CIVIL ENGINEERING

1. A good building stone should not absorb water more than

a) 5 % b) 10 % c) 15 % d) 20 % Ans: a
2. Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than
a) 50 MPa b) 100 MPa c) 150 MPa d) 200 MPa Ans: b

3. Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between

a) 1.5 to 2.0 b) 2.0 to 2.5 c) 2.5 to 3.0 d) 3.0 to 3.5 Ans: c

4. The age of a tree can be known by examining

a) cambium layer b) annular rings
c) medullary rays d) heart wood Ans: b

5. Common sand is a variety of

a) caicite b) quartz c) felspar d) chlorite Ans: b

6. The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is

a) 5 % b) 15 % c) 25 % d) 35 % Ans: b

7. Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than

a) 3.5 N/mm2 b) 7.0 N/mm2 c) 10.5 N/mm2 d) 14.0 N/mm2 Ans: c

8. The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between

a) 5 to 10 % b) 20 to 30 % c) 50 to 60 % d) 70 to 80 % Ans: b

9. The nominal size of the modular brick is

a) 190 mm x 90 mm x 80 mm b) 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
c) 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm d) 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm Ans: c

10. Le Chatelier's device is used for determining the

a) setting time of cement b) soundness of cement
c) tensile strength of cement d) compressive strength of cement Ans: b

11. According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary Portland cement after three days should not
be less than
a) 7 MPa b) 11.5 MPa c) 16 MPa d) 21 MPa Ans: c

12. For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and
standard sand in the proportions of
a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:4 d) 1:6 Ans: b

13. The slump recommended for mass concrete is about

a) 25 mm to 50 mm b) 50 mm to 100 mm
c) 100 mm to 125 mm d) 125 mm to 150 mm Ans: a

14. Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams?
a) ordinary Portland cement b) low heat cement
c) rapid hardening cement d) sulphate resisting cement Ans: b
15. Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in
i) better workability
ii) better resistance to freezing and thawing
iii) lesser workability
iv) less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iv) c) (ii) and (iii) d) (iii) and (iv) Ans: a

16. Red colour is imparced to bricks due to

a) ironoxide b) lime c) silica d) magnesia Ans: a

17. The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is

a) to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
b) to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
c) to render the concrete more water tight
d) to improve the workability of concrete mix Ans: a

18. Compared to mild steel, cast iron has

i) high compressive strength
ii) high tensile strength
iii) low compressive strength
iv) low tensile strength
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (i) and (iv) Ans: a

19. The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
a) along the direction of bedding planes
b) at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
c) at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
d) perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes Ans: d

20. The depression provided in the face of brick during its manufacturing is known as
a)Indentation b) Anchorage c) Well d) Frog Ans: d

21. The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
a) single Flemish bond b) double Flemish bond
c) English bond d) zigzag bond Ans: c

22. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are
a) 1:2 b) 1:4 c) 1:6 d) 1:8 Ans: a

23. The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandy soils should not exceed
a) 25 mm b) 40 mm c) 65 mm d) 100 mm Ans: a

24. In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is
to
a) increase the depth of foundation b) drain the soil
c) compact the soil d) replace the poor soil Ans: d

25. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
a) raft foundation b) grillage foundation
c) well foundation d) isolated footing Ans: b

26. The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is

a) 0.5 m b) 0.7 m c) 0.9 m d) 1.2 m Ans: c

27. The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by

a) compacting the soil b) draining the soil
c) increasing the depth of foundation d) grouting Ans: b

28. The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor
covering is desired is
a) cork flooring b) glass flooring
c) wooden flooring d) linoleum flooring Ans: a

29. The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the inner curve of an arch is known as
a) intrados b) rise c) spandrel d) extrados Ans: b

30. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between

a)10-20% b)20-30% c) 30-40% d)40-50% Ans: c

31. Swelling of bricks is known as

a)bloating b) lamination c)chuffs d)efflorescence Ans: a

32. Fire bricks are used

a)to reflect heat b)to increase heat flow c)to decrease heat flow Ans: c

33. Depth or height of the arch is the

a) perpendicular distance between intrados and extrados
b) vertical distance between springing line and intrados
c) perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
d) none of the above Ans: a

34. The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is
known as
a) haunch b) spandrel c) voussoirs d) skewbacks Ans: b

35. The lintels are preferred to arches because

a) arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
b) arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
c) arches are difficult in construction
d) all of the above Ans: d

36. In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for

a) centering b) actual laying of arch work
c) striking of centering d) none of the above Ans: c
37. The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the
load of the wall above is
a) segmental arch b) pointed arch
c) relieving arch d) flat arch Ans: c
38. The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is
a) pitched and sloping roof b) flat roof
c) shell roof d) none of the above Ans: b

39. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for

a) coastal regions b) plain regions
c) covering large areas d) all of the above Ans: a

50. Quick lime is

a) calcium oxide b) calcium hydroxide
c) calcium carbonate d) none of the above Ans: a

51. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as
a) gable roof b) hip roof c) gambrel roof d) mansard roof Ans: c

52. Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in

a) two directions without break in the slope on each side
b) two directions with break in the slope on each side
c) four directions without break in the slope on each side
d) four directions with break in the slope on each side Ans: d

53. Higher pitch of the roof

i) results in stronger roof
ii) results in weaker roof
iii) requires more covering material
iv) requires less covering material
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii) b) (i) and (iv) c) (ii) and (iii) d) (ii) and (iv) Ans: a

54. The function of king post in a king post roof truss is

a) to support the frame work of the roof
b) to receive the ends of principal rafter
c) to prevent the walls from spreading outward
d) to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre Ans: d

55. The thickness of each leaf of a cavity wall shall not be less than
a) 5 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 10 cm d) 15 cm Ans: b

56. For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be
a) 5 to 8 cm b) 9 to 13 cm c) 14 to 18 cm d) 19 to 23 cm Ans: b

57. Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than
a) 50 % b) 60 % c) 70 % d) 80 % Ans: c

58. Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean mortars because rich mortars have
a) high shrinkage b) less strength
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of above Ans: a

59. Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not used in masonry because
(i) there is no gain in strength of masonry (ii) there is high shrinkage (iii) they
are prone to segregation Of these statements
a) Only (ii) is correct b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct Ans: b

60. Consider the following statements:

A high lime content in a composite cement-lime mortar results in
1. slow hardening.
2. quick setting.
3. weaker mortar. Of these statements
a) 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Ans: c

61. Consider the following statements: Sand in mortar is needed for

1. decreasing the quantity of cement.
2. reducing shrinkage.
3. decreasing the surface area of the binding material.
4. increasing the strength.
Of these statements:
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2 and 4 are correct Ans: a

62. Direct load carrying capacity of a brick masonry wall standing freely as against when it supports RC slab will
be
a) more b) less
c) the same in both the cases d) 100% Ans: b

63. Hydrographic survey deals with the mapping of

a) Large water bodies b) rainfall data
c) wave movement d) none of the above Ans: a

64. In surveying when curvature of earth is taken into consideration then that type is called as –
a) Chain surveying b) Geodetic surveying
c) Plane surveying d) Contouring Ans: b

65. Following is the term used in leveling while reduction of levels

a) Zero circle b) Height of Instrument
c) Fore bearing d) Local attraction Ans: b

66. In leveling, for taking levels of ground one of the following instrument is used
a) Prismatic compass b) Plane table
c) Dumpy level d) Prism square Ans: c

67. The least count of prismatic compass is

a) 10’ b) 30’ c)15’ d)20” Ans: c
68. In leveling work the diagram where each line is having points of equal elevations is called as-
(a) Contour map
(b) survey map
(c) topographic map
(d) Survey map Ans: a

69. The prismatic compass and surveyor's compass

a) give whole circle bearing (WCB) of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB) of a line respectively
b) both give QB of a line and WCB of a line
c) both give QB of a line
d) both give WCB of a line Ans: a

70. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is called
a) azimuth b) declination
c) local attraction d) magnetic bearing Ans: b

71. A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the

a) eastern side of the true meridian
b) western side of the true meridian
c) southern side of the true meridian
d) none of the above Ans: b

72. Agate cap is fitted with a

a) cross staff b) level
c) chain d) prismatic compass Ans: d

73. Theodolite is an instrument used for

a) tightening the capstan-headed nuts of level tube
b) measurement of horizontal angles only

c) measurement of vertical angles only

d) measurement of both horizontal and vertical angles Ans: d

74. The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane
is known as
a) transiting b) reversing c) plunging d) swinging Ans: d

75. Size of a theodolite is specified by

a) the length of telescope b) the diameter of vertical circle
c) the diameter of lower plate d) the diameter of upper plate Ans: c

76. Which of the following is not the function of levelling head?

a) to support the main part of the instrument
b) to attach the theodolite to the tripod
c) to provide a means for leveling the theodolite
d) none of the above Ans: d

77. The needle of magnetic compass is generally supported on

a) Ball bearing b) bush bearing
c) needle bearing d) jewel bearing Ans: c

78. The box of prismatic compass is made of

a) steel b) brass c) iron d) aluminium Ans: b

79. A 'level line' is a

a) horizontal line

b) line parallel to the mean spheriodal surface of earth

c) line passing through the center of cross hairs and the center of eye piece

d) line passing through the objective lens and the eye-piece of a dumpy or tilting level Ans: b

80. The following sights are taken on a "turning point"

a) foresight only b) backsight only
c) foresight and backsight d) foresight and intermediate sight Ans: c

81. The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on
a) backsight b) intermediate sight
c) foresight d) all of the above Ans: d

82. In an internal focussing type of telescope, the lens provided is

a) concave b) convex c) plano-convex d) plano-concave Ans: a

83. Which of the following instrument s used for measurement of angles

a) Geodimeter b) tellurometer c) sextant d) telescope Ans: c

84. The difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that
a) level line is a curved line while horizontal line is a straight line
b) level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line may not be normal to plumb line at the tangent point to
level line
c) horizontal line is normal to plumb line while level line may not be normal to the plumb line
d) both are same Ans: a

85. The permissible limits of error in chaining for measurement on rough or hilly ground is
a) 1:2000 b) 1:1000 c) 1:500 d) 1:250 Ans: a

86. The scale on which three dimensions can be measured is known as

a) Plain scale b) diagonal scale
c) shrunk scale d) comparative scale Ans: d

87. Dumpy level is most suitable when

a) the instrument is to be shifted frequently
b) fly levelling is being done over long distance
c) many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument
d) all of the above Ans: c
88. The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best results, the instrument
station should be
a) equidistant from A and B
b) closer to the higher station
c) closer to the lower station
d) as far as possible from the line AB Ans: c

89. Contour interval is

a) inversely proportional to the scale of the map
b) directly proportional to the flatness of ground
c) larger for accurate works
d) larger if the time available is more Ans: a

90. An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal
is known as
a) contour line b) horizontal equivalent
c) contour interval d) contour gradient Ans: d

91. Select the correct statement.

a) A contour is not necessarily a closed curve.
b) A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value contour lies towards the higher value
contour.
c) Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an overhanging cliff.
d) All of the above statements are correct. Ans: c

92. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a

a) steep slope b) gentle slope
c) uniform slope d) plane surface Ans: a

93. Direct method of contouring is

a) a quick method b) adopted for large surveys only
c) most accurate method d) suitable for hilly terrains Ans: c

94. The maximum allowable limit upto that a measurement may vary from the true value is known as

a) permissible error b) residual error

c) expected error d) safe error Ans: c

95. Generally while chaining, the arrow which accompany with one chain must be
a) 3 nos. b) 5 nos. c) 10 nos. d) 12 nos. Ans: b

96. As per Indian standard, the length of one link in 30 metre chain should be
a) 20 cm b) 30 cm c) 40 cm d) 10 cm Ans: a

97. In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a contour is called
a) ranging b) centring
c) horizontal control d) vertical control Ans: d

98. Select the correct statement.

a) Contour interval on any map is kept constant.
b) Direct method of contouring is cheaper than indirect method.
c) Inter-visibility of points on a contour map cannot be ascertained.
d) Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of contours Ans: a

99. Contour interval is

a) the vertical distance between two consecutive contours
b) the horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
c) the vertical distance between two points on same contour
d) the horizontal distance between two points on same contour Ans: a

100. The type of surveying which requires least office work is

a) tacheometry b) trigonometrical levelling
c) plane table surveying d) theodolite surveying Ans: c

101. Strength of concrete increases with

a) increase in water-cement ratio b) increase in fineness of cement
c) decrease in curing time d) decrease in size of aggregate Ans: b

102. Increase in the moisture content in concrete

a) reduces the strength b) increases the strength
c) does not change the strength d) all of these Ans: a

103. Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called
a) workability admixtures b) accelerators
c) retarders d) air entraining agents Ans: b

104. The percentage of voids in cement is approximately

a) 25% b) 40% c) 60% d) 80% Ans: b

105. As compared to ordinary Portland cement, high alumina cement has

a) higher initial setting time but lower final setting time
b) lower initial setting time but higher final setting time
c) higher initial and final setting times
d) lower initial and final setting times Ans: a

106. The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is

i) to increase shrinkage
ii) to decrease shrinkage
iii) to increase setting time
iv) to decrease setting time
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii) b) (i)and(iv) c) (ii) and (iii) d) (ii) and (iv) Ans: b

107. Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of

a) flexural tensile strength b) direct tensile strength
c) compressive strength d) split tensile strength Ans: a

108. Air entrainment in the concrete increases

a) workability b) strength
c) the effects of temperature variations d) the unit weight Ans: a

109. Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to

a) time of transit b) water-cement ratio
c) the air in the mix d) size of aggregate Ans: a

110. 1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about

a) 5 % b) 10 % c) 15 % d) 20 % Ans: a

111. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of

a) 2.0 to 3.5 b) 3.5 to 5.0 c) 5.0 to 7.0 d) 6.0 to 8.5 Ans: a

112. The factor of safety for

a) steel and concrete are same
b) steel is lower than that for concrete
c) steel is higher than that for concrete Ans: b
113. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456- 1978 is
a) M15 b) M20 c) M 10 d) M25 Ans: a
114. A higher modular ratio shows
a) higher compressive strength of concrete
b) lower compressive strength of concrete
c) higher tensile strength of steel
d) lower tensile strength of steel Ans: b
115. For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum permissible size of aggregate, is
A. 4 mm B. 6 mm C. 8 mm D. 10 mm Ans: d
116.P ick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of cement
A. Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
B. Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
C. Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
D. Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 Ans: a
117. The concrete slump recommended for foundations, is
A. 25 to 50 mm
B. 30 to 125 mm
C. 50 to 100 mm
D. 75 to 125 mm Ans: c
118. Bearing capacity of soils cannot be improved by
A. draining sub-soil water
B. ramming crushed stone in soil
C. driving sand piles
D. watering surface of soil Ans: d
119. To support a heavy structure in sandy soil, the type of foundation generally used, is
A. combined footing
B. raft footing
C. pier footing
D. strap footing Ans: c
120. The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on
a) degree of permeability of roof b) slope of roof
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above Ans: b
121. Concrete contains
(i)Siliceous aggregates, having higher coefficient of expansion
(ii)Igneous aggregates, having intermediate coefficient of expansion
(iii)Lime stones, having lowest coefficient of expansion
[ A ] i and iii [ B ] ii and iii [ C ] i and ii [ D ] i, ii and iii Ans: d
122. Select the incorrect statement
[ A ] R.C.C has better fire resistance than steel
[ B ] R.C.C. structure is economical than steel structure
[ C ] Strength of concrete decreases as age increases
[ D ] R.C.C can be used for under water and marine structures Answer : C
123. Water cement ratio is the ratio of
[ A ] Water to cement by weight
[ B ] Water to cement by volume
[ C ] Cement to water by weight
[ D ] Cement to water by volume Answer : A
124. Concrete is
[ A ] Weak in tension
[ B ] Strong in tension
[ C ] Strong in both tension and compression
[ D ] Weak in compression Answer : A
125. The strength and quality of concrete depends upon
(i)Grading of aggregates (ii)Shape of aggregates
(iii)Surface area of aggregates (iv)Surface texture of aggregates
[ A ] i, ii and iv [ B ] ii, iii and iv
[ C ] i, iii and iv [ D ] i, ii, iii and iv Answer : D
126. In order to avoid segregation, fresh concrete should be dropped from a height of
[ A ] Less than one meter [ B ] Less than two metres
[ C ] More than one metre [ D ] More than two metres Answer : A
127. The process of hardening of concrete in the presence of water is called
[ A ] Creep [ B ] Hydration [ C ] Shrinkage [ D ] Curing Answer : B
128. The process of keeping the concrete structure moist is called
[ A ] Hydration [ B ] Curing [ C ] Creep [ D ] Shrinkage Answer : B
129. The separation of water or water cement mixture from the freshly laid concrete is known as
[ A ] Workability [ B ] Segregation [ C ] Bleeding [ D ] Creep Answer : C
130. The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external loads is called
[ A ] Creep [ B ] Bleeding [ C ] Workability [ D ] Segregation Answer : A
131. The process of conversion of plastic concrete to solid stage is called

[ A ] Hydration [ B ] Hardening [ C ] Setting [ D ] Curing Answer : C

132. At 28 days of curing concrete attains a strength of

[ A ] 20 to 25% [ B ] 60 to 70% [ C ] 65 to 80% [ D ] 90 to 95% Answer : D

133. In a mass concrete, the aggregates occupy a space of

[ A ] 25% [ B ] 75% [ C ] 40% [ D ] 60% Answer : B

134. The coarse aggregate which possess the property of good interlocking are

[ A ] rounded shape [ B ] elongated shape

[ C ] angular shape [ D ] none of the above Answer : C

135. While placing of concrete the thickness of each layer for R.C.C. is

[ A ] 150 to 300 mm [ B ] 450 mm [ C ] 500 to 750 mm [ D ] 500 mm Answer : A

136. Increase in water content in a cement concrete

(i) Increases workability (ii) Increases the strength

[ A ] i [ B ] ii [ C ] both (i) and (ii) [ D ] neither (i) nor (ii) Answer : A

137. Slump cone test is used to determine

[ A ] Shrinkage of concrete mix [ B ] Creep of concrete

[ C ] Workability of concrete mix [ D ] Soundness of concrete Answer : C

138. While determining the workability of concrete mix, the compaction factor test is ------than the slump cone test
[ A ] Less accurate [ B ] More accurate

[ C ] Approximate method [ D ] None of the above Answer : B

139. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by

[ A ] Tensile strength test [ B ] Slump cone test

[ C ] Compaction factor test [ D ] Flexural strength test Answer : C

140. If the slump of a concrete mix is 50 to 100 mm, its workability is

[ A ] Very low [ B ] Low

[ C ] Medium [ D ] High Answer : C

141. A compaction factor of 0.75 indicates ________workability

[ A ] Very low [ B ] Low [ C ] Medium [ D ] High Answer : A

142. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using

(i) Low water cement ratio (ii) More amount of cement in the concrete

(iii) Presaturated aggregates

[ A ] I [ B ] i and ii [ C ] i and iii [ D ] i, ii and iii Answer : C

143. The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of proportion, is
known as

[ A ] Curing [ B ] Mixing [ C ] Grading [ D ] Batching Answer : D

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A portion of a brick cut longitudinally with one long face uncut is a

a) Bat b) Bed c) Closer d) Quoin

2. Alternate courses of stretchers and headers are there in ________ bond.

a) Flemish b) Raking c) Facing d) English

3. A timber piece, which is attached in an inclined position, within a frame is known as

a) Million b) Louver c) Sash d) Style

4. The function of Calcium Sulphate in cement is to

a) Increase strength b) Increase initial setting time

c) Impart colour d) Increase workability

5. Initial setting time of cement is controlled by the addition of ————— during the process of grinding.

a) Gypsum b) calcium c) Sodium d) Potassium

6. Resistance to penetration is known as

a) Toughness b) Hardness c) Compressive strength d) Impact value

7. Density of cement is

a) 2400 Kg/m3 b) 1640 Kg/m3 c) 2500 Kg/m3 d) 1440 Kg/m3

8. Carbon content of Mild steel is about

a) 0.1 to 0.25% b) 0.25 to 0.6% c) 0.6 to 1.1% d) None of the above

9. Density of steel is

a) 8750 Kg/m3 b) 7850 Kg/m3 c) 7580 Kg/m3 d) 8580 Kg/m3

10. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as
a) Moulding b) Kneading c) Pugging d) Tempering

11. In a mortar, the binding material is

A.cement B.sand C. surkhi D. cinder.

12.Ultimate strength to cement is provided by

A.Tricalcium silicate B.Di-calcium silicate C. Tri-calcium aluminate D. Tetra calcium alumino ferrite.

13. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less than

A.30 minutes B. 50 minutes C.75 minutes D. 90 minutes.

14. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber

A. cracks B. shrinks C. reduces to powder D. none of these.

15. A badly mixed cement concrete results in

A. segregation B. bleeding C. honey combing D. none to these.

16Quick setting cement is produced by adding

A. less amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form

B. more amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form

C. aluminium sulphate in very fine powdered form

D. pozzolana in very fine powdered form

17.Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable concrete, is

A. 0.30 B. 0.40 C. 0.50 D. 0.60

18.The size of modular bricks, is

A. 10 x 10 x 9 cm B. 19 x 9 x 9 cm C. 22.5 x 10 x 8.5 cm D. 22.5 x 8.0 x 9 cm.

19.The minimum compressive strength of 1st class bricks should be

A. 75 kg/cm2 B. 90 kg/cm2 C. 100 kg/cm2 D. 120 kg/cm2

20. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon

A.quality of water B. quantity of aggregate C. quantity of cement D. water-cement

ratio.

21Seasoning of timber is done for

A. increasing moisture content B.decreasing moisture content

C. increasing strength of timber D. none to these.

22. According to IS 399-1963, the weight of the timber is specified at

A. 8% moisture content B. 10% moisture content

C. 12% moisture content D. 14% moisture content.

23. The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement, is

A. slate B. sand stone C. lime stone D. basalt.

24. The normal curing period for lime mortar, is:

A. one day B. 3 days C. 7 days D. 10 days

25. Asbestos cement

A. is brittle B.warps due to changes in humidity

C. strength is lowered when saturated by water D. all the above.

26. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as

A. strip footing B. strap footing C. combined footing D. raft footing

27. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase

A. strength B. workability C. stability of structure D. all the above.

28. The 9 cm x 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as

A. stretcher B. face C. front D. header

29. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its

A. bearing capacity is low B. permeability is uncertain

C. particles are cohesive

D. property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content.

30. The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called

A. closer B. half brick C. bed D. bat.

31. The exterior angle between outer faces of a wall, is known as

A. turn B. junction C. quoin D. all the above.

32. The inclined surface of an abutment to receive the arch, is known as

A. skew back B. soffit C. spandrel D. haunch.

33. In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually limited to

A. 15 mm B. 25 mm C. 35 mm D. 45 mm

34. In grillage foundations a minimum 15 cm cover is provided on

A. upper flange of top tier B. lower beam of lower tier

C. ends of external beams D. none to these.

35. To obtain good bonding in brick masonry

A. first class bricks are used B. vertical joints in alternate courses are kept in plumb line

C. bats are used where necessary D. all the above.

36. Raft foundations are used for :

A. providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil

B. spanning over small soft or loose pockets

C. counter acting the hydrostatic effect

D. all the above.

37. An arch constructed with finely dressed stones, is known

A. ashlar arch B. rubble arch C. gauged arch D. axed arch.

38 The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support heavy
concentrated structural loads, is known as

A. combined footing B. strap footing C. raft footing D. none of these.

39. The lower half portion between crown and skew back of the arch, is called

A. spandrel B. haunch C. springing D. soffit.

40. A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as

A. cornice B. coping C. frieze D. lintal.

41. The depth of concrete bed of the foundation depends upon

A. the projection of the concrete block beyond the footing over it

B. the upward soil pressure C. the mix of the concrete

D. all the above.

42. The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called

A. random rubble masonry B. course rubble masonry

C. uncoursed rubble masonry D. ashlar masonry.

43. The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is called

A. Flemish bond B. English bond C. Stretcher bond D. Header bond.

44. The inner section of a cavity wall, is generally known as

A. buttress B. leaf wall C. pilaster D. pillar.

45. The depth of excavation of foundations, is generally measured with a

A. ranging rod B. steel tape C. levelling staff D. bonning rod.

46. The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called

A. English bond B. Flemish bond C.Russian band D.Mixed bond.

47. The concrete slump recommended for foundations, is

A. 25 to 50 mm B. 30 to 125 mm C.50 to 100 mm D. 75 to 125 mm

48. The To construct a 10 cm thick partition wall, you will prefer

A. English bond B. Flemish bond C. Header bond D. Stretcher bond.

49. For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be

A. 1:2 B. 1:3 C. 1:4 D. 1:6

50. An arch may fail due to

A. uneven settlement of abutments B.sliding of voussoirs

C. crushing of the material D.all the above.

51. The local swelling of a finished plaster, is termed

A. cracking B. dubbing C.blistering D. hacking.

52. Pile foundations are suitable for

A. water logged soils B. soft rocks C. compact soils D. multistoreyed buildings

53. The nominal thickness of one brick wall in mm, is

A. 90 mm B. 150 mm C. 190 mm D. 200 mm.

54. The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that of full brick, is
called

A. half brick B. queen closer C. king closer D. bevelled closer.

55. The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is

A. random rubble masonry B. coursed rubble masonry

C. dry rubble masonry D. ashlar masonry.

56. The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known

A. hacking B. dubbing out C. blishering D. peeling

57. The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is

A. 50 N/cm2 B. 100 N/cm2 C. 150 N/cm2 D. 200 N/cm2.

58. The wedge shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called

A. Soffits B. voussoirs C. haunchs D. spandrils.

59. The most fire resistant paints are :

A. enamel paints B. aluminium paints C. asbestos paints D. cement paints.

60. Stuco paints are suitable for

A. stone masonry B. brick walls C. both (a) and (b) D. neither (a) nor (b).

61. Smith's test of stones is performed to find out

A. the presence of soluble matter of stone B. the compressive strength of the stone

C. the hardness of the stone D. the toughness of the stone.

62. In paints, the pigment is responsible for

A. durability B. colour C. smoothness D. glassy face

63. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as

A. strip footing B. strap footing C. combined footing D. raft footing

64. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of

A. black cotton soil B. loose fine sandy soil

C. dry coarse sandy soil D. hard rocks

65. Bearing capacity of soils cannot be improved by

A. draining sub-soil water

B. ramming crushed stone in soil

C. driving sand piles

D. watering surface of soil

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2

1. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as

A. strip footing

B. strap footing

C. combined footing

D. raft footing
Answer: Option B

2. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase

A. strength

B. workability

C. stability of structure

D. all the above.

Answer: Option C

3. The 9 cm x 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as

A. stretcher B. face

C. front D. header

Answer: Option D

4. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its

A. bearing capacity is low

B. permeability is uncertain

C. particles are cohesive

D. property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content.

Answer: Option D

5. The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called

A. closer

B. half brick
C. bed

D. bat.

Answer: Option D

6.

The exterior angle between outer faces of a wall, is known as

A. turn

B. junction

C. quion

D. all the above.

Answer: Option C

7. The inclined surface of an abutment to receive the arch, is known as

A. skew back

B. soffit

C. spandril

D. haunch.

Answer: Option A

8. In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually limited to

A. 15 mm

B. 25 mm

C. 35 mm

D. 45 mm
Answer: Option B

9. In grillage foundations a minimum 15 cm cover is provided on

A. upper flange of top tier

B. lower beam of lower tier

C. ends of external beams

D. none to these.

Answer: Option B

10. To obtain good bonding in brick masonry

A. first class bricks are used

B. vertical joints in alternate courses are kept in plumb line

C. bats are used where necessary

D. all the above.

Answer: Option D

11. Raft foundations are used for :

A. providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil

B. spanning over small soft or loose pockets

C. counter acting the hydrostatic effect

D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
12. An arch constructed with finely dressed stones, is known

A. ashlar arch

B. rubble arch

C. gauged arch

D. axed arch.

Answer: Option A

13 The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support heavy
concentrated structural loads, is known as

A. combined footing

B. strap footing

C. raft footing

D. none of these.

Answer: Option C

14. The lower half portion between crown and skew back of the arch, is called

A. spandril B. haunch

C. springing D. soffit.

Answer: Option B

15. A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as

A. cornice B. coping
C. frieze D. lintal.

Answer: Option B

16. The depth of concrete bed of the foundation depends upon

A. the projection of the concrete block beyond the footing over it

B. the upward soil pressure

C. the mix of the concrete

D. all the above.

Answer: Option D

17. The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called

A. random rubble masonry

B. course rubble masonry

C. uncoursed rubble masonry

D. ashlar masonry.

Answer: Option B

18.

The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is called

A. Flemish bond

B. English bond

C. Stretcher bond

D. Header bond.
Answer: Option B

19. The inner section of a cavity wall, is generally known as

A. butress

B. leaf wall

C. pillaster

D. pillar.

Answer: Option B

20. The depth of excavation of foundations, is generally measured with a

A. ranging rod

B. steel tape

C. levelling staff

D. bonning rod.

Answer: Option D

21. The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called

A. English bond

B. Flemish bond

C. Russian band

D. Mixed bond.

Answer: Option B

22. The concrete slump recommended for foundations, is

A. 25 to 50 mm

B. 30 to 125 mm

C. 50 to 100 mm

D. 75 to 125 mm

Answer: Option C

23. The To construct a 10 cm thick partition wall, you will prefer

A. English bond

B. Flemish bond

C. Header bond

D. Stretcher bond.

Answer: Option D

24. For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be

A. 1:2 B. 1:3

C. 1:4 D. 1:6

Answer: Option C

25. An arch may fail due to

A. uneven settlement of abutments

B. sliding of voussoirs

C. crushing of the material

D. all the above.

Answer: Option D

26. The local swelling of a finished plaster, is termed

A. cracking B. dubbing

C. blistering D. hacking.

Answer: Option C

27. Pile foundations are suitable for

A. water logged soils

B. soft rocks

C. compact soils

D. multistoreyed buildings

Answer: Option A

28. The nominal thickness of one brick wall in mm, is

A. 90 mm

B. 150 mm

C. 190 mm

D. 200 mm.

Answer: Option D
29. The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that of full brick, is
called

A. half brick

B. queen closer

C. king closer

D. bevelled closer.

Answer: Option B

30. The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is

A. random rubble masonry

B. coursed rubble masonry

C. dry rubble masonry

D. ashlar masonry.

Answer: Option D

31. The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known

A. hacking

B. dubbing out

C. blishering

D. peeling

Answer: Option B

32. The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is
A. 50 N/cm2

B. 100 N/cm2

C. 150 N/cm2

D. 200 N/cm2.

Answer: Option B

33. The wedge shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called

A. Soffits B. voussoirs

C. haunchs D. spandrils.

Answer: Option B

34. The most fire resistant paints are :

A. enamel paints

B. aluminium paints

C. asbestos paints

D. cement paints.

Answer: Option C

35. Stuco paints are suitable for

A. stone masonry

B. brick walls

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: Option C

36. Smith's test of stones is performed to find out

A. the presence of soluble matter of stone

B. the compressive strength of the stone

C. the hardness of the stone

D. the toughness of the stone.

Answer: Option A

37. In paints, the pigment is responsible for

A. durability

B. colour

C. smoothness

D. glassy face

Answer: Option B

38. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as

A. strip footing

B. strap footing

C. combined footing

D. raft footing

Answer: Option B

39. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of

A. black cotton soil

B. loose fine sandy soil

C. dry coarse sandy soil

D. hard rocks

Answer: Option D

40. Bearing capacity of soils cannot be improved by

A. draining sub-soil water

B. ramming crushed stone in soil

C. driving sand piles

D. watering surface of soil

Answer: Option D

1.Sand stone is a
a.sedimentary rock b.igneous rock c. silicious rock d. both (a) and (b)
2.Lime stone is a
a. igneous rock b. sedimentary rock c. metamorphic rock d. granite rock
3.Marble is a
a. igneous rock b.sedimentary rock c. metamorphic rock d. granite rock
4.Slate is formed from the metamorphic action
a. shale b. lime stone c. sand stone d. granite
5.Gravel is a type of
a.igneous rock b. sedimentary rock c. metamorphic rock d. none of the above
6.Rocks having silica as main constituent are called
a.calcareous rocks b.argillaceous rocks c. silicious rocks d.none of the above
7.The rock having calcium carbonate as main mineral constituent, is known as main mineral constituent, is
known as
a.calcareous rock b. argillaceous rock c. silcious rock d. sandy rock
8.The tendency of minerals to split along a certain plane, is known as
a. fracture b. cleavage c. breaking d. fault
9.A stone is rejected if the water absorption is more than
a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%
10. The building stone can be dressed very easily
a. just after quarrying b. after seasoning c. after some months of quarrying d. any time
11. The preparation of surface of stones to obtain plain edges or to obtain stone of required
shape and size is known as
 a. blasting of stone b. quarrying of stone c. seasoning of stone d. dressing of stone
12. In stone masonary, the direction of pressure line is
a. parallel to natural bed b. perpendicular to natural bed
c. inclined to natural bed at 30○ d. inclined to natural bed at 45○
13. Specific gravity for most of the building stone lies between
a. 1.5 to 2.0 b. 2.0 to 2.5 c. 2.5 to 3.0 d. 3.0 to 3.5
14. Attrition test on stone is done of find out
a. compressive strength b. hardness c. rate of wear d. toughness
15. A good building stone should have
a. strength b. good appearance and colour c. resistance to fire d. hardness and toughness
16. Ingredient of the brick earth which enables the brick to retain shape is
a. alumina b. silica c. iron oxide d. magnesia
17. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
a. 10 – 20% b. 20 – 30% c. 50 – 60% d. None of the above
18. The red colour of the brick is due to
a. iron oxide b. silica c. magnesia d. alumina
19. The standard size of a brick is
a. 20 x 10 x 10 cm b. 19 x 9 x 9 cm c. 18 x 9 x 9 cm d. 18 x 8 x 8 cm

20. The normal size of a modular brick is

a. 20 x 10 x 10 cm b. 19 x 9 x 9 cm c. 18 x 9 x 9 cm d. 18 x 8 x 8 cm
21. The percentage of alumina in good brick earth lies between
a. 10 – 20% b. 20 - 30% c. 30 – 40% d. 40 – 50%
22. Excess of silica in brick earth causes
a. loss of cohesion b. impermeable c. cracking and warping on drying d. brittleness
23. Excess of alumina in a brick earth causes
a. loss of cohesion b. impermeable c. cracking and warping on drying d. brittleness
24. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
a. to impart plasticity b. too increase durability
c. to prevent shrinkage d. to increase impermeability
25. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is called
a. moulding b. tempering c. pugging d. blending
26. The process of mixing sand with the powdered natural soil to improve the quality is known
a. moulding b. tempering c. pugging d. blending
27. Excess of iron oxide in brick earth causes
a. loss of cohesion b. decay of bricks
c. the colour change i.e. from red to dark blue d. none the above
28. Lime is mixed with brick earth
a. to impart plasticity b. to increase durability
c. to prevent shrinkage d. to increase impremeability
29. For one cubic metre of brick masonary, the number of bricks required is
a. 400 b. 500. c. 5000 d. 6000
30. Advantage of clamp burning as compared to kiln burning is
a. less initial cost b. talked less time
c. when large number of bricks are required d. none of the above
31. The over ground continuous kiln is
a. Bull’s hench kiln b. Hoffman’s kiln c. Tunnel kiln d. All of the above
32. In brick masonry, frog of the brick is generally kept on
a. top face b. bottom face c. exposed face d. interior face
33. Fire bricks are used
 a. to reflect heat b. to increase heat flow c. to decrease heat flow d. all of the above
34. Terracotta is used in buildings for
a. Ornamental work b. insulation c. storage d. none of the above
35. Swelling of bricks is known as
a. Bloating b. Lamination c. Chuffs d. Efflorescence
36. The discolouration and formation of white deposits due to presence of relatively large
proportion of soluble salts in a brick is known as
a. Bloating b. Efflorescence b. Chuffs d. Nodules
37. Portion of the brick left after removing the corner equal to half the width and half the length
is called
a. Closer b. King closer c. Queen closer d. None of the above
38. Portion of the brick cut across its width and having its length equal to that of a full brick, is
known as
a. Closer b. King closer c. Queen closer d. Squint brick

39. Portion of the brick cut to form angles other than right angles in plan, is known as
a. closer b. king closer c. queen closer d. squint brick
40. In the process of brick manufacturing the pug mill is used in
a. Weathering b. Blending c. Tempering d. None of the above
41. Cause of failure of foundation of a building is/are
a. unequal settlement of soil b. withdrawal of subsoil moisture
b. lateral escape of the supporting material d. all of the above
42. Minimum load which will cause failure of a foundation is called
a. nominal strength of soil b. ultimate compressive strength of soil
c. ultimate bearing power of soil d. one of the above
43. When the walls are subjected to heavy loading and the bearing capacity of the soil is
very low, then the wall is constructed on
a. reinforced concrete footing b. column footing
c. lean concrete footing d. none of the above
44. Maximum differential settlement in case of foundations on clayey soils is usually limited
to
a. 10 mm b. 25 mm c. 40 mm d. 100 mm
45. Maximum differential settlement, in cause of foundations on sandy soils is usually
limited to
a. 10 mm b. 25 mm c. 40 mm d. 100 mm
46. Raft foundations are generally used, when the area required for individual footing is
more than
a. 25% of total area b. a. 30% of total area c. a. 40% of total area d. a. 50% of total area
47. A type of foundation in which a cantilever beam is used for joining the two footings is
a. raft footing b. strap footing c. combined footing d. none of the above
48. Fro supporting a heavy structure in a sandy soil, the type of foundation generally
preferred is
a. strap footing b. pier footing c. raft footing d. none of the above
49. Generally for a column in a workshop using Gantry cranes, the foundation to be used
should be
a. pile foundation b. grillage foundation c. raft foundation d. well foundation
50. Type of masonry in which the stones of the same height are used and the courses are
also of the same height is called
a. random rubble masonry b. coursed rubble masonry
c. uncoursed rubble d. ashlar fine masonry
51. Type of masonry in which the stones of irregular size and shapes are used and there are
no regular courses is called
a. riubble masonry b. coursed rubble masonry
c. uncoursed rubble masonry d. polygonal rubble masonry
52. A horizontal layer of bricks laid in mortar or sometimes without mortar is known as
a. bond b. course c. brick masonry d. all of the above
53. In a single day the maximum height of masonry to be raised should not be more than
a. 0.5 m b. 1 m c. 1.5 m d. 2 m
54. The interior or hearting of a wall should be filled with
a. stretchers b. headers c. bats d. closers

55. If after every three or four stretchers, one header is used in a brick masonry wall, then the
bond so formed will be called as
a. English garden wall bond b. Flemish garden wall bond
c. Stretcher bond d. Herring Bone Bond
56. The wall constructed along the slopes to protect the slopes of cutting from the adverse
effect of atmosphere are called as
a. retaining walls b. breast walls c. buttresses d. counter fort retaining wall
57. For hearting of thick walls, the brick used is
a. headers b. stretchers c. bats d. queen closer
58. An external corner in brick masonry is called
a. quoin b. jamb c. sleeper wall d. parapet
59. The part of a wall at the side of an opening in the masonry is called
a. quoin b. jamb c. sleeper wall d. parapet
60. The operation of finishing mortar joints after completion of a masonry wall is called
a. toothing b. pointing c. racking back d. jointing
61. Frogs made in the bricks are
a. to reduce weight of the brick b. to form a key for holding the mortar
c. to indicate year and name of the manufacture d. to indicate top of the brick
62. A portion of a brick cut across the width is known as
a. bed b. base c. bat d. half brick
63. The bricks having one or two edges rounded for use in slightly curved corners are called
a. bull nose b. closer c. round nose d. specific nose
64. Type of bonding in which all courses are laid as stretchers, is known as
a. Stretcher bond b. Header bond c. English bond d. Flemish bond
65. The end of a brick as seen in the wall faced (9 x 9 cm) wide is known as
a. front b. face c. header d. stretcher
66. When lengthwise brick is laid parallel to the face of wall, it is known as
a. front b. face c. header d. stretcher
67. A cavity wall is constructed to resist
a. axial forces b. wind loads c. heat flow d. dampness
68. Part of wall at the side of an opening in the masonry is called
a. Jamb b. Parapet c. Quoin d. Squint
69. A wall built to resist the pressure of earth filling is known as
a. breast wall b. retaining wall c. parapet wall d. buttress
70. Dampness in a building is caused by
a. rain water b. ground moisture c. defective construction d. all of the above
71. The dampness on roof may be due to
a. insufficient lap of covering material b. use of porous materials
 c. bad workmanship in plumbing d. all of the above
72. To protect the top of a parapet wall from the action of rain water, it is provided with a
special course known as
a. drip course b. string course c. coping d. cornice
73. To facilitate draining off rain water from the coping, sills, sunshades, a groove is cut on
the underside of these and this groove is known is
a. drip course b. throating c. string course d. all of the above

74. Portion of the wall left on the face of the door or window is called as
a. still b. jamb c. reveal d. all of the above
75. Generally in W.C., kitchens and bathrooms, the type of door used is
a. ledged and braced type b. flush type
c. partly glazed and partly paneled d. fully glazed
76. A horizontal member fixed in a door or window frame for the separation of fan light is
known as
a. Transom b. Threshold c. Mullion d. Sill
77. Principle of surveying followed to prevent accumulation of errors is
a. to work from whole to a part b. to work from part to whole
c. both (a) and (b) above d. none of the above
78. Geodetic survey is different from plane surveying because of
a. very large area is covered b. the curvature of the earth is considered
c. undulations of the topography c. the large difference of elevations
79. A well conditioned triangle has angles not less than and more than respectively
a. 10and 90 b. 20and120
c. 30and120 d. None of the above
1
80. A chain 33’ feet long and consisting of 16 links each 2 16 feet long is
a. Engineer’s chain b. Gunter’s chain c. Bigha chain d. Revenue chain
81. Every 20 m chain should be accurate to within
a. ± 2 mm b. ± 5 mm c. ± 8 mm d. None of the above
82. Off sets are
a. chain lines out of alignment b. small measurements from chain line
c. measurements taken in chain surveying d. none of the above
83. If a chain is found too short on testing, it can be adjusted by
a. Straightening the links b. Inserting additional circular rings
c. Flattening the circular rings d. Any of the above
84. Number of links in a 30 m metric chain is
a. 100 b. 150 c. 180 d. 200
85. Ranging is the process of
a. marking some intermediate points in a straight line, joining the two end
points in the field b. fixing ranging rods on the extremities of the area
c. taking offsets from a chain line d. none of the above
86. The longest chain line passing through the centre of the area is known as
a. Base line b. Tie line c. Check line d. All the above
87. The tie line is run throught the survey to
a. take off sets for detailed surveying b. take details of nearby objects
c. check accuracy of work d. none of the above
88. The position of point can be fixed more accurately by
a. Perpendicular offset b. Optical square c. Prism square d. Oblique offsets
89. Positive error is caused if
 a. length of chain is shorter than the standard
b. slope and sag corrections is not applied
c. measurements are made along the incorrectly aligned line
d. all of the above

90. Invar tapes are made of an alloy of

a. Nickel and steel b. Copper and steel
c. Tin and steel d. aluminimum and steel
91. Chain surveying is used for
a. small areas in open ground b. small areas with crowded details
c. small areas with simple details d. large areas with simple details
92. If W is weight of the chain, L is the span and P is the tension or pull, the sag correction for chain line will be
W 2 L2 W 2L W 2L W 2 L2
a. b. c. d.
24P 2 24 P 24P 2 24 P
93. The angle that can be set by French cross staff is
a. 45 b. 90 c. 45or90 d. None of the above
94. The method of offset laying involving minimum measurement of the ground is
a. perpendicular offset method b. oblique offset method
c. tie offset method d. none of the above
95. The sag correction is always
a. positive b. negative c. zero d. none of above
96. The angle of intersection of horizon mirror and index mirror of an optical square and prism
square is
a. 30 b. 45 c. 105 d. 120
97. A river is an obstacle to
a. chaining but not ranging b. ranging but not chaining
c. both chaining and ranging d. none of the above
98. In chain survey execution, this first step taken is
a. Reference sketches b. Marking stations
c. Running survey line d. Reconnaissance
99. In a closed traverse
a. difference between fore bearing & back bearing should be 90
b. sum of included angles should be (2N - 4) right angle, where N is the
number of sides
c. sum of inclined should be (2N -1), where N is number of sides d. none of the above
100. Graduations in a prismatic compass are
a. inverted and run clockwise having 0 at north
b. inverted and run clockwise having 0 at south
c. erect d. none of the above
101. In a prismatic compass
a. magnetic needle moves with the box
b. magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
c. line of sight does not move with box
d. graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains
in the N – S direction

102. True meridians

a. are parallel to each other b. converge at a point called pole
 c. converge at a point called pole d. none of the above
103. In whole circle system the bearings are measured
a. clock wise from the north point of the reference meridian towards the line of
sight round the circle
b. anti clock wise from the north point
c. with the notations of cardinal points N, E, S & W d. none of the above
104. A negative declination shows the magnetic meridian to the
a. eastern side of the true meridian b. western side of the true meridian
c. southern side of the true meridian d. none of the above
105. Isogonic lines are
a. lines passing through points having same declination at a given point
b. line passing through point of zero declination
c. line passing through point having same dip
d. line passing through point having zero dip
106. Angle of dip at pole is
a. 0 b. 90 c. 45 d. 30
107. The true bearing of a line can be calculated as
a. True bearing = magnetic bearing  magnetic declination
b. True bearing = magnetic bearing – magnetic declination
c. True hearing = magnetic declination – magnetic bearing d. None of the above
108. If the quantrantal bearing of a line is 35W the whole circle bearings is
a. 325 b. 205 c. 215 d. 315
109. The prismatic compass and surveyor’s compass respectively give
a. whole circle bearing of a line and quadrantal bearing of a line
b. both quadrantal bearing or a line c. both whole circle bearing of a line
d. quandrantal and whole circle bearing of a line
110. For a line AB, the for bearing
a. and back bearing of line AB differ by 180
b. of AB & back bearing of line BA differ by 180
c. both (a) and (b) above d. none of the above
111. Local attraction in a compass surveying may be due to
a. faulty adjustment in compass b. due to presence of magnetic materials
c. loss of magnetism in the needle d. friction of the needle at the point
112. The closing error in a traverse is adjusted by
a. elimination the error and modifying the shape
b. the error is distributed to all stations proportionately by shifting the station
parallel to the direction of closing error
c. the error is distributed to all stations proportionately by shifting the stations
perpendicular to the direction of closing error d. none of the above
113. Inclination of the needle to the horizontal towards the pole is called
a. Dip b. Declination c. Azimuth d. Bearing

114. The dip of the needle

a. is constant
b. varies from place to place & is zero at the equator and maximum at the poles
c. is zero at the equator and poles d. none of the above
115. The angle which the true meridian makes with magnetic meridian is called
a. Magnetic declination or declination b. True declination
c. Dip d. Azimuth
116. Magnetic declination
a. remains same at different places b. varies from place to place
c. does not vary with temperature d. none of the above
117. A traverse survey can be plotted
a. By rectangular coordinates or plotting by tangents
b. By paper protractor or by included angles
c. By parallel meridian method or plotting by chords d. None of the above
118. For a station to be free of local attraction
a. the fore and back bearings of line should be measured accurately
b. the fore and back bearings of line should differ by exactly 180
c. the fore and back bearing of the line should be exactly same but with opposite signs
d. none of the above
119. A 10 cm theodolite means that
a. length of its telescope is 19 cm b. height of the telescope is 10 cm
c. diameter of the graduated circle of its lower plate is 10 cm
d. diameter of the graduated circle of its vertical circle is 10 cm
120. Difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that
a. level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line is not necessarily
b. level line is curved but horizontal line is a straight line
c. both lines are same lines
d. none of the above
CIVIL ENGG. ANSWER KEY

1. a 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. b

13. c 14. c 15. e 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. a

25. b 26. d 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. b

37. b 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. b

49. b 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. b

61. b 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. c

73. b 74. c 75. a 76. a 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. b 83. d 84. b

85. a 86. a 87. b 88. b 89. d 90. a 91. a 92. c 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. b

97. a 98. d 99. b 100. b 101. b 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. a 106. b 107. a 108. a

109.a 110.a 111.b 112.b 113. a 114. b 115. a 116. b 117. e 118. b 119. c 120.b