arithmetic mean
= 25. When the observations are in order (ascending) then the ( )th observation is the first
Number of observations = quartile ( ).
= = 12 Choice (1) Here n = 7 ( ) i.e. 2nd observation.
=8 Choice (1)
15. We know that for a. symmetric distribution, arithmetic mean, median and mode coincides.
Arithmetic mean = mode = 24 Choice (3) 26. The third quartile is the 3( )th observation
3( ) = 9th observation is Q3.
16. We know that for a moderately symmetric distribution, mode = 3 median - 2 mean
= 51 Choice (1)
mode - median = 2(median - mean) Choice (4)
27. The median of five observations is the third observation.
17. The sum of the first n natural numbers = The third prime number = 5 Choice (2)
Their arithmetic mean = = Choice (3)
28. | | (standard result) Choice (4)
18. When the number of observations is odd. The median of observations when arranged in
order is the exact middle most observation. Here middle observation is 13. 29. If the arithmetic mean of , … is , then the Choice (3)
Median = 13. Choice (2)
30. The variance of the series , , … is p.
19. When the number of observations is even, the median of the observations when arranged The standard deviation of the series , …
in order is the average of two middle observations. is . The standard deviation of the series 2 + 3,
Here the number of observations = 6 2 + 3,… 2 + 3 is 2 . Choice (4)
Median =
= = 24.5 Choice (1)
NUMBER SYSTEMS
20. In a data the most occurring observation is called mode.
1. 2 132
Mode of the data is . Choice (1)
2 66 - 0
2 33 - 0
21. Geometric Mean of , is i.e. 2 16 - 1
= Choice (3) 2 8 - 0
2 4 - 0
 2 2 - 0 ----------- Choice (3)
1 - 0
= Choice (3) 11.
x
2. 7 235 ------------
7 33 - 4 1540
4 - 5 352
= Choice (2) ------------

3. 12 1364 ------------
12 113 - 8 = Choice (1)
9 - 5
= Choice (1) 12. We know that 53 = 125, 54 = 625
The number of bits required is 4. Choice (4)
4. The largest 4 digit number in octal system is Choice (4)
13. 17 625
5. = 20(1) + 25(1) = 1 + 32 = 33 Choice (2) Consider the integer part Consider the fractional part
2 17 0.625 (2) = 1.250 -> 1
6. = D (160) + A(161) + B(162) 2 8 -1 0.25 (2) = 0.5 -> 1
13(1) + 10(16) + 11(256) 2 4 - 0 0.5 (2) = 1 -> 1
13 + 160 + 2816 = 2989 Choice (3) 2 2 - 0
1 - 0
7. = Choice (2)
From right to left group four digits as 1 unit as shown
below 14. =
= = Choice (4) 2 x k0 + 5 x k + 1 x k2 = 86
2 + 5k + k2 = 86
8. We know that 28 = 256, 29 = 512 k2 + 5k – 84 = 0
256 < 432 < 512 (k + 12) (k - 7) = 0
Hence 9 bits are required. Choice (1) Since k is a positive integer.
k = 7. Choice (3)
9. 2 3 4 (8)
4 3 2 (5) 15. =
----------- = 1 + 27 + 243 + 729 =
The cube root of = Choice (1)
----------- Choice (2)
16. 129 = 128 + 1= 27 + 20 = Choice (4)
10. -
17.
When every digit in the above is expressed in the binary
----------- system, we get
4= 7= 3=
 437 = Choice (2) 4. Given = => =
= =( )2 - 1 = =
18. The square of
= 321 => cot = Choice (2)
x321
------------------ 5. Given 5 + =4
321 => 4 + + =4
642 4 =3
1263 =
------------------
is acute = => = 30 . Choice (1)
136341
= Choice (3)
6. Each revolution makes an angle of 360 . In three revolutions angle made by is 3 x 360 =
19. 7 88 6 88 1080 . Choice (3)
7 12 - 4 7 14 - 4
1 - 5 2 - 2 7. 1420 = (4 x 360 - 20 ) lies in fourth quadrant. Choice (4)

= = 8. (1 + ) (1 - ) = (1 - )
9 88 = . =1 Choice (2)
9 9 -7
1 - 0 9. Given p = +
= => = -
All are true Choice(4)
p + = + + - =2

20. The argest 3 digit duo-decimal number is . Choice (1) = Choice (1)

TRIGONOMETRY 10. 3 - 4 = 0 =>

= ( 180 <
=
< 270 )

1. Given = and =
=> e as positive and is negative in third
quadrant ( ) Choice (3)

2. The relation between r, and s of a triangle is r = or

= rs. Choice (2)
Choice (3)
3. Arc of the sector l = r when is in radians.
= = = , x = Choice (4) 11. For every value of e, we know that + =1
+ =1 Choice (3)
12. The range of is [-1, 1] 22. cosec 70 = cosec(90 - 20 ) = sec 20
The range of 2 is [-2, 2] Choice (1) sec 160 = sec(180 - 20 ) = -sec 20
cosec 70 + sec 160 = sec 20 - sec 20 Choice (1)
13.
( )=1 23. In the interval 0 < <
= = =5 Choice (2) tan < cot => <1 Choice (1)

14. We know that is positive in the first and third quadrants. 24. +
lies in or . Choice (4) =( )2 = 1 Choice (3)

15. =0 Choice (3) 25. Given tan is positive and cos is negative, lies in the
3rd quadrant. Choice (3)
16. If + =2
Then 26. Given cot =
=> = 90 => =0 Choice (2)
Put = 22 => 2 = 45
17. is negative in and . Choice (4) cot22 = = = +1 Choice (3)

18. Given BC = 40, AB = 9, AC = 41

27. The maximum value of acosx + bsinx + c is
c+
The maximum value of 3cosx + 4sinx is
0+ =5 Choice (4)

28. When 0 x /2, the graphs of sinx and cosx intersect

only at x = /4, lie at only one point. Choice (1)

= = Choice (4)
29. 135 = 135( )= Choice (2)

19. The given expression E

30. By sine rule
2- 2
=
= +
= 1( when = , = 2, = =
E = (2)2 + ( )2 = 7 Choice (2)

20. We know that . =1 Choice (3)

21. When = 90 , is not defined.

The given statement is not true for = 90 . Choice (4)
 sin C = = = Choice (1)
9. We know that x = 5 is parallel to the y-axis and y = 7 is parallel to the x-axis.
The angle between the two lines is 90 . Choice (1)
COORDINATE GEOMETRY
10. The equation of the line perpendicular to 3x + 4y + 5 = 0
1. The distance from the origin to the point (x, y) is is of the form 4x - 3y + k = 0. Choice (2)
The distance from the origin to the point (5, 12) is
= = 13 Choice (3) 11. We know that a line passing through only two quadrants is parallel to the x-axis or the y-
axis or passes through the origin. All options can be true. Choice (4)
2. The perpendicular distance from P(3, 5) to the x-axis is the y-coordinate of the point
P(3, 5). 12. The acute angle between the lines with slopes and
is = given = 3, = 1/3

= = =

= Choice (3)

Distance is 5 units. Choice (2) 13. The given lines are y = 7 and y = -7

3. A line perpendicular to the x-axis is the y-axis (or a line parallel to the y-axis.
The slope y-axis (or any line parallel to y-axis) is undefined. Choice (4)

4. The line x = 3 is parallel to the y-axis.

A line perpendicular to the y-axis is parallel to the x-axis.
The slope of x-axis (or a line parallel to x-axis) is 0. Choice (1)
The distance between them is 14. Choice (1)
5. The equation of a line parallel to the x-axis and passing through (h, k) is y = k.
The equation of a line parallel to the x-axis and passing through (3, 4) is y = 4. Choice (3) 14. We know that the equation of a line with slope m and y-intercept c is y = mx + c
Given slope is ; y-intercept is 'a'.
6. The equation of a line perpendicular to the y-axis i.e., parallel to the x-axis and passing
through (h, k) is y = k. The equation of a line perpendicular to the y-axis and passing y= x + a => my = x + am Choice (4)
through (5, 6) is y = 6. Choice (4)
15. When the first equation is multiplied by 5 we get the second equation.
7. The given lines are x – 3 = 0 and y + 2 = 0 The two lines are coincident lines. Choice (3)
Their point of intersection is (3, -2) Choice (4)
16. Slope of the line joining the points (a, b) and (c, d) is
8. The slope of the line is x - y + 4 = 0 is Given slope is 0 = 0 => d - b = 0 => b = d Choice (2)
= => = 30
The inclination of the line is 30 . 17. The equation of the line with slope -1 and passing through the origin is y = -x. Choice (3)
The required angle is 30 . Choice (1)
18. Given = 135 => slope (m) = = 135 =-1 Choice (1) Domain is R - { 1 } Choice (2)

19. Slope of the line 3x - y + 1 = 0 is 3. 5. Given f(x) =

Slope of the line perpendicular to 3x - y + 1 = 0 is -1/3. Choice (4)
When x = -3, f(x) is not defined. Choice (2)

20. The x-axis divides the line joining the points ( , ) and ( ) in the ratio - :
6. Given f(x) = x - [ x ]
The given points are (3, 5) and (4, -6)
x z ; [ x ] = x => f(x) = x - x = 0
The ratio is = -5 : -6 = 5 : 6. (internally) Choice (2)
x z;0 x–[x]<1
Range of f(x) = x - [ x ] is [0,1) Choice (4)
21. Area of ABC = 4 (area of DEF) = 4 (5) = 20 Choice (3)
7. Substituting (0, 0) in the equation, we get k = 0 Choice (3)
22. G divides DA in the ratio 1: 2. Choice (1)
8. X R, y is positive. y is positive in first and second
23. The distance from (0, 0) to (1, 3) is quadrants. Choice (2)
The distance from (0, 0) to (2, -3) is
The distance from (0, 0) to (-3. 0) is 9. A function is even if f(-x) = f(x) and a function is odd if
The distance from (0, 0) to (1. 2) is f(-x) = -f(x)
The point nearest to the origin is (1, 2) Choice (4) = is odd
= is even
24. The point of intersection of diagonals is the midpoint of each of the diagonal i.e., the y = -x is odd
midpoint of (1, 2) and (3. 4) = (2, 3) Choice (3) y = (-x)3 = -x3 is odd Choice (2)

25. The distance from (0,,0) to 5x + 12y + 26 = 0 is 10. A function f(x) is odd if f(-x) = -f(x) = , = and (-x)3 = -x3
= =2 Choice (1) All the given functions are odd functions. Choice (4)

11. The function f(x) = 0 is both even as well as odd. Choice (3)
FUNCTIONS AND GRAPHS
12. For any function f(x) the function defined by is odd. Choice (2)
1. Given f(x) = When x = -1, f(x) is not defined.
Domain = R - {-1} Choice (2) 13. Given f(x) = 2x + x2
f (-x) = 2(-x) + (-x)2 = -2x + x2 It is neither even nor odd. Choice (4)
2. Given, f(x) =
f(x) is real when x + 2 0 => x -2 14. For a given value of k, 2k2 - 1 is constant.
Domain is given by x -2 Choice (3) The given function is y = constant it represents a set of horizontal lines Choice (2)

3. Given f(x) = 15. The sum of two odd functions is always odd. Choice (2)
f(x) is real when x - 3 > 0 => x > 3
Domain is given by x > 3 Choice (2) 16. The graph of f (-x) is obtained by reflecting the graph of
f (x) in the y-axis. Choice (2)
4. Given, f(x) =
When x = 1, f(x) is not defined. 17. (-a, 0) lies on the x-axis. Every point on the x-axis
 reflects into itself, when reflected in x-axis. Choice (4)

18. When a point is reflected in the y-axis the sign of the

x-coordinate changes.
Reflection of ( , ) in y-axis is (- , ). Choice (3)

19. When a point is reflected in the origin, then the sign of both the coordinates of the point
changes.
Reflection of ( , ) in y-axis is (- ,- ). Choice (2)
Choice (4)
20. The graph of y = f(x - 3) is obtained by shifting the
graph of y = f(x) to the right (horizontally) to 3 units. Choice (3) 28. x2 + y2 = 4 represents a circle with centre origin and 3x + 4y - 7 = 0 represents a line distance
of the line from the centre of the circle is = | |=
21. If f(x) is the given graph then the graph f(x) - 2 is = 1.4 units but radius of the circle is 2 units
obtained by moving it down (vertically) by 2 units. Choice (2) r>d
the line cuts the circle at two points. Choice (2)
22. (2, 0) and (0, -2) lie on the graph.
Equation of the line joining them is given by
+ =1 29. y = graph in the interval [ + ] is as follows.
=> x - y = 2. Since origin side is shaded when the coordinates of the origin are substituted it
must result in a true statement. The required relation is x - y 2. Choice (4)

23. The product of even and odd functions is always an odd function. Choice (2)

24. If f(x) is a constant function then the image is same for all x.
Given f(2) = 4 => f(4) = 4 Choice (4)

25. If f(x) is a given graph then f(x - a) is obtained by shifting the graph of f(x) to the right
(horizontally) by a units. Choice (3) Choice (3)

26. We know |x – 3| = (x - 3) 30. The given function is y = f(x) The graph of y = f(x) + c, c > 0 is obtained by moving the
graph y = f(x) vertically above for c units Choice (3)
=> Range of = 1 Choice (3)

OPERATOR BASED QUESTIONS

27. y = |x| is given by
1. Given
a b = a2 - b2 + ab
2 3 = 23 - 32 + 2(3)
4–9+6=1 Choice (3)

2. x y = product of x and 2y = 2xy

 4 5 = 2(4) (5) = 40 Choice (2) 9. (x, y) = x + y (x, y) = x3 + y3
(x, y) = x – y (x, y) = x3 - y3
3. We consider the options, (1, 1) = 0 and (2, 1) = 3
a b = a + 2b. ( (1, 1), (2, 1)) = 03 + 33 = 27 Choice (4)
a b = 2a - b.
Option (1) 10. Option (i)
( ) = + 2( ) = <0 = = y2
Option (2) Option (ii)
( )= + = >0 = =
Option (3)
Option (iii)
= = =< 0
= Choice (4)
Option (4)
-5 2 = -5 + 2 (2) = - 1 < 0 Choice (2)
11. =x–y = x 3 y3
4. For any values of a and b =x+y = x 3 + y3
As 1 < y < x, < and < . Also < and < but may be less than, equal to or greater
a b= ab is always positive Choice (2)
then . Among the options, only < < is true. Choice (3)

5. Option (1) 12. Given f(a, b) = a – b

= 2( ) = not an integer. g(a, b) = (a - b)2
Option (2) h(a, b) = (a - b)3
since a, b distinct so
= = not an integer.
when a < b h(a, b) < g(a, b) < g(a, b)
Option (3) a > b h(a, b) > g(a, b) f(a, b) Choice (4)
= = not an integer.
13. h (3, 4) = (3 - 4)3 = -1
Option (4) f(3, 6) = 3 - 6 = -3
=2 = 1 is an integer. Choice (4) g(1, 3) = (1 - 3)2 = 4
= = = Choice (1)
6. For all a, b,
a b = a + b – ab
14. =
a e = a + e – ae
a = a + e - ae (given) = = = Choice (2)
=> e(1 - a) = 0 => e = 0 a 1 Choice (2)
15. Given t (a, b) = LCM of a, b
7. a 3 = 0 => a + 3 - 3a = 0 H (a, b) = HCF of a, b
=> 3 - 2a = 0 => a = Choice (1) L (3, 4) = LCM of 3, 4 = 12
L(5, 7) = LCM of 5, 7 = 35
8. a 1=a H(L (3, 4), (5, 7) = H(12, 35) = 1 Choice (3)
=> a + 1 - a = a => a = 1 Choice (2)
16. H (15,10) = 5, H (20, 64) = 4
 L[(15, 10), H(20, 64) ] = L(5, 4) = 20 Choice (4) 5. Let the cost of an orange and an apple be b and a respectively from statement A, 3b = 2a +
15 from this equation we can't say whether b > a or not. Form statement B, 5b = 6a + 12 =>
17. (b * c) * (d * a) = b * d = c Choice (1) b > a Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question. Choice (2)

18. c2 = c * c = d, c3 = d * c = c 6. Let the four-digit number be abcd. Using statement A, a + b + c = d = 3a Using statement B,
n=3 Choice (3) b = 2a and c = a - 2 Using both the statements, a + b + c = a + 2a + (a - 2)
= 4a - 2 = 3a as a + b + c = 3a
19. d2 = d * d = a, d3 = a * d = d, d4 = a etc., => a = 2, b = 4 and c = 0
a2 = a * a = b, a3 = b * a = a, a4 = b etc d=a+b+c=6
d 6 * a5 = a * a = b Choice (2) Hence the number is 2406 Choice (4)

20. (a * b) * c = c * c = d 7. Let Bhavan's daughter's and wife's ages be y and x respectively. The data is tabulated below
While a * (b * c) = a * (b * c) = a * b = c. Amar Bhavan
Unless the order in which the operations are performed Wife y + 24 Wife x
are indicated, we cannot determine the value of a * b * c. Choice (4) Son x-6 Daughter y
Using both the statements, 7y - (x - 6) = Y + 24 - x
=> 7y - x = y+ 24 - (x - 6)
DATA SUFFICIENCY => 6y = 30 => Y = 5
Age of Amar's wife = y + 24 = 29 Choice (4)
EXERCISE-1
8. Neither 0 the statement is independently sufficient, as we do not know the savings of the
third year. Using both the statements, we have 30% of (4k + 5k) + 30,000 = Savings of the
1. If the prices are 3x, 2x, 5x, from statement A, we get 5x - 3x = 30,000; hence we get x and third year. As the ratio of income and expenditure = 30: 11, the ratio of income and savings
the price of the car of medium price. From statement B, we get 2x = 20,000 hence x and becomes 30 : 19. Combining the two statements, total income of 3 years = 4k + 5k + 6k =
then the required price. Hence, each statement itself is sufficient. Choice (3) 15k
Total savings of 3 years
2. From statement A, we can assume the number of students in each class as 2x, 3x and 5x. = 30% of 4k + 30% of 5k + (30% of 4k + 30% of 5k + 30,000)
Since we don't know x, 1Qx cannot be found. From statement B, we get 2x + 20 = 4y; 3x + = 5.4k + 30,000
20 = 5y and 5x + 20 = 7y. Solving these we can get x, and hence the number of students in Ratio of 3 year's income to 3 year's savings
the three classes. Hence, both the statements are required. Choice (4) = (15k) : (5.4k + 30,000) = 30 : 19.
This equation can be solved for k; and savings can be calculated. Choice (4)
3. From statement A, If Amisha purchases equal number of apples and oranges, she must pay
RS.12n (n, positive integer). Since 65 ≠ 12n, she has not bought equal number of apples and 9. From statement A alone, we cannot find the score as we do not know the number of
oranges. Hence A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, had she bought 3 oranges mistakes he committed. From statement B alone, we cannot find the number of
and 4 apples more, she would have paid RS.1 08. So, she actually paid 108 - 3 x 5 - 4 x 7 = marks he got as we do not know the number of questions he attempted. From statements A
65.This is now same as statement A and hence B alone is sufficient. Choice (3) and B, we can find his marks as
39-18- (18/3) = 15. Choice (4)
4. From statement A, for Rs.72, Hrithik can buy (1 apple and 13 oranges or (6 apples and
6 oranges). So, we cannot conclude from A. From statement B, for Rs.46 (101 - 5 x 7 - 4 x 5), 10. Statement A alone is not sufficient, as it does not deal with salaries. Statement B states:
he can buy 5 oranges and 3 apples. So, we can conclude from B. Hence B alone is sufficient. SavA : SavB = SalA : SaIB.
Choice (2) This data is not sufficient. However, when the two statements are combined, the question
can be answered. Salary = Saving + Expenditure.
 Hence, SalA : SalB = (SavA + ExpA) : (SavB + ExpB) Choice (1)
=> SavA + ExpA = SavB + ExpB
SavA SavB 5. From statement A, as the relation between the cost prices of the two articles is not given,
=> 1 + ExpA = 1 + Exps=> ExpA = Exps statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we know that the selling price of
SavASavB SavA SavB both the articles is same and hence, the overall loss% is x 2/100.
=>SavA =ExpA Hence, statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (1)
SavB ExpB
Hence SavA = ExpA = SalA 6. From statement A, We have 15% of SP = 18% of CP + 3. Profit = SP - CP. But from the
SavB ExpB SalB above equation, we cannot uniquely determine (SP - CP). Hence statement A alone is not
As per statement A, ExpA > ExpB; sufficient. From statement B, 9% of SP = 10% of CP + 1. So, we cannot find the profit.
Hence, SalA > SaIB. Choice (4) Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. Using A and B together, we have two
independent linear equations. in SP and CP. So, we can find SP and CP, hence, we can find

EXERCISE-2 the profit. A and B together are sufficient. Choice (3)

7. Given that 35% are men ~ 65% women. From statement A, 20% of 35% of the total = 7% of
1. We know that discount percentage = discount/MP x 100 Using statement A alone S.P = 4d the total. But, we do not know what percentage of the women employees attended the
MP = SP + d meeting. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, 40% of 65% of the
MP=5d total = 26% of the total. But, we do not know what percentage of the men attended the
Since MP is known in terms of discount, discount percentage can be found. Statement A meeting. Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. But, if we take both the statements
alone is sufficient. Using statement B alone, 5MP = 6SP together, we have (7% + 26%) of the total i.e., 33% of the total employees attended the
=> meeting. Choice (3)
Let M.P be 6x and S.P be 5x.
Discount = 6x - 5x = x As discount and MP are found in terms of x, Discount percentage can 8. From statement A, we can say that Ram's income < Shyam's income. Hence, statement A
be found. alone is sufficient. From statement B, though Ram's expenses are 80% of Shyam's expenses,
Either statement A alone or statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (2) he is able to save the same amount. Ram's income - (0.8) Shyam's expenses = Shyam's
income - Shyam's expenses. Shyam's income - Ram's income = (0.2) Shyam's expenses.
2. Statement A gives us only the market value of the house, and cannot help us to calculate the Hence Ram's income is less than Shyam's income.
actual purchase price. Statement B says that, if the purchase price is p, then the mortgage Hence, statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
price, 4p/5 = 8,00,000.
So, 4p = 40,00,000, or p = 10,00,000. So statement B alone is sufficient to answer the 9. From statement A, p% = (d + 10)%, from which nothing can be concluded. From statement
question. Choice (1) B, when p% = d% => Discount> Profit, as mark up price is more than the cost price.
Choice (1)
3. From statement A, if the diagonal of the cube increases by 17% then its side (or edge) also
increases by 17%. So, the percentage increase in the volume can be found. From statement 10. Given S.P. = Rs.144, if c is the cost price. From statement A, c(1 + C/100) = 144
B, when the lateral surface area increases by 56.25%, then its side increases by 25%. So, the 100c + c2 = 14,400 (or)
percentage increase in the volume can be found. Choice (2) c2 + 100c - 14,400 = 0 or c = 80 or -180. As c cannot be negative c is 80.
From statement B,
4. Given, selling price of article = 1.2 time the cost price. From statement A, Selling price I = SP-CP x 100=45
market price As we do not know the marked price we cannot find the selling price. SP
144-CP x 100 =45
Without knowing the selling price we cannot find the cost price as SP = 1.2 CP. From
statement B, as the SP is Rs. 180 we have (1.2) CP = 180. Hence CP can be found. 144
 So, CP can be calculated. Either of the statements is self-sufficient. Choice (2) so a = -7 and b = -5 is not possible. Hence the only possibility is a = 7 and b = 5.
From statement B, we obtain a unique value of b. Choice (2)

EXERCISE-3 5. We know that for both 2 and 3 the last digits of their powers repeat after every 4 powers.
Hence, in order to get the last digit of any power of 2 or 3, we divide the respective power
1. From statement A, one of a and b is an even prime. Hence one of a and b is 2 as 2 is the only by 4, get the remainder r and check the last digit of 2 or 3 raised to power r. But if the
even prime. From statement B, a+ b + c + d = 89 If a, b, c and d are all odd, their sum would power is a multiple of 4 then the last digit will be the last digit of 2 or 3 raised to 4 itself.
have been even. As all primes are distinct only one of them can be even (i.e., assume value From statement A, if n is an even number we cannot say whether it is a multiple of 4 or not
of 2). and hence we cannot say what the last digit is. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient.
Let us say a = 2 From statement B, we know that the power is a multiple of 4 and can get the last digits
b + c + d = 89 - a = 87 according to the above-mentioned rule.
Consider a = 2, b = 3, c = 5, then Hence, statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
d = 89 - (2 + 3 + 5) = 79. So, 79 is the largest.
Consider a = 2, b = 5, c = 11, then 6. From statement A, If x = 2; Y = 1 then x 2> y3and x > y
d = 89 - (2 + 3 + 11) =71. So, 71 is the largest. If x = -2; Y = 1 then x2 > y3 but x < Y So statement A alone is not sufficient.
So, we cannot find out the value of the largest of a, b, c and d. From statement B
Even using both statements, the question cannot be answered. Choice (4) 1/x-1/y < 0
y-x/xy<0
2. From statement A, N can be 121 or 169 or 225 or 441 or 529 or 961. As we have more than => (y - x) > 0 and xy < 0 or (y - x) < 0 and xy > 0
one value of N, statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, N is the square of a If Y = 4; x = -3 then y - x > 0 and xy < 0 and x < y
prime number as it has only three factors. If Y = -3; x = -2 then y - x < 0 and xy > 0 but x > y
Hence, N ranges from 112 = 121 to 312 = 961. Statement B alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements,
The possible values of N are 112 = 121, 132 = 169, If x = -2 Y = 1 then X2 > y3 and 1/x < 1/y and x < y
172 = 289, 192 = 361, 232 = 529, 292 = 841 and 312 = 961 If x = -2 and y = -3 then x2 > y3 and 1/x < 1/y but x>y
We do not get a unique value of N using either of the statements. Even after combining both the statements, the required result can't be obtained. Choice (4)
From both statements together N is 121 or 169 or 529 or 961.
We still do not get a unique value of N. Choice (4) 7. From statement A, x3(x + 1) + x2 + x is even x3 (x + 1) + x2 + x = x3 (x + 1) + x (x + 1)
= (x + 1)(x3 + x). If x is odd, x3 +x is even
3. When the number is divided by 18 the quotient is 3, so the number is greater than or equal If x is even, x3 +x is even. Hence as x3 + x is even, x can be even or odd.
to 54 and less than 71. From statement A, the value of the number is only 61 as from the If x is odd or even then x4 + x3 + x2 + x is always even, so statement A alone is not sufficient.
number 54 to the number less than 74 there is only one number (61) which leaves From statement B, x2(x + 1) + x is even => x3 + x2 + x is even
remainder 1 when divided by 15. So when 61 is divided by 18 the remainder is 7. If x is even, then x3 + x2 + x is also even If x is odd, then x3 + x2 + x is also odd. So statement
Hence x = 7. B alone is sufficient to say that x is even as x3 + x2 + x is even. Choice (2)
Statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, the possible values of the numbers are 58
and 66. When 58 is divided by 18 the remainder is 4. 8. Let the two parts be 18x, 18y with 18x > 18y. Where x and yare co-primes
When 66 is divided by 18 the remainder is 12. Hence x can be 4 or 12. As x is not unique, From statement A, 18x - 18y = 522 => 18(x - y) = 522
statement B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1) => x - y = 29. If x = 31, y = 2. If x = 37, y= 8.
Hence unique values of x and y is not possible even though x and yare co-primes.
4. From statement A, abc = 35 and a = 7 so bc = 5 => b = 5 and c = 1 since b > c From statement B, 18x x 18y = 10044 => xy = 31 So the only possible pair of (x, y) is (31,1).
or b = -1 and c = -5 is also possible. So statement A alone is not sufficient. As x and yare known we can find the number i.e., 18x + 18y.
From statement B, abc = 35 and c = 1 =>ab = 35 a and b are odd integers so a = 7 and b = 5, as Hence statement B, alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
a > band b > c so b is always positive as c = 1
9. From statement A, m2 + n3 < m3 + n2 5. From statement A alone we can say n is 2 => LCM of 22,24, 26 is 64.
n2 (n -1) < m2 (m -1) Statement A alone is not sufficient as (n - 1) and (m - 1) may be Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, we can say that LCM of 2 2,24, 26 is
positive or zero. From statement B, m2 n3 > m3 n2 => n > m 64. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (3)
statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
6. From statement A, we have the LCM of (16, 24, a)
10. From statement A, = 144 and HCF of (16,24, a) = 4. As the LCM is a multiple of 9, the third number should be a
Y=13(2n+1)=26n+13. So, y is not divisible by 26. From statement B, multiple of 9 and as it is 4, it has to be 9 x 4 = 36.
Y = 39n + 26 Statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, we have the LCM of (18, 24, a)
If n is even, then y is the multiple of 26, otherwise not, = 72 and HCF of (18, 24, a) = 6. As 18 = 3 2 x 2; 24 = 2 3x 3; LCM of these two is 32 x 23. We
Hence, cannot be decided from statement B. Choice (1) cannot find the third number uniquely. It can be any multiple of 6 satisfying LCM = 72.
Statement B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)

EXERCISE-4 7. From statement A, (x + 1) (x + 3) (x + 5) (x + 7) is odd.

=> (x + 1), (x + 3), (x + 5), (x + 7) are all odd.
=> x is even. Statement A gives that x is even.
1. From statement A the number will be of the form 210k + 45. We cannot say whether the
From statement B, a√x + b 4√x = c. x is a 4th power. Using both the statements, x is an even
above number is divisible by 23 or not. From statement B, the number will be of the form
number and is a 4th power. So, it is divisible by 16. Choice (4)
(276k + 81). 276 is divisible by 23 and hence the remainder, when the above number is
divided by 23, will be the remainder of the division of 81 by 23 i.e., 12. Hence, statement B
8. From statement A x x Y = 8 x 9
alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
8 - 9 = -1 or 9 - 8 = 1
x-y=-1 or x-y= 1
2. Let the numbers be hk and hl such that from statement A,
Statement A alone is not sufficient.
LCM is hkl = 160 ------------ (1)
From statement B alone, x = 4, or x = 9 and y = 6 or y=8
From statement B h (k + I) = 72 ------------ (2)
Hence (x - y) will have more than one value. Statement B alone is also not sufficient.
Divide equation (1) with equation (2). Then we get
Combing both the statements. x = 9. And y = 8 because 9 has exactly three factors and 8 has
Since k and I are co-primes and they can only take the values 5 and exactly four factors. Hence x - y = 9 - 8 Choice (4)
4, from (1) h x 5 x 4 = 160 =>h = 8, the numbers are (8 x 5) and (8 x 4)
i.e., 40 and 32. Choice (4) 9. When a fraction x/y is converted into decimals, the properties of the resultant decimals
depend on the prime factors involved in y. If y has only 2 and 5 as prime factors, then the
3. We know xn - yn is always divisible by (x - y) whether x is even or odd. From statement A, decimal will be of finite length. If y has prime factors, other than 2 and 5, a non-
we know that n is divisible by 4 i.e., it should be an even number or we can assume n = 2k terminating recurring decimal is produced.
where k is also even. So 24n - 3n = 28k - 32k = 256k - 9k which is always divisible by 256 - 9 = From statement B alone, which says y has exactly 3 distinct prime factors i.e., y has one
247. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B also, we have that n is more prime factor besides 2 and 5; which means x/y is a non-terminating recurring decimal.
divisible by 8 and so it should be an even number (2k). Then by the same reasoning as So statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
above, 24n - 3n is always divisible by 247. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (3)
10. It is given that x/y is in its simplest form. From statement A, x is 128, that means 2 is not a
4. From statement A alone, we can rewrite the number a as a = n(n + 1). We can say that the factor. of y. From statement B, y has 2 prime factors. From both the statements A and B, y is
HCF is n. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot find of the form 5P x b2 where b is a prime factor other than 2 and 5
the HCF, if n = 1. Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1) x/y is a non-terminating and recurring decimal. Choice (4)
 EXERCISE-5 6. From statement A alone, , we cannot find the ratio of the sides from information,
hence cannot find the ratio of P, Q, and R.
1. An infinite number of different triangles can be drawn having the same given area, and So, A alone is not sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot find the ratio of the sides
each of them will have a different perimeter. So, statement A by itself cannot enable us to and what is given here is a relevant information (it is true for all triangles). So, B alone is
answer the given question. Again, an infinite number of triangles can be drawn with one not sufficient. From statement A and B together, we cannot find P: Q: R as A alone is
angle being . So, statement B by itself cannot enable us to answer the given question. not sufficient and B alone is a redundant statement. Choice (5)
Even using both the statements A and B, an infinite number of triangles having both
properties can be drawn. So, both the statements A and B together also do not help us to 7. It is given that a, c and e are parallel and b, d are parallel. Even after combining both the
answer the given question. Choice (5) statements, we cannot conclude that a is parallel to d,
which is necessary to conclude that x = y. Choice (5)
2. Neither of the statements is independently sufficient as complete information about the
figure is not given. 8. Since AB = 4; BC = 3 or AB = 3 BC = 4 satisfies both the statements A and B. We cannot tell
with certainty whether AB = 3 or AB = 4 Choice (5)

9. For a given hypotenuse, there can be more than one combination of the other two sides, so
we cannot compute a unique value of the perimeter with statement A alone. However, with
another side as 4 units, the third side can be computed and hence the perimeter. Choice (4)

10. Since the tangent is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact, radius OT = AT 2–
Using both the statements, OAB is an equilateral triangle, because OA = OD + DA = OC + OA2. Taking both the statements together, we have AO = 12 - r and AT = 6, where r is the
CB = OB and = ---- (1) radius of the circle. Choice (4)
ODC is also an equilateral, for similar reasons --- (2)
As ∠ODB = DB is a tangent. By symmetry AC is also a tangent.
= . In OAC, CAD = - AOB - OCA
EXERCISE-6
= - - = 30 . Choice (4)
1. Let d km be the distance. d = 400 Let the speed of the bus be s kmph and the time taken be t
3. From statement A alone, Though we know that the given polygon has 3 sides, the triangle is hours. 400 = st -->(I)
not fully defined. Also we do have any other information to find its area. From statement B From statement A, (s - 20) (t + 20) = 400
alone, we do not know whether the polygon is a triangle or not. Hence this statement alone =>st + 20s - 20t - 400 = 400
is not sufficient. From A and B together, we know that the two adjacent sides of the triangle =>20(s - t) = 400
and the included angle. Hence its area can be formed. Choice (4) =>s - t = 20 --> (II)
From (I) and (II), we get (20 + t) (t) = 400
4. From statement A, x = 360/3 = 120 . So, statement A by itself is sufficient for answering the t2 + 20t - 400 = 0
given question. Since the length of the radius of the circle is irrelevant for calculating the A unique value of t exists and hence 's' can be determined. So statement A alone is
value of x, statement B by itself cannot help us to answer the given question. sufficient. From statement B
Choice (1) s 20 and t 20 and st 400
from (I) st = 400
5. Since the hour hand and the minute hand make an angle of 72 between 8 O' clock and 9 O' =>s = 20, t = 20
clock twice, the answer choice is (4). Choice (4) Hence statement B alone is also sufficient. Either statement alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
2. From statement A, PQ= relative velocity x time of travel; and the time of travel 11.30-9.30 = the time taken by B is not know we can't find the speed of A. Using both the statements A's
2 hours; relative velocity (60 + 40) = 100 kmph. So statement A is sufficient to answer the speed = 100/20 = 5m/sec. Choice (3)
question. From statement B, do not know whether two trains starts at same time or not. So
we can't answer to the question. Choice (1) 10.

3. Time taken to cross the bridge

= length of the bridge + length of the train
speed of the train
= time taken to cross the bridge, Statement A alone is sufficient. Choice (1)
->Ram,Ramesh,Rameez
4. Neither of the statements is independently sufficient as the length of the track and the Length of the track = 500 m From statement A, Ram and Ramesh meet after 10 seconds for
speed of A and B are mentioned in two different statements. Using both the statements, as the first time. There is no information of Rameez. So statement A alone is insufficient. From
the length of the track is 1200 m and the speeds are co-prime, always time taken by them to statement B, Ramesh and Rameez meet after 10 seconds. There is no information of Ram
meet at the starting point = length of the track. here. So, statement B alone is insufficient Using both the statements we get that Ram,
i.e., 1200 seconds will be the answer. Choice (3) Ramesh and Rameez, met for the first time after 10 seconds. But it cannot be deduced
whether they are meeting for the first time at the starting point or elsewhere. So both the
5. Since neither the speed of the train nor the speed of the. man is given, the question cannot statements together are not insufficient. Choice (4)
be answered even by taking both the statements together. Choice (4)

6. Let the distance travelled = d km Let the speed in still water be x kmph and the speed of the
EXERCISE-7
stream be y kmph. From statement A,
=> 1. From statement A, work done by A and C in one day
= 1/10 -1/25 = 3150
But we can't find d. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, speed in still
So A and C together can do the work in
water and the total time taken to cover the distance is not known. So statement B alone also
50/3 = 16 213 days.
not sufficient. Using both the statements,
We don't know the time taken by A and the time taken by C so we can't find who is the
=> most efficient. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, Band C's one day's
So we can't find the value of d. So using both the statements also we can't answer the work
question. Choice (4) = 1/10 -1/50 = 2125
B's one day's work + C's one day's work is 2/25 so either B's one day's work or C's one day's
7. Whether they run in the same or in the opposite direction, they will meet at the starting work must be more than 1/50 as the sum of the two fractions which are less than 1/50 is not
point after a time equal to the LCM of time taken by them individually to complete one equal to 2/25. Either B or C will take less number of days to complete the work so A is not
round. The time taken by each individually is given in statement B and hence, statement B the most efficient among A, Band C. Statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
alone is sufficient. Choice (1)
2. From statement A, time taken to complete the work by each of Kavya and Karuna is not
8. Since the hour hand and the minute hand make an angle of 72 between 8 O' clock and 9 O' known so we can't answer the question. From statement B, time taken by Karuna, Kavya
clock twice, the answer choice is (4). Choice (4) and Kavita cannot be calculated so statement B alone also is not sufficient. Even by
combining both the statements, the time taken by Karuna or Kavya is not known. We can't
9. From statement A, B takes 100/4 = 25 seconds, but time taken by A is not known. So we find their shares. Choice (5)
can't find A's speed. From statement B, A takes 5 sec less than B to complete the race but
3. From statement A alone, since 50% of the work is completed by B, 5 days we can say that In either case the work is completed in 10 th hour only.
work can be completed by B in 10 days. So, we can answer the question. Hence, statement Hence in either case n is 9. We get a unique value from B. Choice (2)
A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, since B works twice as fast as A, he can
complete the work in 5 days and hence we can answer the question. So, statement B alone 7. From statement A, The earnings are distributed in the ratio of work done, as one days work
is sufficient. Each statement by itself is sufficient. Choice (4) ratio of A and B is 3 : 2, so the time taken by A and B is in the ratio 2 : 3.
Hence we can find the time taken by A to complete the Work Statement A alone is
4. Let the work done by a man, boy and woman be m, b and w respectively. Consider sufficient. From statement B,
statement A: 2b + 3w = 1/5 ------ (1) A's 2 day's work = 3. 1/12 = .
10m+3b =1/5------(2) A's 1 day's work = 1/8
We need 6m + 4b + 3w = k -------- (3). So time taken by A to complete the work is 8 days So statement B alone is sufficient. Hence
To get 6m, we multiply (2) by either statement alone is sufficient. Choice (4)
We have 1.8b from (2). We need 4b in (3).
∴We multiply (1) by we get 3.3w and 3w, i.e., (3) is not a linear combination of (1) & (2) 8. Question statement gives, A + C do 1/20 ... (1) of the work in 1 day B + C do 1/15 .... (2) of
Consider statement B: 9m + 3b = 1/3 ----- (1) the work in 1 day. Statement A gives A + B do 1/12 in 1 day ..... (3) we can get C from the
And 10b + 15w = 1/3 ----- (2) three equations and hence, statement A alone is sufficient. Statement B gives A + B + C do
We have to see whether we can get 6m + 4b + 3w = k ------ (3) 1/10 in 1 day ... (4). By solving (1), (2) and (4), we can get C and hence, statement B alone is
From a linear combination of these two equations. The 6 m is obtained by multiplying (1) also sufficient. Choice (4)
by To get of (3) we need to divide (2) by 5
9. Already in the question statement, relationship between efficiencies of A, Band C is given.
∴ (1)+ (2)=>6m+4b+3w= +
From statements A, Band C 1 day's work =
∴ we can't answer the question from A alone, but we can from B alone. Choice (2)
As Band C can be expressed in terms of A, time taken by A can be found.
∴Statement A alone is sufficient.From statement B, A and C can in 1 day work =
5. Given a + b = 1/10 -------- (1)
Statement A gives a + b + c => 1/6 -------- (2) As C can be expressed in terms of A, time taken by A can be found.
Statement B gives c = 2a -------- (3) ∴Statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (4)
Using (1), (2) and (3), the question can be answered. Choice (3)
10. Given P + Q = 1/216. Statement A gives P + R = 1/540. It is clear that statement A alone is
not sufficient as it gives another equation, but not the values of P and R. Statement B gives
6. Consider statement A: In a period of 2 hrs, Sudhir and Sunil complete of the
Q = 1/540. This statement also gives one more equation and hence is not sufficient by itself
work. In 18 hrs (9 periods of 2 hrs) they complete to find R. When both the statements are taken together, we get three equations and by
If Sudhir starts, the remaining is completed by Sudhir in (24) = 1.5 hrs. It implies if solving we get P, Q and Rand hence can answer the question. Choice (3)
Sudhir starts the work it is completed in the 20th hour, as he takes more than 1 hr to
complete the remaining part. In that case n = 19. If Sunil starts, it is completed by him in
(16) =1hr.Here n=18 As we don't get a unique value for n, statement A alone is not
EXERCISE-8
sufficient. 1. Since the profit percentage earned is not given in both the statements. It is not possible to
Consider statement B: In a period of 2 hrs, Sudhir and Sunil complete th part of find the proportion of coffee in the mixture. Choice (5)
the work. In 8hrs, they do .
2. To require both the prices, we require both the statements. Since the other mixture is worth
If Sudhir starts, the remaining is completed in
1.45 (1.60 - 0.15), we can tell in what ratio they have to be mixed by applying the rule of
If Sunil starts, it is completed by Sunil in (12) = 2 hr. allegation. Choice (4)
3. If x is the total mixture, then 2x/3 is milk from the main statement; From statement A, we
get (60 x 2/3) = (60 + y) 1/3, where y is the water added. Hence, y can be determined. From 8. Since the ratio of boys and girls is given in statement A, we get, average weight
statement B, we know that water in the initial mixture is 20 liters and hence, milk should = 5/7(28) + 2/7(21) = 26 kg. Choice (1)
be 40 liters. Now 60 liters of water is to be added to make the ratio of milk and water equal
to 1: 2. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (3) 9. Since the weights of the boys and the girls are not given, the question cannot be answered.
Choice (5)
4. From statement A, we can know that the milkman added 20% water. From statement B, we
can know that the milkman added 20% water. Choice (3) 10. From statement A, we do not get an idea of either the total volume of the initial mixture or
of the volume of either of the components. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient. From
5. Using both the statements and applying the rule of Allegations statement B also, we do not get any information regarding the volumes of the total mixture
or of the components and hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. Even when we take
both the statements together, we have the same problem. Choice (5)

EXERCISE-9
1. a3 b2 - a2 b3 = a2b2 (a -b)
1 : 85 From statement A, a2 > b2
The ratio of the number of clerks to the number of supervisors can be found but we cannot => when a and b are positive then a > b When a and b are negative then a < b
find the number of clerks and supervisors. Choice (5) so a > b or a < b
If a > b, then a3b2 - a2b3 is positive.
6. From statement A, If a < b, then a3 b2 - a2b3 is negative.
Viv's average> Sachin's average. Hence statement A alone is not sufficient.From statement B, a3> b3=>a>b
Viv's innings < Sachin's innings. Hence a3b2 – a2b3 is always positive.
So, nothing can be concluded from statement A, From statement B Thus the question can be answered using statement B, alone. Choice (2)
Viv's average = Sachin's Average x (100 + x)/100.
Viv's innings = Sachin's innings x (100 - y)/100. and x > y > 0. 2. Statement A gives an equation in terms of Principal and the rate of interest. Statement B
For Example : gives the rate of interest. Principal can be found using the statements A and B. As the
If x = 25%; Y = 24%. runs scored by Viv < runs scored by Sachin. principle and the rate of interest can be found, compound interest can be calculated.
If x = 25% and y = 16%, runs scored by Viv > runs scored by Sachin. Choice (3)
From the statements A and B also, nothing can be concluded. Choice (5)
3. Statement A alone gives us the rate of interest and the number of installments is known to
7. From statement A, be 36. Hence, using the formulae for equal installments
Viv's average > Sachin's Average. equal installments =
Viv's innings > Sachin's innings.
∴ runs scored by Viv > runs scored by Sachin. We can find the answer. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. Using statement B, we
∴ statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, cannot answer the question because we do not know anything about the rate of interest.
Viv's average = Sachin's Average x (100 + y)/100. The rate of annual increase in land rates is irrelevant. Choice (1)
Viv's innings = Sachin's innings x (100 - x) /100.
Since x > y > 0. 4. To solve this, both the rate and the principal amount are required. A + 205
∴ statement B alone is also sufficient. (For example, substitute suitable values for x and y) = A (1 + x/100)n. A and x are required. As they are given in two different statements, both
Runs scored by Viv < runs scored by Sachin. Choice (3) the statements are required. Choice (3)
 A=1000[ ]=10x.
5. Given the rate of interest is 12% p.a. From statement A, the difference between S.I and C.l
B=1000[ ]=10x +
for 1 year when compounded half yearly is Rs.8. If principal is P, then S.I for 1 year is
and C.l for 1year when compounded half yearly is p{ As 10x + >10x, B always greater than A. Choice (3)

Also p{ =8, p can be found, Hence statement A alone is sufficient.

Statement B alone is not sufficient as no monetary value is mentioned Choice (1) EXERCISE-10
6. To solve this, we require the rate of interest B gives and also know whether it is compound 1. Statement A alone is not sufficient since the triangle can be of any type i.e., right-angled or
interest or simple interest. We should also know the amounts A and B or the ratio of the equilateral. Using statement B also, it has to be an equilateral triangle (as the area is
amounts. Statement A tells about the interest B fetches but does not give us any information maximum) From both the statements.
about the amounts. Statement B only gives the ratio of the amounts but does not inform AB = AC = AC = P/3.
about the rate of interest B fetches. Hence, each statement by itself is not sufficient but if ∴we can find the area of ABC. Choice (3)
taken together we get the required information to solve the problem. Choice (3)
2. From statement A, 3x + 2y = 16 As 2y and 16 are even, 3x = 16 - 2y, being difference of two
7. From statement A, x-2*+12 = 256 even numbers must be even. Hence x must be even. X can take values of either 2 or 4
By trial and error, we have (2)-2(2)+12=256 satisfying the condition, then y assumes positive values of 2 or 5 respectively. Unique value
Also (4)-2<4)+2 =256 of x is not possible, so statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, x2 - 7x + 10 = 0
x = 2 or 4 => x2 - 5x - 2x + 10 = 0
From statement B alone, we can‘t get x By combining A,B we get x = 4 Choice (3) => x(x - 5) - 2 (x - 5) = 0
=> x = 5 or 2
8. Given Rs.10,000 is divided into two parts A and B. Unique value of x is not possible from statement B, so statement B alone also is not
B= 10,000 -A. sufficient. Using both statements, the value of x = 2. Choice (3)
Also as total interest rate on A and B for 1 year is Rs. 750.
Let the interest rate on A be r% and on 10,000 - A be s%. 3. From statement A, a/(1 - r) = 5a => r = 4/5. Statement B alone is not sufficient, as t3 -t4 = 10
Hence r% of A + s% of (10,000 - A) = 750 (1) and cannot be found Choice (5)
From statement A, we have r = 8%. But in the equation to find the value of A, we require
the values of s or one more relation. Hence statement A alone is not sufficient. From
Statement B, we have s% of (10,000 - A) - r% of A = 100(2). 4. The nth term of the geometric progression = arn-1
But here also to find A, r and s should be known. From statement A ar3 =16 —> (1)
Using both the statements, we have 8% of A + s% of (10,000 - A) = 750 and s% ar5 = 64 -> (2)
(10,000 - A) - 8% of A = 100. As two equations in A and s are there, both the values can be Dividing the second equation by the first equation we get
found. Choice (3) r2 = 4 => r±2
If r = +2 then a = 2
9. Statement A gives the rate at which 40% of the total amount is invested and statement B If r = -2 then a = -2
gives the rate at which the remaining 60% is invested. Hence, we observe that each 160th term = ar15 = 2(2)15or -2(-2)15 = 2(2)15
statement by itself does not give us any conclusive answer, but when taken together, we In both the cases 16th term is the same. So the first statement alone is sufficient.
can get the total earnings as part of the total investment and hence the total interest p.a. per From statement B, ar = 4 -> (1)
rupee. Choice(3) ar7 = 256 -> (2)
By dividing the second equation we get r6 = 64
10. As A and B are given in two different statements, neither of them is independently => r = +2 or – 2
sufficient. Using both the statements, if r = +2 then a = +2
 if r = -2 then a = -2 = => -b = c
So the 16th term is 2(215) or (-2) (-2)15, i.e., it is uniquely determined. Second statement alone If b - 4ac = 0 then the roots are equal. We do not know the value of a so we cannot say
is sufficient to answer the question. Choice (4) whether b2 - 4ac = 0 or not. So the second statement alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)

5. From statement A, leaving out the first nine digits 1 to 9, a total number of 87- 9 = 8 digits 10. From statement A, if a is the first term and d is the common ratio, then we have 4(a + 11 d)
were used in the succeeding 2-digit numbers, or, in other words, = 39 two-digit numbers = 3 (a + 15d).
were used. So, the two digit numbers used must be those from 10 to 48. So, we can say from But with this, we cannot find any value. From statement B, we know the thirteenth term.
statement A alone that the term paper had 48 pages. Sum of the first twenty-five terms.
From statement B, the first 5 occasions in which the digit 6 would be used are in the = [a + (a + 24d)]
numbers 6, 16, 26, 36 and 46. So, the number of pages in the term paper could have been
= [2 (a + 12d)] = [2 x t13]
ranged from 46 to 55. So, it is not possible to answer the given question uniquely from
As we know t13, we can find the sum from statement B alone. Choice (2)
statement B alone. Choice (1)

6. Let the two APs be a, a + d, a + 2d,….. and b, b + e,

b + 2e ,….
EXERCISE-11
We have = = 1. From statement A x3 ≥1 or x3 ≤-1
( if = , both expression are equal to ) Or x ≥ 1 or x ≤-1 | x | ≥ 1

Therefore = = = ∴ Statement A alone is sufficient.

Using statement B alone, | x3|≤ 1 so -1 ≤ x3 ≤1 => -1 ≤ x ≤1
The ratio of any two corresponding terms is the same.
If x = 1, the answer is yes, if x ≠ 1, then | x | < 1.
From A, it follows that the ratio of any two corresponding terms is 1/2 provided, both the
Hence statement B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)
terms are not 0.From B, it follows that the third terms are not 0 (as d > 0 and e > 0and a + 5d
= b + 5e = 0)
2. Let the cost of apple be Rs.x and cost of orange be
Therefore, even statement B is needed to make sure that the third terms are not both 0. We
Rs.y, where x, y are integers.
need both the statements. Choice (3)
From statement A: 7x + 8y = 80. we see that x has to be a multiple of 8. (x, y) = (8, 3) is the
only solution
7. Let the consecutive terms be a/r, a, ar respectively.
Statement A alone is sufficient to answer.
From statement B, we can say a/r. a . ar = 27 or a = 3.
From statement B we cannot decide anything because except cost of orange nothing else is
Also using statement A, we have 3/r + 3 + 3r = 13 solving r = 3. Therefore, the terms are 1, 3,
known. Choice (1)
9. Sum of their squares can be found. Choice (3)
3. Is PQ < Q Is PQ - Q < 0 Is Q(P - 1) < 0 and
8. Middle term = G.M of the GP =
Using statement A, we do not know the product of the terms. P > 2. So, to decide whether PQ < Q or not, we need the sign of Q. Statement A is not
∴ We cannot find the G.M and hence the middle term. A is not sufficient. enough, while statement B tells us that PQ < Q as Q is negative. Choice (1)
Using statement B, product is known. B is sufficient. Choice (2)
4. Let the number of sweaters, raincoats and pairs of gloves be x, y, z respectively. From
9. (-b/a)2 = 4c/a statement A, 225x + 125y + 75z = 425 or 9x + 5y + 3z = 17
=> b2 = 4ac ∴(x, y, z) = (1,1,1) or (0,1,4)
As the value of the discriminate b2 - 4ac = 0, of the roots equation are equal. ∴Statement A alone is not sufficient From statement B, the number of items of each variety
∴Statement A alone is sufficient. cannot be determined.
From statement B But by combining both A and B, (x, y, z) = (1, 1, 1) Choice (3)
5. From statement A, the given polygon ABCD is represented by |x| + |y| = 3. From statement A alone,
This represents a square bounded by the lines f(5) = f(4) - f(3)
x + y = 3, - x + y = 3, x - y = 3 and - x - y = 3. f(4) = f(3) - f(2)
The points are B(3, 0), C(0, 3), D(-3, 0) and A(0, -3). -----------------
∴each diagonal is 6 units f(5) = -f(2) (given that f(2) = 0)
∴area of square = = 18 sq. units and each diagonal is a diameter of the circle. Area of the =0
(A) alone is sufficient.
circle whose radius is 3 units is 9π .
From statement B alone,
∴Area of shaded portion = 9π - 18 = 9(π - 2) sq. units
f(5) = f(4) - f(3)
∴Statement A alone is sufficient to answer From statement B:
f(4) = f(3) - f(2)
The equation of the circle is x 2+y2=16
----------------
radius of the circle r = 4
f(5) = -f(2)
Area of the circle = π(42) = 16π
since f(5) = f(2) (given) f(5) = 0
Since a diameter of the circle is a diagonal of the square, the diagonal of square (d) = 8
Statement (B) alone is sufficient. Either of the two statements is sufficient. Choice (2)
Area of square = = 32
Area of shaded region = 16π - 32 = 16(π-2)
9. Given the cost of each of apple, mango and orange respectively is Rs.9,Rs.8 and Rs.3
Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From statement A Ashok spent an amount of Rs.67.The following table gives the possible
We can answer the question from either of .the statement. Choice (2)
number of fruits of each variety

6. From statement A, we cannot say whether r > s or not as signs of rand s are not known.
Apples Mangoes Oranges Total cost
From statement B, we can say r > s as rand s are raised to an odd power so their sign will not
1 2 14 67
change. Choice (1)
2 2 11 67
3 2 8 67
7. From statement A, 9(n + 2)2 + 2(n + 2) + 11 = n3 + 3n2 + 3n + 1
n3 - 6n2 - 3n - 50 = 0 4 2 5 67

Since number (92B), B = 11, so the base n + 2 > 11.

We cannot uniquely determine the number of apples
i.e., n > 9.
purchased.
By trial, if n = 10, n3 - 6n2 - 35n - 50
∴Statement A alone is not sufficient.
= 1000 - 650 - 350 - 50 = 0
From statement B, we do not know the total amount spent. We cannot find the number of
Dividing the polynomial by n -10, we get (n - 10) (n2 + 4n + 5) = 0, i.e., n = 10 or n is
apples. But combining the statements A and B only the 4 th row of table i.e., 4 apples, 2
complex.
mangoes and 5 oranges satisfies the given conditions.
∴ n has to be 10.
∴Number of apples purchased=4 Choice (3)
∴statement A above is sufficient From statement B, given (1887) n = (1456)10
n3 + 8n2 + 8n + 7 = 1456
10. (ABXY34)12 = 12(ABXY3)12 + 4,which is always divisible by 4.
n3 + 8n2+8n -1449 =0 As 572 = 4(143) = 4(11) (13),we have to find out ,whether (ABXY34) 12 is divisible by 11 and
By inspection, only n = 9 only satisfies the equation. Statement B is sufficient. 13 (i.e., 12 -1 and 12 + 1)
We can answer the question from either of the statement. Choice (2) The remainder when (ABXY34)12 is divided by (11)10
=A + B +X + Y + 3 + 4
8. f(x)=f(x + 1) + f(x - 1) =10+11+X+Y+3+4=28+X+Y
f(x + 1) = f(x) - f(x - 1) If X+Y=5 or 16
To find f(5). (ABXY34)12 is divisible by 11 (i)
 (ABXY34)12 =A(12)5 + B(12)4 + X(12)3 +Y(12)2 +3(12)1 + 4 Thus statement A alone is sufficient.
when (ABXY34)12 is divided by 13(i.e.[12 – (-1)]) From statement B, q is false.
the remainder is –A + B – X + Y – 3 + 4=2 +(Y – X) ~q=>~p, from this we cannot conclude anything.
if(ABXY34)12 is multiple of 13,2 + (Y – X) = 0 or 13. Hence statement B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)
Therefore ,if X – Y = 2 or -11, (ABXY34)12 is divisible by
13 (ii) 4. Let the statements he denoted by p, q and r respectively, where p = It rains. q = Pratap
From A, the number is divisible by 11 and 13 carries an umbrella r = he does not visit the temple. Now the problem statements and their
Hence it is divisible by 143,as well as by 572 implications areas follows:
From B,(ABXY)12 = 18,979 We express 18979 in base 12 Implications:
Only if p, then q q => p and ~p=>~q
Unless q, then r ~q => rand ~r => q
From statement A, p is not true.
Since ~p=> ~q and
~q =>r.
So we can conclude about r. i.e., he did not visit the temple yesterday. Thus statement A
The number is (AB97)12
alone is sufficient. From statement B, p is true. Since nothing can be concluded from p, so
∴X=9 and Y=7
statement B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)
As X – Y = 2 and X + Y =16
(ABXY34)12 is divisible by 572
5. Let the statement be denoted by p, q, r and s respectively where p = Dhoni losses the toss
We can answer the question from either statement. Choice (2)
q = India selects to bat first r = shewag opens the inngings. s = India sets a target of more than
250 runs. Now. the problem statements and their implications are as follows.
EXERCISE-12 Implications:
Unless p, then q ~p =>q and ~q=>p
1. From statement A, all companies which have managers also have engineers. But there is no If q, then r q =>r and ~r=>~q
specific information about engineers in XYZ. Statement A alone is not sufficient. Statement If r, then s r =>s and ~s=>~r
B alone is not sufficient as there is no information about engineers in the company XYZ. From statement A, r is not true
Using both the statements, company XYZ has a manager implies it has an engineer also. Since ~r=> ~q and ~q=>p, we can conclude that p is true. i.e., Dhoni lost the toss, thus statement
Choice (3) A alone is sufficient. From statement B, s is not true. Since, ~s =>~r and
~r=>~q and ~q =>p, we can say that Dhoni lost the toss. Thus statement B alone is sufficient.
2. From A alone, Rohan does not play Hockey.Hence Sanjay does not play Cricket. So A alone Choice (2)
is sufficient. From B alone, Rohan plays Hockey, Sanjay plays Cricket and Sunil plays
Football. So, B alone is sufficient. Choice (2) 6. From statement A alone we do not know the percentage of students who passed in only
Maths or in only English or both the subjects. Hence statement A alone is not sufficient.
3. Let the statements be denoted by p, q, r and s respectively, where p = Kishore wakes up in From statement B alone, we do not know the percentage of students who pass only in
the morning q = he goes to office r = he meets his boss s = he watches a movie in the Maths or Maths. Statement B alone is not sufficient. Combining both the statements, those
evening. The problem statements and their implications are as follows. who passed only in English = 50% - 25% = 25%
If p, then q; p => q and ~q =>~P Those who passed only in Maths = 50% - 25%
Only if ~q, then r; r=> ~q and ~q =>~ r. Those who have passed either in English or Maths
Only if r, then s; s => r and ~r =>~s = 25% + 25% + 25% = 75%
From statement (A) q is true. Those who failed in both English and Maths. = 100% - 75% = 25% Choice (3)
~q=>~r, i.e., he does not meet his boss on Monday.
=>He does not watch a movie in the evening.
7. From statement A alone, we know the total number of persons in the club as 500 and the
number of persons who play both hockey and football is 250. But to find the number of 10. From A, as we do not have any information regarding A we cannot determine how A
persons who play only football, we require the number of persons playing football. relates to B. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B, as we do not have any information
Statement A alone is not sufficient. regarding B, we cannot determine how B relates to A. Combining A and B, we get A is the
Statement B alone is not sufficient as we don't have any information about the number of wife of B. Choice (3)
persons who play football. Using both the statements, as we know the number of persons
who play only hockey as 50, both the games as 250 and total as 500, we can find that the
number of persons who play only foot ball = 550 - 250 = 50. Choice (3) EXERCISE-13
8. From A, as the numerical value is not given we cannot determine the number of members 1. From statement A, B is not seated to the right of A. This means B is seated to the left of A.
who play both Bridge and Chess. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B alone we cannot So B may be in the middle of the row or to the extreme left of the row. So the first
determine the number of members who play both Bridge and Chess. So, A alone is not statement alone is not sufficient. From statement B, C is not seated to the left of B. This
sufficient. Combining A and B, we get implies C is seated to the right of B. So B may be in the middle of row or extreme left of the
row. So the second statement to alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements, B is to
the extreme left of the row.
I II III
B A or C A or C
So by using both the statements we can say that S is not seated in the middle of the row.
Choice (3)
μ= 40 - x + x + 40 - x
80 -x = 100 2. From statement A, the possible arrangements are
x = 20.
20 players play both Chess and Bridge. Choice (3)

9.

So, the first statement alone is not sufficient. From the second statement we get A, D and G
are sitting together. But we cannot determine whether B is sitting exactly in the middle of
the row or not. So, the second statement B alone is not sufficient. Combining both the
statements, the possible different arrangements are

From A, We have b + c + e = 40 --- (1)

a + c + f = 60 --- (2)
and c = 20. but we have a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 100 --- (3)
(1)+ (2) =>a+b+2c+e+f=100 ---(4) From the above arrangements we can conclude that B can never sit exactly In the middle of
(3) - (4) => g + d - c = 0 the row. Choice (3)
=> c = g + d.
but it is given c = 20. d + g = 20 3. From statement A, we know that Band E are adjacent to each other and B is to the
So, A alone is sufficient. From B, we have d + e + f + g = 70. Immediate right of E, but as we do not know the positions of the other people, we cannot
a + b + c = 20. So, B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1) determine who is sitting in the middle of the row. So, statement A alone is not sufficient.
 From statement B as E is the only person sitting adjacent to C, C is at either of the ends of the other two people. Hence, A alone is not sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot
the row. say if Ravi is in the first or in the last position. From A and B together, we can say that he is
C E A/B/D A/B/D A/B/D in the first position. Choice (3)
A/B/D A/B/D A/B/D E C
So, statement B alone is not sufficient. From A and B, we get, 8. From statement A, we know that there are 3 persons standing between E and F.
C E B D A or C E B A D
Hence, we can find that Bharat is sitting at the middle of the row. Choice (3)

4. From statement A as we do not know the position of Rupesh and Nishant we cannot
determine the number of people in the row. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From In none of the above cases, it is possible to say if A is standing next to C or not. So statement
statement B as we do not know the number of people standing in between Rupesh and A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we only know that A occupies the middle
Nishant, we cannot determine the number of people standing in the row. So statement B position
alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements,
Number of people in the row = 20 + 15 + 22 = 57 (or)
Number of people in the row = 5 + 15 + 7 + = 27 We cannot conclude if A is next to C or not. So statement B alone is not sufficient.
So the number of people in the row cannot be determined uniquely. Choice (4) Now, using both the statements we have the following arrangements.

5. From A, we have Physics and Zoology are at the bottom and top and neither of these are
adjacent to Chemistry which implies that the book on Chemistry is in the middle. So, A
alone is sufficient. From B alone, we get the book of Mathematics is in the middle. Case a) and c) are not possible, since D and G must have one place between them. In case b,
Choice (2)

6. From A, the possible ways are

Except in the second arrangement where A and C cannot be next to each other the others
two arrangements we cannot conclude if A and Care together or not. So even by using both
the statements together it cannot be determined if A is next or C or not. Choice (4)

9. From statement A, we cannot conclude if Pratp is sitting next to Vijay for we only know
that Pratap and Ramkuar are sitting next to each other. So statement A alone is not
The distance between A and D, Band D, A and C is maximum. So, A alone is not sufficient. sufficient. From statement B, we only know that Abhishek and Kishore do not sit next to
Similarly, from (B) alone we get each other. From this we cannot conclude if Pratap is sitting next to Vijay or not. So
statement B alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements together. We can conclude
that Pratap is not sitting next to Vijay.
As explained earlier, (B) alone is also not sufficient. Combining A and B, we get

Hence, we cannot determine. Choice (4)

7. From statement A alone, as Jaipal is behind Ravi, we can conclude that Ravi is to in the last
position. But we cannot say if he is in the first position as we do not know the positions of OR
 EXERCISE-14
1. To find if "X is the father of Y" From statement A, Y is not the son of X. But this does not
imply "X is not the father of Y". X still, may be father of Y (if Y is the daughter of X) So first
statement alone is not sufficient. From statement B, here, the gender of Z is not specified. X
may be male or female. Combining both the statements it is clear that Y is the female and is
the daughter of X and Z. But whether X is male or female, that can't be determined.
Choice (4)
The above two possibilities shows that Vijay must be sitting between Kishore and
Abhishek, so he cannot be next to Pratap. Choice (3)
2. From statement A, Z, is the father of Y and X. X is the brother of Y since X is the son.
Hence we can say that X is not the cousin of Y. First statement alone is sufficient. From
10. From statement A, we cannot conclude as to who is sitting opposite to C for we only know
statement B, Y is the daughter of the mother of X. Therefore Y is the sister of X. Hence we
that Band D do not sit next to each other. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From
can say that X is not the cousin of Y.
statement B we know that E and F sit on either side of A. Now from this we cannot draw
Second statement alone is also sufficient.
my conclusion as to who is sitting opposite to C. Hence statement B alone is not sufficient.
Thus, either of the statements is sufficient. Choice (2)
By using both the statements together, we can conclude that A sits opposite to C.
The possible cases are as follows.
3. From statement A, P's father's mother's only child is none other than P's father. As his
spouse is Q, Q is the mother of P. As Q is the female she cannot be the husband.
So, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, R is the father of Q and they belong
to different gender which implies that Q is a female. So Q cannot be the husband. So
statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (2)

4. From A, we get X's mother's father is Band V's father's father is B. X's mother and V's father
are siblings. Hence X is the cousin of Y. So, A alone is sufficient. From B alone, X could be
either the brother of Y or the cousin of Y. So, B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)
(or)
5. Statement A alone is not sufficient to find the relationship between A and B as the genders
of A as well as B are not known. From statement B, as D's father's only son is A and B is the
daughter's daughter of D, A is the uncle of B. Hence statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)

6. From A, as we do not have any information regarding A we cannot determine how A

relates to B. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B, as we do not have any information
regarding B, we cannot determine how B relates to A. Combining A and B, we get A is the
wife of B. Choice (3)
Choice (3)
7. Among six members there are two housewives and two spinsters and the other two are
fathers. Hence, there are only two male members. So, A alone is sufficient. Among six
members there are two couples which imply that two females are there and two nieces
which implies the other two are males. So, B alone is sufficient. Choice (2)
8. From statement A we cannot say if A is the mother of B or A can be the father of B. So 2. From statement A, the total number of times the clock strikes in 12 hours = = 78 times.
statement A alone is not sufficient. From, statement (B), we cannot say whether A is the So, A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone we cannot determine the number of times
mother of B or not as nothing is mentioned about B. So statement B alone is not sufficient. the clock strikes in each hour. So, B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)
Using both the statements together we can say that A is the mother of B for in statement
(A), it is given that B is A's son. Where as in statement. (B), it is given that A is a female. So 3. In 12 hours the two hands of the clock are together for 11 times. So, A alone is not
by using both we can conclude that A is B's mother. Choice (3) sufficient. From B alone the time could be any time between 4 and 5. So, B alone is not
sufficient. Combining A and B, at 4 hrs 21 min the two hands of the clock are together
9. From statement (A), we cannot say if E is the father of G. D being the grandfather of G,
between 4 and 5. Choice (3)
does not make E as the father of G, or it is possible that D had a daughter whose child is G.
So statement A, alone is not sufficient. From statement (B), we cannot say regarding E being
4. When the reflection of the clock is seen in the mirror it shows 8 hrs 25 min. Hence the
G's father or not as we do not know if D had any other child other than E. So statement B,
actual time is 12- 8 hrs. 25 min = 3 hrs -35 minutes. So, A alone is sufficient. From
alone is not sufficient. Even by using both the statements together, we cannot conclude
statement B alone we cannot find the time in the clocks as it may 6 o' clock, 9 o' clock 3 o'
whether E is the father of G or not. Thus both the statements together are not sufficient to
clock etc. So, B alone is not sufficient. Choice (1)
answer. Choice (4)

5. From statement A, we can find the time for which he was outside. Let the time when he
10. From statement (A), we cannot say if D is the niece of B, since nothing is mentioned
went out and the time when he returned be x minutes past 5 pm and y minutes past 6 pm
regarding D. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement (B), we cannot say
respectively.
regarding D being the niece of B or not, as nothing is mentioned about B. So, statement B
12 12
alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements together we can conclude that D is the
niece of B.
A-E
|
B, C-F
|
. D 6 6
There are three females E, F and D and there males A, B, C. Married couples. Clock when he went out Clock when he returned
1. A-E
2. C- F When he went out went,
B is D's uncle or D is B's niece. Using both the statement together we can answer that D is Minute hand position Hour hand position
the niece of B. Choice (3)
From 12: 6x 150+

EXERCISE-15 When he returned,

Minute hand position Hour hand position
1. From A, between 4 and 5 o‘clock, the two hands of the Clock is at 90◦ at 4 hrs 5 min and at From 12: 6y 180+

4 hrs min.
Now 6x =180+ ---(1)
So, A alone is not sufficient From B alone we cannot determine as no time is mentioned.
Combining A and B, we can conclude that Michael asked Change to meet him at 4hrs 5 6y=150+ ---(2)
12x-y=360---(1)
min but he came at 4 hrs min.Hence,change was late by Choice (3)
12y-x=300---(2)
Multiplying (2) by 12 and adding
 143y=3960 or y=27 Since there is only one leap year among the given 5 years, it has to be year C. So statement
Substituting this value of y in (1) B alone is sufficient. Choice (1)
12x=360+
7. From statement A, any two years having same number of days may be both leap years or
x = 30 + = =32 non-leap years. If both are leap years, the two years must differ by 4 years or a multiple of
He went out at 32 mins past 5 pm 4. As A and D differ by only 3 years, they are not leap yea's. Hence B or C has to be a leap
He returned at 27 mins past 6 pm year as in any four consecutive years one of them must be a leap year. Hence statement A is
insufficient. From statement B, either B or D is a leap year. Hence statement B is
Time spent outside
insufficient. Using both the statements as D is not a leap year, B is a leap year.
5:32 pm to 6pm+6pm to 6:27 pm
Choice (3)
=27 127
= minutes 8. From statement A, in a non leap year the year starts and ends with the same day of the
Thus statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, let the time when he went out be x week. So, the year X is not a leap year Statement A alone is sufficient. In a non leap year the
minutes past 5 pm. So when he returned it was x minutes to 7 pm. Let the time he spent months February and Mach start with the same day of week, where as in a leap year they
outside be T. will not start with the same day of the week. So, the year X is a leap year statement B alone
x + T + x = 2 (60) mins [From 5 pm to 7 pm] is sufficient. Choice (2)
T = 120 - 2x We cannot find the value of T without knowing the value of x. So statement B
alone is not sufficient. Choice (1) 9. From statement A, we can say that Menon has not celebrated hrs birthday in February. But
this alone is not sufficient to find the month in which he celebrated his birthday.
6. Let us consider the years such that only one among them is a leap year. From statement B, we have the following possibilities.
A 2001 2002 2003 (i) December, January and February :
B 2002 2003 2004 31 + 31 + 28 = 90 days
C 2003 2004 2005 (ii) February, March and April:
D 2004 2005 2006 29 + 31 + 30 = 90 days
E 2005 2006 2007 (iii) January, February and March:
31 + 28 + 31 = 90 days
But we take years where the centre year is not a leap year, we get anyone of the five years So statement B, alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements also we cannot find the
as leap year. month exactly as still there are two possibilities (Dec, Jan, Feb) or (Feb, March, April).
A 1896 1895 1894 1893 1900 Note: (January, February, March) combination is ruled out as in that case we get Menon has
B 1897 1896 1895 1894 1901 celebrated his birthday in February which is contradicting statement A. Choice (4)
C 1898 1897 1896 1895 1902
D 1899 1898 1897 1896 1903 10. Let us assume that the year 'X' is a leap year and Ranjit's birthday is on 1st March (Sunday)
E 1900 1899 1898 1897 1904 and in the next year he celebrates his birthday on the same date and is on Monday. Let us
assume that year 'X' is a non leap year and Ranjit's birthday is on 28th February (Sunday)
From statement A, we cannot say which are among them is the leap year. and in the next year he celebrates his birthday on the same date and is on Monday. So, the
Since A + B + C > C + D + E year X could be either a leap year or a non leap year. So, A alone is not sufficient. Similarly
A+B>D+E B is also not sufficient. Choice (4)
It is possible that one of A or B is the leap year, but we cannot say which one, Statement A
alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we can conclude that year C is the leap year.
Since (A + B + C) = (C + D + E) DATA INTERPRETATION
A+B=D+E
 TABLES Sale of D in 1999 = Rs.130 crores = 1.05 x 1.3 x sales in 1997
Sales of D in 1997 =
Ratio of sales of Band D in 1997
1. Number of people who like only Bar one = 124
Number of people who like only Kit Kat = 178 :
x 100 = 69.6% or 70% Choice (3) = 420 : 529 Choice (1)

9. Let the sales turnover in 1997 be 100 The sales turnover of Company A in 1999 = 110 + 20%
2. Number of people who like perk = 144
of 110 = 132. But sales turnover in 1999 = 135 crores
Number of people who like Munch = 132
Ratio of sales = 144 x 12 : 132 x 8 = 18 : 11 Choice (5) Sales turnover in 1997 = less than 100
Similarly sales turnover of B in 1997
3. In whichever square the 'brand' in the column and the brand in the row meet. that gives = less than 100 crores
the exact number of chocolates of the brand. The number of each brand of chocolates is in Sales turnover of C in 1997 = more than 100
the diagonal form starting with 256 and ending with 132. Adding all these values,
Sales turnover of D in 1997 = less than 100
256 + 498 + 178 + 144 + 286 + 124 + 88 + 132 = 1,706 Choice (1)
Sales turnover of E in 1997 = less than 100
4. The number of people whose first preference is Eclairs and second preference is munch are There is only one company, whose sales turnover was more than 100 crores.
129 and the number of people whose first preference is munch and second preference is Choice (2)
Eclairs are 83.
%= x 100 =( ) x 100 10. The sales turnover of company C in 2001 = 100 x 1.08 x 1.2 x 1.3 x 1.3 = 219%
= (1.55 - 1) 100 55% Choice (2) The increase is 219 - 100 = 119% Choice (3)

5. The population of the residential area cannot be determined as we don't know the exact
number of people whose first preference is a certain brand and the second preference other
BAR CHARTS
brand. Choice (5)
1. Trade deficit is in 1997, 99 and 2000 = 10 + 40 + 30 = 80
Trade surplus is in 1996, 98 and 2001 =10+20+rn=40.
6. Out of the given choices, the increase in B will be greater than that of A, since 15% of 115
Total trade deficit = 80 - 40 = Rs.40 thousand crores
will be greater than 20% of 110 which is greater than 20% of 108. The tie is between A and
Average exports = 140 thousand crores.
E only. The overall percentage increase from 1997 to 2000 in case of
30% of 140 = 42
A = 1.3 x 1.2 x 1.1 x 1 = 171.6
-2%of140 = 2.8
In case of E = 1.28 x 1.1 x 1.12 x 1 = 172.03
---------
The increase in E is the greatest. Choice (5)
39.2
----- ----
7. Let sales in 1997 be 100
+0.5% of 140 = 0.7
Sales in 2000 = 108+ 21.6 + 38.8 =163.8 or 164
-------------- ---------
Sales in 2000 = x 41 = 164 crores Hence 28.5% = 39.9 Choice (1)
Sales in 1997 = 100 crores. Choice (4)
2. In 1999, totals tonnage of exports
8. Sales of B in 1999
= 20 x 107 tones
100 crores = 1.15 x 1.15 x sales in 1997
Sales of B In 1997 = Total tonnage of Imports = = 30 x 107
 107 is common. Exports are less than imports by 7. Increase of rice from 1990 to 2000
x 100=33 Choice (4) = x 100 = 20%
Production of rice in 2010 will be 90 + 20% of 90
3. Trade surplus in 1998 = 130 - 110 = 20,000 crores. = 108 m tons.
Trade surplus in 2001 = 160 - 150 = 10,000 crores. Percentage increase of wheat from 1990 to 2000
Percentage decrease = x 100 = 50% x 100 = 40%
Trade surplus in 2002 = 50% of 10,000 = 5,000 crores. Production of wheat in 2010 will be 70 + 40% of 70 = 98 million tons.
Imports in 2002 = 150 + 20% of 1,50,000 = 1,80,000 crores. Total production of rice and wheat in 2010 = 108 + 98 = 206 million tons.
Exports in 2002 = Imports + Trade surplus Target = 240 million tons.
= 1,80,000 + 5,000 = 1,85,000 crores. The production of coarse grain in 2010 should be
= 185 thousand crores. Choice (2) 240 - 206 = 34 million tons. Choice (2)

4. Exports after three years will become 160(1.1)3 = 212.96 thousand crores.
Imports after three years will become 150(0.9)3 = 109.35 thousand crores PIE CHARTS
Total trade = 213 + 109 = 322 thousand crores. Choice (1)
1. Imports of pharmaceutical products = 40% of 64.8 = 25.92
Quantity of food grains in 1999-2000 as per the target = 175 + 20% of 175 = 210 m tons. Given 360 ----- 36 billion dollars
Whereas achieved quantity of production = 203 m tons. 25.92 -----?
Deficit = 7 m tons. ?= = 2.592 billion dollars
Deficit as a percent of total production Total internal production = 8 x 2.592
= 7/210 x 100 = 3.3% Choice (2) = 20.736 billion dollars Choice (3)

5. Percentage decrease in production of pulses from 2. Angle made by Bulk goods and paper and allied products is 147.6 .
1989-90 to 1999-2000 x 100 = 13.33% 360 ------ 36 billion dollars
The average price of pulses for the given years increases by the same 13.33%. 147.6 ------?
13.33% of 18 to be added to Rs.18 Clearly 1 ------ 0.1 billion dollars
Rs.18 147.6 will be = 147.6 x 0.1 = 14.76 billon dollars Choice (1)
10% of 18 = 1.8
3% of 18 = .54 3. Total value of exports of textile industry is 20% of 24 = 4.8 billion dollars.
.3% of 18 = .054 Total value of imports of textile industry = x 64.8
----------- = 32.4 = 32.4 x 0.1 = 3.24 billion dollars
20.394 Net exports = 4.8 - 3.24 = 1.56 billion dollars Choice (5)
-----------
= Rs.20.40 (approx.) Choice (3) 4. India's fuel bill = x 36 = $9 billion
New fuel bill = $(9 - 2) = $7 billion
6. Total quantity of food grains in the year 2000 = 190 + 13 = 203 million tons = 203 x 10 6 x 103 Capital good's bill = = $3.96 billion
kg Indian population = 100 crores = 100 x 10 7 persons.
Ratio of imports of now fuel bill to the capital goods
Per capita availability = = 203 kg Choice (4) bill = 7 : 3.96 7:4 Choice (2)
5. Fuel bill was 90° in 1999-2000 and has increased by 40%. Hence the new angle is 90° + 36° Income in 1999-00 is highest. Choice (4)
= 126°. Since all the other commodities bills have not changed, the total angle for these
remains = 270° i.e. the total angle is 396 . 2. The percentage increase in the income is highest in 1999-2000 over its previous year, since
Angle for Capital C300ds is 39.6°. Hence for a new pie here only income is doubled, whereas for others it is not doubled. Choice (1)
chart, angle of Capital Goods is
x 360 = 36 . Choice (1) 3. Considering the given choices, ratio of expenditure to profit is as follows.
1994-95, 1998-99 => 20: 5 = 4: 1 and 20: 10 = 2: 1
1995-96, 1999-2000 => 30: 10 = 3: 1 and 40: 10= 2:1
6. Child mortality in Afghanistan = x 18 = 81akhs
1997 -98, 1999-2000 => for 1997-98 ratio cannot be determined, as profit is nil.
But this is equal to 40% of its child population below five years of age.
1998-99, 1999-2000 => 20: 10 = 2: 1 and 40: 20 = 2: 1
Child population of this segment
In 1998-39 and 1999-2000, ratio of expenditure to profit is same. Choice (4)
= = 20 lakhs Choice (4)
4. Observing the graph and the values of income computed for the given years, none of the
7. Difference in percentage points of child mortality in Iraq and Pakistan variables income, expenditure and profit shows the similar trend. Choice (5)
= = 4.16% Choice (3)
5. The imports may be in dollars or in some other currency. This is not mentioned. Hence the
8. Child mortality in India in 1999-00 = x 18 = 1.25 profit or loss cannot be determined. Choice (5)

Child mortality in India in 1998-99 was = 1 lakh 6. Profit available for share holders in 1995-96 for
Child mortality in Asia in 1998-99 was = = 16.66 lakhs X = 0 x 40,000 = 0
Child mortality in rest of Asia = (16.66 - 1) lakhs = 15.66 lakhs Choice (1) Y = 15 x 15,000 = Rs.5,25,000
Z = 35 x 15,000 = Rs.5.25.000
9. If child mortality in Bangladesh decreases by 40% it will reduce by 40% of 20 i.e. 8 . The Both Y and Z have equal amount of profit available. Choice (5)
total will also reduce to 360 - 8 = 352°. Hence child mortality rate in 2000-01
would be = x 360 which must be slightly greater than 12 . Choice (4) 7. Profit available to share holders of company Z in
1996-97 and 1997-98 is as follows
1996-97: 25 x 20,000 = RS.5.00.000
10. In others half i.e., 40 are from For East countries. 20%
1997-98: 35 x 18,000 = Rs.6,30,000
i.e., 16° are from Arab countries.
Percentage Increase
Angle made by remaining countries in others will be
= 80 - 40 - 16 = 24 Choice (3) = = 26% Choice (2)

LINE GRAPHS 8. Let the number of shares of company Y in both the years be x.
Profit available to shareholders in
1995-96 = Rs, 15 x X and that In 1998-99
1. Income = Expenditure + Profit for different years, income is as follows, (Rs. 00,000) = Rs.25 x X
1994-95 = 20 + 5 = 25 Ratio of EPS for these years
1995-96 = 30 + 10 = 40 = Rs.15: Rs.25 = 3: 5
1996-97 = 40 -10 = 30 Also ratio of profits available to shareholders is
1997-98 = 40 + 0 = 40 15x : 25x = 3: 5 Choice (1)
1998-99 = 20 + 10 = 30
1999-2000 = 40 + 20 = 60
9. The EPS of the shares approximately for the year 1998-99 are RS.10 and Rs.25 respectively. 4. Matches lost by Germany = 30
Number of shares of x and Y in 1998-99 is Matches lost by Brazil = 10
X= and Required ratio = 30 : 10
=3:1 Choice (2)
Y= and
Ratio of shares
5. By observing the table given in situation 1, we see that France, USA and Argentina had 50%
= : success rate and won 60 matches in all. The other two teams, Germany and Brazil won 50
= 10 : 1 Choice (3) matches in all. Choice (3)

10. EPS of company Y •in 1997-98 is RS.25 6. By observation Choice (5)

Profit available for Y in 1997-98 = 25 x 60,000 = Rs.5,00,000
Expenditure of company 7. Total production of all textiles in India in 1996-97
Y = 120% of 15,00,000 = Rs,18,00,000 = = 6 000 ('000 bales)
Income of Company Y
In 1999-2000
= Expenditure + Profit
= = 5,000 ('000 bales)
= 18,00,000 + 15,00,000
= Rs.33,00,000 Choice (5) the total production has decreased and in terms
of percentage, It is x 100

STACKED BARS AND THREE = 16.66% Choice (2)

DIMENSIONAL GRAPHS 8. Average annual percentage

=( x 100) x
1. =( x 100) x = 50% Choice (1)
Country Matches Matches Matches Matches
played won lost drawn 9. By observation, the production of cotton is less than denim for 1997-98 and 1999-2000. The
Germany 60 20 30 10 percentage may not 'be required to find as the base i.e. the denominator will be the same for
France 30 15 - 15 both cotton and Denim. Choice (2)
Brazil 45 30 10 5
USA 60 30 15 15 10. As we do not know the price per bale of each type for any of the years, we cannot find for
Argentina 30 15 ? ? which type, the cost of production is the least. Choice (5)

By observation, Germany lost maximum number of matches. Choice (1)

DOUBLE PIE CHARTS
2. Originally, Brazil had the highest success rate, Even after doubling, it will have the highest
1. Market of Audio and Video sales in 1999-2000 is 150(1.2) = 180 crores.
success rate, (Since the ratio of matches drawn and won to total matches respectively
Sales of RPG in 1998-1999 = 20% x 150 = 30 crores
remains the same) Choice (2)
Sales of RPG has to increase from 30 to 90 (half of the market in 1999-2000)
=> 200% increase. Choice (4)
3. As we do not know the number of matches played by each team against Argentina, the
success rate cannot be determined. Choice (5)
2. 10% of sales of super market chain = 10% of 11 % = 1.1 %
If this double counting is removed, its new share will
 be x 100 = x100 = 10.0101% Choice (5)
MISCELLANEOUS
3. As we do not know the total sales in 1999-2000, we cannot find the percentages of sales of
1. The number of students playing at least one game = 341.
Sony and RPG.
The number of students playing none of the games = 159
Difference in percentage points also cannot be found. Choice (5)
The number of students playing exactly one game = 27 + 23 + 31 + 18 = 99
The number of students playing at most one game= 159 + 99 = 258 Choice (4)
4. RPG sales turnover from others = 3%
RPG sales from Audio and Video CDs = 20%
2. The number of students who play either cricket or basket
angle = = 23 x 3.6 = 82.8 Choice (4) ball but not football = 27 + 18 + 19 + 8 + 16 + 31 = 119. Choice (2)

5. The percentage increase in the food grain production for AP is 3. Students playing at least three games = students playing exactly three + students playing
x 100 exactly four. = 8 + 13 + 36 + 31 + 37 = 125 Choice (1)
- 1) x 100
4. The number of students playing at most one game = 258.
Now, 300/360 will be common for all the states we need not calculate the entire percentage.
The number of students playing at least two games = 500 - 258 = 242.
It would be sufficient if we observe the percentage Increase in the percentages of the
Difference = 16. Choice (2)
respective states.
i.e., for AP 12% to 16% which is <100%
5. The number of students who do not play Cricket, Football or Hockey is 31 + 159 = 190
for TN 4%t010% which is>100%
Choice (2)
for Kerala 8% to 5% which is a decrease
for Karnataka 5% to 8% which is <100% Choice (2)

6. Share of Maharashtra in the total production of food grains in 1999-2000 and 2000-01 is
REASONING APTITUDE
10% of 360
i.e., 36 and 8% of 300 i.e., 24 respectively.
NUMBER AND LETTER SERIOUS
required percentage = x 100
1. 14+3, 17+3, 20+3, 23+3. 26+3, 29
= 37.5% Choice (2) 20 + 3 = 23 Choice (3)

7. Rice production in West Bengal in 2. 5+6, 11+6, 17+6,23+6, 29+6, 35

1999-00 = x 15% of 360 = 27 million tones 23 + 6 = 29 Choice (2)
2000-01 = x 10% of 300 = 15 million tones
Revenue from the sale of rice in 1999-2000 and that 3. 48-5,43-4, 39-3, 36-2, 34-1, 33
in 2000-01 is 27 x 11 X = 297X and 15x12X=180X 39 - 3 = 36 Choice (4)
There is a decrease of 120 from 297
Percentage loss = x 100 40% Choice (2) 4. 6+2,8+4,12+6.18+8,26+10, 36
26 + 10 = 36 (Consecutive even numbers are added) Choice (1)
8. We can find the production of the food grains of A.P. and Karnataka for the year 2001-02
but the total food grail production in 2001-02cannot be found. Hence, Choice (5) 5. 63+3,66+5,71+7,78+9,87+11, 98
87 + 11 = 98 (Consecutive Odd numbers are added) Choice (2)

6. 43+1, 44+4, 48+9, 57+16, 73+25, 98 Consecutive squares are added

 75 + 25 = 98 Choice (4) The series consists of successive prime numbers. The prime number after 61 is 67. Choice (4)

7. 4,49,144,289, ___ 17. 67,71, 73, 79, 83, __ , __

This can be written as (2)2, (7)2, (12)2, (17)2, __ The series consists of successive prime numbers. The prime numbers after 83 are 89 and 97.
2 + 5 = 7, 7 + 5 = 12 and 17 + 5 = 22 and (22) 2 = 484 Choice (5) Choice (3)

8. 4,8,12,7,11,18,9, ____,22 18. 47+4,51+6,57+8,65+10, __ +12,87

4+8=12; 7+11=18; Similarly, 9 + 13 = 22 Choice (3) Successive even numbers are added to generate the series.
65 + 10 = 75 Choice (4)
9. 2,4,8,3,9,27,5,25,125,___,___,___
(2), (2)2, (2)3, (3), (3)2, (3)3, (5), (5)2, (5)3, __,__ 19. 113+23,136+25,161+27,188+29, 217+31, 248
2, 3, 5 are consecutive primes and the prime number Successive odd numbers starting from 23 are added to generate series. 188 + 29 = 217 Choice (5)
after 5 is 7.
7, (7)2, (7)3 =7, 49, 343 Choice (4) 20. 13,221,17,19,437,23,23, __ ,29
13 x 17 = 221; 19 x 23 = 437
10. 4x4, 16 x4, 64 x4, 256 x4, __ x4, 4096 . Similarly, 23 x 29 = 667 Choice (2)
Each number is multiplied by 4 to get the next term in the series. 256 x 4 = 1024
Choice (1) 21. 24,30,36,42,52,60, __
Sum of the consecutive prime numbers are given.
11. 7 x3, 21 +1, 22 x3, 66+1, 61 x3, _,202 .•. 11 + 13 = 24; 13 + 17 = 30; 17 + 19 = 36 and so on.
67 x 3= 201 Choice (5) So, 31 + 37 = 68 Choice (5)

12. 49,1625,3649,6481, ___ 22. 64,216,512,1000,1728, ___

The above series can be written as This can be written as
22 32, 42 52, 62 72, 82 92, 102 112 (4)3, (6)3, (8)3, (10)3, (12)3, (14)3
102 = 100 and 112 = 121 (14)3 = 2744 Choice (5)
100121 Choice (3)
23. 2,8,4,64,7,343,11,1331,16, __
13. , , , ,___ The number given in the numerator the square of its number is given in the This can be written as 2,23,4,43,7,73,11,113, 16, 163
denominator. (16)3 = 4096 Choice (3)
Next number is Choice (2)
24. 1,8,9,64,25,216,49, ___
This can be written as 12, 23, 32, 43, 52, 63 ,72, 83
14. 3x1,3 x2,6 x3,18 x4,72 x5,360 x6, __
(8)3 = 512 Choice (3)
The given numbers are multiplied with natural numbers in the increasing order. 360 x 6 = 2160
Choice (1)
25. 1728-343 ,1385-216 ,1169-125, 1044-64, 980-27,___
343 = 73; 216= 63; 125 = 53 and so on
15. 8x5,40 ÷2,20 x5,100 ÷2,50 x5,250÷2,125
980 - 27 = 953 Choice (4)
50 x 5 = 250 Choice (2)
26. 17x2,34x3,102x4,408x5,2040x6, __
16. 43,47, 53, 59, 61, __
2040 x 6 = 12240 Choice (2)
27. 12, 14, 18,26,38,62, __ The product of the digits in each number is added to the number to This can be written as
get the next number in the series. 22-1, 32 + 1, 42 – 1, 52 + 1, 62 – 1, 72 + 1.
12 1 x 2 = 2 and 12 + 2 = 14 72 + 1 = 50 Choice (2)
14 1 x 4 = 4 and 14 + 4 = 18 and so on.
Similarly, 62 6 x 2 = 12 and 62 +12 = 74 Choice (3) 37. 8,9,125,49,1331, __
This can be written as
28. 12,36,150,392,1452, __ 23, 32, 53, 72, 113, 132
The given series can be written as 132 =169 Choice (3)
(2)3 + (2)2, (3)3 + (3)2, (5)3 + (5)2, (7)3 + (7)2,
(11)3+ (11)2, (13)3 + (13)2 38. 15,66,132,363,726, __
(13)3 + (13)2 = 2197 + 169 = 2366 Choice (5) The digits in each number are reversed and the number
so formed is added to the original number.
29. 13×4-1, 51×4-1, 203×4-1, 811×4-1, 3243×4-1 ,___. 15 + 51 = 66; 66 + 66 = 132 and so on
3243 x 4 – 1 12972 - 1 = 12971 Choice (2) Similarly, 726 + 627 = 1353 Choice (5)

30. 49,925,2549,___,121169 39. 4 x1+1,5 x2+2,12 x2+2,39 x4+4,160 x5+5, __

This can be written as 22 32, 32 52,52 72, 72 112, 112 132 160 x 5 + 5 = 800 + 5 = 805 Choice (1)
Squares of successive prime numbers are given
72 112 49121 Choice (4) 40. 2 x2,4 x 3, 12 x 5,60 x 7,420 x 11 ___
The given numbers are multiplied with successive prime numbers to get the next number.
31. 3, 35, 99, 195, __ , 483 420 x 11 = 4620 Choice (5)
This can be written as
1 x 3, 5 x 7, 9 x 11, 13 x 15, 17 x 19, 21 x 23 41. The given numbers are Pythagoras triads
17 x 19 = 323 Choice (5) 6, 8, 10, 12,16,20,15, __, 25
i.e. 62 + 82= 102
32. 13+1, 14+8, 22+27, 49+64, 113+125,___+216, 454 122 + 162 = 202
1 = 13, 8= 23, 27 = 33 and so on-- , 152 + 202 = 252 Choice (5)
113+125=238 Choice (4)
42. 4, 18, 100, 294, 1210
33. 21+2,23 x2,46+2,48 x2,96+2,98 x2,___ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
98 x 2 = 196 Choice (3) 23-22 33-32 53-52 73-72 113-112
All the numbers are of the form of n3 - n2 and are all primes. . Choice (3)
34. 900,18,180,36,45,108, __ ,432
The given series is an alternate series 43. 2, 30, 130, 350, 738
900+5, 180+4, 45+3 15 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
18 x2, 36 x3, 108 x4, 432 13 + 1 33 + 3 53 + 5 73 + 7 93 + 9
Hence, the missing number is 15. Choice (2) Odd numbers in the form of n3 + n. Choice (2)

35. 7 x2+1,15 x2+2+32 x2+1 ,65 x2+2,132 x2+1 __ x2+2,532 44. 930, 812, 702, 600, 506
132 x 2 + 1 264 + 1 = 265 Choice (4) ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
302+30 282+28 262+26 242+24 222+22
36. 3,10,15,26,35, __
All the numbers are decreasing even numbers of the form n2 + n. Choice (1) Similarly, for the others. The next group should be XVU. Choice(1)

45. 0 , 4, 48 , 180 , 448 , 900 58. The three letters in each group make three different series.
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ F+6 = L+6 = R+6 = X+6 =D
03-02 23-22 43-42 63-62 83-82 103-102 T = O-5 = J-5 = E-5 = Z
-5

All the numbers are increasing even numbers of the form n3 - n2. Choice (4) J+4 = N+4 = R+4 = V+4 = Z
So, 'DZZ' is the next group in the series. Choice (2)
46. 5thletter to the right of F is K. Fourth letter to the left of K is G. Choice (4)
59. The three letters in each group constitute three different series as follows.
47. The letter which is 8th to the right of P is X. The 6th letter to the left of X is R Choice (4) P-2 = N-2 = L -2 = J -2 = H
L +2 = N+2 = P+2 = R+2 = T
48. The 7'h letter to the left of ° is H. The third letter to the right of H is K. Choice (3) J-2 = H-2 = F-2 = D-2 = B
So, the next group, in the series as ‗HTB‘. Choice (3)
49. The fourth letter to the left of H is L. The fifth letter to the left of L is Q. Choice (1)
60. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
50. The letter which is 5th letter to the right of X is S. The letter immediately to the left of S is T. The first letters are consecutive vowels.
Choice (1) A, E, I, O, U
C+3 , F+3 , I+3 , L +3 , O
51. The letter which is four places to the right of P is L. The letter which is two places to the left D+4 ,H+4 , L +4 ,P+4 , T
of L is N. Choice (3) Hence the missing letters are IIL. Choice (2)

52. C+5 , H+5 , M+5 , R+5 , W+5 , B+5 , G Choice(1) 61. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
A×2 , B×2 , D×2 , H×2 , P
53. The series consists of pairs of corresponding letters from the two halves of the alphabet So J+2 , L+2 , N+2 , P+2 , R
the next pair is ER X-3, U-3 , R-3 , O-3, L
Choice (5) Hence the missing letters are DNR. Choice (4)

54. B E, G K, M R, T Z, B I. 62. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given

2 5 7 11 13 18 20 26 28 35
set of letters.
+3 +4 +5 +6 +7 Choice (2) C+2, E+3, H+5, M+7, T+11, E
D+2 , F+3 , I+5 , N+7 , U+11 , F
55. J L, M O, P R, S U, V X F+2 , H+3, K+5, P+7 , W+11 , H
10 12 13 15 16 18 19 21 22 24 Choice (4) Hence the missing letters are MNP. Choice (1)

56. The first two letters in each group make a series. LM,NO, PO, RS, TU. The third letter in 63. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
each group makes another series. B+l , C+1 , D+1 , E+l , F
N-2, L-2, J-2, H-2, F. Hence, TUF is the next group in the series. Choice (3) D-2, B-2 , Z-2 , X-2 ,V
F+3 , I+3 , L+3 , O+3 , R
57. N L K, J H G, F D C, B Z Y,____ H-4 , D-4 , Z-4 , V-4 , R
14 12 11 10 8 7 6 4 3 28 26 25
Hence the missing letters are FVRR. Choice (3)
N-2=L N-4=J
L-1 =K J-4=F 64. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given
 set of letters. 81,100,121,144,169,196
A+1 , B+2, D +3 , G+4, K 92,102,112, 122, 132,142
C+2, E+3, H+4, L+5, Q Hence, 170 is the wrong number. Choice (1)
D+3, G+4, K+5,P +5, V
B+4, F+5, K+6, Q+7, K. 74. The given series is Fibonacci series
Hence the missing letters are KQVX. Choice (2) 8,9+8, 17+9,26+17,43+26,69+43, 112
Hence, 113 is the wrong number. Choice (5)
65. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given
set of letters. 75. The given series is
A = 1 and B = 2 1+2=3 3×1, 3×2, 6×3, 18×4, 72×5, 360×6, 2160
C = 3 and E = 5 3+5=8 Hence, 380 is the wrong number. Choice (4)
G = 7 and K = 11 7 + 11 = 18
I=9 and N=14 9+14=23 76. The given series is
K = 11 and Q = 17 11 + 17 = 28 8+1, 9+4, 13+9, 22+16, 38+25, 63+36, 99
Only E13H follows this pattern. Choice (5) Consecutive squares are added. Hence, 16 is the required wrong number with a greater
margin.
66. 1 L 2 12 and the 12th letter is L. Choice (5)
1Q7 17 and the 17th letter is Q.
Similarly, 2 V 2 is 22 and the 22nd letter is V. Choice (2) 77. The given series is
2×2 , , 12×5 ,60×7 , ,4620×13 ,60060
67. 4 B 2 4 - 2 = 2, and the 2nd letter is B,
Given numbers are multiplied with prime numbers. Hence, 425 is the wrong number with a
8G1 8 - 1 = 7, and the 7th letter is G.
greater margin. Choice (2)
Similarly, 6 C 3 6 - 3 = 3, and the 3rd letter is C. Choice (3)
78. The given series is
68. It is a series of vowels written in ascending first and then in descending order, hence 'e'
521+1 , 522+2, 524+4, 528+8, 536+16, 552+32, 584+64, 648
comes next.
where the added numbers are 1×2, 2×2, 4×2, 8×2, 16×2 , 32×2,64.
Choice (1)
Hence, 540 is the wrong number with a greater margin; Choice (1)

69. c+1 = d+1 = e+5 = j+1 = k+l = I+5 = q+1 = r+1 = s+5 = x Choice (2)
79. The given series is series of consecutive cubes in decreasing order
1728, 1331, 1000, 729, 512, 343, 216.
70. This is the series of consecutive consonants. So, the next letter in the series is ‗p‘. Choice (1)
123, 113, 103, 93, 83, 73, 63.
.•. Hence, 726 is the wrong number with a greater margin. Choice (1)
71. The given series is
8×2, 16×2, 32×2, 64×2, 128×2,256
80. The given series is
Hence, 120 is the wrong number. Choice (3)
2+2, 4×2, 8+2, 10×2, 20+2, 22×2, 44+2, 46.
Hence, 24 is the wrong number with a greater margin. Choice (2)
72. The given series is.
8+31, 39+37, 76+41,111+43, 160+47,207
81. The given series is
Prime numbers are added in the increasing order.
200+ 8, 209+25, 234+49, 283+81 , 364+121, 485
Hence, 120 is the wrong number. Choice (4)
The differences are squares of consecutive odd numbers; the required series is
9+9, 18+25, 43+49, 92+81, 173+121, 294
73. The given series is the series of consecutive squares.
 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) .•. The wrong number is 80 and the required series is
Hence (d) = 173. Choice (2) 80+21, 101+23, 124+25, 149+27, 176+29,205
Hence, the sixth number is 205. Choice (4)
82. The given series is
4×3 + 2, 14×2 + 3, 31×3 + 2, 95×2 + 3, 193×3 + 2, 581×2 + 3, 1165 88. The given series is
The required series is 8+5, 13+10,23+15, 38+20, 58+25, 83+30, 113
2×3 + 2, 8×2 + 3, 19×3 + 2, 59×2 + 3, 121×3 + 2, 365 the wrong number is 40 and the required series is
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 40+5, 45+10, 55+15, 70+20, 90+25, 115
Hence, (e) = 365. Choice (3) Hence, the fourth number is 70. Choice (2)

83. The given series is 89. The given series is

4+1, 5×2, 10+3, 13×4,52+5,51×6,342 , , , , 3.84
The required series is The wrong number is 5 and the
10+1, 11×2, 22+3, 25×4, 100+5, 105
, , , , 0.192
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Hence, the fourth number is 0.24. Choice (2)
Hence, (b) = 22. Choice (2)

90. The given series is

84. The given series is
20×1 +1, 21×2 + 2, 44×3 + 3, 135×4+4, 544
353-37,316-41, 275-43, 232-47,185-53,132
The wrong number is 40 and the required series is 40×1+1,41×2+2,84×3+3,255×4+4,1024
The differences are consecutive prime numbers. The required series is
Hence, the fifth number is 1024. Choice (2)
100-37, 63-41, 22-4 3, -21-47
(a) (b) (c)
91. Row (1) is 33 11 4
Hence, (c) =-21. Choice (4)
Resultant of 33 11 = = 3 (from rule (4))
85. The given series is Resultant of 3 4 = 3 + 4 = 7 = x (from rule (5))
10×1+2,12×2+3,21×3+5,86×4+7,351×4+7,351×5+11,1766 Row (2) is 147 16
The required series is Resultant of 14 7 = = 2 (from rule (4))
12×1+2, 14×2+3, 31×3+5 Resultant of 216 = 2 x 16 = 32 (from rule (3))
(a) (b) Hence, resultant of row 2 is 32. Choice (1)
Hence, (b) = 31. Choice (2)
92. Row (1) is 22 9 15
86. The given series is Resultant of 22 9 = 22 x 9 = 198 (from rule (3))
20+2, 22+5,27+11, 38+17, 55+23, 78 Resultant of 198 = 198 - 15 = 28 (from rule (2»
The differences are alternate prime numbers. Row (2) is 12257
40 is the wrong number. Resultant of 12 25 = 12 x 25 = 300 (from rule (3))
The required series is Resultant of 300 5= = 60 (from rule (4))
40+2,42+5,47+11,58+17,75+23,98
Resultant of row 2 = 60
Hence, the fifth number is 75. Choice (5)
Hence, the sum of the resultants of row (1) and row (2)
is 183 + 60 = 243. Choice (2)
87. The given series is
8+21, 29+23, 52+25, 77+27, 104+29, 133+31, 164.
93. Row (1) is 24 15 33
The differences are odd numbers is increasing order.
 Resultant of 24 15 = 24 - 15 = 9 (Form rule (2)) Row (2) is 20 20 5
Resultant of 9 33 = 9 + 33 = 42 (from rule (1)) Resultant of 20 20 = = 1 (from rule (2))
Row (2) is 42 9 4 Resultant of 1 5 = 1 x 5 = 5 (from the rule (4))
Resultant of 42 9 = 42 x 9 = 378 (from rule (3)) .•.Resultant of row (2) = 5.
Resultant of 378 = 378 x 4 = 1512 (from the rule (3)) Hence, the product of resultants of row (1) and row (2)
Hence, the resultant of row (2) is 1512. Choice (5) = 200 x 5 = 1000. Choice (1)

94. Row (1) is 2 25 1 98. Row (1) is19 3 50

Resultant of 2 25 = 2 x 25 = 50 (Form rule (3)) Resultant of 19 3 = 57 (Form rule (4))
Resultant of 50 1 = 50 x 1 = 50 (from rule (3)) Resultant of 57 50 = 57 - 50 = 7 (from rule (3))
Resultant of row (1) is 50. Row (2) is 50 25 7
Row (2) is 2 16 4 Resultant of 50 25 = 50 ÷ 25 = 2 (from rule (2))
Resultant of 2 16 = 2 x 16 = 32 (from rule (3)) Resultant of 2 7 = 2 × 7 = 14 (from the rule (4))
Resultant of 32 4 = 32 x 4 = 128 (from the rule (3)) Hence, the resultant of row (2) is 100% more than of
.•. Resultant of row (2) = 128. the resultant of row (1). Choice (2)
Hence, the difference between the resultants of row (1)
and row (2) = 128 - 50 = 78. Choice (1) 99. Row (1) is 24 3 12
Resultant of 24 3 = 24 x 3 = 72 (from rule (4))
95. Row (1) is 29 24 15
Resultant of 72 12 = = 6 (from rule (2))
Resultant of 29 24 = 29 + 24 = 53 (Form rule (5))
Resultant of row (1) = 6
Resultant of 53 15 = 53 + 15 = 68 (from rule (1))
Row (2) is 21 6 8
Resultant of Row (1) = 68
Resultant of 21 6 = 21 -6 = 15 (from rule (3))
Row (2) is 6 9 2
Resultant of 15 8 = 15 - 8 = 7 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 6 9 = 6 x 9 = 54 (from rule (3))
Resultant of row (2) = 7
Resultant of 54 2= = 27 (from the rule (4))
Hence, the positive difference between the resultants of
Hence, resultant of row (2) = 27. row (1) and row (2) is = 7 - 6 = 1. Choice (1)
Hence, the resultant of row (1) is 41 (= 68 - 27) greater
than the resultant of row (2). Choice (1) 100. Row (1) is 99 3 200
Resultant of 99 3 = 99 x 3 = 297 (Form rule (4))
96. Row(1) is 19 4 3 Resultant of 297 200 = 297 - 200 = 97 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 19 4 = 19 - 4 = 15 (Form rule (3)) :. Row (2) is 97 65 9
Resultant of 15 3 = 15 x 3 = 45 (from rule (4)) Resultant of 97 65 = 97 + 65 = 162 (from rule (1))
Row (2) is 90 45 13
Resultant of 162 9 = = 18 (from the rule (2))
Resultant of 90 45 = 90 ÷ 45 = 2 (from rule (2))
Hence, the resultant of row (2) = 18 Choice (2)
Resultant of 2 13 = 2 x 13 = 26 (from the rule (4))
Hence, the resultant of row (2) = 26. Choice (4)
NUMBERS AND LETTEER ANALOGIES
97. Row (1) is 49 5 1 2 1. 9: 16: : 49 : ___
Resultant of 49 51 = 49 + 51 = 100 (Form rule (1)) 3 2 : 4 2: : 7 2 : 8 2
Resultant of 100 2 = 100 x 2 = 200 (from rule (4)) 3 + 1 = 4, 7 + 1 = 8 and 82 = 64 Choice (3)
Resultant of row (1) = 200.
2. 48 : 120 : : 35 :___ 13. 64: 16: : 70 : ___
72-1: 112-1 : : 62-1: ___ 64 ÷ 4 = 16
7 + 4 = 11, 6 + 4 = 10 and 102 - 1 = 99 Choice (2) Similarly, 70 ÷ 4 = 17.5 Choice (2)

3. 324: 18 : : 576 : 14. 216: 36 : : 1331 : ___

= 18 and = 24 Choice (4) (6)3: (6)2: : (11)3:(11)2
(11)2=121 Choice (1)
4. 64: 512: : 100 : ___
82:83: :102:103 15. 28: 15 : : ____: 63
103 = 1000 Choice (5) 15 + 13 = 28
Similarly, 63 + 13 = 76 Choice (3)
5. 15:90: :17:___
15 x 6 = 90 and 17 x 6 = 102 Choice (1) 16. 89: 83 : : ____: 67
Next prime number to 83 is 89. Similarly, the next prime number to 67 is 71. Choice (2)
6. 7: 91 : : 13 :___
7 x 13 = 91 and 13 x 13 = 169 Choice (1) 17. 23: 161 : : 19 : ___
23 x 7 = 161
7. 625: 526 : : 225 : ___ Similarly, 19 x 7 = 133 Choice (5)
The digits in the given numbers are reversed.
625 when reversed is 526. Similarly, 225 when reversed is.522. Choice (3) 18. 2: 32 : : 4 : ___
2 and (2)5 = 32
8. 9: 72 : : 16 : ___ Similarly, 4 and (4)5 = 1024 Choice (4)
92 - 9 => 81 - 8 = 72
Similarly, 162 - 16 = 256 - 16 = 240 Choice (3) 19. 7: 53 : : 8 : ___
7 x 7 + 4 = 49 + 4 = 53
9. 31:37: :41:___ Similarly, 8 x 7 + 4 = 56 + 4 = 60 Choice (2)
Next prime number to 31 is 37. Similarly, next prime number to 41 is 43. Choice (4)
20. 21 : 440 : : 18 : ___
10. 3 : 81 : : 7 :___ 21 and (21)2 - 1 = 441 - 1 = 440
3 and (3)4 = 81 Similarly, 18 and (18)2 - 1 = 324 - 1 = 323 Choice (3)
Similarly , 7 and (7)4 = 2401 Choice (5)
21. 400 : 420 : : 961 : ___
11. 110: 132 : : 210 : ___ (20)2 and (20)2 + 20 = 420
102+ 10 => 100+ 10= 110 Similarly, (31)2 and (31)2 + 31 = 992 Choice (2)
112+11 =>121 +11 =132
where 10 + 1 = 11 22. 1225: 1190 : : 1089 : ___
Similarly, 142 + 14 = 210 and 152 + 15 = 240. Choice (2) = 35 and 1225 - 35 = 1190
Similarly, : : 33 and 1089 - 33 = 1056 Choice (1)
12. 23: 529 : : 29 : ___
23 and (23)2 = 529 23. 2197: 13 : : 729 : ____
Similarly, 29 and (29)2 = 841. Choice (4) Cube root of 2197 = 13 and cube root of 729 = 9 Choice (3)
24. 625: 5 : : 1296 : ____ (6)3 + 2 => 216 + 2 = 218 Choice (1)
Fourth root of 625 = 5
Similarly, fourth root of 1296 = 6 Choice (5) 34. 24: 47 : : 76 : ___
24 x 2 - 1 = 48 - 1 = 47
25. 41 : 43: : 47 : ____ Similarly, 76 x 2 -1 = 152 - 1 = 151 Choice (4)
Next prime number to 41 is 43. Similarly, next prime
number to 47 is 53. Choice (3) 35. 12: 1728 : : 8 : ___
(12)3 = 1728
26. 182:210 : :342: ___ Similarly, (8)3 = 512 Choice (3)
182 = 132 + 13
210 = 142 + 14 36. 25: 49 : : 169 : ___
Similarly, 182 + 18 = 342 and 192 + 19 = 380 Choice (2) (5)2 : (7)2 : : (13)2 : __
Next prime number to 13 is 17 and (17) 2 = 289. Choice (5)
27. 468: 163664: : 579 : ___
468 → 42 62 82 = 163664 37. 786: 765: : 937 : ___
Similarly, 579 = 527292 => 25498. Choice (4) Sum of the digits in the given numbers are subtracted
from the numbers. .
28. 13: 127: : 46: ____ → 7 + 8 + 6 = 21 = 786 - 21 = 765
13 → (1)3 = 1 and (3)3 = 27 i.e., 127 Similarly, 937 - 19 = 918 Choice (2)
Similarly, (4)3 (6)3 = 64216 Choice (5)
38. 169: 2197 : : 225 : ___
29. 29.18:342. 17, ___ This can be written as
(18)2 + 18 = 324 + 18 = 342 (13)2 : (13)3 : : (15)2 : (15)3 and (15)3 = 3375 Choice (4)
Similarly, (17)2 + 17 = 289 + 17 = 306 Choice (3)
39. 37: 43 : : 23 : ___
30. 4: 256 : : 5 : ___ Alternate prime number to 37 is 43.
(4)4= 256 Similarly, alternate prime number to 23 is 31. Choice (3)
Similarly. (5)5 = 3125
The digit is raised to its power. Choice (2) 40. 48: 24 : : 56 : ___
48 + 2 = 24
31. 14:182::16: ___ Similarly, 56 + 2 = 28 Choice (5)
(14)2 - 14 = 196 - 14 = 182
Similarly, (16)2 - 16 = 256 - 16 = 240 Choice (4) 41. 11: 132: :____ : 462
(11)2 + 11 = 121 +11 = 132
32. 57: 711 : : 1113 : ___ Similarly, (21)2 + 21 = 441 + 21 = 462 Choice (2)
Successive prime numbers are given.
Next prime number to 5 is 7 and for 7 is 11. 42. 6: 42 : 14 : ___
Similarly, for 1113 the missing numbers are 1317. Choice (1) 6 x 7 = 42
Similarly, 14 x 7 = 98 Choice (4)
33. 29: 66 : : 127 : ___
This can be written as 43. 58: 89 : : 63 : ___
(3)3 + 2 : (4)3 + 2 : : (5)3 + 2 : __ (5)2 + (8)2 = 25 + 64 =89
 Similarly, 63 = (6)2 + (3)2 = 36 + 9 = 45 Choice (2) Similarly, 23 x 3 + 3 = 69 + 3 = 72 Choice (4)

44. 7: 77 : : 13 :___ 54. 4: 12: : 17 : ___

Next prime number to 7 is 11 and 7 x 11 = 77 Previous number to 4 is 3 and 4 x 3 = 12
Similarly, next prime number t6 13 is 17 and Similarly, 17 x 16 = 272 Choice (1)
13 x 17 = 221 Choice (3)
55. 596: 270 : : 7946 : ___
45. 9: 720 : 7 : ___ 596 → 5 x 9 x 6 = 270
(9)3 - 9 = 729 - 9 = 720 Similarly, 7946 = 7 x 9 x 4 x 6 = 1512 Choice (2)
Similarly, (7)3 - 7 = 343 - 7 = 336 Choice (1)
56. 17: 36 : : 31 : ___
46. 11: 1331: :___ : 4096 Next prime number to 17 is 19 and 17 + 19 = 36
(11)3 = 1331 Similarly. 31 + 37 = 68 Choice (4)
Similarly, (16)3= 4096 Choice (2)
57. 57.3125:5:: ___:4
47. 538: 32 : : 796 : ___ (5)5 = 3125
538 → 5 + 3 + 8 = 16 X 2 = 32 Similarly. (4)5 = 1024 Choice (5)
796 → 7 + 9 + 6 = 22 x 2 = 44 Choice (2)
58. The relation is as follow
48. 23: 506 : : 26 : ___ 110=102+10
23 → (23)2 - 23 = 529 -23 = 506 Similarly 122 + 12 = 156 Choice (1)
Similarly, 26 → (26)2 - 26 = 676 - 26 = 650 Choice (5)
59. 135+ 55 = 190 similarly 210+ 55 = 265 Choice (5)
49. 5: 0.2 : : 8 : ___
5, 1/5 = 0.2 60. K+5 L-5 M+5 = PGR
Similarly 8 → 1/8 = 0.125 Choice (4) Similarly A +5 B-5 C+5 = FWH Choice (1)

50. 4: 0.25 : : 5 : ___ 61. S L Similarly, L P

4 → = 0.25 -3 -3 -3 -3
P I I M Choice (1)
5 → = 0.2 Choice (3)

62. T S Similarly, J T
51. 2: 14: : 4 : ___
-4 -3 -4 -3
2 and (2)4 - 2 = 16 - 2 = 14
P P F Q Choice (2)
Similarly, 4 and (4)4 - 4 = 252 Choice (5)
63. J P Similarly, K T
52. 13: 56 : : 19 : ___
-10 -10 -10 -10
13 x 4 + 4 = 52 + 4 = 56
Z F A J Choice (3)
Similarly, 19 x 4 + 4 = 76 + 4 = 80 Choice (2)
64. J M Similarly, K F
53. 11: 36 : : 23 : ___
+5 +7 +5 +7
11 x3+3 = 33+3=36
 O T P M Choice (3) Similarly,
O R A N G E
65. L J G Similarly, K M T +4 +4 +4 +4 +4 +4
+15 +15 +15 +15 +15 +15 S V E R K I Choice (5)
A Y V Z B I Choice (2)
72. A M B E R
66. P C 0 Similarly, B K S +5 -5 +5 -5 +5
+3 +4 +5 +3 +4 +5 F H G Z W
S G I E 0 X Similarly,
Choice (5) A R R 0 W
+5 -5 +5 -5 +5
67. C A P Similarly, M O N F M W J B Choice (1)
+3 +3 +3 +3 +3 +3
F 0 S P R 0 Choice (3) 73. S T G Similarly, L M Q
+2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2
68. M U L T A N U V I N O S Choice (3)
+2 +0 +3 +0 +4 +0
O U O T E N 74. Each letter in the word is coded with its preceding and the succeeding letters.
Similarly, Preceding and succeeding letters for M are Land N.
P U R I F Y So, MAN: LNZBMO
+2 +0 +3 +0 +4 +0 Similarly, SUN.: RTTVMO Choice (1)
R U U I J Y Choice (1)
75. S E T →S -2 → Q
69. F R I E N D →S +2 → U
+0 -2 +0 -3 +0 -4 E -2 → C
F P I B N Z E +2 → G
Similarly, T -2 → R
M E N T 0 R T +2 → V
+0 -2 +0 -3 +0 -4 Hence, SET: QUCGRV and MAT: KOYCRV. Choice (1)
M C N Q O N Choice (2)
76. T O P→
70. P A R K T +2 =V
+1 -1 +1 -1 T -2 =R
Q Z S J O +2 =0
Similarly, O -2 =M
T A N K P +2 =R
+1 -1 +1 -1 P -2 =N
U Z O J Choice (2) Hence, TOP: VRQMRN and SET: UQGCVR Choice (1)

71. L E M 0 N 77. F L A S H
+4 +4 +4 +4 +4 +3 +4 +5 +6 +7
P I Q S R I P F Y O
 Similarly, 83. L is the 2nd letter from the left and Q is the 2nd letter from the right. Similarly, Y is the 12 th
C L U S H letter from the right end and B is the 12 th letter from the left. Choice (5)
+3 +4 +5 +6 +7
F P Z Y O Choice (1) 84. Corresponding letters from the two halves of the alphabet are taken. H is the 6th letter from
the left in the first half, whereas U is the 6th letter from the left in the second half.
78. It is based on arrangement of letters. Similarly, the corresponding letters for the other letters are also obtained. Hence, HDB:
MAN: ANM UQO:: WTS : JGF. Choice (3)
123:231
POT: OTP 85. J is the 4th letter from the left and Q is the 4th letter from the right of the alphabet. So, J and
123:231 Choice (4) Q are corresponding letters. Similarly, M and N are the corresponding letters. Hence, JM :
QN : : CT : XG.
79. P L A I N Choice (4)
-1 +2 -3 +4 -5
O N X M I 86. Corresponding letters from the other side of the alphabet series are written.
Similarly, LKH : OPS : : TSQ : GHJ. Choice (1)
S T U M P
-1 +2 -3 +4 -5 87. Corresponding letters of the two halves of the alphabet are written as
R V R Q K Choice (2) ZUS: MHF: : PJN : : CWA. Choice (5)

80. L A M P 88. Corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet are written as
-7 -7 -7 -7 LMST: ONHG:: PKLM : KPON. Choice (3)
E T F I
Similarly, 89. T P U Similarly , J C K
B A N D -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2
-7 -7 -7 -7 V R W L E M Choice (1)
U T G W Choice (2)
90. L J O P Similarly, T K V M
81. P L A N -7 -7 -7 -7 -7 -7 -7 -7
-3 -3 -3 -3 S Q V W A R C T Choice (2)
M I X K
Similarly, 91. L J T U Similarly, P S T U
A P L E -1 -2 -3 -4 -1 -2 -3 -4
-3 -3 -3 -3 -3 M L W Y Q U W Y Choice (4)
J X M I B Choice (2)
92. W S T Similarly, B T U
82. J is the fourth letter from the left and Q is the fourth letter from the right end of the +3 +4 +5 +3 +4 +5
alphabet. Similarly, D is the 10th letter from the left and W is the 10 th letter from the right. T O O Y P P Choice (5)

Choice (2) 93. A E Similarly, I O

-4 -4 -4 -4
E I M S Choice (1)
94. L J T U Similarly, P S T U Code: PL LLTP FLZ
-4 +4 -4 +4 -4 +4 -4 +4 Similarly, 'MILLION' is coded as BTZZTFD. Choice (1)
P F X Q T O X Q Choice (1)
4. Number of letters in the word INVADER = 7 and 7 x 6 = 42,
95. K J W D Similarly, S G P Q Number of letters in the word SECURE = 6 and 6 x 5 = 30
-1 -2 -3 -4 -1 -2 -3 -4 Similarly, SITUATION
L L Z H T I S U Choice (2) 9 x 8 = 72. Choice (4)

96. There are two possibilities. a and e are consecutive vowels. o and u are the consecutive 5. The square of the number of letters in each word is given as its code value.
vowels. Number of letters in the word ENERGY = 6 and (6) 2= 36
Similarly, a + 4 = e , o+ 4 = s Choice (4) Number of letters in the word 'ACQUIRE' = 7 and (7) 2 = 49
Similarly, COMPETITION = (11)2 = 121. Choice (2)
97. P and k are the corresponding letters with respect to the two directions of the alphabet
series. Similarly, s and h are the corresponding letters. 6. Word: A R R I V E D
Choice (1) Logic: The word is reversed.
Code: D E V I R R A
98. e=5 → 5 x 2 = 10 = j Similarly, PETROLEUM is coded as MUELORTEP. Choice (5)
p = 16 → 16 x 2 = 32; 32 - 26 = 6 = f Choice (2)
7. Word : SECTOR
99. c = 3 → (3)2 = i Logic: The word is divided into two halves and each half is reversed.
d = 4 → (4)2 = p Choice (3) Code: C E S ROT
Similarly, OPPOSITION is coded as SOPPONOITI. Choice (1)
100. a = 1→ 1 X (1)2 = 1 = a
b = 2 → 2 X (2)2 = 8 = h Choice (1) 8. The number of letters in each word is multiplied with 10 to get the code value
i.e., PIONEER => 7 x 10 = 70

CODING AND DECODING BRAND => 5 x 10 = 50

Similarly, TECHNOLOGY => 10 x 10 = 100. Choice (3)

1. In this, alternate letters starting from the first are written followed by the remaining letters. 9. Word: FOUNDATION
So, SIGNIFICANT is written as SGIIATINFCN. Choice (2) Logic: Pairs of letters in the word are reversed
Code: O F N U A D I T N O
2. Word: GROWTH Similarly INTERIOR is coded as NIETIRRO. Choice (5)
Logic 1: The word is reversed
H T W O R G 10. Word: C O N C E P T
Logic 2:+1 + 1 +1 +1 + 1 +1 Logic: +1 +2 +3 +4 +5 +6 +7
Code: I U X P S H Code: D Q Q G J V A
Similarly, AVERAGE is coded as FHBSFWB. Choice (2) Similarly, EXECUTION is coded as FZHGZZPWW. Choice (4)

3. Word: T E R R I 11. In the word COMPANY, every alternate letter starting from the first is coded by taking the
Logic: x2+2 x2+2 x2+2 x2+2 x2+2 sum of the digits in its place value as per the alphabet.
T O R Y i.e., C = 3,
x2+2 2+2 x2+2 x2+2 M = 13 1 + 3 = 4 and the 4th letter is D and so on
 The other letters remain as they are Logic 2 : +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
Hence, COMPANY is coded as CODPANG Code : O P J U B U V Q F S Choice (3)
Similarly, COUNTRY is coded as COCNBRG. Choice (3)
21. Word : L I Q U I D I T Y
12. Word : G RA D U A T E Logic 1: Y T I D I U Q I L
Logic: +1 -1 +2 -2 +3 -3 +4 -4 Logic 2: +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
Code: H Q C B X X X A Code : Z U J E J V R J M Choice (4)
Similarly, 'LABORATORY' is coded as MZDMUXXKWT. Choice (3)
22. Word : O P P U R T U N I T Y
13. In this, the digits in the place-value of the .letters as per the alphabet are added. i.e., Logic 1 : Y T I N U T R O P P O
CHAMBER Logic 2 : +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
=> C = 3 = C; H = 8 = H; A = 1 = A; M = 13 Code : Z U J O V U S P Q Q P Choice (1)
=> 1 + 3 = 4 = D and so on.
Similarly, INDUSTRY is coded as IEDCJBIG. Choice (4) 23. Word : S I T U A T I O N
Logic 1 : N O I T A U T I S
14. Word : D O M E S T I C Logic 2 : +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
Logic: x2 x1 x3 x1 x4 x1 x5 x1 Code : O P J U B V U J T Choice (2)
Code: H O M E X T S C
Similarly, the word 'EXECUTIVE' is coded as ‗JXOCFTSVD‘. Choice (1) 24. It is given that 38 + 15 = 66 => (3 + 8) x (1 + 5)
=> 11 x 6 =.66 and 29 + 36 = 99 => (2 + 9) x (3 + 6)
15. In this, product of the digits in the place-values of the letters as per the alphabet is obtained => 11 x 9 = 99 then 82 + 44 => (8 + 2) x (4 + 4)
first and then added i.e., CUSTOM => 10 x 8 = 80. Choice (2)
C=3
U = 21 2x1=2 25. 13 x 14 => 13 + 14 = 27 and 27 - 4 = 23
S=19 1x9=9 28 x 57 => 28 + 57 = 85 and 85 - 4 = 81
T = 20 => 2 x 0 = 0 Similarly, 65 x 49 => (65 + 49) - 4 => 114 - 4 = 110. Choice (3)
0=15 1x5=5
M=13 1x3=3 26. The number of letters in each word is multiplied with 3 to get the value i.e., CONSUMER =>
Now (3 + 2 + 9 + 0 + 5 + 3) = 22 8 x 3 = 24 and
So, CUSTOM = 22 DETERGENT =>.9 x 3 = 27
Similarly, HISTORY = 49. Choice (2) Similarly, EXPLORATION => 11 X 3 = 33. Choice (5)

16. PURPOSE is coded as EPSUORP. Choice(2) 27. The square of the number of letters in each word is given as its value.
KNOWLEDGE = 9 and (9)2 = 81 and
17. PROSPECTUS is coded as SPURTOCSEP. Choice(1) INNOVATION = 10 and (10)2 = 100
Similarly, INTERNATIONAL = 13 and (13)2 = 169. Choice (4)
18. INTRODUCE is coded as EICNUTDRO. Choice (4)
28. The given words and their codes are as follows
19. CENTURY is coded as YCREUNT Choice (5) 1. SOUND – 67039
2. BOARD – 85723
20. Word : R E P U T A T I O N 3. WORK – 1847
Logic 1 : N O I T A T U P E R In all words the letters ‗O‘ and digit ‗7‘ are common.
 Hence, the code for ‗O‘ is 7. 1. tit pit kit *∆
In 1st and 2nd words, the letters ‗D‘ and the digit 3 are common. Hence the code for ‗D‘ is 3. 2. sit kit nit ∆o$
In 2nd and 3rd words the letter ‗R‘ and the digit 8 are common. Hence the code for ‗DOOR‘ is 3. lit pit sit $π
3778. Choice (3) On comparing (1) and (2) we find that the code for 'kit' is ∆ and on comparing (2) and (3) we
find that the code for 'sit' is $. On eliminating sit and kit from (2) we get the code for nit as
29. In this the sum of the values of the letters as in the alphabet are taken and to this the total 'o', similarly, we get codes for other words as follows.
number of letters in the word are added. Word tit pit kit lit sit nit
i.e., CONTROL => 3 + 15 + 14 + 20 + 18 + 15 + 12 = 97 Code * i ∆ Π $ o
Number of letters in CONTROL = 7
i.e., 97+7=104 The code for 'lit' is ' π '. Choice (3)
QUESTION => 17 + 21 + 5 + 19 + 20 + 9 + 15 + 14 =120
Number of letters in QUESTION = 8 34. Code for ‗nit‘ is coded as ‗o‘. Choice (2)
i.e., 120 + 8 = 128
Similarly, INSTITUTION 35. The given information can be coded as follows :
= 9 + 14 + 19 + 20 + 9 + 20 + 21 + 20 + 9 + 15 + 14 Word Code
=> 170 + 11 = 181. Choice (5) 1. apple is a Mango bkl
2. guava is Banana kmn
30. Word :PRO S P E C T 3. mango is not Banana nkql
Logic : The letters in the word are arranged in the increasing order of their place- values as Comparing (1), (2) and (3) we get code for ‗is‘ is ‗k‘ . On comparing (1) and (3) we get code
in the alphabet series. for ‗Mango‘ is I and on eliminating is and Mango from (1) we get code for Apple as ‗b‘
Code : CEO P P R S T similarly the codes for the remaining words are
Similarly, the word 'STRATEGY' is coded as AEGRSTTY. Choice (3) Word Apple Mango Guava Banana Is Not
Code b l m n K q
31. The given information is The code for Banana is n. Choice (4)
Words Code
1. How are you 345 36. Let us number the letters in the word
2. Who are you 413 S I G N A L as
3. They are good 649 1 2 3 4 5 6
4. She is good 792 These letters are arranged in the coding as
On comparing (1), (2) and (3) the word 'are' and the G A S I N L
Code '4' is common. Hence, the code for 'are' is '4', On comparing (1) and (2) the word 'you' 3 5 1 2 4 6
and the code '3' is common. Hence, the code for 'you' is 3. Similarly, H U R D L E is coded as RLHUDE.
Similarly, the codes for other words can be determined. 1 2 34 56 Choice (5)
How Who are you they Good She is
5 1 4 3 6 9 2/7 7/2 37. Word : CUSTOMER
Logic: The letters in the word are reversed
The code for 'you' is 3. Choice (3) Code: REMOTSUC
Similarly, DISTANCE is coded as ECNATSID. Choice (3)
32. The code for 'How is she' is '275'. Choice (5)
38. Let us number the letters in the given word
33. The given information can be tabulated as follows. P R O T E I N as
Words Code 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
 These letters are arranged in the code as L = 12 and is coded as 2. Choice (3)
R T I N E O P
2 4 6 7 5 3 1 46. If all the letters represented by a prime number are coded as 2 and the remaining letters are
Similarly, PRODUCT is coded as RDCTUOP. Choice (5) coded as 1, then the word TOGETHER is coded as 11221121, in which only G = 7, E = 5
represent prime number values. Choice (4)
39. Word : A D D RE SS
Logic: -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 47. SOUTH = 54176
Code: Z C C Q D RR NORTH = 78914
Similarly, BUILDING is coded as ATHKCHMF. Choice (1) In the above two words the letters OTH are common and so are the digits 1, 4, 7.
So, we cannot determine the code for TOOTH, it can be
40. Word : E N E R G Y 14417 or 17714 or 41147 and so on. Choice (5)
Logic: -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2
Code: C L C P E W 48. The word and their codes are as follows.
Similarly, FORTUNE is coded as DMPRSLC. Choice (4) REACH - 75169
LATER - 21563
41. Word : R E S I D E N T RISE - 5140
Logic: -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 In these words 'E' and R coded as 1 and 5 but which stands for what is not known.
Code: P C Q G BC L R A is coded as 6.
Similarly, VILLAGE is coded as TGJJYEC. Choice (1) Hence the code for EAR is 156 or 165 or any combination of 1, 5, 6. Choice (3)

42. Word : M E A S U R E 49. The words and their codes are as follows.
Logic: -1 +1 -1 +1 -1 +1 -1 SOUTH - 56279
Code: L F Z T T S D NORTH - 46379
Similarly, OCCASION is coded as NDBBRJNO. Choice (3) TEETH - 71179
From these we get,
43. Word : P U B L I C T is coded as 7
Logic: +3 +3 +3 -3 -3 -3 E is coded as 1
Code: S X E I F Z H is coded as 9
Similarly, NUMBER is coded as QXPYBO. Choice (1) O is coded as 6
Hence NORTON is coded as 463764. Choice (2)
44. In this, the place-values of the letters in the word as per the alphabet are given as the code.
CHEER is coded as 385518. 50. The words and their codes are as follows
WATER is coded as 23120518 ENERGY - 786374
Similarly, EXPRESS is coded as 524161851919. Choice (2) REAP - 1073
We can get the code for the letters E, R only.
45. Given that in a certain code language, A is represented by 1, B by 2, C by 3, all the multiples From this we cannot determine the code for GREEN. Choice (5)
of2 are given a code of 2, the multiples of 3 are given a code of 3. In case of a clash 2 will
prevail, and the rest of the letters in the alphabet are given a code of 4. Hence, VOWEL 51. The code for 'Diamond' is 'z'. Choice (4)
V = 22 and is coded as 2
O= 15 and is coded as 3 52. The code for 'Diamond is Black' is 'z f +'. Choice (2)
W = 23 and is coded as 4
E = 5 and is coded as 4
53. 'Bag exported' is coded as *. Choice (3) This group follows condition (iii).
Hence, the code is P M COP A. Choice (4)
54. The code for 'exported' is '*'. Choice (l)
71. The given group of elements is % 9 5 ∆ 4. This group follows condition (iii). Hence, the
55. The code for was is '%'. Choice (1) code is 'J S K T Y K'. Choice (3)

56. The code for 'coming' is '9'. Choice (2) 72. The given group of elements is 6 9 * % 8 .
This group follows conditions (iv).
57. The code for ‗I‘ is '6'. Choice (4) Hence, the code is I W O J W W. Choice (2)

58. The code for 'going' is '1'. Choice (4) 73. The given group of elements is 3 4 * 1 2 %. This
group follows condition (ii).
59. The code for 'will be' is '05'. Choice (1) Hence, the code is J B C O Z K E. Choice (4)

60. The code for 'I am not going' is '6741'. Choice (3) 74. The given group of element is % 6 ∆.
This group follows condition (ii)
61. The code for "Balbua is expensive will win Race' is 'Zar Hence the code is YET I J. Choice (2)
Tar Dar Yar Car Mar'. Choice (3)
75. The given group of elements is 2 3 6 ∆. This group
62. The code for 'Rocky lose Balbua win' is 'Par Lar Dar follows condition (i).
Car'. Choice (3) Hence, the code is NT E V V Y. Choice (3)

63. 'Win Race' is coded as 'Car Mar'. Choice (3) 76. From the rule (4) the code for "9 π 2 = o " is jpobij. Choice (1)

64. The code for 'Derby' is 'Bar'. Choice (1) 77. From the rule (2) the code for " @ # = " is tlkhiu. Choice (2)

65. The code for 'Very' is 'Sar'. Choice (2) 78. From the rule (4) the code for ― 7 π ‖ is rmbpr. Choice (3)

66. The given group of elements is 4 @ 8 x 7. The group follows condition (iv). 79. From the rule (1), the code for "8 o 3 4" is pjrgop. Choice (4)
Hence, the code is NT B F B P. Choice (3)
80. From the rule (3), the code for " 7 @ 1" is cmnfkq. Choice (2)
67. The given group of elements is 5 $29 . This group follows condition (iii).
Hence, the code is P Z MOP J. Choice (2)
ODD MAN OUT
68. The given group of elements is $ 3 @ 9 5. This group follows condition (i).
Hence, the code is C M A M E M H. Choice (3) 1. All except '76' are the multiples of 3. Choice (3)

69. The given group of elements is 4 8 2 6 9 $. 2. All except '32' are the multiples of 6. Choice (5)
This group follows condition (ii).
Hence, the code is J M B 0 I E P Choice (1) 3. All except '514' are the cubes of natural numbers. 125 = 5 3,
216 = 63, 343 = 73, 83 = 512 but 514 is given. Choice (4)
70. The given group of element is 3 $ 1 7 3.
4. Place values of all the letters except 'u' are perfect squares. Choice (4) 18. All except 'DW' are the corresponding letters with to the two halves of the alphabet series.
Choice (3)
5. All except 'FV' are the pairs of corresponding letters in the alphabet series. (Sum is 27 for all
except FV) Choice (5) 19. 8 = 23; 81 = 34; 1024 = 45; 3125 = 55; 15625 = (5)6
All the numbers except 3125 are of the form N(N+l) Choice (5)
6. (1 ) C+13P (2) J+14X (3)D+13Q
(4) L Y
+13 (5) K+13X 20. 80 = 43 + 42 ; 252 = 63 + 62; 576 = 83 + 82
All except JX follow the same pattern. Choice (2) 10 = 22 + 2 ; 36 = 33 + 32
All the numbers are of the form N3 + N2 except 10. Choice (1)
7. All except '1974' are leap years. Choice (4)
21. All except (6, 18, 19) are Pythagorean triplets. Choice (4)
8. All except '46' are multiples of '7'. Choice (1)
22. All except ‗s‘ are from the first half of the alphabet series Choice (2)
9. All except '0' are natural numbers. Choice (4)
23. All the groups of letters except ‗RST‘ are from the first half of the alphabet series. Choice (5)
10. All except '50' are divisible by 3. Choice (4)
24. All except 'SF' are the pairs of corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet
11. (1 ) 222 = 63 + 6 (2) 350 = 73 + 7 series.
(3) 520 = 83 + 8 (4) 738 = 93 + 9 Choice (3)
(5) 130=53+5 Choice (1)
As choice (1) is 214, it is the odd one. 25. (1) L+l M+2 O-1 N (2) P+1 Q+2 S-l R
(3) S+l T+3 W-1 V (4) G+1 H+2 J-l I
12. All the numbers except 748 can be expressed in the form of (5) A+l B+2 D-1 C
N3 - N2. All except (3) follow the same logic. Choice (3)
Ex: 18 = 33 - 32; 48 = 43 - 42; 294 = 73 - 72;
100 = 53 - 52; 648 = 93 - 92 Choice (5) 26. All except 'IE' are pairs of vowels in the natural order of the alphabets. Choice (5)

13. All the given letters except '0' are from the first half of the alphabet series. Choice (4) 27. (1) 1728= (12)3 but 1726 is given.
(2) 512 = (8)3
14. All except '39' are divisible by 9. Choice (2) (3) 216 = (6)3
(4) 1000 = (10)3
15. All except '603' have sum of the digits equal to 11. Choice (4) (5) 2744 = (13)3 Choice (1)

16. (1) T2 V-1 U+2 W (2) I+2 K-1 J+2 L 28. (1) A+3 D (2) F+2 H
(3) O Q P S
+2 -1 +3 (4) R+2 T-1 S+2 U (3) D+3 G (4) G+3 J
(5) B D C E
+2 -1 +2 (5) 1+3L
All except OOPS follow the same pattern. Choice (3) All except 'FH' follow the same pattern. Choice (2)

17. First and the third letters are consecutive and the second and the fourth letters are their 29. The digits in each set represent the position of the given letter in the English alphabet.
respective corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet series. Choice (4) 2W3 => 23 =W
1Q7=>17=Q
1M3 => 13 = M,
 2Y5 => 25 = Y, 44. All except 'Football' require a stick or a bat to hit the ball. Choice (2)
1R9 => 19 = S but not R.
Hence 1 R9 is the odd one. Choice (4) 45. All except 'Dam' are natural water bodies. Choice (5)

30. (1) C×2 F (2) F3×R (3) J×3 D 46. All the given pair of letters except 'lR' comprise of corresponding letters from the other end
(4) D l
×3 (5) K×3 G of the alphabet.
All except 'CF' follow the same logic. Choice (1) Choice (4)

31. B = 2 & D = 4 i.e., 2 and its square. Similarly CI = 3, 9, FJ = 6, 36, DP = 4, 16. EV = 5, 22 is the 47. The alternate letters in each group except in PBRC are consecutive. Choice (3)
only pair of letters that does not satisfy this criteria. Choice (4)
48. (1) J+2 L+l M-2 K (2) C+2 E+l F-2 D
32. (1) Z Y X (2) L K J
-1 -l -l -1 (3) U T S -1 -l (3) T V W U
+2 +1 -2 (4) K+3 N-1 M-l L
(4) F-1 E-1 D (5) L+1M+1N (5) W Y Z X
+2 +1 -2

All except 'LMN' follow the same logic. Choice (5) All except KNMl follow the same logic. Choice (4)

33. (1) C+2 E+3 H (2) 1+2 K+2 M (3) S+2 U+2 W 49. All except '51' are prime numbers. Choice (5)
(4) 0+2 Q+2 S (5) V2 X+2 Z
All except CEH follow the same logic. Choice (1) 50. (1) 194 = (14)2 - 2 (2) 290 = (17)2 + 1
(3) 362 = (19)2 + 1 (4) 485 = (22)2 + 1
34. All the groups have a set of consecutive letters but only 'PQR' is a group which has no vowel (5) 325 = (18)2 + 1
in it. Choice (4) The given numbers are of the form 'n2 + 1 except '194'. Choice (1)

35. All except '21' are prime numbers. Choice (5) 51. 464= 41 & 43 has written one next to the other.
5125 = 51 & 53; 327 = 31 & 33, 8512 = 81 & 83, All numbers except 6126 are written in this
36. All except '80' are divisible by 983. Choice (3) form.
Choice (1)
37. All the given numbers except 225 are perfect cubes whereas 225 is a perfect square.
Choice (4) 52. (1) 4913 = (17)3 (2) 6859 = (19)3
(3) 2197 = (13)3 (4) 9261 = (21)3
38. 35 = 5 x 7; 77 = 7 x 11; 437 = 19 x 23; 63 = 7 x 9. (5) 1331 = (11) 3 .
All the numbers except 63 are the product of successive prime numbers. Choice (4) All except '9261' are the cubes of prime numbers. Choice (4)

39. The number of times a digit is repeated is equal to its value except in (1). Choice (1) 53. (1) 210=(15)2-15 (2) 272 = (17)2 -17
(3) 342 = (19) - 19
2 (4) 158= (13)2-11
40. All except '6' are perfect square numbers. Choice (3) (5) 110 = (11) _11
2

All the numbers except '158' are in the form of 'n2 - n'. Choice (4)
41. All except 'Brown' are the constituent colors of the rainbow. Choice (3)
54. All the given numbers except '4' are divisible by 3. Choice (1)
42. All except the word 'Two' have two vowels each. Choice (2)
55. Pairs of prime numbers in descending order are taken and written one next to the other.
43. All except 'Oat' are rhyming words. Choice (1) Ex: 97 & 89 = 9789; 83 & 79 = 8379; 61 & 59 = 6159; 5961 = 59 & 61
 The only number that does not follow this pattern is 7573. Choice (3) 67. In each group of letters the second letter is the corresponding letter from the other end of
the alphabet and the third letter is the corresponding letter with respect: to two halves of
56. Except digit all are related to each other. Choice (1) the alphabet. This process is followed in all the groups except in 'SHG'. Choice (2)

57. Except Lid all are types of containers. Choice (5) 68. The number of times a letter is written is equal to its place value except in AA. Choice (5)

58. Except Trigonometry all are bunches of physics Choice (3) 69. (1) G×2 N (2) D×4 P (3) F×4 X
(4) B H
×4 (5) C×4 L
59. Except 'page' all are living places of some living beings. Choice (5) All except 'GN' follow the same logic. Choice (1)

60. The difference of the digits in each set represents the position of the letter in the English 70. (1) C-2 A (2) P-1Q (3) E-2 C
alphabet. (4) W U-2 (5) I-2 G
8F2 => 8 - 2 = 6 = F All except 'PO' follow the same logic. Choice (2)
703 => 7 - 3 = 4 = D
9B7 => 9 - 7 = 2 = B, 9C6 = 9 - 6 = 3 = C 71. The sum of the digits 'in all except '614' is 9. Choice (3)
6H2 => 6 - 2 = 4 = 0 but not H.
Hence 6H2 is the odd one. Choice (4) 72. (1) 10 = 3(3) + 1 (2) 18 = 3(5) + 3
(3) 22 = 3(7) + 1 (4) 28 = 3(9) + 1
61. The letters at the ends and the letters at the middle make two pairs of corresponding letters The numbers can be written as '3n + 1'. All except 18 follow this logic. Choice (2)
from the other end of the alphabet. Choice (4)
73. In all the numbers except '223' same digits are used. Choice (1)
62. In all the fractions except '12/4' the number is divided by sum of its digits. Choice (3)
74. The value of the letters is added and is given in the middle.
63. (1) P+1 Q+1 R+1 S (2) K+1 L+1 M+1 N C9F => C = 3 and F = 6 and 3 + 6 = 9
(3) W+1 X+1 Y+1 Z (4) F+1 G+1 H+2 J GHJ => G = 7 and J = 10 and 7 + 10 = 17
(5) J+1 K+1 L+1 M F14H => F = 6 and H = 8 and 6 + 8 = 14
All except (4) follow the same logic. Choice (4) B60 => B = 2 and 0 = 4 and 2 + 4 = 6
K23M=> K = 11 and M = 13 and 11 + 13 = 24 but not 23.
64. (1) T+1 U+2 W+3 Z (2) P+1 Q+2 S+3 V Hence K23M is the odd one. Choice (1)
(3) L M O R
+1 +2 +3 (4) A+1B+2 D+3 G
(5) F G J M
+1 +3 +3 75. All the given numbers are perfect cubes but only '729' is a number which is both a perfect
All except FGJM follow the same logic. Choice (5) square as well as a perfect cube. Choice (5)

65. (1) Y-1 X-2 V-3 S (2) L-1 K-2 I-3 F 76. (1) C×1 C×2 F×3 R (2) D×1 D×2 H×3 X
(3) C B Z X
-1 -2 -2 (4) P-1 O-2 M-3 J (3) B B D L
×1 ×2 ×3 (4) P×1 P×2 F×2 L
(5) W V T Q
-1 -2 -3 (5) F F L J
×1 ×2 ×3

All except CBZX follow the same logic. Choice (3) All except PPLF follow the same logic. Choice (4)

66. In each pair, there are two groups consisting of three letters. The second group is the set of 77. (1) Y-1 X (2) U-1 T (3) Q-1 P
corresponding letters of the first in the reverse order except in (3) where it is not given in (4) X W
-1 (5) T-1 S
the reverse order. Choice (3) All follow the same logic but only UT has a vowel. Choice (2)
78. In all the given numbers except '765' the digits of all other numbers are written in the All except (4) follow the same logic. Choice (4)
ascending order. Choice (3)
89. (1) L-2 J-3 G (2) P-2 N-3K
79. All except '13' are composite numbers. Choice (1) (3) S-2 Q-4 M (4) D-2 B-3 Y
All except SOM follow the same logic. Choice (3)
80. (1) K×2 Y (2) H×2 P (3) E×2 J
(4) P F
×2 (5) A×4 D 90. The letters in the words are given in jumbled form. When arranged in a proper order, we get
All except 'AD' follow the same logic. Choice (5) the following
(1) GUITAR (2) SITAR (3) FLUTE
81. The sum of the digits-in each set represents the position (4) TABLA (5) RADIO
of the letter in the English alphabet. All except 'RADIO' are musical instruments. Choice (5)
1 D3 => 1 + 3 = 4 = D
2F4 => 2 + 4 = 6 = F 91. The letters in the words are in jumbled order. We get the following words when they are
2J8 => 2 + 8 = 10 = J, arranged properly.
5K6 => 5 + 6 = 11 = K, (1) CARROT (2) ONION (3) POTATO
3H4 => 3 + 4 = 7 = G but not H. (4) MANGO (5) RADISH
Hence 3H4 is the odd one. Choice (5) All except 'MANGO' are vegetables. Choice (4)

82. Book is used to read. 92. In all the groups the first four letters are consecutive letters of the alphabet series. The fifth
Pen is used to write. letter is a vowel. This is followed in all the groups except in (2). Choice (2)
House is used to live.
Bed is to sleep. 93. In all the pairs, the sum of the digit and the place value of the letter is equal to 5 except in
But Table is not used to sit. Choice (3) E2. Choice (1)

83. (1) 125 = (5)3 (2) 729 = (9)3 (3) 343 = (7)3 94. All numbers except '256' are divisible by 6. Choice (3)
(4) 27 = (3)3 (5) 1331 = (11)3
All except '729' are the cubes of prime numbers. Choice (2) 95. The letters in the words are jumbled. We get the following words when arranged properly.
(1) BULB (2) FAN
84. (1) 11: 11 x 3 + 2 (2) 12: 12 x 3 + 2 (3) LAMP (4) TORCH
(3) 13:13x3+3 (4) 15:15x3+2 All except 'FAN' are the appliances used for getting light. Choice (5)
(5) 14:14x3+2
All except (3) follow the same logic. Choice (3) 96. All except '34' are perfect square numbers. Choice (1)

85. In all the choices except (3), the letters 0, U, Sand R are used. Choice (3) 97. (1) 139=53+14 (2) 337 = (7)3 - 6
(3) 505 = (8) - 7
3 (4) 721 = (9)3 - 8
86. All the given numbers except (4) consist of consecutive digits in ascending order. Choice (4) (5) 211 = 6 - 5
3

So, the numbers can be expressed as n3 - (n - 1).

87. All except '33' are prime numbers. Choice (2) All follow the same logic except 139. Choice (1)

88. (1) E-2 C+1 D-2 B (2) I-2 G+1 H-2 F 98. The product of the digits in each set represents the position of the given letter in the English
(3) X-2 V+1 W-2 U (4) O+2 Q+1 R-2 P alphabet.
(5) P-2 N+1 O-2 M 1D4=> 1X4=4=D
 3L4 => 3 X 4 = 12 = L
2P8=> 2X8=16=P
4T5 => 4 X 5 = 20 = T
2J6=> 2X6=12=L but not J.
Hence 2J6 is the odd one. Choice (2)

99. 150 = 53 + 52; 36 = 33 + 32; 392 = 73 + 72; 810 = 93 + 92;

113 + 112 = 1452 but not 1352
All the numbers except 1352 are written in the form of Total 100% = 80 + 5% + 45% + 10%
N3 + N2. Choice (5) 80=100% - 60% = 40%
40% of the (Total) number of youngsters
100. All except '115' are divisible by '31'. Choice (3) surveyed = 80
Total = 200 youngsters
6. 200 youngsters were surveyed in the locality. Choice (1)
VENN DIAGRAMS 7. Exactly one game.
EXERCISE – 5(a)
Only cricket + only football.
80 + 45% of the total.
As per the given data , we get the following diagram :
80 + 45% of 200 = 80 + 90 170. Choice (3)

8. 10% of the youngsters did not like any of the two games.
10% of 200 = 20 Choice (2)

9. 45% of total 45% of 200 = 90 youngsters liked only

Football. Choice (5)

H → History G → Geography 10. The number of youngsters who liked at least one game
1. 55 like only Geography. Choice (3) = 80 + 5% of total + 45% of total = 80 + 50% of total
= 80 + 50% of 200 = 180 Choice (2)
2. 35 students like only History. Choice (2)
The given information can be represented in the following Venn diagram.
3. 10 students like both History and Geography out of a total of 150 students. Hence, 150 - 10 =
140 students do not like either History or Geography. Choice (4)

4. 35 + 10 + 55 = 100 students like at least one subject. Choice (5)

5. (150 - 100) = 50 students like neither of the two subjects. Choice (3)

From the given data , we get the following diagram.

a → supporters of RK party only

 b → supporters of JS party only
x → supporters of both the parties 16. 35 families use mobile-phones of only Siemens. Choice (2)
n → does not support any party
given that n + a + x + b = 100 17. 25 families use mobile-phones of both Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens (Region
a + x = 35 common to Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens). Choice (1)
b + x = 45
x = 20 18. Exactly one company
a = 15 and b = 25 = Only Panasonic + Only Nokia + Only Siemens
n = 100 - (25 + 15 + 20) = 40 = 22 + 10 + 35 = 67 families Choice (2)
11. 15 politicians support RK party only. Choice (3)
19. Neither Panasonic nor Siemens implies only Nokia. So, 10 families use mobile-phones of
12. 40 politicians do not support any of the two parties. Choice (1) neither Panasonic nor Siemens. Choice (5)

13. x + a + b = 60 politicians support at least one party. Choice (2) 20. All the families use mobile-phones of at least one out of the three mentioned companies. So,
there is no family which did not use any mobile phone. Choice (3)
14. 25 politicians support only JS party. Choice (4)
Given .100 students were surveyed who read novels of Christie or Doyle or both.
15. a + b = 40 politicians are supporting only one party.
60 are not supporter of only one party. Choice (2) From the given table we get the information that 40 females read Doyle and 70 students read
Christie.
From the given data, we get the following the diagram.
Total = 200 Further,
1. 37% of the total students read both i.e. 37 students.
2. The ratio of males and females is 1 : 1. i.e. number of
males = number of females = 50.
3. 50% of the females i.e. 50% of 50 = 25 females read
both.
With the above information, we get,

P → Panasonic
S → Siemens
N → Nokia
1. 22 families use only Panasonic Phones.
2. 10 families use only Nokia phones.
3. 35 families use only Siemens phones. So, Doyle = 27
4. 4.25 families use both Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens. Christie = 35
5. 15 families use both Nokia and Siemens but not Panasonic. Both = 12
6. 23 families use both Panasonic and Siemens but not Nokia.
7. All the 200 families use mobile-phones of at least one company.
 Now after filling the gaps in the table we get:

I → Indian Express
Doyle Christie Both Total
H → The Hindu
Male 27 35 12 50 T → The Times of India
Percentage of residents who read at least one newspaper
Female 40 35 25 50
= 22 + 5 + 14 + 7 + 10 + 6 + 20 = 84%
Total 67 70 37 100 Therefore 16% of the residents read none of the three newspapers which is given as 64.
i.e. total x → = 64
So, Doyle = 40 Total = 400
Christie = 35
Both = 25 26. 400 residents were surveyed. Choice (3)
21. 12 Males read the books by both the authors. Choice (2)
27. 7 + 5 + 6 = 18% of 400 = 72 read exactly two newspapers. Choice (3)
22. The number of students who read books by only Christie is 23 + 10 = 33. Choice (3)
28. 22 + 14 + 20 = 56% of 400 = 224 read exactly one newspaper. Choice (5)
23. 15 females read books by only Doyle. Choice (4)
29. Residents who read only The Times of India = 20% Residents who read only The Hindu =
24. 37 students read the books by both the authors. Hence, those who do not read both the 14%
books is 100 - 37 = 63. Choice (5) So, the residents who read only The Hindu, expressed as a percentage of the residents who
read only The Times of India, is: x 100 = 70% Choice (4)
25. 27 males read books by Doyle. Choice (1)
30. Residents who read The Indian Express = 44%
From the given data, we get the following diagram. Residents who read only The Times of India = 20%
Ratio = 44: 20 = 11 : 5 Choice (2)

The given information can be represented as in the following Venn diagram.

 34. 10 guests have eaten Vanilla and Chocolate ice cream but not Strawberry ice cream.
Choice (3)

35. The guests who did not eat Vanilla are b + z + c + n = 60 + 40 + 100 + 80 = 280 guests
Choice (5)

From the given data, we get the following diagram.

Vanilla ice cream have eaten by → a + x + y + h = 100

Strawberries ice cream have eaten by b + x + z + h = 150
Chocolate ice cream have eaten by → c + y + z + h = 170
Ice cream of all flavors have eaten by → h → 20 (i)
Vanilla ice cream and Chocolate ice cream have eaten by →h + Y = 30 (ii)
Vanilla ice cream and Strawberry ice cream have eaten by → h + x = 50 (iii)
Chocolate ice cream and Strawberry ice cream have eaten by →h+ x= 60 (iv)
80 guest have not eaten any ice cream → n = 80 x + y + z=45
From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) a + b + c = 20
x = 30 Total = x + y + z + a + b + c + 5 = 45 + 20 + 5 = 70
y = 10
z = 40 36. There are 70 people in the locality. Choice (2)
As we know
a + x + y + h = 100 37. Number of people who read at least two magazines is given by a + b + c + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25.
a + 30 + 10 + 20 =100 Choice (1)
a = 40
b + x + z + h = 150 38. Given, IT: SS : BI = 2 : 3 : 4
b + 30 + 40 + 20 = 150 Let IT = 2x, SS = 3x and BI = 4x
b = 60 But it is given that
also, c + y + z + h = 170 2x = 18
c + 10 + 60 = 170 x=9
c = 100 So, SS = 3x = 27
31. Total guests are = a + b + c + x + y + z + h + n = 40 + 60 + 100 + 30 + 1 0 + 40 + 20 + 80 = 380 BI = 4x = 36
guests Choice (4) Therefore, 27 persons read Sports Star. Choice (5)
39. The 10 people who stop reading India Today and start reading Business India could be from
32. At least two flavors of ice creams are eaten by region 'x' or from region 'a'. If it is from 'x' they would be added to 'z' and if they are from 'a'
x + y + z + h = 30 + 10 + 40 + 20 = 1 00 Choice (2) they would be added to 'c'. In either case there is no net addition to a + b + c. Therefore the
maximum value of a + b + C remains uncharged i.e., 20. Choice (1)
33. Only Vanilla and Strawberry ice creams have been eaten by 30 guests. Choice (2)
40. a + b + c = 20 read exactly two magazines.
(x + y + z) + (a + b + c) + 5 = 45 + 20 + 5 = 70 read at least one magazine.
Percentage = × 100 = 28 % Choice (3)
 Given that out of a total of 150 students, 10 students failed in both the subjects.
From the given data. we get the following diagram. This implies remaining 150 - 10 = 140 students passed in at least one subject.

Total = 140
a + b + c + 10 = 60 So, 70 - x +x+90-x= 140
=>a+b+c=50 x= 20
It is known that Pop + Classical + Light 20 students passed in both Physics and Statistics.
= 2(a + b + c) + (x + y + z) + 30
=> 125 + 135 + 95 = 100 + (x + y + z) + 30 46. 140 students passed in at least one subject. Choice (3)
=> x + y + z = 355 - 130 = 225.
47. 20 students passed in both the subjects. Choice (1)
41. x + y + z = 225 cassettes belonged to exactly one type of music. Choice (3)
48. The number of students who passed in only Physics
42. a + b + c = 50 cassettes were of exactly two types of music. Choice (2) = 70 - x = 70 - 20 = 50. Choice (5)

43. (x + y + z) + (a + b + c) + 10 = 225 + 50 + 10 = 285 cassettes had music of at least one type. 49. The number of students who passed in both = 20. Number of students who passed in physics
Choice (1) = 70.
× 100 = 28 % of the students those passed in physics also passed in statistics.
44. Given, x = z = 2y Choice (4)
x:z:y=2:2:1
Also, x + y + z = 225 50. The number of students who passed in exactly one
Only Classical Music => y = × 225 = 45 Choice (4) subject = 70 - x + 90 - x = 160 - 40 = 120 Choice (2)

45. Given, EXERCISE – 5(b)

x = 65 and a = b
But, we know that x + a + b + 10 = 125 The given diagram is
=>75+2a+10=125 (a=b)
=>a=2=b
Also, a + b + c = 50
20 + 20 + c = 50
c = 10.
So, there are 10 cassettes which are both Classical and Light but not Pop. Choice (5)
 7. 'v', 's', 'w' and z are in the Triangle but not in Square. Hence those represent the people who
like Marinda but not Thumbs up. Choice (5)

8. u, y, x belong to both Circle and Square, hence they like Maaza and Thumbs up.
Choice (4)

9. The letter 'v' belongs to Circle and Triangle but neither to Square nor Rectangle. Hence v
represents the people who like Ma'aza and Marinda but not the other 2. Choice (2)

10. w belongs to Circle and Rectangle but not Square, hence w represents the people who like
Maaza, Marinda, Coca-cola but not Thumbs up. Choice (4)

Given venn diagram is

1. The number belongs to only Circle is 5. Hence 5 students passed only in Mathematics.
Choice (2)

2. Total 12 + 11 = 23 students belong to the Triangle and Square. Hence 23 student pass in both
Physics and Chemistry. Choice (3)

3. 10 + 12 = 22 people belong to Square but not Circle. Hence the number of student passed in
Chemistry but not in mathematics is 22. Choice (1)

4. 3 students belong to Triangle and Circle but not Square. Hence 3 student like Physics and
Chemistry but not Mathematics. Choice (1)

5. 11 is in all the three. Hence 11 passed in all the three subjects. Choice (2) 11. a and I do not belong to circle II ad IV
a and I represent the athletes do not participate in either Running or Long jump.
Choice (3)

12. b, g, e, f represents the athletes who participated in Running and Swimming. Choice (4)

13. f belongs to all the four Circles. Choice (5)

14. g, e, i and j belong to exactly 3 Circles. Choice (2)

15. 'i' belOngs to circle I, III but not IV

Hence, i represent the people who participate Swimming and Javelin throw but not Long
jump. Choice (5)

6. In the diagram b represents the people who like only Coca - cola and Thumbs up. Given Venn diagram is
Choice (3)
 21. Number of employee that are member of club C only = b = 260. Choice (4)

22. Number of members of club A and B = x + 20

= 50 + 20 = 70. Choice (3)

23. a + 40 + b + n = 310 + 40 + 260 + 0 = 610 are not the members of club B. Choice (2)

24. Members of club A or club C = a + x + 40 + 20 + b + 20

= 310 + 50 + 40 + 20 + 260 + 20 = 700. Choice (2)

25. x + 40 + 20 = 50 + 40 + 20 = 110 are the members of exactly two clubs. Choice (1)

16. 9 + 2 = 11, Engineers are also Singer. Choice (3) The given Venn diagram is

17. 20 + 3 = 23 Actors are no Engineers. Choice (2)

18. 3 Singers are Actors but not Engineers. Choice (2)

19. 9 + 21 = 30 Engineers are either Singers or Actors but not both. Choice (5)

20. 2 Singers are Actors as well as Engineers. Choice (4)

R = 100 → z = 100 - (13 + 15 + 14) = 58

26. The number of students having Passport = 100

Y = 100 - (12 + 15 + 14) = 59
Similarly x = 100 - (12 + 15 + 13) = 60
Number of students having at least one of the three 10 proofs x + y + z + 12 + 13 + 15 + 14
= 60 + 59 + 58 + 13 + 15 + 13 + 14 = 231. Choice (4)

27. It is given that the number of students having an 10 card is half of the number of student
having PAN card
x + 12 + 15 + 13 = = 50
C = b + 40 + 20 + 20 = 340
x= 10 Choice (1)
b = 260
B = 500 + 20 + 20 + x = 590
28. The number of students not having either voter ID or Passport = n + z = 20+ 58 = 78.
x=50
Choice (3)
A= a+ x(=50) + 40+ 20 =420
a = 310
29. = y = = 29
n = 0 [given]
x=2y=58
 Number of students having only voter - 10 card = 58. Choice (2) 41. 48 + 15 + 20 + 11 + 10 + 13 + 28 = 145 Members of at least one of the three Choice (2)

30. x = y = z = 58 42. 15 Professors are Doctors but not Singers. Choice (3)
Number of students not having PAN card = x + 12 + Y + 20
= 58 + 12 + 58 + 20 = 148. Choice (5) 43. 10 Singers are Doctors as well Singers. Choice (4)

31. River and Ocean are two different water sources. Choice (4) 44. 48 + 15 = 63 Doctors are not Singers. Choice (4)

32. Marigold and Rose are two different types flowers. Choice (4) 45. 11 + 15 + 20 + 28 = 74 are either Singers or Professors but not both. Choice (5)

33. India, China, Australia are 3 different countries. Choice (3) 46. 19 + 24 = 43 female Entrepreneurs are Professors also Choice (5)

34. All fathers are males and some males are Doctors. Choice (1) 47. 20 + 10 = 30 Professors are neither Entrepreneurs nor Engineers. Choice (3)

35. Some odd numbers are natural numbers and both are real numbers. Choice (2) 48. 11 + 20 = 31 male Professors are Entrepreneurs also. Choice (2)

36. All brothers are males but no female is males any venn diagram given cannot represent this 49. 22 + 19 + 10 = 51 females are not Engineers. Choice (1)
relation. Choice (5)
50. 13 + 24 = 37 are Professors, Engineers and Entrepreneurs. Choice (1)
37. Coca Cola is a cool drink which is a Beverage. Choice (3)

38. Cardiologists are Doctors some of whom are Professors. No Venn diagram can represent this. CLOCKS
Choice (5)
1. In 1 hour the hour-hand moves 360/12 = 30 .
39. No Doctor is an Engineer but some of Doctors some of engineers are females. Choice (2) Hence, in 10 minutes it covers 30 /6 = 5 Choice(4)

40. Some of Singers can be Actors, some Actors can be Dancers and some Dancers can be 2. The hour hand moves 10 in 20 minutes. In 20 minutes the minute-hand moves
singers. Choice (1) 20/60 x 360 = 120 Choice(5)

The given diagram is 3. In 50 seconds the second hand covers 300 .

In 60 seconds the minute hand covers 300/60 = 6 .
Hence, in 50 seconds it covers 5 . Choice (2)

4. The time in the mirror is 4 hours 20 minutes. The actual time = (12 - 4 hours 20 minutes)
= 7 hours 40 minutes. Choice (3)

5. The actual time given in the mirror is 7 hours 15 minutes. The time shown by this clock
when seen in the mirror is (12 - 7 hours 15 minutes) = 4- hours 45 minutes. Choice (4)

6. At 4 hours 20 minutes the angle between the two hands is = 30 h - 11/2 m.

=> = 30 x 4 - 11/2 x 20
 => = (120 -110) = 10 Choice (2) => 11/2 m = + 30 h
11 m = 2(70 + 30 x 7)
7. At 4 hrs 30 min, the hour hand is In between 4 and 5 and the minute hand is at 6. It is given m = 560/11 = 50 min past 7.
that the minute hand points towards South which implies that the minute hand point At 7 hours 50 minutes, the angle between the two hands is 70 .
towards South-east. Choice (1)
When = 30 h -11/2 m
11/2 m = 30 h -
8. The angle between the hands at 3 hours 25 minutes is
=> m =
= 11/2 m - 30 h (where 8 = angle, m = minutes and h = hours)
Here, h = 3 and m = 25 m = 280/11 = 25 min past 7. Choice (5)
= 11/2 x 25 - 30 x 3
=> = 14. = 11/2m - 30h
11/2 m = + 30 h
=> = 95/2 = 47 . Choice (4)
=> m =
9. The angle between the two hands of a clock at 2 hours 35 minutes is e = 11/2 m - 30 h, m = 280/11 = At 25 min past 3, the two hands of the clock are 50 apart.
here h = 2 and m = 35 = 30 h -11/2 m
= 11/2 x 35 - 30 x 2 11/2m=30h –
=> = => = 265/2 = 132 Choice (3) => m =
=> m = 80/11 = At 7 min past 3 the two hands of the clock are 50 apart. Choice (2)
10. = 11/2m - 30h
Here it is given that = 0 and h = 6 15. = 11/2 m - 30 h
11/2 m = 30h 11/2 m = + 30 h
=> 11 m = 60 h => m = 11 m = 2(62 + 30 x 5)
m = 360/11 = 32 min past 6. m= = At 38 min past 5 O'clock the two hands of the clock are 62 apart.
The two hands of the clock are together at 32 = 30 h - 11/2 m => 11/2 m = 30 h –
minutes past 6, between 6 and 7 O'clock. Choice (1) => 11 m = 2(30 x 5 - 62)
=> m = 176/11 = At 16 minutes past 5 O'clock, the two hands of the clock are 62 apart.
11. It is given that e = 180°, h = 3 Choice (5)
= 11/2 m - 30h
11/2 m = + 30h 16. Time from 6 a.m. Monday to 7 p.m. on Thursday = 85 hours.
=>11 m = 2(180 + 30 x 3) => m = 540/11 The watch gains (4 + 6) = 10 minutes in 85 hours
The watch gains 4 minutes in [4/10 x 85] = 34 hours. (Shows correct time)
=> m = 49 minutes past 3.
34 hours = 1 day 10 hours.
At 49 minutes past 3, the two hands of the clock are in opposite directions. Choice (5)
1 day 10 hours from 6 a.m. Monday = 4 p.m. Tuesday. Choice (2)

12. = 30 h - 11/2 m, where h = 7, m = 20

17. In a correct clock, the hands of a clock coincide every 65 minutes. But in this case they
= 30 x 7 - 11/2 x 20
are together again after 66 minutes, hence clock loses time.
= 210 - 110 => 8 = 100 Choice (3)
Loss in 66 min = (66 - 65 ) = 6/11 minutes.
13. In this it is given that Loss in 24 hours = 6/11 x
= 70 , h = 7 = 1440/121 = 11
= 11/2 m - 30 h
 The clock loses 11 minutes in 24 hours. Choice (3) 24. Difference in minutes between the two clocks in one hour = 3 minutes.
Number of hours from 8 a.m. to 12 noon on that day = 4 hours.
18. In a correct clock, the hands of a clock coincide every 65 minutes. But in this case both The two clocks differ by = 3 x 4 = 12 minutes. Choice (5)
the hands are together again after 62 minutes, hence the clock gains time.
25. Difference in minutes between the two clocks in one hour = 1 minute
Gain in 62 minutes = (65 - 62) = 3 min gain.
Number of hours between 12 noon to 8 p.m. on that day = 8 hours.
Gain in 24 hours = 38/11 x 60 x 24 / 62
In 8 hours, one of the clocks gains 8 minutes and shows the time as 8:08 p.m. The other
= = 80 clock which gains 2 minutes in 1 hour shows the time as 8:16 p.m. Choice (3)
So the clock gains 80 minutes in 24 hours. Choice (1)

19. Time from 12 noon Monday to 6 p.m. the next day = 30 hours.
CALENDARS
The watch gains (5 + 10) = 15 minutes in 30 hours.
The watch gains 5 minutes in 5/15 x 30 = 10 hours. 1. It is given that 22nd April, 1982 was a Thursday. Number of days from 22 nd April 1982 to 3rd
10 hours from 12 noon = 10 p.m. November 1982.
The clock shows the correct time at 10 p.m. of the same day. Choice (4) Month: April + May + June + July + August + September + October + November
In each month number of odd days:
20. Time from 3 p.m. Sunday to 9 p.m. Tuesday = 54 hours. 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 6 odd days
The watch loses (5 + 10) = 15 minutes in 54 hours. 6th day after Thursday is Wednesday. Choice (2)
The watch loses 5 min in 5/15 x 54 = 18 hours 18 hours from 3 p.m. Sunday is 9 a.m. on
Monday, which is when the clock shows the correct time. Choice (5) 2. Number of odd days from 30th June, 1989 to 30th June, 1993 is five.
Number of days from 30th June, 1993 to 17th September, is
21. Time from 8 a.m. on one day to 4 p.m., the next day = 32 hours. Month: July + August + September
24 hours 10 minutes of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock. Odd days: 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
Number of odd days = 9 + 5=14 = 0 odd days
24 = 145/6 hrs of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock. 32 hours of this clock
Hence, 17th September 1993 was a Friday. Choice (5)
= 32 x 6 x 24/145
= 31 hours 47 minutes approximately.
3. It is given that 26th February, 2014 is a Wednesday. 26th February, 2017, is four days after
The correct time is 31 hours 47 minutes from 8 a.m.
Wednesday, i.e., on Sunday.
= 3 hours 47 minutes the next day, afternoon. Choice (2)
Number of odd days from 26th February, 2017 to 14th July, 2017 = 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 0 = 12
odd days. Number of odd days in 12 days = 1217 = 5 odd days 5 th day after Sunday is Friday.
22. Time from 10 a.m. today to 5 p.m. the next day = 31 hours.
Choice (1)
24 hours 12 minutes of this clock = '24 hours of the correct clock.
24 = 24 = 121/5 hours of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock.
4. Number of days from 10th April, 1963 to 23rd August, 1963
31 hours of this clock = 31 x 5/121 x 24 = 30 hours 45 minutes approximately. Month: April + May + June + July + August
The correct time is 30 hours 45 minutes after 10 a.m. Days: 20+ 31 + 30 + 31 + 23 = 135
= 4 hours 45 minutes approximately. Choice (3) Number of odd days in135 days = 135/7 = 2 days
23rd August 1963 is 2 days to Wednesday i.e., Friday
23. Time from 4 a.m. on 6th of this month to 6 p.m. on 10th of this month = 110 hours. Number of odd days form 23rd August 1963 to 23rd August 1959 are five odd days.
The watch loses (12 + 20) = 32 minutes. The watch loses 32 minutes in 110 hours. Hence, 23rd August 1959 is five days back to Friday is Sunday. Choice (1)
The watch loses 12 minutes in 12/32 x 110 = 41 hours 15 minutes
Hence 41 hours 15 minutes from 4 a.m. on 6th is 9:15 p.m. on 7th. Choice (1) 5. Number of days from 4th August 1996 to 12th April 1992
Month: August + July + June + May + April
 Days: 4 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 19 = 135 days 135/7 = 2 odd days 12. Whether the given year is a leap year or a non-leap year, is not given, hence the answer
Hence, 12th April 1996 is two days before Sunday, i.e., Friday. cannot be determined. Choice (5)
Number of odd days from 12th April 1996 to 12th April 1992 is 5 odd days.
5 days before Friday is Sunday. So, 12th April 1992 was a Sunday. Choice (5) 13. Odd days from 2005-2008: 1 + 1 + 1 + 2
Hence, 1st January 2009 is 5 days after Saturday, i.e., Thursday. Choice (1)
6. Number of odd days from 1st January, 2012 to 1st January, 2016 is 5.
5th day after Sunday is Friday. Choice (1) 14. It is given that 1st January, 2012 is a Saturday.
Odd days from 2012 to 2018: 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1
7. Number of days from 31st January 1995 to 30th July, 1995. 8 days means 1 odd day. 1 day after Saturday is Sunday. Choice (3)
Month: Feb + Mar + Apr + May + Jun + July
Odd days: 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 2 = 12 days 15. The number of odd days from 23rd February 2011 to 25th March 2013 can be calculated as
Number of odd days in 12 days = 12/7 = 5 odd days follows:
5 odd days after Tuesday is Sunday. 24th Feb 2011 to 23rd Feb 2012 – 1
Number of odd days from. so" July, 1995 to so" July, 1993 are 2. 24th Feb 2012 to 23rd Feb 2013 – 2
2nd day before Sunday is Friday. Choice (3) 24th Feb 2013 to 25th March 2013 - 5 + 25 = 30 = 2
The day on 25th March 2013 is Tuesday + (1 + 2 + 2) days = Sunday. Choice (4)
8. 20th January, 2000 is a Thursday.
20th January, 1997 is 3 days before Thursday, i.e., Monday. 16. The person met the boss 15 days ago and he said that he would give the salary after 36 days
Number of days from 20th January, 1997 to 26th February, 1997 is i.e. after 36 - 15 = 21 days from the day referred as today.
Month: January + February The required day is = Wednesday + 0(21 days) = Wednesday. Choice (4)
Days: 11 + 26 = 37 = 2 odd days
2nd day after Monday is Wednesday. Choice (3) 17. Number of odd days in 382 days
=> 382/7 = 54 complete weeks + 4 odd days Choice (4)
9. 2008 is a leap year.
The number of odd day from 10th January to 1st December of 2008. 18. Number of days from 3rd April, 1995 to 1st October, 1995
Jan + Feb ..: Mar + Apr + May + Jun + Jul + Aug + Sep + Oct + Nov + Dec (1st) Month: April + May + June + July + August + September + October
21 (0) + 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 4 Odd days = 6 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 20 days = 6 odd days
the week on first December is = Monday + 4 days = Friday. 6th day after Monday is a Sunday.
Hence, 3rd December is on Sunday. Hence, 1st October, 1995 is a Sunday.
3, 10, 1'7, 24, 31 are Sundays in the December. Choice (5) I can meet my friend on the 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th of October. Choice (2)

10. It is given that 19th March in a particular year is a Sunday. 19. A century year is a leap year only if it is divisible by 400. In the given years, only 2800 is
Number of days from 19th March to 23rd September in a particular year are: divisible by 400. Hence, 2800 is a leap year. Choice (3)
Month: March + April + May + June + July + August + September.
Odd days: 5 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 20 odd days 20. As the year starts and ends with Sunday means the given year is a non leap year. As the one
Number of odd days in 20 days = 20 7 = 6·odd days odd day is a Sunday, there will be 53 Sundays in the year. Choice (3)
Hence, 23rd September of that year is not a Sunday; hence it is not a holiday. Choice (2)
21. I met my friend (26 + 10) = 36 days before a Wednesday.
11. Number of odd days in 426 days = 426/7 = 60 complete weeks + 6 odd days. The number odd days = 1
6th day after Sunday is a Saturday. Choice (5) One day before Wednesday = Tuesday. Choice (3)
22. The required day is (26 - 15) = 11 days before a Sunday. = 11 x 5 - 30 = 25 Choice (4)
The number of odd days = 4
4 days before a Sunday is Wednesday. Choice (1) 4. 13 + 3 - 5 - 20 + 25
becomes 13 - 3 x 5 x 20 – 25
23. Number of days in that calendar year = 436 =13 – 300 – 25 = -312 Choice (3)
Number of days in a week = 9
Hence, the number of odd days = 436/9 5. 196 x 14 25 x 5 + 225 x 15
= 48 complete weeks + 4 odd days. Choice (4) becomes 196 14 x 25 5 - 225 15
= 14 x 5 – 15 = 70 – 15 = 55 Choice (5)
24. The required day is (55 - 23) = 32 days after Monday.
Number of odd days = 4. 6. The given expression is on conversion this expression as per the directions we get the
4 days after Monday is = Friday. Choice (5) 10 2 x 5 + 3 x 4 2 + 1
According to BODMAS rule 10 2 x 5 + 3 x 4 2 + 1
25. Republic day i.e. 26th January is on Thursday. =5x5+3x2+1
It is not known that whether the year is a leap year or not. = 25 + 6 + 1 = 32 Choice (1)
The number of odd days from 26th January to 15th August
= 5 + 0/1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 5/6 7. The given expression is on conversion as per the directions we get the expression
If it is a non leap year day of the week on 15th August 11 x 6 3 - 4 + 10 2
= Thursday + 5 days = Tuesday = 11 x 2 - 4 + 5 = 22 - 4 + 5 = 23 Choice (4)
If it is a leap year day of the week on 15th August
= Thursday + 6 days = Wednesday. Choice (5) 8. The given expression is on conversion this expression as per the directions we get
= 34 17 x 6 + 11 x 21 7 – 4

SYMBOLS AND NOTATIONS = 2 x 6 + 11 x 3 4 = 41 Choice (2)

9. The given expression as per directions we get 18 x 3 + 4 2x5–4

1. Given that, in a certain code language, = 54 + 2 x 54 = 54 + 10 - 4 = 60 Choice (3)
‗+‘ means ‗-‗
‗-‘ means ‗x‘ 10. The given expression is on conversion this expression according to directions we get
‗x‘ means ‗ ‘ 16 + 5 - 3 + 8 2 x 3
‗ ‘ means ‗x‘ = 16 + 5 - 3 + 4 x 3 = 16 + 5 - 3 + 12 = 30 Choice (5)
Based on this, let us convert the given expressions.
14 x 2 – 6 + 10 + 4 x 2 Given that
becomes 14 2 x 6 - 10 - 4 2 -
= 7 x 6 - 10 - 2 = 30 Choice (1) +

2. 15 5 + 15 10 x 2 $ x
becomes 15 x 5 - 15 x 1 0 2 =
=15 x 15 – 15 x 15 = 0 Choice (3) A <
>
3. 11 15 x 3 + 6 – 5 Let us convert the symbols as per the given directions.
becomes 11 x 15 3 - 6 x 5
11. (1) 8 2 4 6 36 Given that the symbol
becomes 8 + 2 – 4 – 6 = 36 ‗=‘ means
0 = 36 (false) ‗-‘ means <
‗+‘ means
(2) 8 2 4 6 36 ‗ ‘ means >
becomes 8 – 2 > 4 – 6 + 36 ‗x‘ means =
6 > 34 (false)
16. Statement
(3) 8 $ 2 4 6 A 36 P + Q means P Q
becomes 8 x 2 - 4 = 6 < 36 Q R means Q > R
12 = 6 = 36 (false) R – S means R < S
P Q > R and S > R
(4) 8 2 $ 4 6 A 36 Conclusion I:
becomes 8 + 2 x 4 + 6 < 36 R x S means R = S is definitely false.
22 < 36 (true) Choice (4) Conclusion II:
P R means P > R is true from both the given statements. Choice (2)
12. (1 ) 4 A1 8 9
becomes 4 – 6 < 1 + 8 + 9 17. Statement:
- 2 < 18 (true) Choice (1) L x M means L = M
L + N means L N
13. (1 ) 5 10 $ 2 8 5 N - T means N < T
becomes 5 + 10 x 2 = 8 – 5 implies
25 = 3 (false) L = M N and T > N
Conclusion I:
(2) 5 10 2 A 8 $ 5 M - T means M < T is not definite from both the given statements.
becomes 5 10 - 2 < 8 x 5 Conclusion II:
-1.5 < 40 (true) Choice (2) L x M means L = N is also not definitely true from the given statements. Choice (4)

14. (1) 7 A 3 5 6 $ 1 18. Statements:

becomes 7 < 3 + 5 > 6 x 1 A + B means A B
7 < 8 > 6 (true) Choice (1) A x C means A = C
A = D means A D implies A < D or A > D.
15. (1) 3 5 10 7 5 Implies C = A B and A < D or A > D
becomes 3> 5 > 10 7–5 Conclusion I:
3> 5> 12 (false) B - C => B < C may be true C > B is not definitely true and hence it does not follow.
Conclusion II:
(2) 3 5 A 10 7 5 B x C means B = C may be true D < C.
becomes 3 - 5 < 10 7+5 Hence, either B C is definitely true. Choice (5)
-2< + 5(True) Choice (2)
19. Statements:
K + R means K R
R P means R > P
 P x Q means P = Q 0 10 => NM
Implies K R > P = Q similarly, 3 is written as NN
Conclusion I: Because
Q - K means Q < K is true. 2 | 3
Conclusion II: 1-1 11 NM
P - K means P < K is also true. Choice (3) Based on this system, we can answer the given questions.

20. Statements: 26. 2 | 8

G x H means G = H 2 | 4-0 8 => 1000
G - J means G < J 2 | 4-0 i.e. N M M M
H + K means H > K 1-0 Choice (2)
Implies that
J>G=H>K 27. M M N M represents
Conclusion I: 0 0 1 0 in binary system
K - J means K < J is true. 1 0 = 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 2 in decimal system.
Conclusion II: So, M M N M represents the number 2. Choice (1)
G - K means G < K is not true. Choice (1)

21. The given sequence is as follows. 28. 2 | 30

STU ?J PQ8L1@C3S A$62BR£79 2 | 15 - 0 => 11110 = N N N N M
(1) the series is -2, 7-4, 2-6, 3-8, -10, £-12 1 Choice (1) 2 | 7-1
2 | 3-1
22. T+2, +2 , J+1, , Q+2, L+1, 1+2, C+2, 5+1,
+2 +2 , $+2, 2+1, B+2, B+2, £+2, 9 Choice (3) 1-1 Choice (4)

23. There are two such symbols which are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately 29. The given equation is M N M + N N N i.e. (0 1 0 + 1 1 1) which implies
followed by a digit. They are A $ 6 and R £ 7. Choice (3) 10 = 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 2
111 = 1 x 22 +1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 7.
24. Eleventh element from the right is . The seventh letter to the right of is £. Choice (3) Hence 2 + 7 = 9 in binary system is
2 | 9
25. If the first ten elements from left are reversed then the given series transforms as follows. 2 | 4-1 => 1001 = N M M N
8QP J? UTSL1@C3S A#62BR£79 2 | 2-0
Fifteenth letter from the right is @ and the tenth letter/element to the left of@ is P. 1-0 Choice (1)
Choice (4)
30. The given equation is
The coding pattern is based on the binary system in which only two digits 1 and 0 are used. (M N M N M - N N M N N) i.e. (1 1 01 0 - 1 1 01 1) which implies
Given that 11010 = 1 x 24 + 1 x 23 + 0 x 22 + 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 30
0 is written as M 11011 = 1 x 24 + 1 x 23 + 0 x 22 + 1 x 21 + 1 x 20 = 27
1 is written as N => (30 -27) = 3
2 is written as NM 2 | 3
because 1–1 => 11 = NM Choice (5)
2 | 2
31. A B = A + AB + B - 6 44. 2 ? 3 = 23 + 32 = 17
So. 7 8 = 7 + 7 x 8 + 8 - 6 = 65 Choice (3) 5 ? 2 = 52 + 25 = 57
Hence, 5 ? 3 = 53 + 35 = 368 Choice (4)
32. P q = p2 + q2 + pq + q
1 0 5 = 102 + 52 + 1 0 x 5 + 5 = 180 Choice (1) 45. 9 £ 3 = 93 = 729
5 £ 4 = 54 = 625
33. C ∆ D = C2 +CD + D2 - (C + D) 8 £ 2= 82 = 64 Choice (2)
7 ∆ 8 = 72 +7 x 8 + 82 - (7 + 8) = 154 Choice (2)
46. R 1 N T S 7 $ J 3 8 A # 2 L M 9 * C 0 8 4 P Y %
34. x $ y= + + NO letter is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a digit.
49 $ 16 = + + x 16 = 39 Choice (4) Choice (1)

35. a 0 b = 2ab 47. The pattern of the given series is as follows.

5 0 2 = 2 x 52 = 50 Choice (5) 7+2, J+2, B+2, #x2, L
+2, M-2, 2-2, A-2, 3

36. 5 @ 6 = 52 + 62 = 61 and 8 @ 10 = 82 + 102 = 164 T , $+3, B+3, 2+3, 9

+3

Hence 7 @ 9 = 72 + 92 = 130 Choice (3) The series is

7 * T, J M $, B 2 B, #A2, L 3 9 Choice (1)
37. 3 5 = 52 - 32 = 16 and 7 5 = 52 - 72 = -24
Hence,10 11 =112 - 102 = 21 Choice (1) 48. 3 J 8 3-1 J+2 B
9 L M 9-2 L-1 2
38. 12 $ 13 = (12+1) (13+1) = 182 P 4 Y P-1 4+2 Y
17 $ 8 = 162 N 1 T N-1 1+2 T
So, 15 $ 16 = (15 + 1) (16 + 1) = 272 Choice (5) % -1 %+2

except 9LM, all the others are following the same pattern. Choice (2)
39. 3 > 2 = 3 + 2 = 31 and 4 > 3 = 4 + 3 = 283
3 2 4 3

Similarly, 1 > 2 = 11 + 22 = 5 Choice (4) 49. The digits which are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a
letter are 7 and 9 i.e., only two. Choice (2)
40. 17 * 18 = (17 + 1) (18 -1) = 306 and 14 * 23 = (14+ 1) (23 -1) = 330
Hence, 10 * 12 = (10 + 1) (12 - 1) = 121 Choice (1) 50. 7th element from left end $
4th element to the left of $ N
41. 11 + 15 = (11 + 15)2 - 11 x 15= 511 and 7 + 13 = (7 + 13)2 - 7 x 13 = 309 8th element to the right of N A
Hence, 15 + 19 = (15 + 19)2 -15 x 19 = 871 Choice (1) A is the 8th element to the right of the element to left of the 7 th element from the left end.
Choice (3)
42. 32 ÷ 47 = (3 x 2) + (4 x 7) = 34
48 ÷ 22 = (4 x 8) + (2 x 2) = 36 51. After reversing the first half sequence, the news sequence is as following
Hence, 78 ÷ 13 = (7 x 8) + (1 x 3) = 59 Choice (2) NML R P 7 B # A 3 S 8 % $ 2 1□ C 5 T W
Fifth element from the right end Q
43. 15 + 32 = 47 which when reversed becomes 74, Fourth element to the left of Q $
So, 15 32 = 74 Seventh element to the right of $ T
So, 13 92=501 and 62 53 = 511 Choice (1) T is the seventh element to the right of the fourth element to the left of the fifth element
 from the right end. Choice (3) 58. 7 2 3 = =3
a=3
52. The given number is 59361247. Now 3 3 5 = 5 x 3 + 3 = 18 Choice (3)
After arranging the digits in ascending order, we get 12345679.
Now the digit remaining in the same position is only 3. 59. 4 4 9 = 9 x 4 + 4 = 36 + 4
Hence, only one digit remains in the same position. Choice (3) b = 40
Now. 40 & 5 2 8 = 40 - (5 x 8) = 40 - 40 = 0 Choice (1)
53. The given word is,
| | 60. 12 24 6 = 12 + 24 ÷ 6 = 36 ÷ 6
M A N A G E M E N T y=6
| | Now, 7 # 6 $ 3 = 7 x 3 – 3 = 42 - 3 = 39 Choice (4)

A - E and A - E are the only two pair of letters which have as many letters between them as 61. 8 ∆ 10 ≠ 22 = (10 + 22) – 8 = 32 – 8
in the English alphabet. Choice (2) x = 24
Now, 60 @ 24 % 24 = 60 x 2 + 24 = 120 + 24 = 5. Choice (3)
54. The given word is C E R E M O N Y
After arranging the letters in alphabetical order, C E E M N O R Y 62. 8 @ 4 % 16 = 8 x 4 + 16 = 32 + 16
C, E, O and Y i.e., four letters remain in the same position. Choice (2) a=2
Now, 76 # 19 $ 2 = (76 + 19) x 2 = 95 x 2 = 190. Choice (3)
55. According to the given condition i.e., after reversing first ten elements of the sequence, the
new sequence is as follow: 63. 12 4 π 5 = 12 x 5 + 4 = 60 + 4
$ # 2 * 6 P K S R 3 A E J % 9 D F ∆ I 4. P = 64
The sixth element from the left end P Now, 64 ∆ 40 ≠ 30 = 40 + 30 – 64 = 70 - 64 = 6. Choice (2)
Seventh element to the right of P J.
Fifth element to the left of J S. 64. 11 # 5 $ 8 = (11 + 5) x 8 = 16 x 8
Hence, S is the fifth element to the left of the seventh element to the right of the sixth x = 128
element from the left end. Choice (4) Now, 128 ∆ 50 ≠ 90 = (50 + 90) – 128 = 140 – 128 = 12. Choice (5)

56. 5 # 7 $ 4 = ( 5 x 7) - 4 = 35 – 4 65. 9 2 π 7 = (9 x 7) + 2 = 63 + 2
x = 31 Z = 65
31 5 3 = 31 x 3 + 5 Now, 13 @ 10 % 65 = (13 x 10) ÷ 65 = 130 ÷ 65 = 2. Choice (2)
= 93 + 5 = 98. Choice (1)
66. P ≠ Q P > Q
57. 40 * 3 @ 3 = 40 QπR Q=R
= 40 - 9 = 31 R S R≥S
P = 31 P>Q=R≥S
Now, Conclusion I: Q π S Q = S
6 # 6 $ 31 = 6 x 6 – 31 Conclusion II: S $ Q S < Q
= 36 - 31 = 5. Choice (2) Either conclusion I or II follows. Choice (3)
67. S T S ≥ +
U≠V U>V
T$V T<V
U > v> T ≤ S
Conclusion I: V $ S V < S does not follow.
Conclusion II: T $ U T < U follows.
Hence only II follows. Choice (2)

68. A B A ≥ B
CπD C=D
B$D B<D
A$E A<E
E<A≥B<D=C Let 'A' and 'B' be the initial and the final points in the journey.
Conclusion I: C ≠ B C > B follows. Hence, AB = = = 10 km. Choice (3)
Conclusion II: A ≠ D A > D does not follow.
Hence only 1 follows. Choice (1) 2. Let A be the starting point and B be the final point of Shahana's journey,

69. M ≠ N M > N
O P O≤P
NπP N=P
M<N=P≥O
Conclusion I: M ≠ O M > O follows.
Conclusion II: P $ M P < M follows.
Hence, both I and II follows. Choice (5) Hence, Shahana walks 2 km horizontally. She is facing North at the end of the journey.
Choice (2)
70. I J I ≤ J
K L K≥L 3.
L M L≥M
M$I M<I
J≥I>M≤L≤K
Conclusion I: I ≠ L I > L follows.
Conclusion II: K M K ≥ M follows.
Hence, only conclusion II follows. Choice (2)

DIRECTION SENSE Let A be the office and B be the house.

So, AB = =. = 17 km. Choice (4)
1. For these questions, we should draw figures based on the given data:
4.
 8.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey. The vertical distance between A
and B is (15 - 13) = 2 m Choice (5)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey. The vertical
distance travelled is equal to 25 + 6 = 31 km. Choice (5)
5.
9.

From the given description it is clear that the person starts from the same place and reaches
the starting -point. Hence, the distance between the Railway Station and his house is 0 km. Let A and B be the initial and the final point respectively in the journey.
Choice (2) AB = = 12 km (approx)
6. He is towards the South-West Choice (2)

10.

Let A be the house and B be the park.

Hence, AB = = = 20 m Choice (1) Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Distance he is away from the original place:
7. Vertically → 10 km
Horizontally → 5 + 3 = 8 km Choice (1)

11.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey.
B is to the North-East of A.
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AB = = 11 km (approx). Choice (2)
He is 20 - (8 + 10) = 2 km away from the starting point. • Choice (4)
 12.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AB = = 10 km (approx) Choice (5)
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
B is 5 km away from A. Choice (5)
17.
13.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Salil is towards the North-East with respect to the original place.
AB = = 18 km (approx) Choice (4) Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AB = = 11 km (approx)
14. He is 11 km away from his house towards the North-West. Choice (3)

18.

Let A and B. be the initial and the final point respectively in the journey.
AB = = =5km approx. in South-East direction. Choice (3)

15. Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AD = 15 + 6 = 21, DB= 6 + 4 = 10
AB = = 23 km (approx) Choice (1)

19.

The person is 2 km away from the starting point. Choice (1)

16. Let A and B be the' initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Horizontal distance travelled => 6 + 10 + 8 = 24 km Choice (3)

20.
 West. Choice (2)

25.

Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
Tanya is now in the North-East direction with respect to the starting point. Choice (5)
The shortest route is through the hypotenuse.
21.
AB = = 17 km
They meet at a point 8.5 km midway between A and B. Choice (1)

26.
Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
B is to the North-West with respect to A. Choice (3)

22.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey. Mayank is travelling
towards the North-East. Choice (3)

Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey. 27.
G is the Grocery shop. AB = 200 - 150 = 50 m Choice (2)

23.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey. The cat
is now running towards the North. Choice (2)
Let the two motorists started from points A and B. The first one started from A and stopped at 28.
Sl. The second one started from B and stopped at S2. First, one travelled 50 km and the second
one travelled 65 + 45 = 110 km. So, distance between S1 and S2 is 250 - (50 + 110) = 90 km
Choice (5)

24.

Total distance between the officers of Rohit and Kunal is 10 + 7 + 2 = 19 m, and

Since, I am now moving towards East, I must have started my journey from the
 Kunal was travelling towards the South at the end. Choice (4)

29. Vinay is walking towards the South. Now, if he turns 180 (in any direction),
then he will be facing North. Then, turning 45 in anti-clockwise direction, he
will be facing North-West direction.
= Turns 180 clockwise
= Turns 90 anti-clockwise
At this point he is facing the North-West. Choice (5)
I and F represent the initial and final positions of Ganga.
30. The pater has been travelled by Raju is as follows Ganga is in South-east direction from her initial position. Choice (4)

33. The path travelled by the van is shown below.

From pythogorous theorem 1 + 0 =

= = 15 km. Choice (1)

31. The actual direction and the directions shown by the compass are as follow. The house is towards North-east from police station.
Distance between house and station is
= = = 2.2 km.
Hence the house is at 2.2 km distance and North-East with respect police station
towards. Choice (2)

34. In evening the sun is in west hence shadow anything falls towards east. Sum as
Sudha started to travel towards west shown by compass which is nothing but north right is towards east, i.e. she is facing north.
path travelled by Sudha is as follows. Rama is facing South. Choice (1)

35. It was evening and the shadow of the pole fell to Shyam's right. This means Sun
was towards his left (West). So, Shyam was facing North. Choice (1)

36. Given, the clock is so placed that the minute hand points towards North-West
Now Sudha is facing North. Choice (2) when it is 3p.m.

32. The path travelled by Ganga is as follows.

Similarly, at 9 a.m., the hour hand points toward

South-West, as shown below.
 My house is towards the North-West of the park. Choice (2)
37. When a watch shows 3:45, the minute hand points towards East, as shown below:
(when the minute hand points towards 9, and hour hand points between 3 and
41.
4, the time is 3:45.)

Now, when the watch shows 6 0' clock, then the minute hand points towards 12
Hence, at 6 p.m., the hour hand points toward the North-East. Choice (3)
and hour hand points towards 6, as shown below:

42.

Hence, the hour hand will point towards North. Choice (4) Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively In the journey. B is to
the North-West with respect to the point A. Choice (1)
38. Riya's shadow fell to her left i.e. towards East (as it was evening).•So, Riya was
facing South As Priya had her back towards Riya, hence, Priya was facing North. 43.
Choice (5)

39. Given that a compass was damaged and its needle turned in such a way that it
showed North for East and so on.
So, the original directions
Jatin is walking towards the East. Choice (4)

44.

A person walked towards West, which is actually North. Choice (4)

40. As per the given data, we get

Point Q is towards North-East from P.

 PQ = = =
= 36 (approx) Choice (4)

45.
So, finally he is facing the South-West. Choice (5)

50. As per the data, we get,

Let Hand C be the points representing House and Cinema theatre respectively.,
Cinema Theatre is towards the North of the House. Choice (3)
So, I started the journey from East. Choice (3)

46. A watch shows 5: 15, with the minute hand pointing towards West, as shown
below: BLOOD RELATIONS
1. Anil's mother's husband is Anil's father. His father's mother is his grandmother.
Anil's grandmother's granddaughter can be Anil's sister or his cousin. Choice (5)

2. My mother's mother-in-law is my paternal grandmother.

My paternal grandmother's only son is my father. Choice (1)
At 5:15 the minute hand points towards 3, and the hour hand just beyond 5
Hence, the hour hand points towards North-West. Choice (1)
3. My father's brother's only sibling is none other than my father. Choice (3)

47. Given that - Piyush and Ravi were facing each other. Piyush's shadow fell to his
4. My brother's grandfather is my grandfather either paternal or maternal. My grandfather's
left (i.e, towards West as it was morning). So. Piyush was facing North. and Ravi
only son has one child only. Therefore he has to be my maternal uncle only. My uncle's son
was facing South. Choice (2)
is my cousin. Choice (5)

48.
5. My mother's mother is my maternai grandmother. My maternal grandmother's
daughter-in-law is my aunt. My aunt's daughter is my cousin. Choice (3)

6. Sheela is Rohit's sister's daughter. So Rohit is the maternal uncle of Sheela. Sheela was
playing with Namit But how Rohit is related to Namit IS not given. Choice (5)

7. The man whom X met is the brother of X's husband. Hence the man is the brother-in-law of
X. Choice (1)

Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey. 8. The man's sister's husband is the man's brother-in-law.Brother-in-Iaw's wife is his sister.
Daughter of his sister is his niece. Choice (2)
AB = = 36 m (approx). Choice (4)

9. From the given data, we get the following tree diagram.

49. Given that Rahim, who was facing West, turns 120 clockwise and then 155 anti-
clockwise.
 S - T means S is the son of T.
S ÷ T means S is the daughter of T,
S = T means S is the father of T.
S × T means S is the mother of T.
16. A + C = B

A is the grandmother of F but F can be either the grandson or the grand-daughter of A. A brother of C father of B
Choice (5)
i.e. A is the uncle of B. Choice (2)
10. My father's sister is 'my aunt My aunt's daughter is my cousin. Choice (1)
17. X = Z = Y means
11. From the given data, we get the following diagrams.
X father of Z father of Y

So , X is the grandfather of Y and X = Z × Y means

X father of Z mother of Y
Clearly, B is the grandmother of E. Choice (2)

X is the grandfather of Y. Choice (3)

From the given data, we get the following tree diagram.

18. Q ÷ P × R means

Q daughter of P mother of R

Implies P is the mother of Q and R. Choice (2)

19. E × D – A means

E mother of D son of A
12. Freda is the mother of Brian. Choice (2)
D is the son of A Choice (3)
13. Gerhard is the friend of Celina and there is no relationship between Gerhard and
Dimitri. Choice (5 20. P * R + Q means

14. Emanuel is the grandfather of Celina. Choice (5) P R Q

sister of brother of
15. Anna is the daughter-in-law of Emanuel. Choice (1) P is the sister of Q . Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 16 to 20: Solutions for questions 21 to 25:

Given, Given that
S * T means S is sister of T. L M means L is the father of M.
S + T means S is the brother of T. L ∆ M means L is the mother of M.
L M means L is the uncle of M. A + B means B is the daughter of A.
L $ M means L is the aunt of M, A - B means B is the son of A.
L M means L is the brother of M. 26. T – P ÷ Q
L M means L is the sister of M.
21. Y $ X O Z Q sister of P son of T

Y aunt of X father of Z So, Q is the daughter of T. Choice (5)

So, Y is the grandaunt of Z. Choice (1) 27. L()M÷N

22. S T U means N M mother of L

sister of
S brother of T uncle of U M is the sister of N.
N is the sister of M. Choice (5)
S is the uncle of U but we cannot determine as to how U is related to S
because U‘s gender is not mentioned. Choice (5) 28. P of Q + R

23. A∆B C means R daughter of Q P

A B brother of C R is the sister of P. father of Choice (3)

mother of
None of the given statements are true. Choice (5) 29. Y × Z ( ) K means

24. P $ Q M means K mother of Z Y

P Q sister of M Z is the son of K.

30. S × J + T means brother of
Since Paunt
is the
of aunt of Q. P is also the aunt of M because Q is the sister of M.
Choice (1) T daughter of J brother of S

25. L O J means T is the niece of S. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 31 to 35:
L father of J Uncle of M. 31. My father's sister is my aunt. My aunt's son's mother is my aunt. Choice (3)

L is the father of J and J is the uncle of M .Hence J is the son of L. Choice (3) 32. Anil's sibling's grandfather is Anil's grandfather too Grandfather can be either
paternal or maternal. In this case it cannot be maternal as it says 'only daughter's
Solutions for questions 26 to 30: only child' which is not possible as Anil has a sibling. Paternal grandfather's
Given that only daughter is Anil's aunt and only child of Aunt is Anil's cousin. Choice (2)
A ( ) B means B is the mother of A.
A of B means B is the father of A. 33. My mother's sister's husband's only son is my aunt's son i.e. cousin. My cousin's
A ÷ B means B is the sister of A. sister is also my cousin. Choice (2)
A × B means B is the brother of A.
34. My mother's father's only daughter is my mother. My mother's only son can be the son of Rahul. Choice (1)
either my brother or myself Choice (4)
44. My father's father-in-law is my maternal grandfather, my maternal grandfather's
35. Pratima's daughter-in-Iaw's son is her grandson. Her grandson's son is the great son is my maternal uncle, my maternal uncle's only sister is my mother. Choice (2)
grandson for both Pratima and her husband. Choice (3)
45. P's father's mother is P's grandmother. P's grandmother's son is P's father or uncle.
Solutions for questions 36 to 40: So, wife of P‘s. Otherwise wife of P's uncle is P's aunt. Choice (5)
As per the given data, we grt the following tree diagram
Solutions for questions 46 to 50:
As per the given data we get the following tree diagram

The three married couples are L - A, M-B, and C-X. L and A have two
grandchildren, Y and D. Either M or B is the
mother of Y. C is the mother of D. Gender of D is not known. G(Salesman) is the husband of H(Teacher). Their daughters are C(Writer) and F(Lecturer) C's
36. Either M or B is the mother of Y. Choice (5) husband is B(Doctor). B and C have a son A. F and E are the parents of D(Gender not
mentioned)
37. Since, the gender of D is not mentioned we can only say that D is the grandchild
of A. Choice (5) 46. G is the salesman. Choice (2)

38. A is the wife of L. Choice (3) 47. F is the wife of E. Choice (1)

39. Y is the grand-daughter of L. Choice (4) 48. H is the teacher. Choice (4)

40. M is the spouse of B. Choice (1) 49. D's gender is not mentioned. Hence the relationship cannot be determined. Choice (5)

Solutions for questions 41 to 45: 50. The engineer is E, who is the uncle of A. Choice (1)
41. My sister's husband's father is my sister's father-in-law, whose wife is my sister's
mother-in-law. Her only daughter-in-law is my sister herself. My sister's father is
my father. Choice (3) ANALYTICAL PUZZLES
42. Rina's father's mother is Rina's paternal grandmother. Paternal grandmother's Solutions for questions 1 to 5 :
daughter is Rina's aunt, who is Samuel's sister. Therefore Samuel is Rina's uncle After reading this set we know that A and B are opposite and
and the person in the photograph is Rina's aunt. Choice (2) that Hand D are to the left and right of B.

43. Given Shilpa is the only child of her parents. Her sister-in-law is the sister of her
husband. Hence if her sister- in-law is the daughter of Rahul then her husband is
We also know G is opposite H and that F does not sit at 7 or Hence, only the statement "F" is sitting between B .and C, must be true. Choice (3)
3, hence he is at 8.
8. As per the given instruction, we get the following seating arrangement:

Places 7 and 3 can be filled by either C or E.

1. Right of A is F. Choice (2) Hence, E is sitting to the right of B. Choice (5)

2. Two places to the right of B is 3 and either C or E can be at 3. Choice (5) Solutions for questions 9 to 13 :
For circular seating arrangement, the data is as given below
3. F would be opposite to H after the interchange. Choice (4) (i) Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F.
(ii) F is to the left of A
4. Immediate left of G would be E. Choice (3) (iii) B is sitting between C and E and is opposite to A.
(iv) E is sitting to the right of D.
5. F is opposite to D. Choice (4) Using statements (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get

Solutions for questions 6 to 8 :

6. As per the given data. we get the following diagram which satisfies all the conditions.

Here, B is between C and E and E is to the right of D, this

statement means that E is at seat 2 and D Is sitting at seat 3.
Hence, T is sitting to the immediate left of P. Choice (3) 9. C is sitting opposite to D. Choice (3)

7. As per the given conditions. if H is sitting between B and D, then H must be sitting to the 10. E is sitting to the left of B. Choice (2)
left
of D, as already E is sitting to the right of D. hence, we get the-following seating 11. A IS sitting opposite to B. E interchanges places with A, then E sits to the right of F.
arrangement. Choice (5)

12. If every person interchanges seat with the person sitting opposite to him, then also the
arrangement remains the same, but rotates by 180°. Hence. F is sitting to the right of C.
Choice (4)
13. It is given that the following persons interchange places: 19. 10 students enter Jpto the class after A and 15 students enter into the class before Band 5
A and D, F and E , B and C. students enter into the class between A and B.
Now we get the following arrangement. Case –I :- 15 B A 10
The total number of students in the class are
15 + B + 5 + A + 10 = 32
Case-II :-9A B 4
The total number of students in the class are
9+A+5+B+4
In this the total number of students are = 20
(1) is false, as A is to the left of A.
Hence, we cannot determine the number of students in the class. Choice (5)
(2) Only E is sitting between Band D, hence false.
(3) As C and D sit opposite to each other hence this statement is true.
20. If A enters into the class before B. then the total number of students in the class are
(4) E and F sit opposite to each other, hence this is false. Choice (3)
9 + A + 5 + B + 4 = 20 Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 14 to 18:
Solutions for questions 21 and 22:
It is given that
(i) 4 girls - A, B, C, D - and 4 boys. E, F, G, H - sit around an Octagonal table.
S.No Stations
(ii)No two boys sit adjacent to each other. This means that the boys sit on alternate seats, hence
girls also sit in alternate seats. Leaving Reaching
(iii) A sits to the right of E and opposite to D. S1 S2
(iv) G sits to the left of C, but not next to D. 1 B3 B5
Now, we get the following arrangement: 2 B4 B1
3 B5 B3
4 B1 B2
5 B2 B4

21. B3 is the first bus to leave from S. Choice (5)

22. B, Leaves S, at 4th position and reaches S2 in 2nd position. Choice (4)
Based on the above arrangement, the questions are answered as below:
14. B is sitting between E and F. Choice (2) Solutions for questions 23 to 25:
23.
15. D sits to the right of H. Choice (1) Stations Time
Arrival Departure
16. A sits to the right of F. Choice (3) S1 6.00
S2 6.30 6.40
17. The person sitting between C and D is E (after' exchanging seat with H). Choice (1) S3 7.10 7.20
S4 7.50 8.00
18. The person sitting between A and B is E. Choice (1) S5 8.30 8.40
S6 9.10
Solutions for questions 19 and 20: Hence the train started, S1 at 6:00 a.m. Choice (2)
24. 1 B6 B6
Stations S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 S6 2 B2 B4
Train t1 6.30 7.00, 7.40, 8.20, 9.00, 9.40 3 B3 B2
7.10 7.50 8.30 9.10 4 B5 B3
10.20 9.50, 9.10, 8.30, 7.50, 7.10 Train t2 5 B4 B5
9.40 9.00 8.20 7.40 6 B1 B1
Hence, t1 and t2 start at 6:30 a.m. and 7:10 a.m. respectively. Choice (3) B4 leaves the station either at 5th position or at 2nd position. Choice (5)

25. The two trains meet each other at S4 Choice (1) 30. If B1 leaves immediately after B5 then the order is
1 2 3 4 5 6
Solutions for questions 26 and 27 : B6 B4 B2 B3 B5 B1
It is given that three trains numbered t1, t2 t3 leave station S1 and reach station 52 The train B3 leaves the station at 4th position. Choice (2)
number and the order in which they depart or arrive is not the same, i.e., T, is neither the
first to leave S1, nor the first to reach S2. The same is the case ofT2 and T3. 31. From the given information
P is taller than T P > T
S1 S2 U is shorter than Q who is taller than S
1 T2T3 T2T3 Q>U,S
2 T1T3 T1T3 S is taller than P but shorter than R
3 T1T2 T1T2 R>S>P
It is given that the train that starts first at S1, reaches last at S2. This is only possible for T2. Neither of P, Q, Rand S can be shortest.
A S1 S2 Either U or T is shortest. Choice (5)
1 T2 T3
2 T3 T1 32. D wear Green shirt.
3 T1 T2 C wears neither Red nor White. Hence, C wears Yellow shirt. As B wears either Yellow or
26. T2 is the first train to leave from S1. Choice (2) Red
shirt. As C wears Yellow shirt, B wears Red and A wears White shirt. Choice (1)
27. T1 is the second train to reach S2. Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 33 to 35 :
Solutions For Questions 28 To 32: From (6) L and Q like Pink and Blue in any order.
28. From (3) E likes either Pink or Indigo. Hence, E likes Indigo.
From (5) B likes Black. but from (2) Either B or C likes Yellow, Hence . Q likes Yellow.
Position Student From (4) 'either G or H likes White, hence H likes White. The remaining friends are A and D.
1 B colours are Red and Orange.
2 D From (1) A does not like Red, hence A likes Orange and D likes Red.
3 C The distribution is as follow.
Person Colour
4 E
A Orange
5 A
B Black
A is the last to finish the race. Choice (5)
C Yellow
D Red
29.
E Indigo
Case –I Case –II
 F Blue / Pink 36. There are two persons ahead of the 5th tallest person. Choice (2)
G Pink / Blue
H White 37. The fourth tallest person could be either in the sixth or eighth positions. Choice (5)
33. D likes Red. Choice (5)
38. Either the seventh tallest person or the third tallest person is immediately ahead of the third
34. A likes orange is the true statement Choice (3) tallest. Choice (5)

35. A likes orange and E likes Indigo. Choice (4) 39. Four persons stood behind the second tallest. Choice (5)

Solutions for questions 33 to 35 : 40. Only one stood between the third tallest and the second shortest. Choice (1)
From the given information the eighth tallest person occupies second position in the queue
and Solutions for questions 41 to 45 :
is behind tallest person hence the tallest person is in the 1st position. The number of persons Let each of five persons is denoted by the first letter of their name.
ahead of the second tallest and the number of persons behind the second shortest i.e. From (2) Neither D nor E is on extreme end
seventh From (3), C is to living in the house which is to the immediate left of the house in which E is
tallest are equal hence the following two arrangements are possible. living, hence the following cases are possible.
(1) 1 (1) 1 C E __ __ __
(2) 8 (2) 8 Case (1)
(3) 2/7 (3) __ C E D __
(4) (4) 2/7 Case (2)
(5) (5) 7/2 __ D C E __
(6) 7/2 (6) Case (3)
(7) (7) From (4) Neither B nor D is painted with Red.
(8) (8) From (1) House of A is to the left of the house which is painted with Red.
Case (i) Case (ii) In case (2) and (3) A occupies left most house.
It is given that the third tallest person is exactly in between the 4 th and 6th tallest persons But in case (i) A is left to either B or D but which are not painted in Red (from 4). (1) is not
hence possible.
they need three equidistant positions which are not available in case (i) hence only case (ii) From (6) Extreme house is not painted in White.
is The possible arrangements are "
possible. It is given that 5th tallest person is immediately in front of the second tallest person. A C E D B
The second tallest person occupies 4th position and the 5th tallest occupies 3rd position. Blue
It is given that 3rd tallest is in between 4th and the 6th tallest persons. The final arrangement Case (2)
is A D C E B
as follows. Case (3)
(1) 1 From (5) Green colour building is to the immediate left of Red building and in that either E or D
(2) 8 lives. It is not possible in case (2)
(3) 5 Case (3) is the only possibility and the arrangement will be
(4) 2 A D C E B
(5)7 Blue Green Red White Pink
(6)4/6 41. B lives in Pink coloured building. Choice (1)
(7)3
(8)6/4
42. White building is to the immediate left of Pink coloured building. Choice (1) D is the Mayor of Kolkatta.
The final arrangement is as follows.
43. A stays in the extreme left end house. Choice (5) Rank Mayor City
1 A Bhubaneshwar
44. Red building is exactly at the middle of the row. Choice (2) 2 E Mumbai
3 B Bangalore
45. There are three houses to the right of D's house. Choice (3) 4 C Chennai
5 D Kolkatta
Solutions for questions 46 to 50 : 6 G Bhopal
The given information is as follows. 7 F Hyderabad
Bhopal - Rank 6 - Mayor G ------- From (ii) 46. E is the Mayor of Mumbai. Choice (3)
Chennai - Rank 4 ------- From (ii)
Rank 7 - Mayor F ------ From (iii)
47. D is the Mayor of Kolkata. Choice (1)
Mumbai - Rank 2 ------- From (iii)
Rank 3 - Mayor B ------ From (iv) 48. Bangalore – Rank 3 is the correct combination. Choice (1)
Rank 5 - Mayor D ---- From (iv)
The above information is tabulated as follows
49. Bhubaneswar is ranked 1. Choice (4)
Rank Mayor City
1 50. F is the Mayor of Hyderabad. Choice (5)
2 Mumbai
3 B
4
5
C
D
Chennai VERBAL APTITUDE
6 G Bhopal SYNONYM
7 F
From (vi) E is the Mayor of either Mumbai or the city which is ranked 3. 1. 5
From the above table it is clear that B is 'the Mayor of the city which is ranked 3. E is the Mayor 2. 1
of Mumbai. A can be the Mayor of the city which is ranked 1 or the city which is ranked 4 3. 2
i.e. Chennai. 4. 3
But from (i) A is not the Mayor of Chennai. 5. 1
A is the Mayor of the city which is ranked 1. 6. 4
C is the Mayor of Chennai. 7. 5
From (v) Bangalore or the city to which D is the Mayor is ranked 3. 8. 3
From the above table we know that the city to which D is the Mayor is ranked 5. 9. 4
Bangalore is ranked 3. 10. 2
From (i) and (ii), for Hyderabad A is not the Mayor and it is not ranked 5. 11. 3
By comparing with the above derived information, we know that Hyderabad is not ranked 1 as 12. 5
the Mayor of the city which is ranked 1 is A. 13. 4
Hyderabad is ranked 7. 14. 2
From (v) D is not the Mayor of Bhubaneshwar. 15. 1
A is the Mayor of Bhubaneshwar. 16. 3
17. 2 11. 1
18. 2 12. 5
19. 3 13. 2
20. 5 14. 4
15. 1

DISEASE – HUMAN BODY 16.

17.
4
5
18. 1
1. 2 19. 3
2. 1 20. 3
3. 4
4. 2
5. 5 WORD MATCHING
6. 2
7. 2
8. 1 1. 4
9. 5 2. 1
10. 3 3. 3
11. 1 4. 5
12. 4 5. 3
13. 3 6. 2
14. 1 7. 1
15. 5 8. 2
16. 3 9. 2
17. 3 10. 2
18. 4 11. 5
19. 5 12. 4
20. 4 13. 2
14. 2
15. 3
FOREIGN EXPRESSION 16. 3
17. 5
1. 2 18. 1
2. 5 19. 3
3. 1 20. 4
4. 3
5.
6.
4
3 ONE WORD SUBSTITUTES
7. 5
8. 1 1. 3
9. 3 2. 4
10. 4 3. 1
4.
5.
4
5 PAIR OF ANTONYM
6. 1
7. 3 1. 1
8. 5 2. 2
9. 2 3. 3
10. 4 4. 4
11. 4 5. 5
12. 1 6. 2
13. 4 7. 1
14. 5 8. 5
15. 4 9. 4
16. 5 10. 1
17. 1 11. 3
18. 2 12. 5
19. 3 13. 2
20. 4 14. 4
15. 3
ANTONYM 16. 1
17. 2
1. 5 18. 3
2. 2 19. 4
3. 3 20. 5
4. 4
5.
6.
5
4
IDIOMS
7. 3
1. 3
8. 1
2. 4
9. 1
3. 1
10. 3
4. 5
11. 4
5. 4
12. 1
6. 1
13. 5
7. 2
14. 2
8. 3
15. 3
9. 5
16. 1
10. 3
17. 5
11. 2
18. 5
12. 4
19. 2
13. 1
20. 4
14. 3
15. 4
16. 2 Choice (2)
17. 5
18. 3 5. The animals and plants are in ‗danger‘ of becoming extinct. Choice (5)
19. 4
20. 4 6. Spiders are members of the arachnid family or they ‗belong‘ to the group of arachnids.
Choice (3)
EXERCISE-A
7. Novels have a main plot and ‗within‘ this there are many minor stories. Choice (2)
1. 2
2. 5 8. The sentence suggests that now he is not in ‗excellent health‘. But as far as ‗nine months
3. 3 ago‘ he was in good health. Hence ‗until‘ is the most appropriate conjunction to be used
4. 1 here. ‗Before‘ is redundant. Choice (1)
5. 2
6. 1 9. ‗Assume‘ here means to adopt or put on. The Chinese ‗assume‘ European names so that they
7. 3 can pretend to be Europeans. Choice (5)
8. 4
9. 5 10. The reason for body odour is perspiration, or perspiration ‗causes‘ body odour.
10. 2 Choice (4)
11. 2
12. 3 11. Mental talents should be nurtured. If they are buried, they 'tend' to or they are inclined to
13. 1 deteriorate. Choice (3)
14. 5
15. 1 12. The most appropriate preposition is 'at' as it shows a particular time in his life. 'At' the age
16. 4 of 15. Choice (2)
17. 1
18. 5 13. One has a 'strong' or 'deep' faith in something. 'Stubborn' collocates with attitude.
19. 4 Choice (1)
20. 1
14. Changing winds can cause, 'bring' or produce rain or result in a drought. Choice (1)

SELECTING WORDS 15. He hated school and so he 'dropped' out of school. He was not given a choice (i.e.) to
continue or to drop out and so 'opted' is incorrect. 'Escaped' from school is incorrect. One
1. ‗Often‘ which means ‗in many instances‘ is the most appropriate adverb to be used in this can escape from jail or even from hostel but not from school. Choice (5)
context. Choice (2)
16. The clue is the adverb 'mostly' and hence 'generally' harmless is most appropriate.
2. When people speak they ‗allow‘ others to read their mind because they express their Choice (4)
thoughts. Choice (4)
17. Computers cannot 'think' like people is the idea conveyed in this sentence. Choice (1)
3. Owls can detect and ‗catch‘ their prey in total darkness. Choice (3)
18. A tarpaulin is a waterproof canvas and so ‗spread‘ is the most appropriate verb as a cloth is
4. To be ‗well-versed‘ in something is to be knowledgeable or knowing a lot in something. ‗spread‘ to allow people to sit on it. Choice (5)
‘Aware‘ is generally followed by ‗of‘ and not ‗in‘, and a person will be ‗noted for‘ something.
19. 'Together' means in close association. Family helps people of a society to come 'together' or 11. 'Evoke' means inspire. Mascots serve to evoke or inspire enthusiasm in fans. Choice (3)
live in close association. Choice (1)
12. The option choice 4 is appropriate. The word
20. There were good books written once, but now a day it is difficult to ‗find‘ them. To ‗track or 'distinguished' shows how 'kookaburra' is differentiated or noticed from other birds.
to know‘ them are out of context. Choice (3) 'Raucous' means harsh sounding, loud and hoarse. The other words do not bring out the
meaning relevantly. Choice (4)
EXERCISE -A
13. 'Renowned' means famous. 'Adorned' means to add beauty or lusture. Choice (1)
1. The correct option is 4. 'Retaining' means not lose. When food is cooked in the oven it
helps to retain the vitamins in the food. It also makes cooking faster. The other options are 14. 'Emphatic' means forcibly expressive. Dr. Yamuna is expressing her opinion on parenting
not appropriate. Choice (4) techniques. So 'emphatic' is appropriate in the context. Choice (2)

2. The words 'cause' 'reason' 'dispute' and 'doubt' are inappropriate. The correct option is 1. 15. ‗Renowm' is famous. 'Profound' is showing great insight. The other options are not
Blind beliefs have to be 'erased' or wiped out and there can be no 'denial' about that. appropriate. Choice (4)
Choice (1)
16. The right option is (5). Calcutta witnessed one of the most turbulent periods of the state's
3. 'Flaunt' is to 'show off. 'Afford' is to have the capacity or be in a position to do something. political history. Choice (5)
The Romans generously sprinkled pepper on their food to slow off their wealth as only the
rich could afford to do it. Choice (2) 17. 'Exchant' means charm, delight. Queen Victoria was delighted when she read 'Alice in
wonderland'. She wrote a letter appreciating him. Choice (1)
4. 'Robust' means strong and sturdy especially in
physique or construction- The other options are not appropriate. Choice (3) 18. 'Impeccable' means exemplary performance. The highlight of the games was Jesse Owens'
exemplary performance. Choice (3)
5. On view are works by various artists from different cities. The word 'assorted' fits the
context appropriately. Choice (4) 19. 'Voracious' means very eager in some activity. It is an apt word to describe the eagerness
with which the hi-tech industry wants to hire workers. 'Spawned' means to produce in
6. 'Abide' means to 'act in accordance with rules. All the citizens must abide by the rules large quantities. The other options are not appropriate. Choice (1)
Choice (5)
20. 'Impinge' means make an impact or encroach. It is the right option. Choice (5)
7. 'Access' means the right or opportunity to reach, use, or visit. 'Relevant' means to have
reference to the matter in hand. The other options are not appropriate. Choice (1)
SENTENCE IDENTIFICATION
8. 'Latent' means dormant. Information technology has the latent ability to transform or
change a teacher from an expert to a co-learner. Choice (2) 1. Everyone of the students has, Students must be plural (since all the students are included)
while the verb must be singular (as we are talking about everyone taken individually)
9. The word 'beneficial' shows that the blank must be fitted with a word which is negative in Choice (2)
context as the sentence draws a comparison among different species of birds. 'Perilous'
which means 'dangerous' is appropriate. Choice (4) 2. With the first person (I) 'shall' gives information about the future action while 'will'
denotes determination. Here no determination is implied. Use of 'may' in choice 4 is wrong
10. An 'accomplice' is someone who helps in crime or wrongdoing. The other options are not as no permission is being given. Choice (3)
relevant. Choice (5)
3. Aids and cancer are two different diseases. Hence choice (4) is ruled out (Aids of cancer). 16. The definite article 'The' is used before names of rivers or mountain ranges. Hence 'The
Nobody should be followed by singular verb (has). So choice (3) is ruled out. Choice (2) is Himalayas', choice (2) and (4) are wrong in choice (3) barriers is used with (of) which is
incorrect because 'found out' implies finding what exists already Choice (1) incorrect. Choice (1)

4. Choices (3) and (4) are semantically wrong. (Harsher punishment will not increase crimes). 17. Since we are talking of each or everyone the verb must be singular - was not were. In
Choice (1) is wrong because 'crime' is used in singular where as the sentence implies plural choice (3) 'all' is used which must take the plural verb 'were' not 'was'. Choice (4)
- a number of crimes. Choice (2)
18. We are talking about 'The victims ... ' not 'Those victims.. ' (since those implies only some
5. 'Problem' should be singular as 'This' is singular. Choice (4) is wrong. Everyone must be of them not all). So choice (1) is wrong. They are living 'in the open' not on. So choice (3) is
spaced as one is common to each and every (each one and everyone). Choice (2) wrong. Choice (2) is also wrong as it does not have the article before open. Choice (4)

6. The word ‗assassinated‘ is used when we are referring to the murder of a political or a 19. 'Less' is used with reference to quantity and 'fewer' with reference to number. So choice (1)
religious leader. Choice(5) is wrong. 'no fewer than ....' means at least. It is not 'not fewer than ....' So (3) and (4) are
wrong. Choice (2)
7. Scenery is always used only in singular (not sceneries).Hence Choice (4) is wrong. Lots of
kings lived - not merely stayed – there. So (3) is wrong. Beauty and scenery are not two 20. The described his journey' not 'about his journey'. Choice (5)
different things. So (2) is wrong. Choice(1)

8. ‗Luxuries‘ is the state of living in comfort so it is not just things. Choice(2) SENTENCE CORRECTION
9. He sends them…not ‗to them‘ or ‗for them‘. Choice(3) 1. In type 3 conditional clause the verb in if clause is in past perfect tense. Hence answer is
choice (4) (of the two 'had') one had refers to past perfect and the other means owned or
10. Tell is merely to communicate information whereas ‗ask‘ is to say in order to obtain an possessed. Choice (4)
answer or response. Hence ‗asked‘ is a better word here (choice (1) is ruled out) ‘Asked us‘
not ‗to us‘ (so choice (2) is ruled out) the past continuous rather than the past perfect 2. The future perfect continuous tense must be used here because the action will have been in
continuous. Choice(3) progress for some time. Choice (3)

11. We are comparing Chinese with other languages and in that the difficulty of learning. 3. If used as (when had I...) the clause has the structure of an interrogative sentence though, it
Hence … more difficult to learn than…is the correct construction. Choice(5) is a declarative sentence. Choice (3)

12. We are comparing two aspects of the same person being a statesman and being a politician. 4. Here again two actions in the past are referred to. So the earlier action must have the past
Hence structure of the comparative degree more…than … is right. Choice(2) perfect tense. Choice (4)

13. We say 'in spite of .... .' but 'despite ....' Despite is not followed by of. So choice (1 )(2) and 5. The main clause is in the past tense (He told.) so the subordinate clause must also be in the
(3) are wrong. Choice (4) past tense. The verb 'hate' is not used in progressive form. Choice (3)

14. Unanimous in not by. So, choices 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect. Since the jury has a difference of 6. The if clause in this sentence must be in simple
opinion, a plural verb and a plural pronoun are used. Choice (1) present. So to say had fallen (1) will fall (2) has fallen (3) would fall (5) is inappropriate. The
right choice is (4). Choice (4)
15. The present perfect continuous 'have been asking' is correct here since the employees have
been asking for some time and are still asking. Choice (3) 7. It is incorrect to use 'in' when the sentence refers to 'dumping something'. Option (3) is
incorrect. in options 2, 3 and 4 preposition is used incorrectly (in, of, at). Option (5) is
 incorrect. The noun sewerage is an uncountable noun. So it is inappropriate to say 2. 4
'sewerages'. Choice (1) 3. 2
4. 5
8. When we refer to a scheduled future event, we normally use the present simple tense, not 5. 4
'going to'. Choice (3) 6. 3
7. 2
9. When a pointed object is pushed into something it pierces it. To use a preposition with 8. 1
pierce will be incorrect. Choice (4) 9. 4
10. 5
10. The reflexive pronoun 'myself is needed to complete the sense 'to enjoy what?' to enjoy 11. 2
myself. Choice (2) 12. 1
13. 3
11. The conjunction 'but' implies that what follows is the opposite of what preceded. This is 14. 4
expressed by choice (2). Choice (2) 15. 5
16. 2
12. Although implies a contrast or concession between the main clause and' the sub-ordinate 17. 3
clause. This is provided by choice (2) Choice (2) 18. 5
19. 2
13. The simple present tense - I hope to see you - is used to express a future action ·\then the 20. 3
futurity is indicated by the context. The verb 'Hope' is not used in progressive form.
Choice (4)
SPOTTING ERRORS
14. Structurally only (2) is correct. Choice (2)
1. Since the action has taken place yesterday, the verb must be in the past tense - not present
15. Unless means 'except when', hence semantically only 1 is correct. Choice (1) perfect -yesterday I wrote. Choice (1)

16. Here two negatives are used to express a positive. The sentence means he was industrious, 2. The conjunction so that is used to join two negatives or two positive. Here it is 'badly' and
so he got a seat. Choice (3) 'stopped his speech' that are linked by so that. He was stammering so badly that. In the
second sentence the future tense is used in the subordinate clause. In the subordinate clause
17. Conditional clause - a rejected condition - something that could have happened but did not. of condition and time, the simple present is used instead of the simple future when you pass
Choice (2) the examination. Choice (3)

18. In the reported speech the second person is changed to third person. Choice (4) 3. Both the sentences are correct. Choice (4)

19. The subject here is 'Not one' (not books)m hence the verb should be singular. Choice (2) 4. 'Pity' is a noun. It should be the adjective 'pitiful' as it qualifies children. These pitiful
children. In the second sentence the preposition 'for' normally follows the noun 'pity'. To
20. So ... that correlative conjunction. Choice (3) feel pity for . Choice (3)

JUMBLE WORDS
5. 'Let go' means release or set at liberty so sentences should be.... Let you go to.
Choice (2)

1. 3
6. Sentence (1) is correct. In sentence (2), 'I' need not be repeated after 'but' since the subject Sentence II, the reflexive pronoun 'himself should be omitted. Choice (3)
is the same. 'I could not see anything but heard some noises. Choice (2)
19. Sentence I, the verb must be in the past tense as it is from my childhood - I was interested
7. Sentence 1 should be 'Scarcely had I opened my book when. Scarcely in followed by when, in painting from my childhood. Had it been the present 'now' then 'am'
correlative conjunction. Choice (1) can be used - I am interested in paining now. Choice (1)

8. In sentence II 'looking after' means 'taking care of-ego Parents look after their children. 20. Sentence I, One cannot make a success of one's.....or He cannot make a success of his..
'Looking for ‗means searching which is the meaning intended here. Choice (2) Sentence II, the subject 'he' need not be repeated in the subordinate clause as it is the same
as in the main clause - 'In spite of being very tired, he.. Choice (3)
9. In sentence I, it should be brushed aside 'not' brushed away. 'Aside' means 'to one side', 'out
of the way' where as 'away' means 'to a distance'. Sentence II should be 'One mustn't waste
one's time .... 'One must 15e followed by one's, he by his. Choice (3) ORDERING OF SENTENCES
10. In sentence I 'refrained' should be flowed by the preposition from - we all refrained from 1. B cannot be the opening sentence (as it beings with because) so option 2 is ruled out. C does
telling her. In sentence II most must be preceded by the definite article 'the admired the not follow A so option 1 is ruled out. In option 3, though B can follow C, D cannot follow
most. The is always used before an adjective in superlative degree. Choice (3) A. B cannot follow D immediately and so option 5 is ruled out. So the correct answer is
option 4, which is logical. Choice (4)
11. I n sentence I, received from not by - received a standing ovation from the audience. In
sentence to the verb must be in the past tense - Many voluntary organizations came 2. D cannot follow C logically, so options 1 and 2 are ruled out A cannot follow B so
forward to. Choice (3) option 4 is also ruled out. B cannot follow D and so 5 is incorrect. Choice (3)

12. In sentence I, - My friend dropped at my place to spend some time.... Not pass time. In 3. A follows Band D follows C so we have to choose between 1 and 2. B follows D (sell them
sentence II, it should be regaled.... With not by - in order to raise money) Choice (2)
The artists regaled the audience with their. Choice (3)
4. D cannot start a sentence so choices (1) and (2) are incorrect. B too cannot begin the
13. Sentence I, 'we enjoyed ourselves', without the reflexive pronoun, it is incomplete (enjoyed sentence. D follows B logically. Choice (4)
what?)Sentence II is correct. Choice (1)
5. D does not follow A, so options 1, 2 and 4 are ruled out. A follows D (it cannot follow C)
14. Sentence II, congratulate on not for - let me congratulate you on your. Choice (2) Choice (5)

15. Sentence I, the preposition should be 'of not 'in'. All the participants of the programmed. 6. B cannot begin the sentence, so option 1 is ruled out. D follows C (it cannot precede C) so
Choice (1) options 2 and 5 are ruled out. A must follow B logically, so option 3 is ruled out.
Choice (4)
16. Sentence I, accusations were leveled against him not at him. Sentence II, despite is not
followed by of. Choice (3) 7. D is the opening sentence in all the choices. B follows (observation .... that). So the answer
is 3 or 4. A follows B (difficulty in writing ....) Choice (3)
17. Sentence I: I deem it a privilege not as a privilege.
Sentence II: achieved through practice not with practice. Choice (3) 8. C cannot be the opening sentence (begins with because) so 4 and 5 are ruled out. Since D is
the opening sentence it can be structurally followed by A or B (less than) but logically it is
18. Sentence I, 'She has a great skill for painting. The indefinite article 'a' should be used as A. Choice (2)
painting is one of the many skills.
9. C follows D (... carried out while ....) so the answer is 1 or 3. B logically follows C 10. ACD go together' (... new awareness in A, its
(something is done so that ....). Choice (3) understanding in C, its result in D). This is found in 2, 4 and 5. However A can't be the
opening sentence (pronoun It). Choice (5)
10. B is the opening sentence in all the choices. We find C immediately follows B (young men
.... may feel). So the answer is choice 1 or 2. D follows A. It makes no sense if it proceeds A. EXERCISE-B
Choice (2)
EXERCISE – A 1. B follows 1 logically (1 says mosquitoes art the worst enemies of mankind and B explains
why.. because they spread horrible diseases .... ) while both choice 1 and 4 seem O.K. the
1. While B or C can be the opening sentence, E does not follow B logically. So 1 and 2 are response of the government / organization should precedes that of the individual since it
ruled out. We find CA in 3, 4 and 5 but D cannot follow A (... this respect in D cannot refer affects the entire society. Choice (4)
to anything in C or A). Choice (5)
2. C follows 1 logically (exact cause.. unknown ..causative factors.. numerous) A follows C
2. D is not the opening sentence (definite article the) So 2 and 5 are ruled out. B is the last (from numerous factors to mentioning several factors). B comes next (several factors to
sentence (Thus .... draws the conclusion). Choice (3) specific ones – certain foods) Choice (1)

3. While B or D can be the opening sentence, B logically follows D. what some say (in D) is 3. C follows 1 logically (what was the position to what it is now). A comes next - 'it' refers to
shown as true (in B).This is found in 2. Choice (2) the apparatus (B cannot follow C as there is no antecedent for 'he' in C).D comes next (they
had no money.. the banker provided the finance). B comes next (the 'he' refers to the
4. D is the opening sentence in all the choices. It cannot be followed by B (... also ....). Hence 3 banker) Choice (2)
and 5 are ruled out. So we have DA in the other three choices. This should be followed by C
since E and B go on to say what 'should' be done to save democracy. Choice (4) 4. While AOB can follow 1 (choice (3) C can't be the last of the group (having said inspiration
is rare and we learn by practice, we can't now say inspiration is needed before you begin to
5. B is the opening sentence in all the choices. D follows E (just started.. milestone .... ). write) S choice (3) is ruled out. C follows 1. A comes next (it says a little more about
Similarly A follows C (such misadventure in A refers to .... The danger of In C). inspiration) Then comes B (how much inspiration and how much hard work).D follows
Choice (3) (explaining the second part of B). Choice (1)

6. While D can be the opening sentence, E following it does not make sense (no connection 5. D follows 1 (women are .... Inclined to. in t-hew? . think as men ... in D) A precedes 6 (Her
between characters, money, and position). Hence 1 and 5 are ruled out. In the other three mission is not to enhance the masculine .... It is better for women.... ). Choice (3)
choices we have CA. E cannot follow A (there has been no mention of money or position so
far) so 3 and 4 are ruled out. Choice (2) 6. AB follow 1 (link - realists - their belief – adjective reality - this reality). Choice (5)

7. A cannot be the opening sentence (pronoun it). Hence 3 and 5 are ruled out. C is the 7. Only B follows (1) logically (form technology changing the world, we come to India). 'But'
opening sentence in the other three choices. B follows C more logically than E. So 4 is ruled in (C) is a connector. So (C) follows (B). Choice (2)
out. D follows E ('they' in D refers to 'scientists and technocrats' in E) Choice (1)
8. While both Band C can follow 1. A follows B (link - also In A and offer criticism in B). This
8. A follows D (so far ... in 0 now in A). E follows A (aptitude) so we have DAE going together IS found only in 2. Choice (2)
which is found only in Choice (4) Choice (4)
9. C follows 0 (Elsewhere in C and 'In some laces. in D).This is found in 2. Choice (2)
9. A follows C (... they too .... In A refers to CBI in C) It also implies (too) that corruption has
already been referred to (B). Choice (3) 10. A follows C (...a special technique in C and that· technique in A). Similarly D follows B (..
they. in D refers to ... other countries .. In B). Choice (5)
 SENTENCE SELECTION 2.
3.
5
2
4. 2
1. .. hire one of them .... voyage ..... or live .. , .. suggests a house boat. Choice (2) 5. 3
6. 5
2. Since the first sentence talks about polio-affected children and the last time about our co- 7. 2
operation, the blank takes a sentence that shows our co-operation. Hence choice (2). 8. 3
(choice (1) is not suitable because children don't need help to take the vaccine. We must 9. 3
ensure that they 'get' the vaccine so we must take them to the hospital). Choice (2) 10. 4

3. The sentence that follows the blank talks about viewers increasing. hence choice (2) which
also talks of viewers fits the blank. Choice (2) MATCHING DEFINITIONS
4. 'This electricity .... .' in the line that follows shows that the word electricity must "come in 1. 1
the blank. The sentence preceding the blank has mentioned solar panel. hence choice (3) 2. 2
which mentions converting sunlight into electricity fits the blank. Choice (3) 3. 4
4. 3
5. The sentence preceding the blank talks of 'one source of pollution'. Obviously the blank 5. 4
must have 'another source of pollution'. The sentences that follow mention vehicle. 6. 5
Choice (1) 7. 3
8. 2
6. .... force them to take .... legal action' in the line that follows suggests that the blank refers 9. 3
to someone who, has the authority to take action. Choice (3) 10. 2

7. Regarding actors as gods'. in the previous sentences suggests that the blank has a sentence
which shows people doing something in excess. Choice (4) ODD SENTENCE OUT
8. The blank has a sentence which exemplifies the 'simple truth about the importance of
1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 are about recreational activity while 4 is about work. Choice (4)
hygiene. Choice (2)

2. Sentence 3 is manmade disaster. The other sentences are about natural disasters.
9. The line preceding the blank shows that the monkeys act like human beings. The line that
Choice (3)
follows says 'In that case... called monkey man'. So the sentence in the blank must show the
monkeys acting more like humans. Choice (1)
3. Chess alone is an indoor game. The other 4 are outdoor games. Choice (1)
10. Gandhiji called the down cast people Harijan. The line that follows the blank says 'But now
4. 4 is about water. The others are not about beverages. Choice (4)
..... it is a word of insult'. So the blank must have the meaning of Harijan as intended by
Gandhiji. Choice (3)
5. While others are about pleasure and enjoyment. 5 is about something good or needed.
Choice (5)
SENTENCE ANALOGIES
6. The others are about forms of government. 2 alone is about a union. Choice (2)
1. 3
7. 7. Carpentry is a craft while others are fine arts. Choice (4) 10. Colt is a young male horse where as a mare is a fully grown female horse. The same aspect
of age and gender is seen between Prince and Queen. Choice (4)
8. An umbrella is a thing; the others are different natural fabrics. Choice (4)
11. Cub is the young of a lion just as cygnet is the young of swan. Choice (3)
9. 2 is about meditation while the other 4 are about different systems of medicine.
Choice (2) 12. Flower is part of an inflorescence so also light is part of incandescence. Choice (1)

10. 3 talks of a two-wheeler while the others talk of precious metals and gems (jewelers) 13. Pudding is a dessert just a soup is an appetizer. . . . Choice (2)
Choice (3)
14. Memory and amnesia are antithetical just like sleep and insomnia. Choice (1)

VERBAL ANALOGIES 15. A pedagogue teaches just as a counselor advice. Choice (5)

1. Footpath is on either side of the road and running along its entire length. Similarly the river 16. Global means relating to the world just as urban means relating to the city. Choice (4)
bank is on either side of the river and running along its length. Choice (2)
17. A rock is the medium for a sculptor just as a canvas is for the artist. Choice (3)
2. A carpenter uses chisel. In all the five choices we have people and the things they use. In
the case of the seamstress, the needle is a tool just as the chisel is a tool to work with. 18. A troupe is a collection of actors even as a regiment is a collection of soldiers. Choice (2)
Choice (3)
19. An elephant is a pachyderm just as a kangaroo is a marsupial. Choice (2)
3. The flower gives off fragrance just as the sun gives sunlight. In both cases they give
something that they . Posses. (The moon gives moon-light but the light is not inherent. it is 20. The earth is a planet just as the moon is a satellite. Choice (2)
only borrowed). Choice (4)
EXERCISE-A
4. A thermometer is used to measure temperature. So also a hygrometer is used to measure
humidity (A voltmeter is used to measure electric potential· not electricity). 1. Grammar is essential for a language, Notes are essential in music, Herbs are essential for
Choice (1) medicine, Numbers are essential in mathematics, Calories add to weight."
Choice (2) (Zoology is the study of plants)
5. A cycle is used by peddling just as a horse is used by riding. (A car is also used by driving
but this is motorized where as in the case of a horse and bicycle, the physical energy is 2. An author is the source of literature. A brain is the source of ideas, Ocean is the source of
used). Choice (2) clouds and a bank IS the source of money. Movies offer entertainment.
Choice (3) (Earth is a planet)
6. The paise is a fraction of a rupee just as minute is a fraction of an hour. (The drop is also a
part of the ocean but it is not countable I measurable). Choice (5) 3. Hot is a greater degree of warm, Freeze is a greater degree of cold, Weep is a greater degree
of sob, Laugh is a greater degree of smile. Stare is to look for a longer time, the right hand
7. Love and hatred are opposites just as the given words. Choice (1) side words are a higher degree of the left hand side words.
Choice (4) (laugh and cry are opposites)
8. Sphere is the shape of the sun just as cube is the shape of the dice. Choice (2)
4. Newspaper deals with journalism, Economics deals with currency, Geology deals with land,
9. Books have knowledge just as herbs have medicines. Choice (1) Bank deals with money. Press deals with printing.
Choice (5) (Butter is a product of milk)
5. Practice is needed to avoid mistake, rain to avoid 17. Epic deals with heroism just as tragedy deals with sorrow. Comedy deals with humor. satire
drought, protect to avoid things becoming extinct, and diligence to avoid error. with lampoon. a critic with review. Choice (4)
Choice (2) (resentment leads to anger)
18. Practice leads to perfection just as piety leads to
6. A secretary works)n an office, a chef in a kitchen, a teacher in a school, an officer in a sainthood, perseverance to success, charity to munificence. Choice (4)
department, a salesman in a store.
Choice (2) (a musician uses or works with instruments) 19. Ornithology is the study of birds just as anthropology is the study of mankind, Botany of
plants, Zoology of animals and numismatist of coins.
7. Work leads to fatigue, thirst leads us to take a drink, poison leads to death and laziness to Choice (5) (Taxonomy is not about tax)
failure, hard work leads to success.
Choice (3) (love does not lead to hate) 20. We embroider on cloth paint on canvas, carve on wood and write on paper and chisel on
stone.
8. Pills are to cure just as gum is to stick, brush is to paint, and cake is to eat. Choice (4) Choice (2) (we don't garden on lawn - a lawn is a part of a garden).

9. We sketch a diagram just as we draw a picture, print a book or paint a portrait, dramatize a
play. Choice (5) CLASSIFICATION
10. Shirt is inside a coat, feet are inside socks, head inside helmet, and kerchief inside pocket 1. Horse, donkey, monkey, parrot, goat. Choice (4) a parrot is a bird while other are animals.
and roots inside the earth. Choice (4) (coat gives warmth)
2. Friday, February, March, August, April. Choice (1) Friday is the name of a day while others
11. Permanent and transient are opposites just as boisterous-calm, sombre lively, wild- are of a month.
omesticated are opposites, Mirttr and glee are similar. Choice (1)
3. Yesterday, today, second, tomorrow, Saturday. Choice (3) others refer to days.
12. Diagnosis leads to treatment ailment to medicine, investigation to report, fracture to x-ray.
(Interrogation does not lead to evidence, it could lead to judqrnent or unravelling the 4. Baseball, chess, painting, badminton, cricket. Choice (5) others are names of games.
truth). Crime leads to arrest. Choice (4)
5. Engineer, doctor, driver, nurse, teacher. Choice (3) others are educated professionals.
13. The words on the left are the names of the homes of the animals 1 human on the right.
(Only the orib is not the home of a baby) Choice (3) 6. Porter, father, mother, brother, sister. Choice (1) others are members of a family.

14. Terrestrial means relating to earth just as cosmic means relating to the universe, aquatic 7. Dagger, knife, fridge, sword, gun. Choice (3) others are weapons.
means relating to water and arboreal means relating to trees, 'Erudition' is related to
knowledge. Choice (5) (stars shine) 8. Ice cream, pudding, cement, salad, cake. Choice (3) others are eatables.

15. A chef works in a kitchen just as a teacher works in a school, an astronomer in an 9. Labor, worker, coolie, manager, miner. Choice (4) the work of others involves physical
observatory, a scientist in a laboratory, a doctor in a hospital. effort.
Choice (4) (deity is in a temple does not work there)
10. Kitchen. bedroom, restroom, owner. parlour. Choice (5) others are rooms In a house.
16. A kernel is inside a nut just as a seed is inside a fruit, a grain inside a husk, yolk inside egg,
brain inside the cranium. 11. Cotton, wool, paper. silk. jute. Choice (3) others are natural fibers used to make fabric.
Choice (4) (a house is made of bricks not inside it)
12. Trousers. Tie. Scarf, luggage, shirt. Choice (4) others are articles of clothing. 2. Credential means qualification or achievement - the pudding is successful if it IS eaten.
Choice 2 which is a common saying restates this. Choice (2)
13. Gold, silver, copper, wood, diamond. Choice (4) others are metals.
3. The concrete here does not refer to building material but to substantial or definite
14. Brick, cement. Sand, rope, steel. Choice (4) others are building materials. achievement 'little concrete has happened' means nothing much has been achieved.
Choice (3)
15. Apple. flower. peach. pear. banana. Choice (2) others are fruits.
4. The ostrich is said to bury its head when it sees danger - what it does not see does not exist
16. Words. phrase, pencil, sentence, verse. Choice (3) others are parts of language. An ostrich like attitude means refusing to face reality. Choice (4)

17. Valley. lake spring, river. ocean. Choice (1) others are sources of water. 5. 'To pull up one's socks' means to make an effort to improve. Choice (1)

18. Tea. salad, coffee. cocoa. chocolate. Choice (2) others are hot beverages. 6. 'Deter' means to discourage or prevent 'Having failed to deter their entry' means as we were
unable to prevent their entry. Choice (2)
19. Sickle, plough, hammer, scythe, reap. Choice (5) others are tools.
7. 'Contrary' means 'opposite' to 'usual tendency' is
20. Father, earth, sun, moon, Venus. Choice (1) others are heavenly bodies. 'normal behavior'. Hence 'Contrary to their usual tendency means differing from their
normal behavior. Choice (4)

VERBAL REASONING 8. 'To make a virtue of necessity' means to derive some credit from an unwelcome obligation' .
.... Choice (5)
1. 5
2. 3 9. The government takes our money by way of taxes. So, if we are keeping the government's
3. 4 hands off our money, 'it means we are avoiding tax payment. Choice (2)
4. 4
5. 3 10. 'infra dig' means 'below dignity'. no longer considered infra dig', therefore, means not
6. 3 considered to be below dignity (or demeaning). . . Choice (1)
7. 2
8. 5
9. 2 MATCHING DEFINITION
10. 1
1. 1

PHRASES 2.
3.
3
5
4. 3
1. Legislation refers to laws. Stirrings refer to the feelings or passions of the people. Not by 5. 4
legislation does not mean that laws are ignored. The sentence means that the passions (the 6. 3
inner motive forces) are more important than laws (which are enforced externally). 7. 2
Choice (1) 8. 1
9. 5
10. 3
11. 4
12. 2 7. The clue is in the words that follow the blank. The effects are __ to anybody who does not
13. 5 deliberately shut his eyes. So, if you don't deliberately shut your eyes it will be 'obvious'
14. 4 (easily perceived). It is not palpable (able to be touched or felt) or patent (right given by the
15. 3 government for making or producing something) or conspicuous (what attracts attention in
16. 1 a crowd) or shrouded. Choice (4)
17. 4
18. 1 8. Here again the clue is in what precedes and what follows the blank. No sensible person
19. 5 would say that a terrorist response is justified. By dictating terms it has given an
20. 2 opportunity for people like Osama Bin Laden or Saddam Hussain to justifiably oppose it.
Hence, the blank is not inefficacious (not producing the desired effect) or abortive (failing

CLOSET TEST to produce result) or unsuccessful or rational. It is futile (pointless). Choice (1)

9. It is no __ . The blank must take a word that means 'chance' (happening by chance) not
1. Here the clue is in the preceding adjective 'irrational'. Since it is irrational, it cannot be luck or fluke. Serendipity means a lucky chance. From the context we can see that it is not
unintelligible (what cannot be understood) or unjustifiable (what cannot be justified) or un- lucky, hence only coincidence can fit in. Choice (5)
maintainable (what cannot be maintained) Hence, it is indefensible (what cannot be
defended) Choice (2) 10. With a common enemy, the people 'have been brought together to oppose. Hence, the
word is rally (bring together for concerted action). Group, band, assemble congregate all
2. The previous word is browbeating, that is, intimidating. We cannot browbeat jurisdiction refer to bringing people together but the implication of joint action is implicit only in rally.
(the territory or area over which authority exits). It is not browbeating people or politicians Choice (2)
or common man (because it is concerned with encroaching public land) Hence, it is
jurisprudence (the legal system) which should act against encroachers. Choice (1) 11. The clue lies in the words that follow - 'to financial services'. You need an 'access' (the
means or opportunity to approach) rather than gain admission or entry. Avenue means the
3. 'Religion is being Increasingly __ obviously it is 'used So. it IS not redistributed disposed or same but does not suit in this context. Choice (5)
even positioned It 15 not advertised either It is deployed (bring Into effective action).
Choice (4) 12. The words that follow are 'dignity and position'. The self-help groups have empowered
women and what have they done to their dignity and position? They have definitely not
4. The quotation of George Bernard Shaw shows that we don't want religion to be used by flattered or decorated nor have they seized, they have enhanced (increased).
scoundrels. So what do we do? We must ensure (make sure) that it does not happen. We Choice (4)
cannot guarantee or certify or even confirm this. We cannot promote it either.
Choice (3) 13. It has given women the confidence and power to __ with banks. What do they do with
banks? They negotiate (try to reach an agreement or compromise by discussion). They do
5. We must ensure religion does not suffer a similar __ what? It IS not demotion (there is no not fulfill anything or orchestrate (direct to produce a desired effect) or contract (as a verb
promotion or demotion for religion). Depose means to give evidence. So. It cannot be It means decrease or become shorter as a noun only it means an agreement). Corroborate IS
deposition. It IS not shaming since shaming means feeling of humiliation (religion cannot also inapt. Choice(3)
feel) Religion is not a thing to discard. Hence, 'it is degradation (causing severe loss of
dignity or respect, demean). Choice (5) 14. In all these __ , the reference is to dealing with
banks and local governments. These are not events. Occurrences, places or even courses
6. 'Terms' is a way of expressing oneself. So how has Israel been expressing itself? The clue is (lessons In a subject). They are programmers (a set of related measures or activities with a
in the words that follow'.. from a position of military strength'. From such a position one long term aim). Choice (2)
will only order or dictate. Choice (3)
15. The purpose has been to make women __ what?
not energetic (these are not health measures); or ANALYZING ARGUMENTS
moving (we are not talking of feelings); 'efficacious' and sincere are very formal words and
hence do not fit in this context; effective (producing a desired or intended result) is the 1. The given sentence emphasizes the importance of four Ps. Choice 4 which talks of the
right word here. Choice (3) indifference of businessmen to the lot of the common man has nothing to do with the
qualities mentioned and hence cannot complement it.
16. The words that follow 'have to play' indicate 'Obligation'. 'Mandatorily' means 'required by Choice (4)
law'. Since the order is issued by the government mandatorily is the right choice.
Choice (1) 2. The given sentence relates happiness to activity.
Choice 1 is about beggars being idle and has nothing to do with happiness. So, it cannot
17. The words that precede 'this is the sort of .... .. .' and the words that follow 'that makes a complement the given sentence. Choice (1)
mockery of' _. Indicate that what is done is not done in earnest. It is only a show.
'Tokenism' shows that it is only a symbolic move and hence appropriate. Choice (5) 3. The given sentence focuses on the responsive governance in Karnataka. Choice 5 talks of
Bangalore being a garden city and is unrelated to the responsiveness and technological
18. We already have 'mockery of nationalism', so it is reduced to a mindless __. Celebration or development of the government. Choice (5)
procedure cannot be mindless. Protocol is a formal word that does not fit here. Follow up is
not done. Hence, ritual is the answer. Choice (4) 4. The given sentence tells about prawn farming
destroying the mangroves in Orissa. The focus is on the destruction caused by it. Choice 3
19. Nationalism is not something to be taught or implanted (inserted) or imbued (filled or which eulogises the benefits of mangroves cannot complement it. Choice (3)
saturated with)or preached. It can only be inculcated (instill by persistent instruction). . . . .
Choice (2) 5. The focus is on the exaggeration in reporting about hunger related deaths. Choice 4 is also
about sensationalism but of the different kind - buying children and hence cannot
20. 'Betrays' (unintentionally reveal) is better in this context than merely disclose (expose) or complement the given sentence. Choice (4)
divulge (make known) or blurt out (say suddenly without careful consideration).Enhances
is inapt. Choice (3) 6. The given sentence draws our attention to keeping the world healthy - that is
environmental protection. Choice 2 which ~s on third World War does not complement it.
21. The words that follow the blank are-droughts, floods. oil price shocks, and other things Choice (2)
including war. What has been the effect of these? The effect has been destructive but it is
not plunder (forcibly stial) or demolition (deliberately destroy) or wreckages (associated 7. The importance of information is emphasized. Choice 3 which is about the three sectors
with natural disaster or accident). Hence. It is ravages. Choice (4) cannot complement it. Choice (3)

22. __ of our prime ministers. The blank refers to the killing. The killing of political 8. The given sentence is about the dispute regarding Cauvery water. Choice 1 is about its
personalities is called assassination. Choice (1) being sacred and hence cannot complement it. Choice (1)

23. What is done to a Satellite? It is launched. . . . . . . Choice (3) 9. The given sentence focuses on the dispute between BCCI and ICC rather than on the World
Cup Match. Choice 5, which talks of the important people who will attend the match, does
24. The words that follow are poverty, disease, illiteracy, corruption etc: These are all scattered not complement it. Choice (5)
around. What can they be called? They are not havoc (wide-spread destruction) or mere
fragments (~mall parts, pieces). It can be litter or ebris. Of the two: debris has the implicit 10. Here the focus is on technology. Choice 1 alone does not talk about the technology
meaning of 'scattered rubbish' (litter only means rubbish or an untidy collection). involved and hence cannot complement it. Choice (1)
Choice (2)
 WORD SUBSTITUTES 11. 'Paeans' means a song of praise hence it can mean tribute, panegyric (in praise of someone)
accolade (special honor), eulogy (praise someone highly) but not anathema (something that
one vehemently dislikes) Choice (4)
1. 'Venom' literally means poison and by extension hatred and bitterness. In this context it can
earn rancor (bitterness) malice (hatred) malevolence (ill-will) and bitterness. It cannot 12. 'Sprightly' means lively, energetic, hence it can mean frisky, vivacious (attractively lively)
mean abhorrence which is disgust. Choice (2) Jaunty (lively and self confident manner) perky (cheerful and lively) but not voracious
which means greedy or insatiable. Choice (1)
2. 'Acquittal' means declared not guilty. Hence it can mean vindication (shown to be right or
justified), exoneration (officially absolve from blame), and deliverance (the process of being 13. 'Ubiquitous' means found everywhere, hence it means rife, pervasive (widespread).
set free), and exculpation but not dismissal (order or allow to leave). Choice (1) Prevalent (widespread or existing) and extensive (covering a large area) but not dominating
'which means have a commanding or controlling influence over. Choice (2)
3. 'Presage' means a sign or warning. It also means predict. Hence, in the context it can be
replaced by signaled (indicate a state) or prophesied (predicted) or portended (sign or 14. 'Tyro' means a beginner or novice hence it can mean trainee, beginner novice or neophyte
warning) or threatened but not supported (bear the weight or give assistance) (a person who is new to a subject) but not veteran (a person who has long experience in a
Choice (1) field) which is the opposite. Choice (2)

4. 'Unassailable' means not liable to attack hence 'Impregnable', (unconquerable) invincible' or 15. 'Variegated' means exhibiting different colors hence colorful, kaleidoscopically (changing
'secure' or 'inviolable' but not 'invisible' (not seen) Choice (4) patterns, psychedelic (vivid colors and swirling abstract patterns) and many hued (many
colors) but not diversified (enlarge the range). Choice (4)
5. Abjure' means to solemnly renounce Hence, It can mean renounce, relmquish (give up) or
abnegate (renounce or reject) or abandon but not discontinue (stop) discontinue is a 16. 'Zany' means amusingly unconventional or idiosyncratic, hence it can mean peculiar,
common word by comparison. Choice (4) bizarre (strange), weird (uncanny), ludicrous (absurd, ridiculous) but not weak (lacking
strength). Choice (2)
6. 'Despondent' means being in low spirits from loss of hope or courage. It can mean doleful
(sorrowful). Morose (sullen) or crestfallen (sad and disappointed) dismal, but not defiant 17. Adjunct means additional or supplementary, hence can mean complement, supplement, add
(resistance or disobedient). Choice (3) on and accessory (something added) but not compliment (expression of praise). Choice (3)
(Note - complement means a thing that enhances or Improves).
7. 'Fitfully' means occurring intermittently, not regularly. Hence, it means erratically
intermittently, irregularly discontinuously but it does not mean faintly which means 'barely 18. Lyrical means imaginative and poetic, songlike and hence can mean pleasant, melodious
perceptible' Choice (1) (tuneful) rhapsodic (enthusiastic expression of feeling), musical (of relating to, or
accompanied by music) but not sumptuous (splendid and expensive looking). Choice (5)
8. 'Incredulous' means unwilling to believe. Hence, it can be dubious, cynical meaning,
skeptical (doubtful) and disbelieving but not weary (tired). Choice (3) 19. 'Proscribe' means to forbid, especially by law and hence can mean condemned, forbidden,
prohibited= (forbid by law), disallowed (not allowed) but not discourage (cause a loss of
9. 'Misconstrued' means 'interpreted wrongly, hence it can mean miscalculated, confidence). Choice (2)
misinterpreted or misunderstood (wrongly understood) or erred (mistaken) but not
confused which mean'; bewildered or lacking order Choice (4) 20. 'Venal' means motivated by susceptibility to bribery and hence includes crooked, corrupt
(act dishonestly in return for money), rapacious (aggressively greedy), avaricious (extreme
10. 'Embellished' means adorned or decorated or studded and hence beautified but not beatified greed) but not evil (immoral or malevolent not necessarily bribery or corruption).
(sanctified) Choice (5) Choice (4)
 SENTENCE COMPLETION goes into the blank. Choice (2)

8. The passions and pathos, real or imaginative literature or the talent of writing, which are
1. When we achieve something, we are excited about it and want to share our happiness with lifeless I abstract cannot be drawn towards the beauties of the universe. Hence, choices 2, 3
others. Selfish persons may keep this success to themselves. Choice 1 some people may get and 4 are irrelevant. Choice (5) poetry is not meant to drive away negative thoughts. The
carried away by success and think that they have extraordinary skills Choice 3. Choice 2 lethargic i.e., lazy and uninterested people can be impressed by the beauty.
gives incomplete sense as 'impossible' - to whom? Choice (5) like choice (2) gives Choice (1)
incomplete sense. Choice 4 is apt. Choice (4)
9. When we are in difficulty, we should get motivated by the successful people. 'Learning a
2. The given part of the sentence has negative acts, so, the blank takes a negative phrase. We lesson', 'take an example' or 'perseverance' from others do not help one in overcoming the
eliminate choice 4 as it is positive. Choice 1 and 3, take sanity as the subject because of the difficulty. Only choice 3 is relevant. Choice (3)
conjunction 'and'. Sanity has nothing to do with neglect of values and havoc with nature,
though these are negative. Choice (5) is positive. So it is not appropriate. (Choice 2 is apt.) 10. The immediate and sure result of acquiring knowledge realizing how little we know. More
Choice (2) knowledge may not lead to more wealth or opportunities. Wisdom is the right use of
knowledge. A person with good knowledge may not be wise. Mere knowledge may not lead
3. The sentence deals with resolving a dispute by talks and negotiations but the attempt to to more skill. Choice (4)
forge an agreement l at reaching a solution given in choices 1 and 3 respectively make
sense. The attempt proved abortive (useless) completes the sense. Reject the agreement l
acquire dark shades are negative. So, they cannot go with the given part. Choice (4) is a MISSING PART
rhetoric statement. Choice (3) is correct. Choice (3)
1. The sentence compares other metals to aluminium and finds the latter to be superior. Since
4. Action is defined positively, so it saves man from some negative effect I condition. So, the the given part of the question begins with 'as aluminium', the structure has to be 'No other
choice should have negative words. 'Use of faculties, prerequisites' in choices 1 and 4 are metal is as .. .' Since the subject is singular the verb is 'takes' (not take - rules out 1 and 3). In
positive. The sorrow of fellow- beings does not put a man in danger. Hence, choice 3 is choice (4) and (5) obliging is wrong - it is the adverb 'obligingly'
irrelevant. Activity keeps a man happy and agile. Choice (5) like (1) and (4) has a positive Choice (2)
note. So is incorrect. Choice (2)
2. The subject of the missing phrase is 'the wrist joints' choice (1) makes the sentence
5. 'So highly priced' should be followed by an impossible activity. The ordinary sports-persons incomplete. In choice (2)'enabling the hands to permit' is meaningless. In choice (4) the
cannot buy the banned substances due to their exorbitant price; neither will the coaches tenses are mixed up. Choice (5) is meaningless. Choice (3)
encourage them to do that. So, we eliminate choices 2 and 4. Price cannot be the reason for
making sportsmen guinea pigs. The impossible activity IS given In choice 1, which 3. The words 'almost left' make choice (2) wrong -
completes the meaning of the sentence. Choice (5) is illogical. If the substance IS so highly 'almost' does not qualify the word left but 'as many delusions' Since 'left' itself IS In the past
priced it will not be unhesitatingly used. Choice (1) tense. The earlier past must be In the past perfect - had had. The singular 'had' makes
choice (3) and (4) wrong. Choice (1)
6. In order to generate incomes at a high rate, initial investment requirements such as
network facilities should be substantial. This is given in choice 5, which is apt. 'Slow and 4. The words in the blank must elaborate on 'the new kind of war". The words that follow the
steady progress' given In choice 1, 'willingness to do' and 'expensive and arduous packages' blank'. That we had ignored' qualifies' debits and dangers. Hence these words must be at the
given in choices 2 and 4 do not lead to profitable conditions. Choice (5) end of the words in the blank. In choice (1) 'while' makes the sentence Incomplete.
Choice (4)
7. One should be either famous or notorious to be in the news. Advocating for the joy of
ignorance or flooding the people with false information or benefit--from a deal are trivial 5. 5. The words that follow the blank'. But because, too .. ‗suggest that the structure we have
issues to be in the news. Stirring up controversies surely puts you in the news. Hence, this here is 'not only but also' type. So we look at choices (3) and (4).Choice (4) does not make
 much sense. Choice (3) 5. Band C are grammatically incorrect sentences. In B the error is in the positioning of the
word 'both'. The right position is 'waste of both time and emotional energy'. The error in 'C'
6. Since the subject in the blank is 'a vast network', the verb is 'lies' not 'lie' (rules out choices is in the usage of the word 'imaginative fears' The correction is 'imaginary fears'.
(1) and (4). Choice (3) has mistakes in prepositions. In Choice (5) the word 'idea is used in Choice (3)
singular. This distorts the subject/verb agreement. Choice (2)
6. Statements A and C are incorrect. In 'A' the error is in the usage of the preposition. It is
7. Since we recognize that natural properties are of vital importance to the planet, human incorrect to say 'shortcut over', the correction is 'shortcut through'. The correction in C is
rights on these are limited by their use - they must comply with their natural function. This 'came across' 'came to' makes no sense. Choice (4)
is expressed clearly in choice (1). In choice (2) the prepositions are wrong. In choices (3),
(4)/(5) the meaning conveyed is wrong. Choice (1) 7. The statements Band 0 are incorrect. The error in B IS 'if it. .. .' The appropriate conjunction
is 'although it was ....' In 0 the error IS 'holding in', the correction IS 'holding at'.
8. The blank ends with a semi colon and the words that follow are a restatement of what has Choice (2)
gone in the blank. Only choice (5) is a statement of what follows. Some things are more
important than their things ('than other' and 'to other' make choices (1), (2) and (3) wrong). 8. B and D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The correction in B is 'the best possible'.
Choice (4) omits more. It is grammatically incorrect. Choice (5) The whole paragraph is in past tense. Hence 'will visit' in 0 makes it grammatically
inconsistent. The correction is "visited them...‖ Choice (1)
9. Only choice (4) is grammatically correct and conveys the meaning appropriately.
Choice (4) 9. The error in C is in the preposition 'to'. The correction is 'for opportunities'. Choice (2)

10. Something is stated in the given part of the sentence which is compared to something else 10. Band D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The correction in 'B' is 'transmuted into‘; it
in the blank. Hence 'just as' is correct. Between (1) and (4) only the former is correct as does not take 'for' The correction in 0 is 'properties' because they are 'diverse'.
'sparkle by thought' is wrong. Choice (5) 'conflicted' is in correct. Choice (1) Choice (2)

SPOTTING ERRORS THEME DETECTION

1. Band D are grammatically incorrect. The correction in B is 'make a favorable impression'. In 1. The text contains the following key ideas.
D the error is in the usage of 'as'. The correction is 'according to'. Choice (2) a. Small investors now have wider choice.
The new transaction tax.
2. Statement A is incorrect. It is incorrect to say 'leap and bound‘; the correction is 'leaps and b. The Finance Minister's decision.
bounds'. C is erroneous because it is not 'its' but 'it's'; which means 'it is'. D is erroneous Only 'B' captures all these elements Choice (2)
because 'hang off the cliff' is the appropriate expression. Choice (5)
2. The text contains the following key ideas.
3. A, C and D are grammatically incorrect. The correction in A is 'thought to be'. The a. ING Vysya Bank incurred losses in the first quarter.
correction in C is 'also a rich source'. The error in D is 'essential to', the correction is b. The main reason for incurring losses is its high expenses.
'essential for'. Choice (3) Only 'E' captures all these elements. Choice (5)

4. B. C and D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The error in 'B' is in the usage of the 3. The text contains the following key ideas.
preposition 'to'. The correction is 'through'. The correction in C is 'the wild' because the a. The Union Coal and Mines Minister is absconding after being accused of murder.
reference is to the forest. In 'D' the word 'calf' makes no sense. The appropriate word is b. The police have raided his house.
'cub'. Choice (1) c. The police have pasted an arrest warrant which his supporters have removed.
 Only 'D' captures all these elements. Choice (4)
PARAGRAPH FORMATION
4. The text contains the following key ideas.
a. There is a unique virus, which actually seeks permission before it spreads. 1. Sentence E is the best sentence to follow A because it traces the beginnings of movie
b. Ratter, the producer of Cabis virus has produced this virus for mobiles as well. making. The 'beyond that' in B refers to making propaga", 9.a films and (links sentence B to
Only choice 'C' captures these points. Choice (3) E). DC are linked try the chronological order. Also, C reiterates what has been said in A and
winds up the paragraph. Hence EBDC. Choice (2)
5. The text contains the following key ideas.
a. Priyamvada Birla's will has raised several questions on charitable trusts, quity shares 2. Sentence 0 follows A since it continues the line of thought - 'they' refers to the materials. B
and evasion of income tax. Only choice 'C' captures this point. and C illustrate why material should be chosen with care. Option 2 can be ruled out
Choice (3) because 'thus' in sentence (E) indicates that it is a concluding sentence. Hence DBCE.
Choice (5)

WORDS USAGE 3. C follows sentence A 'the presumption' in C explaining why Nano may be regarded as a sign
of favouring green esthetic. D and E are a pair - E explaining what is stated in D and B with
1. Choice (2) should read 'It is best' and not 'It is the best Choice (2) the word 'therefore' sums up the paragraph. Hence CDEB. Choice (4)

2. 'To break in somebody' means to 'train somebody'. Hence choice (1) is correct Choice (4) 4. The para begins with the statement that while other businesses are struggling Sun Pharma
should read 'broke down' and not 'broke out'. Choice (4) registered a growth in the September quarter. D follows, saying such a growth will continue
despite the current meltdown. B gives an illustration of how growth can continue in Sun
3. Choice (3) should read 'off guard', which means 'unawares'. Choice (3) Pharma. EC are a pair because the plans cited by Obama in E are elaborated in C. Hence
DBEC. Choice (2)
4. Choice (4) should read 'root and branch' and not 'roots and branches' (i.e., completely).
Choice (4) 5. The statement 'He is entrenched In their collective consciousness' in A is exemplified in
Band D. Since books precede movies, B precedes D. E and C are a pair. The riddle
5. 'Gone on a visit' is the correction in choice (4) Choice (4) mentioned in E is spelt out in C. Hence BDEC. Choice (5)

6. Choice (2) should read 'got wind of (i.e. some Indication) and not 'got a wind of. EXERCISE-A
Choice (2)
1. The correct option is 5 and order is DCEB. Option D follows A as A gives the reason for the
7. Choice (1) should read 'come to grips with' (i.e., to come to terms with a problem or decline of drama '!(1d option D continues with 'aside from this (reason). Option E is a
situation). Choice (1) continuation of C, this is because option C says that people wanted to see something of their
times to be reflected on the stage and option E gives the reason for this as there were no
8. Choice (3) should read 'gave the lie to ....' (i.e... to expose something as false). Choice (3) papers or magazines available at that time. Option B concludes the para as it says
Shakespeare fulfilled their (above mentioned) desire. Hence the correct option is 5 and the
9. 'To pick at food' means to eat slowly because of a lack of appetite. Hence choice (4) is a appropriate order is DCEB. Choice (5)
contradictory statement and hence is incorrect. Choice (4)
2. The correct option is 4. The correct order is BCED. Option B carries the idea of 'towers'
10. 'Playing with fire' and not 'playing with the fire' is the standard idiomatic expression. forward hence is the continuation of option' A. Now, option C talks 'about heating crude oil
Choice (5) till it becomes vapor and option E talks about these vapors rising according to their boiling
point. Hence E follows C. The idea of 'higher the vapor goes, the cooler it becomes' is
carried forward in option D which concludes the para, hence the appropriate order is
 BCED. Choice (4) ‗Boot‘ means to kick or start (as in computers). ‗Boost‘ means cause something to improve
or increase and suits the context. Hence B.
3. The correct option is 4. The correct order is DBCE. Here an option D talk about Aristotle‘s ‗Sign‘ is a signal. It can also refer to signature but here ‗signature‘ is appropriate. Hence B.
statement and option B reinforces this. Option C is a continuation of this idea especially th~ The answer is BBABB Choice (3)
continuation of option B as 'they' refers to 'learned men' of Galileo's time, hence option C
follows B. Option E is the continuation. to be precise appropriate link between the first 3. ‗Quizzical‘ means puzzling and collocates with looks. ‗Quixotic‘ on the other hand refers to
statement, through all the options up to the final statement and forms the appropriate something strange or odd. Hence A.
conclusion for the paragraph. The appropriate option is 4. ‗Moribund‘ refers to something that is close to death while ‗morbid‘ refers to an interest in
Choice (4) unpleasant things. Hence B.
‗Clip the wings‘ is the correct expression. Hence A.
4. The correct option is 1. The correct order is BEDC. The first sentence (A) talks about a Thatched is used with roof and refers to one made of grass, hay or leaves. Hatch is to plan.
society where man seldom exchanges his goods. Option B is the continuation of this. Option Hence A.
E in turn is a continuation of B. Option D follows E as the idea of produce by a man in a ‗To blow one‘s trumpet‘ is the correct expression and it means ‗make much of one‘s own
society which believes in division of labor is carried forward in option D. Hence the correct achievements‗. Hence A.
order is BEDC. Choice (1) The answer is ABAAA Choice (1)

5. The correct option is 4. The correct order is CBDE. Option C is a continuation of A as 'It' 4. ‗Lunge‘ is to move suddenly in a particular direction. Plunge is used to show movement in a
refers to the 'culture' mentioned in option A. Now 'such things' mentioned in option D particular direction, especially into water. Hence A.
refer to the 'products of mental activity' mentioned in option B. Hence option D should Hail is to call someone loudly. It can also mean small balls of ice that fall like rain. ‗Hale and
follow B. 'This mental activity' in option B refers to the culture, hence B should follow C. E hearty‘ is to be in good health. Hence B.
forms the concluding statement. The correct order is CBDE. Choice (4) ‗Causality‘ refers to the cause and effect of something. ‗Casualty‘ refers to people who are
injured or killed. Hence A.

SENTENCE FORMATION Proxy means allowing someone for you. ‗Proximity‘ refers to nearness and suits the context.
Hence A.
‗Alley‘ is a narrow line or a passage while ‗allay‘ means to set aside or stop and suits the
1. ‗Precocious‘ refers to adult behavior or talk that a child indulges in. ‗Precarious‘ means context. Hence A.
dangerous which suits the context. Hence A. The answer is ABAAA Choice (4)
To be ‗pretentious‘ is to try to be more important and significant than one is. To have
pretentions to something is to claim to be or to do that thing which suits the context. Hence 5. ‗Sever‘ means to cut off while ‗Severe‘ means an excess of something. The former suits the
B. context. Hence A
‗Minor‘ means not very serious. Miner is a person who works in mines. Hence A. ‗Suit‘ is a two or three piece clothing that is worn on formal occasions. ‗Suite‘ refers to a set
‗Emergent‘ means emerging or growing. Emigrant is a person who leaves his country to of rooms in a hotel. Hence B.
settle in another country. Hence A. ‗Exhort‘ is to persuade or to enthuse while ‗extort‘ means to get by fore blackmail or by
‗Behold‘ means to view or see. ‗Be hove‘ means it is right, necessary or useful to do other means. Hence A.
something. Hence A. ‗Exterminate‘ is to kill while ‗Extenuating‘ means circumstances or factors that excuse the
The answer is ABAAA Choice (4) commission of a particular act. Hence B.
‗Pear‘ is a fruit like an apple while ‗pare‘ means to cut down. Hence A.
2. Who‘s is sort for ‗who is‘ while those is a personal pronoun and suits the context. Hence B. The answer is ABABA Choice (1)
‗Ran foul of‘ is an expression which means do something which gets into trouble. ‗Fowl‘
refers to poultry. Hence B. EXERCISE-A
‗Passed up‘ means lets go or lose. ‗Past‘ refers to time gone by. Hence A.
1. In part C the preposition 'to' is faulty and should be replaced by 'with'. In part E again
'beyond' should be replaced by against, parts A, Band D are correct. Choice (3) MATCHING DEFINITIONS
2. In part A there should be no apostrophe after 1960, hence it is faulty. In part B the noun in 1. The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'H'. 'BE' is the right combination 'F' matches 'C',
apposition V.S. Naipaul should have comma before and after it, therefore it is incorrect thus, '4' is the answer. Choice (4)
parts C, D and E are correct. Choice (1)
2. The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'F'. All choices begin with 'F'.'BG' is the right
3. Parts A, Band E are correct. In part C it should be a plural noun 'advocates', since it is combination. Thus, choices '3' '4' and '5' can be ruled out 'H' matches 'C'. Thus, '1' is the
always one of the many In part D the definite article 'the' is missing before worlds, answer. Choice (1)
therefore it is faulty. Choice (5)
3. The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'G'. Thus, options '1' and '2' and '5' can be ruled out.
4. In part A the verb should be in the 'singular in order to agree with its singular subject. It 'BE' is the right combination. 'F' matches 'C'. Thus '4' is the answer. Choice (4)
should therefore be subjects. In part B immanent is wrongly spelt. In part E 'to' infinitive is
appropriate. It should be 'to extend'. Parts C and D are correct Choice (5) 4. The meaning implied in 'A' IS stated in E. Thus, options '1' and '4' and '5' can be ruled out.
'H' matches 'B' 'CF' is the right combination. Thus, '3' is the answer. Choice (3)
5. In part A the correct spelling should be dictum, hence it is faulty. In part C the past perfect
tense 'had done' should be used. In part E 'make' is correct as they 'were going to make
history' moves only part D is correct. Choice (2) READING COMPREHENSION
6. In part A the apostrophe should be before‘s' in EXERCISE-1
Shelley's. In part E the definite article 'the' is missing before vanity. Parts B, C and D are
correct. Choice (2) 1. Choice 3 is characteristic of submarine canyons but not of land canyons. Refer to the last
sentence of para1. Choice (3)
7. Parts A, C, D and E are correct. In part B the indefinite article a is missing before
newspaper. Choice (4) 2. Refer to Para 3. Both choices 1 and 2 are true. Choice (4)

8. In part A 'economical' as an adjective means using the minimum amount of time, effort that 3. Refer to the last sentence of Para 3. Choice (1)
is necessary, which is not suitable is this context. The adjective 'economic', concerned with
the organization of money, industry and trade, is more appropriate. Hence part A is faulty. 4. ‗Active‘ means dynamic
In part B the conjunction 'but' cannot be used as the Ideas are not contrasted 'And' should ‗marine‘ means ocean
be used instead. In part D the preposition 'up' is Incorrect. Parts C and E are correct." ‗processes‘ are forces. Choice (4)
Choice (5)
5. The verb ‗shoaling‘ means creating a shallow, although ‗shoal‘ (noun) means a swarm of
9. Parts A, Band E are correct. In part C it should be 'organizational ability' as it pertains or fish. Choice (2)
relates to the way events are planned and arranged. In option D 'grandest' is already a
superlative, hence 'most' is incorrect. Choice (4) 6. Refer to Para 3, lines 4-8. Choice (5)

10. In part A instead of 'in' it should be 'on' hence A is faulty. In part E the definite article 'the' 7. Refer to the last sentence of para 4. Choice (1)
is missing before 'coming'. Therefore E is faulty. Parts B, C and D are correct.
Choice (3) 8. Refer to para 2, line 2. Choice (3)

9. Refer to Para 2, line 10. Choice (2)

 submarine levees sandstone deposits, gravel and sand are all mentioned. The first sentence

EXERCISE-2 of the para negates 4 since turbidities have never been directly observed. Choice (4)

28. Refer to the secorid point (lines 11 - 12) in the fourth para. Choice (5)
10. Refer to para 2, line 5. Choice (3)
29. Refer to para 4, point 4, line 29 Choice (4)
11. Refer to para 7 - choice 2 is not a right inference. Choice (2)
30. The passage explains choices 2, 3, 4 and 5. Only 1 is not explained. Choice (1)
12. Refer to para 1, line 8. Choice (1)

13. Refer to para 1, lines 7 - 8. Choice (2) EXERCISE-4

14. Refer to para 3. Choice (4) 31. Statement 1 is true - para 3, lines 1 - 2. Statement II is true - para 1, line 3. Choice (2)

15. Refer to para 2. Choice (5) 32. Choice 3 is incorrect - it was not 84 but 64 soldiers (refer to para 7 penultimate line).
Choice (3)
16. Refer to para 8, lines 4 - 6. Choice (1)
33. Refer to the last para, lines 4 - 7. Choice (1)
17. Refer to the last sentence of para 8. Choice (2)
34. Refer to para 5, lines 1 - 3. Choice (4)
18. Refer to para 9. Choice (5)
35. Refer to para 7, line 7. Choice (2)
19. Refer to para 10, lines 1 - 3. Choice (3)
36. Refer to para 4, last sentence. Choice (2)
20. Choice 4 is the odd man since it is negative statement about a food while all the others are
positive statements about different foods. Choice (4) 37. Refer to the penultimate para, choice 1 and 2 are true. Choice (4)

EXERCISE-3 38. None of the choices 1, 2 and 3 can be inferred from the passage. Choice (5)

21. Refer to para 1, line 4 (because it is' warmer and less saline) Choice (1)
EXERCISE-5
22. Refer to para 2, lines 4 - 5. Choice (3)
39. Refer to the last four lines of para 4. Choice (3)
23. Refer to para 3, lines 1 - 2. Choice (5)
40. Refer to the first four lines of para 5 which make statement I true. Statement II is not true -
24. Refer to lines 5 - 4 from the end of para 2. Choice (4) Smith was ready to allow protectionism and tariffs, in certain cases (line 1 of penultimate
para). Choice (1)
25. Refer to para 2, lines 9 - 10. Choice (2)
41. Statement I is negated by the last sentence of the passage. Statement II is negated by the first
26. Refer to para 4, lines 6 - 7. Choice (3) sentence of the last para. Statement III negates everything that Adam Smith stands for (para
2, line 1). Hence all the three statement are false. Choice (5)
27. Refer to para 4 where the evidences supporting turbidities are cited Telegraph cables,
42. Refer to para 1. Choice (2)

43. The first sentence in para 3 shows statement I to be true. The end of para 2 show statement
II to be true. The last 2 sentences of para 5 show statement III to be true. Choice (4)

44. Refer to para 5, line 1-3. The right policies of the government are essential to ensure low
prices and good supplies. Choice (3)

45. Refer to the last line of para 6 – the mechanism by which cell phones affect living tissue is
not known. Hence for the case against cell phones to be proved the connection will have to
be established. Choice (2)

46. Statement I is true – para 7 last line.

Statement II is false – para 6.
Statement III is true – para 7. Choice (4)

47. Statement 3 is false – refer to para 6. Choice (3)

48. Larry King is a prominent personality on a T.V. channel – refer to para 4 – the Larry King
show. Choice (1)

49. Refer to the first 4 paras. Choice (5)

50. Refer to the first line of the penultimate para. Choice (2)