Jee Adv - Phase 1 Paper1

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST (PHASE - I)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

CPT1 - 1 CODE: 111644 SET: A PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 210

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall befo re the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
BATCHES – 1820

Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & Part-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with blue / black ball point pen for each character
of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated
places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.


(i) Part-A (01 – 10) contains 10 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) Part-C (01 – 10) contains 10 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive) and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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FCT1819_CTY1820_B-LOT_PH1_ADV_PCM1_SET-A - P2

USEFUL DATA
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
Acceleration due to gravity : g = 10 m/s2 1 1
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K mol
34
Planck constant : h = 6.6  10 J  s = 0.0821 Lit atm
19 1 1
Charge of electron : e = 1.6  10 C K mol
Mass of electron : me  9.1  10
31
kg
= 1.987  2 Cal
1 1
12 2 2 K mol
Permittivity of free space :  0  8.85  10 C /N m
Avogadro’s Number Na = 6.023  10 23
Density of water : water 3
 10 kg / m
3
34
5 2 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 10 J .s
Atmospheric pressure : Pa  10 N / m 27
Gas constant : R = 8.314 J = 6.625 10 erg .s
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
K 1 mol 1 1 calorie = 4.2 joule
27
1 amu = 1.66 10 kg
19
1 eV = 1.6  10 J
Atomic No: H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Ne = 10, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Si = 14, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar = 18, K = 19, Ca = 20,
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Zn = 30, As = 33, Br = 35,
Ag = 47, Sn = 50, I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92.

Atomic masses: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, Be = 9, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,


Mg = 24, Si = 28, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,
Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Co= 59, Ni = 58.7, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80,
Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

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SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
PART – A
(Multi Correct Answer Type)
This part contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.

1. In the arrangement shown in the figure. If system is in equilibrium


 g  10 m / s  :
2 T1 
T2
(A) Tension T1  50 N (B) Tension T1  500 N T3 

(C) Angle  37 0
(D) Angle  53 0

30 Kg
40 Kg

2.  
Velocity of a particle moving in a curvilinear path varies with time as V  2ti  t 2 j m / s . Then t is in
sec.
At t = 1 sec
(A) acceleration of particle is 8m / s 2
6
(B) tangential acceleration of particle is m / s2
5
2
(C) Radial acceleration of particle is m / s2
5
5 5
(D) Radius of curvature to the paths is m
2

3. A spring block system is placed on a rough horizontal floor. The block is


pulled towards right to give spring some elongation and released.
(A) The block may stop before the spring attains its mean position.
(B) The block must stop with spring having some compression.
(C) The block may stop with spring having some compression.
(D) It is not possible that the block stops at mean position.

4. A 10 kg block is placed on a horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction is 0.25. A horizontal force P
= 15 N first acts on it in the eastward direction. Later, in addition to P a second horizontal force Q = 20
N acts on it in the northward direction: (Both east and west are in the plane of the fig and the gravity
acts perpendicular to this plane)
N 20 N

W E 15 N

S
(A) The block will not move when only P acts, but will be about to move when both P and Q act
2
(B) If the block moves, the acceleration will be 0.5 m/s .
(C) When the block moves, its direction of motion will be tan 1 (4/3) east of north
(D) When both P and Q act, the direction of the force of friction acting on the block will be tan 1 (3/4)
west of south
F
5. A block of mass m is attached to a horizontal spring of stiffness k. The
other end of the spring is attached to a fixed wall. The entire system lies
on a horizontal surface and the spring is at its natural length. The
natural length of the spring is 0. If the block is slowly lifted up vertically
5
to a height 0 from its initial position, which of the following is
12
correct?
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5
(A) The work done by the gravity = mg0
12
k 20
(B) The work done by the spring force = 
288
5 k 2
(C) The work done by the lifting force = mg  0  0
12 288
(D) The sum of works done by all the forces on the block is zero.

6. A stone is thrown upward from the top of a tower such that it covers 15 m during the third second. The
average speed(s) of the stone during three seconds is
25 20
(A) m / sec (B) m / sec
3 3
(C) 5 m / sec (D) 25 m / sec

7. A particle moves under the action of a force which does not deliver any power. Then
(A) motion is circular (B) velocity is constant
(C) Total mechanical energy is constant (D) Potential energy is constant

8. Two blocks are in equilibrium. Ignore the mass of string and friction at
the pulley, the magnitude of friction between the block and ground is
(A) mg cos  (B)   mg 1  sin  
 mg
(C) (D) zero m
sin    cos 
m

9. Which of the following represents that the particle is moving with velocity perpendicular to its position
(A) x  A sin t , y  A cos t (B) x  A sin t , y  B cos t
(C) x  et , y  et (D) x  At , y  Bt

10. A bead is connected with a fixed disc by an inextensible massless


sting in a smooth horizontal plane. If the bead is pushed with a
v0
velocity of v0 perpendicular to the string, the bead moves in a
curve and consequently collapses on the disc of the time t, then:
(A) Work done by the string is negative and speed of bead l
decreases
(B) Kinetic energy of bead remains constant
(C) Tension in the string will increase
(D) Angular speed of bead will increase

PART – C
Integer Answer Type
This part contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9.

1. The acceleration time graph of a particle is shown in the figure. The a


velocity of the particle at t  8s if its initial velocity of the particle is
3 ms 1 (in ms 1 ) 4

4 8 t
0
-1

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2. Two unequal masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected by a string going over a clamped
light smooth pulley as shown in figure. The system is released from rest. The
larger mass is stopped for a moment 1 second after the system is set in motion.
1
The time clasped before the string is tight again is sec then B  _______ sec
B
1 kg

2 kg

g
3. In the system shown below the acceleration of 1 kg mass is upwards then
k
k  _____ 1 kg

4 kg

4. The time taken by a projectile to reach from A to B is t then the distance B

ut
of AB is then k  ____________ u
k
600
300

A C

5. A body of mass 1 kg is given a horizontal velocity of 4 m/s 4 m/s


along a horizontal surface, which has a coefficient of friction
g  10 m / s 2
(both static and kinetic of 0.4. The particle strikes a fixed
1 kg
ideal spring of force constant 6 N/m after traveling a distance   0.4
of 0.5 m. Assume acceleration due to gravity is 10 m / s 2 .
smooth
The compression of spring is x what is the value of x? 0.5 m

6. A small sphere of mass m = 2kg and radius r = 0.5cm is moving in a smooth horizontal
circular groove of radius R = 10m with constant speed of 5m/s find the work done on
the sphere by the normal force exerted by the groove in 1 minute. R

7. A block of mass m = 1 kg is placed on the other block of mass M = 2 kg, m


which in turns placed on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the figure. F
M
The coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.4. A constant horizontal
force F = 6N is applied on M at time t = 0. Find the magnitude of the work
done (in joule) by friction on the block of mass m = 1kg in first one second in
ground frame.

8. In the adjacent figure initially block is at rest and two horizontal forces F 1 m = 5Kg
and F2 of magnitudes 20N and 10N respectively are applied F2 = 10N F1 = 20N
simultaneously at time t = 0. The coefficient of friction between the block
and the ground is   0.2 . Calculate the work done by friction force on
  0.2
the block in first two second.

9. Two particles A and B are located at points (0, 103) and (0, 0) respectively in xy plane. They start
moving simultaneously at time t = 0 with constant velocities v A  5iˆ m/s and vB  5 3ˆj m/s,
respectively. Time when they are closest to each other is found to be K/2 second. Find K. All distances
are given in meter.

10. Vectors P , Q and R have magnitudes 5,12, and 13 units respectively and P  Q  R . If angle between
13
Q and R is . Then find cos  .
2

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SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
(Multi Correct Answer Type)
This part contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.

1. Which of the following is affected by the stable electron configuration of an atom?


(i) Electronegativity (ii) Ionisation enthalpy (iii) Electron gain enthalpy
Correct answer is:
(A) Only electronegativity
(B) only ionisation enthalpy
(C) both electron gain enthalpy and ionisation enthalpy
(D) all of the above

2. 
H2O2  A  B 
 C 
CO

 C   E  H O
 D 
BaO
   2

H2SO4
H2O  C  F   
Choose correct statement(s) regarding the products of above reaction sequence.
(A) (F) is a white precipitate
(B) [E] produces gas (C) on thermal decomposition
(C) Gas (B) is a reducing agent
(D) Aqueous solution of (D) turns red litmus to blue.

3. Following represent the Maxwell distribution curve for an ideal gas at two temperature T1 and T2. Which
of the following option(s) are true?

(A) Total area under the two curves is independent of moles of gas
(B) Umps decreases as temperature decreases
(C) T1  T2 and hence higher the temperature, sharper the curve
(D) The fraction of molecules having speed = Umps decreases as temperature increases

4. When a sample of gas is compressed at constant temperature from 15 atm to 60 atm, its volume
3 3
changes from 76.0 cm to 20.5 cm . Which of the following statements are possible explanations of this
behaviour?
(A) The gas behaves non-ideally.
(B) The gas dimerises.
(C) The gas is absorbed onto the vessel walls.
(D) Repulsive forces are dominating

5. Which of the following statements is correct about angular nodes?


(A) Theses nodes are directional in nature.
(B) These nodes are dependent on angle  and 
(C) These nodes are independent from the radial wave function (R)
(D) These nodes are dependent on the radial wave function

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6. Which of the following statements are correct?


(A) F is the most electronegative and Cs is the most electropositive element
(B) The ionization energy of halogens decreases from F to I
(C) The electron affinity of Cl is higher than that of F but their electronegativities are in the reverse
order
(D) The electron affinity of noble gases is almost zero

7. Limitations of octet rule include(s):


(A) Not always applicable for central atom with period number greater than or equal to 3
(B) odd electron species exist
(C) It doesn’t comment about geometry of molecule
(D) None of these

8. Which of the following d – orbitals is/ are able to form  - bonding with p - orbitals on the neighbouring
atoms?
(A) dx2  y2 (B) dxy
2
(C) dyz (D) dz

9. The process(es) requiring the absorption of energy is/are:


(A) Cl Cl  (B) O

 O 2

(C) Fe  Fe (D) Ar  Ar
3+ 2+

10. In which of the following compound(s) nitrogen exhibits positive oxidation state?
(A) NH3 (B) NO
(C) NH2OH (D) NO2

PART – C
Integer Answer Type
This part contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9.

1. The radial wave equation for hydrogen atom is:


3/2
1  1
  (x  1)(x  8x  12) e
r /2
 2

16 4  0 a
where x  2r / a0 ;a0  radius of first Bohr orbit. The minimum and maximum position of radial nodes
a0
from nucleus are and ya0 . Find  x  y  .
x

2. 200 mL of 0.2 M acidified KMnO4 solution completely oxidizes one gram of a metal. What is the
equivalent mass of the metal?

3. Chloride samples are prepared for analysis by using NaCl, KCl and NH 4Cl separately or as mixture.
What minimum weight of 5% by weight of AgNO3 solution (sp. gr. 1.04 gm/ml) must be added to a

sample of 1.07 gm in order to ensure complete precipitation of Cl in any possible case? Divide the
required weight of solution by 17 and report that answer. (At. wt. of Ag = 108)

x  P 
4. If the ratio of PVm and RT for a real gas is at TC, PC and VC, where    0 , then find the value
24  Vm 
of x.

5. At STP the density of a gas X is three times that of gas Y while molecular mass of gas Y is twice that of
X. The ratio of pressure of X and Y will be

6. What will be the maximum number of lines possible for Balmer series when a set of 8 hydrogen atoms
th
are irradiated with light and all are excited to 6 excited state and spectrum is obtained?

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7. An element undergoes a reaction as shown x  2e   x2 energy released = 30.876 eV/atom. If
+
the energy released is used to dissociate 8 grams of H 2 molecules, equally into H and H*, where H* is
an excited state of H atoms where the electron travels in orbit whose circumference equal to four times
its de Broglie’s wave length. Determine the least amount(mole) of X that would be required.
Given: 1E of H = 13.6eV/atom, Bond energy of H2 = 4.526 eV/molecule

8. How many of the following molecule don’t obey octet rule?


IF7, PCl5, BF3, BeCl2, SiCl4, SCl2

9. In how many of the following only two lone pair of electrons are present?
 . . . .
XeF4, XeF3 , XeOF4, XeF2, OSF4, SCl2, ClF3, NH2 , OH , ClO2 , ClO2

10. A sample of a single electron excited species is taken. Find out the atomic number of species if de
Broglie wavelength of electron in first excited state is 221.4 pm.

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SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)


PART – A
(Multi Correct Answer Type)
This part contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.

dy
1. If y  e x
 e x , then is equal to
dx
e x
 e x
e x
 e x
(A) (B)
2 x 2x
1 1
(C) y2  4 (D) y2  4
2 x 2 x

2 2
2. The director circle of the circle x + y = 25 cut the line x – y = 0 at
(A) (1, 1) (B) (5, 5)
(C) (–1, –1) (D) (–5, –5)

x x 
3. An extreme value of 4 sin2 x  3 cos2 x  24 sin  24 cos , where 0  x  , is
2 2 2
(A) 4  2 
(B) 4 1  6 2 
(C) – 21 (D) 4

6
4. A straight line L drawn through the point A (1, 2) intersects the line x + y = 4 at a distance of units
3
from A. The angle made by L with positive direction of x-axis can be:
 
(A) (B)
12 6
 5
(C) (D)
3 12

5. The sides of a triangle are the straight lines x + y = 1, 7y = x and 3y  x  0 . Then which of the
following is an interior point of the triangle:
(A) circumcenter (B) centroid
(C) incentre (D) orthocenter

1  2(log x 2 )2
6. The values of ‘x’ satisfies the equation  1(is/are):
log x  2(log x)2
(where log is logarithm to the base 10)
1 1
(A) (B)
10 20
3
(C) 10 (D) 10

7. Circle(s) touching x-axis at a distance 3 from the origin and having an intercept of length 2 7 on y-axis
is (are):
(A) x2  y2  6x  8y  9  0 (B) x2  y2  6x  7y  9  0
(C) x2  y2  6x  8y  9  0 (D) x2  y2  6x  7y  9  0

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8. Let P(1,2 2) is a point on circle x2  y2  9 . Locate the points on the given circle, which are at 2 units
distance from point P.

(A) 1,2 2  
(B) 2 2,1 
 23 10 2 
(C)  ,  (D) (3, 0)
 9 
 9

9. 3(sin x  cos x)4  6(sin x  cos x)2  4(sin6 x  cos6 x) is equal to


(A) 11 (B) 12
(C) 13 (D) 14

4xy
10. sec 2   is true if and only if
(x  y)2
(A) x  y  0 (B) x  y,x  0
(C) x = y (D) x  0,y  0

PART – C
Integer Answer Type
This part contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9.

1
1. The orthocentre of triangle formed by lines x  y  1  0,2x  y  1  0 and y = 0 is (h, k), then 
k2
2
2. Given that the three points where the curve y = bx – 2 intersects the x-axis and y-axis form an
equilateral triangle. Find the value of 2b.

3. If circles x2  y2  c with radius 3 and x2  y2  ax  by  c  0 with radius 6 intersect at two


points A and B. If length of AB  2 . Find .


4. AB is any chord of the circle x2  y2  6x  8y  11  0 which subtends and angle at (1, 2). If locus
2
of midpoint of AB is a circle x2  y2  2ax  2by  c  0 ; then find the value of (a + b + c).

a
( k  3
Let a  log3 log3 2 . An integer k satisfying 1  2  2, must be less than______.
)
5.

6. The maximum value of cos2 (450  x)  (sin x  cos x)2 is __________.

7. The value of cosec100  cosec500  cosec700 is _________.

8. Number of triangles ABC if tan A  x,tanB  x  1, and tanC  1  x is_______.

9. Number of integers satisfying the inequality log1/2 | x  3 | 1 is_________.

dy n
10. If y  4 sin2 x &  sin2x then n is equal to_______.
dx 2

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FCT1819_CTY1820_B-LOT_PH1_ADV_PCM1_SET-A - P11

TWO YEAR CRP (CTY - 1820)


BATCH: B - LOT
PCM (PAPER – I) PHASE - I
PAPER CODE: XXXX.X DATE: DD.MM.YYYY
ANSWER KEYS [SET – A]
Section - I Section - II Section - III
Q. No.
(Physics) Q. No.
(Chemistry) Q. No.
(Maths)
Answer Concept Answer Answer Concept
Concept Code
Key Code Key Key Code
Part - A Part - A Part - A
C110703,
1 BD P110420 1 C C110704, 1 AC M114103
C110706
P110317, C114305,
2 BCD 2 ABD 2 BD M110825
P110318 C110904
3 AC P110502 3 ABD C111206 3 BC M111422
P110410,
4 AD P110411, 4 AD C111203 4 AD M113321
P110412
5 BCD P110502 5 ABC C110113 5 BC M113307
C110703,
6 AD P110303 6 ABCD C110704, 6 AC M112403
C110706
7 ACD P110513 7 ABC C113601 7 AC M113351
8 AB P110412 8 BC C113602 8 AC M113338
C110704,
9 AC P111620 9 BD 9 C M112404
C110703
10 BCD P110513 10 BD C111111 10 B M112404
Part - C Part - C Part - C
1 7 P110325 1 5 C110113 1 4 M113306
2 3 P110413 2 5 C111112 2 2 M113320
C111102,
3 2 P110409 3 4 3 2 M113348
C110206
4 3 P110314 4 9 C111209 4 8 M113343
5 2 P110502 5 6 C111201 5 1 M112403
6 0 P110620 6 5 C110103 6 3 M112405
7 2 P110507 7 4 C110103 7 6 M112405
8 0 P110507 8 4 C113605 8 0 M112405
C110306,
9 3 P110320 9 1 9 2 M112404
C113605
C110106,
10 6 P110219 10 3 10 8 M112407
C110103

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE Kathauta Chauraha, Vinamra Khand, Gomti Nagar, Lucknow – 226010. Ph: 0522-2724960, 2724961.
www.fiitjeelucknow.com
FIITJEE Ltd., Near M.G. Convent School, Sector - G, LDA Colony, Kanpur Road, Aashiana, Lucknow - 226012. Ph: 0522-4114644, 4114645.
FIITJEE Ltd., Near Four Season House, A-1/3, Sector - C, Aliganj, Lucknow - 226024. Ph: 0522-4976464, 4976465.

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