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1) The document provides instructions for a 50 question mathematics exam for class 4 students. It includes questions on topics like place value, rounding numbers, operations with large numbers, word problems, fractions, and geometry. 2) Students have 60 minutes to complete the exam. Each question is worth 1 mark, with 1/4 mark deducted for incorrect answers. 3) The questions test a range of math skills from operations with large numbers to word problems involving rates, ratios, and geometric concepts. Correct answers are marked by filling in the corresponding bubble on an optical mark recognition (OMR) sheet.

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Anusha Atyam
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (1 vote)
2K views

Ani Papers

1) The document provides instructions for a 50 question mathematics exam for class 4 students. It includes questions on topics like place value, rounding numbers, operations with large numbers, word problems, fractions, and geometry. 2) Students have 60 minutes to complete the exam. Each question is worth 1 mark, with 1/4 mark deducted for incorrect answers. 3) The questions test a range of math skills from operations with large numbers to word problems involving rates, ratios, and geometric concepts. Correct answers are marked by filling in the corresponding bubble on an optical mark recognition (OMR) sheet.

Uploaded by

Anusha Atyam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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INTSO EDUCATION

MATHEMATICS TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD(MTSO) 2015 - 2016


STAGE - 2 TIME : 60 min.
CLASS : IV Max. Marks : 50
Instructions:
= Fill the OMR sheet completely and carefully.
= Each question carries one mark and has only one correct answer. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
= The question paper contains 50 questions to be answered in 60 minutes.

1. The largest 4 digit number with '0' in the tens place is [ ]


1) 9807 2) 9706 3) 8907 4) 9708
2. The short form of 2,00,000 +30,000+500+6 is [ ]
1) 2,30,506 2) 23,00,506 3) 23,05,006 4) 20,30,506
3. The place value of 5 in 5,00,290 is [ ]
1) Five thousand 2) Fifty thousand 3) 50 lakhs 4) 5 lakhs
4. A 6 digit number in which every digit (except first two digits ) is the sum of the previous two
digits [ ]
1) 123456 2) 202246 3) 202468 4) 224306
5. Round the number 3780 to nearest thousand [ ]
1) 3700 2) 3500 3) 3000 4) 4000
6. The cost of a television is Rs 100 less than Rs 46,590 . Its actual cost is [ ]
1) Rs 46,490 2) Rs 45,590 3) Rs 47,590 4) Rs 45,690
7. The Hindu Arabic Numerals of MDCLXVII [ ]
1) 1067 2) 1667 3) 6167 4) 1666
8. How many Millions are equal to 10 crores. [ ]
1) 1000 Millions 2) 100 Millions 3) 10 Millions 4) 50 Millions
9. A Led T.V set costs Rs 92,425 and a digital camera costs Rs 78,946 , the total cost of both the
items is [ ]
1) 1,71,371 2) Rs 7,00,371 3) Rs 1,60,371 4) Rs 1,70,371
10. Nandita reads 125 pages of a book in 5 hours. Number of hours she finish the book if it has 275
pages [ ]
1) 10 hours 2) 12 hours 3) 11 hours 4) 9 hours
11. 6 persons take 10 days to dig a well . Number of days will 10 persons take to dig 3 wells
1) 12 days 2) 16 days 3) 18 days 4) 24 days [ ]
12. There are 24,356 people comprising men and women in an auditorium 13,245 are men estimate
the number of women in the auditorium to the nearest 1000. [ ]
1) 10,000 2) 1000 3) 11,100 4) 11,000
13. A goods train can carry 25 containers in one trip the number of containers the train can carry in
7 trips [ ]
1) 175 2) 225 3) 165 4) 185

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14. Nandita has a Pine apple orchard consisting of 1653 plants . If she has 15 such orchards then the
number of plants are there in all [ ]
1) 23,695 2) 24,795 3) 22,795 4) 24,595
15. If a car travels 462 km in a month , the total distance travelled by the car in 5 years is [ ]
1) 25,520 km 2) 27,720km 3) 20,000 km 4) 20,520km
16. The number getting when 2 is subtracted from largest 6 digit even number is [ ]
1) 999990 2) 999994 3) 999990 4) 999996
17. 5 paper strips together make a design . Number of similar disigns can be made with 2645 paper
strips [ ]
1) 429 2) 629 3) 519 4) 529
18. The number greater than 56 and less than 66 and leave 2 as remainder when divided by 7 is
1) 58 2) 79 3) 64 4) 72 [ ]
19. The HCF of 49 and 84 is [ ]
1) 49 2) 7 3) 6 4) 1
20. The largest number that divides 232 and 157 leaving a remainder of 7 [ ]
1) 65 2) 6 3) 75 4) 55
21. The smallest number which on adding 10 to it is exactly divisible by 28,36 and 45 [ ]
1) 950 2) 960 3) 940 4) 860
22. A number which has the first 6 prime numbers as its factors [ ]
1) 30,030 2) 20,030 3) 25,020 4) 24,024
23. Number of kilograms is equal to 9 gms [ ]
1) 0.09kg 2) 0.009kg 3) 0.0009kg 4) 0.9kg
3
24. The difference between two numbers is 16.If the smaller is th of the larger number. The larger
5
number is [ ]
1) 20 2) 30 3) 24 4) 22
1
25. If the weight of a dog is 12 kg more than th of its weight , the weight of the dog is [ ]
4
1) 12kg 2) 14kg 3) 18kg 4) 16kg
26. When 2900 is divided by 100, the quotient is [ ]
1) 29.1 2) 29 3) 291000 4) 2910
1 1
27. Murali eats th of the biscuits from a packet of 24 biscuits and his daughter eats rd of the
4 3
biscuits in the packet . Number of biscuits left in the packet is [ ]
1) 8 2) 6 3) 14 4) 10
28. The greatest two digit factor of 164 is [ ]
1) 82 2) 84 3) 41 4) 64
29. The name of the solid have only one vertex is [ ]
1) cone 2) cylinder 3) sphere 4) cube
30. Number of faces of a cuboid has [ ]
1) 8 2) 12 3) 6 4) 4
31. There is 12l 445ml of water in a bucket Rishita used 5l 230ml of water to wash clothes. The
water left in the bucket is [ ]
1) 7l 220 ml 2) 7l 215ml 3) 6l 215ml 4) 6l200ml
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32. The sum of the successors of first three natural numbers is [ ]
1) 9 2) 8 3) 4 4) 6
33. Among the following a perfect square is [ ]
1) 2345893 2) 1486238 3) 156282 4) 10816
34. Number of Odd divisers of 32 [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5
35. The temperature on warm sunny day was 35ºC. Then this temperature in fahrenheit is [ ]
1) 95ºF 2) 94ºF 3) 98ºF 4) 97ºF
36. Antara purchased 1200 gm grapes and 2465 gm mangoes to make fruit salad. The total weight of
the salad in kilograms is [ ]
1) 3 kilograms 2) 3.665 kilograms 3) 3.506 kilograms 4) 3650 kilograms
37. What should be the length of a golden thread needed to decorated the boundary of a photo frame
of side 30 cm is [ ]
1) 60 cm 2) 45 cm 3) 120 cm 4) 240 cm
38. Number of days are there between 5th June and 21st October ( not included 5,21) [ ]
1) 137 days 2) 136 days 3) 135 days 4) 140 days
39. Which of the following is a leap year [ ]
1) 1945 2) 1976 3) 1892 4) 1982
40. If 20th September is a Friday what day is it on 1st November [ ]
1) Tuesday 2) Sunday 3) Friday 4) Thursday
41. Rohit scored 25 percent marks in English. The marks were out of 60. The marks scored by him
1) 25 2) 30 3) 20 4) 15 [ ]
42. 30% of 60% is what percent of 36% of 50% [ ]
1) 80% 2) 100% 3) 75% 4) 60%
43. The number A7389B where A, B are digits is divisible by 72, then (A, B) [ ]
1) (6, 3) 2) (3, 6) 3) (4, 7) 4) (7, 5)
44. On the sale of 10 M cloth, a gain equal to the selling price of 2M cloth was obtained. The gain
percent is [ ]
1) 20% 2) 10% 3) 25% 4) 40%
45. The simple Interset on Rs. 1200 for 4½ years at 8% per annum [ ]
1) Rs. 400 2) Rs. 432 3) Rs. 632 4) Rs. 1232
46. The number of 3 digit numbers whose digits are even is [ ]
1) 64 2) 75 3) 100 4) 125
47. Sum of the angles in a triangle is [ ]
1) 180º 2) 120º 3) 360º 4) 270º
48. The number of diagonals in hexagon is [ ]
1) 18 2) 10 3) 8 4) 9
49. Number of days are there in 3 years 10 days (not a leap year) [ ]
1) 1100 days 2) 1095 days 3) 1105 days 4) 1005 days
50. 6 hours 40 minutes is equals to [ ]

Z
1) 360 minutes 2) 380 minutes 3) 400 minutes 4) 440 minutes

www.intso.co.in 3
2015 - 16 INTSO ENGLISH - LEVEL - 1 Question paper - Key

Class : IV

S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans
1 c 11 a 21 b 31 b 41 c
2 d 12 b 22 b 32 b 42 b
3 a 13 a 23 c 33 b 43 d
4 b 14 b 24 b 34 c 44 a
5 d 15 a 25 b 35 a 45 c
6 d 16 a 26 c 36 c 46 b
7 a 17 b 27 a 37 a 47 c
8 b 18 b 28 c 38 c 48 a
9 c 19 d 29 b 39 d 49 c
10 a 20 a 30 a 40 a 50 b
INTSO (MTSO)WORK SHEETS – KEY

IV CLASS
WORK SHEET – I

1) 3 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 2

8) 1 9) 3 10) 2 11) 2 12) 1 13) 4 14) 3

15) 4 16) 2 17) 1 18) 3 19) 4 20) 2 21) 4

22) 3 23) 4 24) 3 25) 3 26) 2 27) 3 28) 2

29) 2 30) 4 31) 1 32) 3 33) 3 34) 2 35) 3

36) 1 37) 4 38) 3 39) 3 40) 3 41) 2 42) 2

43) 4 44) 4 45) 3 46) 1 47) 2 48) 3 49) 2

50) 4
INTSO EDUCATION
MATHEMATICS TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD(MTSO) 2016 - 2017
STAGE - 1 TIME : 60 min.
CLASS : IV Max. Marks : 50

Instructions:
= Fill the OMR sheet completely and carefully.
= Each question carries one mark and has only one correct answer. No negative marks.
= The question paper contains 50 questions to be answered in 60 minutes.

1. How many hundreds are there in 7435 [ ]


1) 7 2) 74 3) 743 4) 70
2. The smallest 5 digit number is [ ]
1) 1111 2) 00000 3) 10000 4) 12345
3. The successor of 1119 is [ ]
1) 1118 2) 1110 3) 1120 4) 1199
4. Number of even numbers formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, 5 [ ]
1) 1 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6
5. The place value of 6 in 5769 is [ ]
1) 6 2) 60 3) 600 4) 6000
6. The difference between the greatest and the smallest 4 digit numbers that can be formed using
the digits 0, 9, 9, 8 is [ ]
1) 1781 2) 1981 3) 1881 4) 1971
7. Ramu bought a television set for <4832 and a steel cupboard for <2796. How much did he pay in
all [ ]
1) <7628 2) <6628 3) <7268 4) <7682
8. A shop keeper earned <5078 an spent <3794 in a month. How much money was left with him.
[ ]
1) <1248 2) <1284 3) <1384 4) <1348
9. By how much is <3749 greater than <2954 [ ]
1) <895 2) <695 3) <859 4) <795
10. Gopal had to travel 3850km. if he travelled 460km by bus, 1286km by train and rest by car, then
the distance travelled by Gopal by car is [ ]
1) 2140 km 2) 2104 km 3) 1204km 4) 1402 km
11. The sum of two numbers is 484 their H.C.F is 11. The number of such possible pairs is[ ]
1) 10 2) 11 3) 12 4) 9
12. The last two digits of 32012 when represented in decimal notation will be [ ]
1) 81 2) 01 3) 41 4) 21
13. Among the following, the prime number is [ ]
1) 73 2) 116 3) 192 4) 183
14. Number of prime numbers are there in between 1 and 50 [ ]
1) 12 2) 15 3) 17 4) 18

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15. Among the follwing is prime truplet [ ]
1) ( 3, 5, 7) 2) ( 5, 7, 11) 3) ( 7, 11, 13) 4) ( 11, 13, 17)
16. Number of prime factors of 72 is [ ]
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
17. The number of factors of 360 is [ ]
1) 20 2) 18 3) 22 4) 24
18. The least composite number is [ ]
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
19. The H.C.F of 15 and 25 is [ ]
1) 15 2) 25 3) 10 4) 5
20. The greatest number which exactly divides 90 and 126 is [ ]
1) 18 2) 42 3) 30 4) 6
21. The L.C.M of the numbers 16, 20, 30 is [ ]
1) 60 2) 80 3) 120 4) 240
22. The least number which when divided by 8, 12, 16 leaves no remainder [ ]
1) 58 2) 36 3) 48 4) 63
23. If four bells ring at intervals of 3, 6, 12 and 14 minutes respectively, they ring together at 10am,
then what time they ring together again [ ]
1) 11am 2) 11.24am 3) 11.14am 4) 12.30pm
24. The product of H.C.F and L.C.m of two numbers is 192. If one of the number is 16, then the
other number is [ ]
1) 11 2) 14 3) 12 4) 18
25. A number is said to be a perfect number if sum of the factors is equal to twice that of a number.
Among the following, a perfect number is [ ]
1) 6 2) 8 3) 12 4) 22
26. The H.C.F of two prime numbers is always equal to [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 10 4) 3
27. If H.C.F of a and b is '1', then the L.C.m of a and b is [ ]
2
1) a + b 2) a – b 3) ab 4) a b
28. Among the following, is an even prime number [ ]
1) 4 2) 2 3) 0 4) 8
29. Among the following is divisible by 13 is [ ]
1) 222222 2) 2222 3) 22222 4) 222
30. If a number is said to be divisible by 6 then it is exactly divisible by [ ]
1) 2, 5 2) 2, 4 3) 2, 3 4) 5, 6
31. The difference of sum of odd place digits and sum of even place digits of a number is zero, then
the number is always is divisible by [ ]
1) 11 2) 13 3) 12 4) 10
32. The Hindu Arabic numeral value of CMXLVIII is [ ]
1) 958 2) 948 3) 968 4) 848
33. the roman numeral value of 1998 is [ ]
1) MCMXIIX b) CMMXVIII 3) MCMXCVIII 4) MMCCCXCIII

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34. A number is called a palindrome . If it reads the same forward or backward for example 13531 is
a palindrome. the difference between the biggest 10 digit palindrome and the smallest 9 digit
palindrome is [ ]
1) 976666666 2) 9888888888 3) 98999999998 4) 9777777777
35. A number divisible by 25, then it is also divisible by [ ]
1) 3 2) 2 3) 10 4) 5
36. If 742x6 is divisible by 3, then the value of x is [ ]
1) 6 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
37. If 83x68 is divisible by 9, then the value of x is [ ]
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2
38. If (2222)5555 is divided with 7m, then the remainder is [ ]
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 4
39. Th sum of the factors of 49 is [ ]
1) 49 2) 57 3) 56 4) 47
40. Which number has the greatest place value of '7' [ ]
1) 56720 2) 27435 3) 99997 4) 86274
41. How many basic numerals are there in roman numeration system [ ]
1) 7 2)8 3)9 4) 10
42. The number of minutes in one complete day is [ ]
1) 3600 2) 1200 3) 2400 4) 1440
43. Manohar works 8 hours a day and 5 days a week, he is paid <12 an hours. How much does he
earn in a week [ ]
1) <96 2) <672 3) <480 4) <156
44. How many sixes are there in the product of 18 and 479 is [ ]
1) 108 2) 371 3) 1437 4) 8622
45. When a number is divided by 5, the quotient is 6. What is the quotient when the same number is
divided by 30 [ ]
1) 1 2) 10 3) 100 4) 1000
46. Each part on the number line drawn is of 1cm. What is the sum AC + DE + GJ equal to
A B C D E F G H I J [ ]
1) AF 2) BH 3) DG 4) FJ
47. How many ones are there in the sum of prime numbers between 10 and 30 [ ]
1) 60 2) 121 3) 112 4) 2
48. Which one of the following has only one line of symmetry [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)

49. The number of lines of symmetry of a square has [ ]


1) 6 2) 4 3) 3 4) 0
50. How many millions make 10 crores [ ]
1) 1 2) 10 3) 100 4) 1000

Z
www.intso.co.in 3
INTSO EDUCATION
MATHEMATICS TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD(MTSO) 2015 - 2016
STAGE - 1 TIME : 60 min.
CLASS : IV Max. Marks : 50

Instructions:
= Fill the OMR sheet completely and carefully.
= Each question carries one mark and has only one correct answer. No negative marks.
= The question paper contains 50 questions to be answered in 60 minutes.

1. What is the remainder when 1525 is divided with 100 [ ]


1) 15 2) 125 3) 25 4) 5
2. What is the Quotient when 98765 is divided with 1000 [ ]
1) 8 2) 9 3) 98 4) 765
3. What is the largest number formed by using the given digits 9,6,8,0 [ ]
1) 9860 2) 8690 3) 6980 4) 968
4. The number which is 299 less than 36,988 is [ ]
1) 36,680 2) 36,689 3) 36,679 4) 36,769
5. The population of a village is 1,46,400. If 44,652 are women and 53,340 are men and the rest are
children then number of children in the village is [ ]
1) 48,000 2) 48,400 3) 48,408 4) 49,000
6. If a number is divisible by 2 and 3 then the number is always divisible by [ ]
1) 7 2) 6 3) 8 4) 9
7. The number of two digit numbers of the form 'aa' with same digit 'a' having exactly four divisors
is [ ]
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
8. What is the remainder when 97,695 is divided with 5 [ ]
1) 0 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
9. Nandita pays <78,000 as rent for her flat in one year then the monthly rent she has to pay is
1) <6,000 2) <6,400 3) <6,500 4) < 7,000 [ ]
10. If a,b are relatively Prime numbers and the L.C.M is 72 then ab = ? [ ]
1) 144 2) 72 3) 60 4) 1
11. Sum of the factors of 28 is [ ]
1) 28 2) 56 3) 112 4) 42
12. Sum of the digits of a number 1099 – 99 [ ]
1) 874 2) 99 3) 774 4) 0
13. A number has two factors '1' and itself only then the number is called [ ]
1) composite number 2) even number 3) odd number 4) prime number
14. How many prime numbers are there from 1 to 100 [ ]
1) 20 2) 50 3) 25 4) 22
15. The great Mathematician Eratosthenes belongs to which country [ ]
1) Egypt 2) Italy 3) America 4) Greece

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16. The H.C.F of 456 and 360 is [ ]
1) 22 2) 24 3) 20 4) 25

3 4 6
17. The L.C.M of , , [ ]
8 9 7
12 24 22 72
1) 2) 3) 4)
1 9 7 7

3
18. The equivalent fraction of is [ ]
8
9 27 9 12
1) 2) 3) 4)
25 16 24 40
19. A fraction whose numerator is '1' is called [ ]
1) like fraction 2) mixed fraction 3) unlike fraction 4) unit fraction
20. If a number x is divided with y, we get the Quotient a and remainder 'b' then [ ]
1) x = ab + y 2) x = ay + b 3) y = ax + b 4) y = bx +a
21. The total number of dots in the 1st 100 rows is [ ]
1) 550
2) 560
3) 5500
4) 10000

1 1
22. Hari bought 4 meters of rope. He used 2 meters. How much rope is left with Hari ?[ ]
2 4
1 1 1 1
1) 4 meters 2) 3 meters 3) 2 meters 4) 2 meters
2 4 4 2

623
23. The decimal form of 4 is [ ]
1000
1) 46.23 2) 462.3 3) 0.4623 4) 4.623
24. Rishita purchased a pencil for <10.75 an eraser of <2.50 and a note book costing <25.75 then the
total amount spend by her. [ ]
1) < 40 2) <42 3) <39 4) <37
25. How many litres are equal to 1 milli litre. [ ]
1 1
1) 1000l 2) 100l 3) l 4) l
1000 100
26. One kilogram is equal to How many grams. [ ]
1) 100grams 2) 1000 grams 3) 0.001grams 4) 0.01 grams
27. Raj sold his car which he bought for <2,00,000 at a loss <23,450 then the selling price is
1) 1,76,000 2) 1,75,500 3) 1,76,550 4) 1,77,000 [ ]

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28. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock at 2 -30 ? [ ]
1) 100° 2) 105° 3) 120° 4) 110°
29. Convert 23 : 10 hours into 12 hour clock time [ ]
1) 11.P.M 2) 11.10 P.M 3) 11.A.M 4) 11.10A.M
30. 5 months 25 days equal to how many days [ ]
1) 150 days 2) 180 days 3) 185 days 4) 175 days
31. 3600 seconds is equal to how many minutes [ ]
1) 60 minutes 2) 36 minutes 3) 30 minutes 4) 10 minutes
32. In a leap year February month has how many days? [ ]
1) 30 2) 31 3) 29 4) 28
33. How many days are there from 25th March to 6th. May (including both days) [ ]
1) 40 days 2) 33 days 3) 43 days 4) 41 days
34. A man travelled 84 k.m 523m by car and 26km 990M , by bus . What is the total distance covered
1) 111 km 2) 111 km 513m [ ]
3) 110 km 500m 4) 111 km 700m
35. If a * b = 2a +2b–ab a,b are any two numbers if 3* x = 4 then x is [ ]
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5
36. The number of two digited prime numbers less than 100 whose sum of the digits 2 is [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
37. If 5 lines are drawn in the plane the maximum number of regions into which the plane is divided
is [ ]
1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) 16
38. Ajay bought 5kg of sweets and distributed 2kg 300g sweets to some poor children. How much of
sweets was left with him [ ]
1) 3kg 700grams 2) 1kg 700grams
3) 2kg 700grams 4) 3kg 200 grams
39. The sides of a rectangle are 16cm and 8 cm then the perimeter of the rectangle is [ ]
1) 24cm 2) 40cm 3) 48cm 4) 72cm
40. The area of the square whose side is 6cm [ ]
1) 24cm2 2) 20cm2 3) 36cm 2
4) 12cm 2

41. A figure bounded by '6' line segments is called [ ]


1) quadrilateral 2) hexagon 3) pentagon 4) octagon
42. There are 20 cities in a certain country. Every pair of cities is connected by air route. How many
air routes are there [ ]
1) 19 2) 380 3) 190 4) 40
43. The area of the circle with radius 7cm is [ ]
1) 144 cm2 2) 124cm2 3) 150 cm 2
4) 154cm 2

44. The figure formed by joining mid points of a Rhombus is [ ]


1) Rhombus 2) Square 3) Kite 4) Rectangle
45. The area of regular hexagon with side a units is [ ]
3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
1) a sq.units 2) a sq.units 3) 6 a sq.units 4) 5 a sq.units
4 2 4 4

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46. If in a quadrilateral all sides are equal then it is [ ]
1) square 2) Rectangle 3) Kite 4) pentagon
47. The number of 3 digits even numbers that can be written using the digits 0,3,6 without repetition
is [ ]
1) 6 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2
48. How many two digit numbers greater than 10 are there which are divisible by 2 and 5 but not by
4 or 25 [ ]
1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 5
49. The sum of the reciprocals of all the divisors of 6 is [ ]
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 6
50. If (a–1)2 + (b–2) 2 + (c–3) 2 + (d–4) 2 = 0 then a× b× c×d+1 is [ ]
1) 20 2) 10 3) 24 4) 25

www.intso.co.in 4
MTSO Level - 1 key 2016-17
Class : IV
S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans
1 2 11 1 21 4 31 1 41 1
2 3 12 3 22 3 32 2 42 4
3 3 13 1 23 2 33 3 43 3
4 4 14 2 24 3 34 3 44 3
5 2 15 1 25 1 35 4 45 1
6 3 16 1 26 1 36 1 46 2
7 1 17 4 27 3 37 4 47 3
8 2 18 3 28 2 38 3 48 3
9 4 19 4 29 1 39 2 49 2
10 2 20 1 30 3 40 2 50 3
INTSO EDUCATION
ENGLISH TALENT SEARCH OLYMPIAD (ETSO) 2015 - 2016
STAGE - 1 TIME : 60 min.
CLASS : IV Max. Marks : 50

Instructions:
= Fill the OMR sheet completely and carefully.
= Each question carries one mark and has only one correct answer. No negative marks
= The question paper contains 50 questions to be answered in 60 minutes.

Fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate word(s) from those given below.
1. He is a hardworking student. He works _______ and gets good marks. [ ]
a) hardly b) harder c) hard d) hardest
2. Surya studies well. This sentence is an example for ________ sentence [ ]
a) exclamatory b) imperative c) interrogative d) declarative
3. John ran fast, won the race and took the reward from the collector.
(How many nouns are there in the above sentence?) [ ]
a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 2
4. All feelings like anger, happiness, sadness etc., come under ____________noun. [ ]
a) proper b) abstract c) common d) material
5. We did _______ work on time. (Fill in the blank with a suitable pronoun) [ ]
a) your b) their c) mine d) our
6. ________ have to mind their own business. (Fill in the blank with a suitable pronoun) [ ]
a) You b) We c) I d) They
7. There is _________ Eucalyptus tree beside my house (supply a suitable article) [ ]
a) a b) an c) the d) no article is required
8. He is good _________ English. (Fill in the blank with suitable preposition) [ ]
a) in b) at c) for d) by
9. I _________ go for jogging every morning. (Fill in the blank with proper adverb) [ ]
a) slowly b) fastly c) generally d) never
10. Six of us were _________ for the dance performance. (Fill in the blank with correct word)
a) selected b) decided c) voted d) elected [ ]
11. After the robbery at his office, Mr. Selvan was so _______ [ ]
a) upset b) delighted c) calm d) angry
12. Manohar’s mother has asked me to _______ on him on my way back from school. [ ]
a) look after b) look in c) look up d) look back
13. Ranjit put on his reading glasses. (Find out the adjective in the above sentence) [ ]
a) reading b) put on c) glasses d) Ranjit
14. Mumbai is the city _______ Akshay was born. (Fill in the blank with a suitable word) [ ]
a) whose b) where c) which d) that
15. Which of the following is a wrongly spelt word? [ ]
a) protien b) believe c) argument d) peaceable
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16. Feminine gender of ‘Negro’ is [ ]
a)Negress b)Negros c)Negroes d)Negroine
17. I would like to come ______ I have no time. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
a) and b) but c) or d) so
18. Car ___ ___ ___ ge (Fill in the blanks with missing letters for a meaningful word) [ ]
a) r, a, i b) r, i, a c) r, e, a d) r, e, i
19. Each of these pups __________ its pedigree. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
a) are b) have c) is d) has
20. Lucy is _____ than Diana. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
a) more careful b) careful c) much careful d) carefully
21. Meena has gone to see ________ her friends. (Fill in the blank with a preposition) [ ]
a) of b) off c) down d) up
22. It has been ___________ heavily since morning. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
a) rains b) raining c) rained d) rain
23. “Did you enjoy the film?” “ Yes, indeed, it was very ________” [ ]
a) enjoying b) enjoys c) enjoyable d) enjoy
24. Her ______ was seen very clearly on her face. (Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
a) happy b) happiness c) very happy d) happions
25. What is the time __________ your watch? (supply a suitable preposition) [ ]
a) on b) by c)at d) in
26. I have to search three _________ shops to find the book. [ ]
a) separate b) differ c) different d) variety
27. He entered the under world ________ a cave.(Fill in the blank with a proper word) [ ]
a) through b) threw c) throw d) throws
28. She accidentally _________ her finger. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb form) [ ]
a) cutted b) was cut c) cut d) cutting
29. “ _________ you a king ?” she asked. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
a) Have b) Are c) Has d) Was
30. He was very strong. He ______ lift a heavy chair.(Fill in the blank with a modal verb) [ ]
a) could b) should c) would d) must
31. I thought I had lost my new pen, but I ______ it inside my note book. (Fill in the blank with
antonym of the underlined word) [ ]
a) find b) found c) see d) look
32. Which of the following is a verb? [ ]
a) strong b) strengthen c) strongly d)strength
33. The past participle form of the verb ‘shred’ [ ]
a) shread b) shred c) shrod d) shredden
34. Mount Everest is in ___________ Himalayas. (Fill in the blank with an article) [ ]
a) a b) an c) the d) no article
35. My uncle is ___________ M.P. (Fill in the blank with an article) [ ]
a) an b) a c) no article d) the

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36. A certificate will be ________ to all those who took part in the play. [ ]
a) give b) gives c) given d) giving
37. I’m sure the work can be _________ in half an hour. It’s almost complete. [ ]
a) done b) do c) did d) does
38. The synonym of the word ‘delight’ [ ]
a) sadness b) angry c) happiness d) delicious
39. Let us meet ________ the bus stop. (Fill in the blank with a preposition) [ ]
a) in b) on c) for d) at
40. Neither of you __________ trust worthy. (Fill in the blank with a proper verb) [ ]
a) is b) are c) were d) am

(41 - 45) : Fill in the blanks with most apporpriate verbs from those given below.
My shoes 41 worn and my hat 42 crushed and bent. My shirt and trousers 43 stained and
44 besides. My hair 45 combed or brushed.
41. a) are b) is c) were d) have [ ]
42. a) is b) was c) has d) are [ ]
43. a) is b) are c) was d) were [ ]
44. a) torn b) tear c) tears d) to be torn [ ]
45. a) has b) had c) was d) is [ ]

(46 - 50) Read the passage carefully.


One day Mikku went to the forest to collect fire wood. But he was too lazy to gather fallen
branches. So he decided to just chop down a tree.
Mikku raised his axe. But the tree screamed out, “Don’t cut me down please, I am a Birch
Tree. I give you my bark to make baskets. I give you my twigs to make brooms.”
“You are right”, said Mikku.
“I wont cut you, after all.you give us so many things.”
So Mikku went on into the forest. “Here is a good tree for firewood.”
He raised his axe. But the tree screamed out, “Don’t cut me down I am an apple Tree. I know you
love apple pies. If you cut me down, there will be no more pies for you. “you are right. I won’t cut
you down, after all Apple Tree.”
He went on through forest, pine tree gave its cones, Ceder sheltered deer on winter nights.
Walnut gave its nuts, Each tree had something to give.
At last Mikku said, “All of these trees help us. So many ways. It would be a mistake to cut
any of them down. I’ll just gather fallen branches for my fire.

Now answer the following questions.


46. Why did Mikku go to the forest ? [ ]
a) to chop down the tree b) to collect fire wood
c) to talk to trees d) to enjoy the scenery
47. Why did Mikku decide to cut down a tree. [ ]
a) He loved cutting down trees. b) he wanted to use his axe.
c) he was too lazy to gather fallen branches. d) he wanted the branches.

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48. What did the Apple Tree say ? [ ]
a) He could miss an apple pie b) He could miss nuts.
c) He could miss good apples d) He could miss the pie.
49. Where do the deer take shelter during winter night [ ]
a) under palm trees. b) under banyan trees.
c) under cedar trees. d) under birch trees.
50. What does Mikku’s story tell us ? [ ]
a) fallen branches are good as fire wood. b) do not cut down trees.
c) we must use trees. d) there are no uses of trees.

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SAMPLE PAPER SYLLABUS 2019-20 CLASS

Total Questions : 35
4 Time : 1 hr.
PATTERN & MARKING SCHEME
(1) Word and (2) Reading (3) Spoken and (4) Achievers
Section
Structure Knowledge Written Expression Section
SOF INTERNATIONAL No. of Questions 30 5
ENGLISH OLYMPIAD Marks per Ques. 1 1 1 2
SYLLABUS
Section – 1 : Collocations, Spellings, Gender, Singular-Plural, One word Substitution, Synonyms, Antonyms, Nouns, Pronouns, Verbs, Adverbs, Adjectives,
Contractions, Articles, Prepositions, Conjunctions, Tenses, Punctuations and Jumbled words, Basic Questions, Question Tags, Proverbs, Idioms, etc.
Section – 2 : Search for and retrieve information from various text types like Stories, Anecdotes, etc., Understand information through pictures,
Time-table format, etc., Acquire broad understanding of and look for specific information in short texts like messages, Invitations, etc.
Section – 3 : Ability to understand situation-based variations in functions like apology, greeting, introduction, request, etc.
Section – 4 : Higher Order Thinking Questions - Syllabus as per Sections 1, 2 and 3.

WORD AND STRUCTURE KNOWLEDGE

1. Choose the right word.


I build bridges. I am a/an ________.
(A) plumber (B) engineer (C) carpenter (D) teacher

2. Choose the odd one.


(A) Sandals (B) Shoes (C) Scarves (D) Slippers

3. Choose the incorrect sentence.


(A) Tina is watching television. (B) I lose my pen yesterday.
(C) I like playing football. (D) English is my favourite subject.

4. Choose the odd pair.


(A) Doctor : Stethoscope (B) Carpenter : Hammer
(C) Mason : Scissors (D) Teacher : Book

5. Complete the word using the letters from the given option.
When the boy whistled, the dog __ willingly let go of the bone.
(A) un (B) in (C) im (D) ir

Direction (Q. No. 6 to 8) : Fill in the blank.


6. Ann always ______ a lot of mistakes when she speaks English.
(A) make (B) makes (C) made (D) making

7. ________ of the girls in the class did not want to play football.
(A) Little (B) Much (C) Some (D) Less

8. I am looking forward ______ the birthday party.


(A) with (B) on (C) to (D) in

9. Complete the sentence with the correct spelling of the word.


My brother travelled to South Korea recently. He likes visiting _____ countries.
(A) phoreign (B) foreign (C) foriegn (D) foerign

Sample Paper | Class-4 | 1


READING

Direction (Q. No. 10 and 11) : Read the paragraph and choose the correct sentence.
Red woods are among the world’s tallest trees. They grow 200 to 300 feet high. The wood, when cut
remains remarkably free from decay caused by weather and insects. So, it is used to build houses and
even outdoor furniture.
10. (A) No tree is taller than the red wood tree. (B) Red wood trees grow very tall.
(C) Trees grow tall all over the world. (D) Trees grow fast.

11. (A) Red wood tree can be easily destroyed by insects.


(B) Red wood trees decay easily.
(C) Red wood trees are suitable for making long lasting park benches.
(D) Red wood trees are not used for making furniture.

SPOKEN AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Direction (Q. No. 12 and 13) : Choose the correct option.


12. Imran : When does the train for Baroda leave?
Official : ________________________.
(A) Maybe, in a week or so
(B) In an hour from platform number 5
(C) Just turn around and walk to the end of the road
(D) Sometime

13. Sentence 1 : A biography is written by a person about the life and activities of another person.
Sentence 2 : ______________________________.
(A) Whereas an autobiography is written by a person about his own life
(B) Gandhiji wrote an autobiography called My Experiments with Truth
(C) People write autobiographies about their own lives
(D) I can write biography

ACHIEVERS SECTION

Direction (Q. No. 14 and 15) : Choose the correct word to complete the sentence.
14. I missed ______ two days out of the ten days training because I was ill.
(A) the (B) only (C) all (D) a

15. Louise : How often do the buses go to town?


Isabel : ______ ten minutes.
(A) All (B) Each (C) Every (D) At

ANSWERS
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)

2 | Sample Paper | Class-4


SAMPLE PAPER SYLLABUS 2017-18 CLASS

Total Questions : 35
4 Time : 1 hr.
PATTERN & MARKING SCHEME
(1) Logical (2) Mathematical (3) Everyday (4) Achievers
Section
Reasoning Reasoning Mathematics Section
SOF INTERNATIONAL No. of Questions 10 10 10 5
MATHEMATICS OLYMPIAD Marks per Ques. 1 1 1 2
SYLLABUS
Section – 1 : Patterns, Alphabet Test, Coding-Decoding, Ranking Test, Mirror Images, Geometrical Shapes and Solids, Embedded Figures, Direction
Sense Test, Days and Dates & Possible Combinations, Analogy and Classification.
Section – 2 : Numerals and Number Names, Number Sense (5-digit numbers), Computation Operations, Fractions, Length, Weight, Capacity, Time,
Money, Geometry, Perimeter of Various Shapes, Symmetry, Conversions, Data Handling
Section – 3 : The Syllabus of this section will be based on the Syllabus of Mathematical Reasoning.
Section – 4 : Higher Order Thinking Questions - Syllabus as per Section 2.

LOGICAL REASONING

1. What is the rule for this number pattern?


1, 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, . . .
(A) Add 0, then add 1, then add 2, and so on
(B) Multiply by 1, then multiply by 2, then multiply by 3, and so on
(C) Multiply by 1, then add 1
(D) Multiply by two, then subtract 1

2. There are four figures out of which three are same in some way while one is different from the rest.
Find out the different figure.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. Count the number of straight lines in the given figure.


(A)
17 (B)
18
(C) 19 (D) 20

4. If in a certain code “MONKEY” is coded as ‘YEKNOM’, then how is ‘MONIKA’ coded in that language?
(A) KANIMO (B) AKINOM (C) NOMIKA (D) AIKONIM

5. Which number lies in all the three figures?


(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5

MATHEMATICAL REASONING

6. If ×4= and – = 330, then + =


(A) 110 (B) 440 (C) 550 (D) 990

Sample Paper | Class-4 | 1


7. Mohit went for swimming at 2:30 p.m. and returned back home 3 1 hours later. The time he came
2
back home is ______.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. How many vertices does this pyramid have?


(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8

9. There are ______tens in 36520.


(A) 12 (B) 36 (C) 365 (D) 3652

10. The perimeter of the given figure (not drawn to scale) is _____.
(A) 35 cm
(B) 27 cm
(C) 38 cm
(D) 42 cm

EVERYDAY MATHEMATICS

11. There are 3 rows of strawberry plants. Each row has 6 plants. How many strawberry plants are there
in all?
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) 24

12. Ram, Rahul and Rohit shared a bag of marbles. The bag contained 272 marbles. How many marbles
were left over after the friends shared them equally?
(A) 90 (B) 91 (C) 6 (D) 2

13. There were 3856 trees in a forest. In another forest, there were 4795 trees. How many more trees
were there in the second forest?
(A) 930 (B) 939 (C) 1689 (D) 1600

ACHIEVERS SECTION

14. Find the value of P − Q + R .


1 P 19

S
38 ) 72954 (
−38
(A) 3 349
−3 Q 2
(B) 4 75
− 38
(C) 6 3R 4
− 342
(D) 7 S2

15. The given bar graph shows the favourite ice-cream


flavours of a group of children. What fraction of total
children prefer strawberry flavour?
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/5 
(C) 1/6 (D) 4/15

ANSWERS
IMO – 1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B)

2 | Sample Paper | Class-4


MTSO QUESTION PAPER 2015 - LEVEL - II Key
Class : IV
S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans S.No Ans
1 1 11 3 21 1 31 2 41 4
2 1 12 4 22 1 32 1 42 2
3 4 13 1 23 2 33 4 43 2
4 2 14 2 24 1 34 1 44 3
5 4 15 2 25 4 35 1 45 2
6 1 16 4 26 2 36 2 46 3
7 2 17 4 27 4 37 3 47 1
8 2 18 1 28 1 38 1 48 4
9 4 19 2 29 1 39 2 49 3
10 3 20 3 30 3 40 3 50 3

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