1

SCIENCE

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Choose the best answer.
2. Do not write anything on this questionnaire.
3. Strictly no erasure.
4. Strictly no cheating.

1. Which is the correct sequence – from biggest to smallest – of the levels of organization in an organism?
A. Cell-organ-organ system-tissue B. Organ-organ system-tissue-cell
C. Tissue-cell-organ-organ system D. Organ system-organ-tissue-cell
2. At which smallest level of organization in an organism can the characteristics of life be carried out?
A. Organ system B. Organ
C. Tissue D. Cell
3. Which of the following differentiates organs from tissues?
A. Organs make up tissues; tissues make up organs.
B. Tissues make up organs; cells make up tissues.
C. Organs and tissues are made up of cells.
D. Organs and tissues make up an organ system.
4. The organ systems of plants consist of the root and shoot systems. Why is it important for these organ systems to work together?
A. To grow and survive B. To avoid pests and other animals
C. To survive floods and strong winds D. To survive droughts and earthquakes
5. Flowers are the reproductive organs of plants. How are flowers different from the reproductive organs of animals?
A. Flowers have male and female parts; animals have either male or female parts.
B. Flowers need pollinators like bees to reproduce; animals do not.
C. Flowers are shed from time to time; nothing is shed from animals.
D. There is no difference between flowers and the reproductive organs of animals.
6. Each part of an organ system plays a specific function. Which of the following structure DOES NOT match its function?
A. Eyes:Sight B. Kidneys : Respiration
C. Heart:Circulation D. Stomach : Digestion
7. Cancer starts from cells that start to grow uncontrollably fast. They destroy tissues and organs. What does this say about the
effects of diseased cells on higher levels of organization in an organism?
A. Cancer involves only certain kinds of cells and does not affect any other kind of cell.
B. Diseased cells affect only the next higher levels of organization that they make up – the tissues.
C. Diseased cells damage the higher levels of organization they make up: tissues, organs, organ systems, and eventually, the
whole organism.
D. Diseased cells DO NOT affect the other parts of an organism.
8. The heart pumps blood that carries oxygen and nutrients to the different parts of the body. To which organ system does the heart
belong?
A. Circulatory B. Digestive
C. Excretory D. Reproductive
9. Which part of the cell plays a role during cell division?
A. Centriole B. Cell wall
C. Ribosome D. Nucleolus
10. Which is the control center of the cell?
A. nuclear envelope B. plasma membrane
C. nucleus D. lysosome
11. Which part of the cell functions in the excretion of waste materials?
A. vesicle B. vacuole
C. Golgi body D. endoplasmic reticulum
12. Which could help you identify an animal cell?
I. absence of centrioles
II. irregular shape
III. presence of cell wall
IV. angular and rigid shape
V. absence of chloroplast

A. I and III B. II and V

C. I and IV D. III and IV
13. What part of the cell store water and maintain its rigidity?
A. vacuole B. vesicle
C. cytoplasm D. centriole

14. Which part of this cell allows or prevents substances to go into and out of this cell?
A. plasma membrane B. cell wall
C. nuclear envelope D. nuclear pore
15. If the chloroplasts of a plant cell are damaged, which will it be unable to do?
A. protect the cell B. make food for the cell
C. excrete waste materials D. give instruction for cell to reproduce
16. Which part of the cell allows different activities of the cell to happen; it is the cell’s environment?
A. vacuoles B. lysosome
C. cytoplasm D. vesicle
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17. Which part of the cell is responsible for the arrangement of parts during cell division?
A. nucleus B. lysosome
C. Golgi body D. centrioles
18. For producers, which cell part is responsible for food production?
A. mitochondrion
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. chloroplast
D. vacuole
19. Why are plasma membrane semi-permeable?
A. They allow all substances to pass through
B. They allow some substances to pass through
C. No substances are allowed to pass through
D. Sometimes, it allows; sometimes, it does not allow
20. Which organ system is responsible for the digestion of food we eat?
A. Circulatory system B. Digestive system
C. Cardiovascular system D. muscular system
21. What organs compose the nervous system?
A. heart and blood vessels B. lungs and blood
C. brain and spinal cord D. stomach and intestine
22. What cells are responsible for reproduction of offspring?
A. egg and sperm cells B. mast cells
C. bone marrow D. neurons
23. Which of the following organ systems of the body gets rid of waste?
A. excretory system B. skeletal system
C. endocrine system D. lymphatic system
24. Which organ system is responsible for the exchange of gases for breathing?
A. Urinary system B. Respiratory system
C. Muscular system D. Reproductive system
25. All of the following describes a plant cell EXCEPT:
A. angular shape B. has chloroplast
C. producer D. with centrioles
26. All of the following describes an animal BUT:
A. circular shape B. has cell wall
C. with plasma membrane D. has lysosome
27. What makes the ER rough?
A. vesicles B. lysozyme
C. ribosomes D. nucleus
28. What part of the cell is considered its powerhouse?
A. ER B. Golgi body
C. cytoplasm D. mitochondria
29. What part of the cell kills and digest bacteria that enters the cytoplasm?
A. lysosome B. vesicle
C. vacuole D. mitochondrion
30. Which of the following part of a cell found in plants but not in animals?
A. ER B. mitochondrion
C. Golgi body D. chloroplast
31. When cells break down food into chemical energy it undergoes three processes, of the three which one provides the most number
of ATP molecules?
A. Glycolysis B. Calvin Cycle
C. Electron Transport Chain D. Krebs Cycle
32. Sugarcan juice is used in making table sugar which is extracted from the stem of the plant. Trace the path of sugar molecules
found in the stem from where they are produced?
A. Root – stem B. Leaf – stem
C. Flowers – leaf – stem D. Roots – leaf – stem
33. Which of the following BEST explains why planting trees and putting up urban gardens can help prevent global warming?
A. Plants produce oxygen during daytime and perform transpiration.
B. Plants absorb carbon dioxide that contribute to the rising of earth’s temperature.
C. Plants perform photosynthesis.
D. Plants use up carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, release oxygen to the environment, and perform transpiration.
34. A vegetable farmer wants to increase his harvest. Which of the following conditions should the farmer consider?
A. The kind of soil only. B. The amount of water only.
C. The location of the plots only. D. All of the above.
35. A farmer is experiencing a problem in growing his crops. Most of the leaves of the crops are turning yellow. Which of the
following will likely result from the yellowing of the leaves of the crops?
A. It will increase the production of food.
B. It will decrease the production of food.
C. The production of food will remain the same.
D. None of the above.
36. Which electron transition results in the emission of energy?
A. 3p to 3s B. 2s to 2p
C. 3p to 4p D. 1s to 2s
37. The symbol “n” in the Bohr theory of atomic structure refers to?
A. the energy of electron B. the total energy of the atom
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C. the number of electron in an energy level D. the orbit in which an electron is found

38. Which of the following sublevels is correctly designated?

A. 3d11 B. 2p6
C. 3f9 D. 3d11
39. How many orbitals are in the third main energy level?
A. 3 B. 9
C. 6 D. 2
40. Which configuration is possible in an excited state of electron?
A. 2He : 1s2
B. 1H : 1d1
C. 11Na : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3d1
D. 10Ne : 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1
41. What are the orbitals present in the fifth main energy level?
A. sharp orbitals B. sharp and principal orbitals
C. sharp, principal, and diffused orbitals D. sharp, principal, diffused, and fundamental orbitals
42. If the first and second main energy levels of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?
A. 6 B. 16
C. 10 D. 8
43. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particles is present in the nucleus of an atom?
A. proton and electron B. proton and neutron
C. neutron and electron D. proton only
44. For a neutral atom with the electron configuration notation of 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1?
A. The atomic number is 10. B. The atom is in the excited state.
C. The atom is in the ground state. D. The 1s and 2s orbitals are filled.
45. Which principle states that single electron with the same spin must occupy each equal energy orbital before additional electrons
with opposite spins can occupy the same orbitals?
A. Pauli exclusion principle B. Aufbau principle
C. Hund’s rule D. effective nuclear charge
46. Which principle states that each electron occupies the lowest energy orbital available.
A. Pauli exclusion principle B. Aufbau principle
C. Hund’s rule D. effective nuclear charge
47. Which principle states that a maximum of two electrons may occupy a single atomic orbital, but only if the electrons have opposite
spins?
A. Pauli exclusion principle B. Aufbau principle
C. Hund’s rule D. effective nuclear charge
48. Which explains why there is a need to skip d orbitals in some main energy levels in the distribution of electrons?
A. Pauli exclusion principle B. Aufbau principle
C. Hund’s rule D. effective nuclear charge
49. How many electrons are in an atom which atomic number is 20?
A. 40 B. 30
C. 20 D. 10
50. What is the varying factor of an atom that determines an isotope?
A. electron B. proton
C. neutron D. atomic mass
51. If a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous short plant (tt), how many percent of the
offspring are heterozygous tall?
A. 100% B. 25%
C. 50% D. 75%
52. A polygenic trait is also called __________.
A. continuous trait B. holandric gene
C. multiple alleles D. X-link gene
53. How many chromosomes does a human gamete have?
A. 12 B. 46
C. 24 D. 23
54. A plant bearing pink flowers is allowed to pollinate itself. Every generation thereafter, the plant still
produces pink flowers. This condition is known as __________.
A. hybridization B. incomplete dominance
C. pure breeding D. segregation
55. A homozygous red-flowered plant was crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant and resulted in an
offspring with red flowers. This demonstrates a case of __________.
A. dihybrid cross B. dominance
C. monohybrid cross D. pure breeding
56. When both parental phenotypes are expressed in the F1 generation, the inheritance most likely involved is/are
__________.
A. codominance B. incomplete dominance
C. multiple alleles D. polygenic inheritance
57. Which law or principle states that the inheritance of one trait is not affected by the inheritance of another
trait?
A. Law of Independent Assortment B. Principle of Recessiveness
C. Law of Segregation D. Principle of Dominance
58. Which law or principle explains the separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis?
A. Law of Segregation B. Principle of Recessiveness
C. Law of Independent Assortment D. Principle of Dominance
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59. What information can be obtained from a Punnett square?

A. genotype of offspring B. phenotype of offspring
C. phenotypic ratio of offspring D. chromosome number of offspring

60. The study that deals with the determination of the frequency of genes in a group of organisms is called
__________.
A. genetic engineering B. Mendelian genetics
C. molecular genetics D. population genetics
61. Baldness is an example of a/an __________.
A. holandric gene B. polygene
C. sex-influence trait D. X-linked gene
62. A genotype with a symbol Aa is said to be __________.
A. dominant B. heterozygous
C. homozygous D. recessive
63. A monohybrid cross involves __________.
A. one trait at a time B. two homozygous individuals
C. two heterozygous individuals D. a dominant and a recessive trait
64. The classic Mendelian phenotypic ratio when a heterozygote self-crosses is __________.
A. 1:1 B. 3:1
C. 1:2:1 D. 9:3:3:1
65. A singer wants to improve and supports proper breathing to avoid voice straining, which of the following is
the BEST he can do?
A. Sing from the diaphragm instead of the throat.
B. Sing from the lungs instead of the diaphragm.
C. Sing from the bronchi instead of the trachea.
D. Sing from the trachea instead of the pharynx.
66. Which is MOST LIKELY to happen with an old woman joining a kilometer-dash sprint?
A. She will feel very exhausted afterwards.
B. She will have increased heart rate.
C. She will have decreased heart rate.
D. She will feel very energetic afterwards.
67. Which of the following is TRUE about a heart rate after running?
A. After running, the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen through the blood to the muscles.
B. After running, the heart rate decreases to supply more oxygen through the blood to the muscles.
C. After running, the heart rate stops to halt supply of oxygen through the blood to the muscles.
D. After running, the heart rate is not affected by any oxygen deficiency through the blood to the
muscles.
68. What is the reason for the government’s warning of cigarette smoking being dangerous to once health?
A. Cigarette smoking carries certain gases that harm plants and insects.
B. Cigarette smoking pollutes the air in the atmosphere.
C. Cigarette smoking increases risk of developing cardiovascular diseases.
D. Cigarette smoking decreases the amount of good air in the atmosphere.
69. What happens to the gases in the air, aside from oxygen, that we inhale during breathing?
A. The gases will remain in the bronchi.
B. The gases will remain in the lungs.
C. The gases will be circulated throughout the body.
D. The gases will be trapped in the heart.
70. Which of the following is the reason why our cells need oxygen?
A. Our cells use oxygen to be able to release the carbon dioxide and provide energy in the body.
B. Our cells use oxygen to be able to convert carbon dioxide into energy in the body.
C. Our cells use oxygen to be able to process the blood to provide energy for the body.
D. Our cells use oxygen to be able to process the nutrients to provide energy for the body.
71. Which is TRUE about the heart pumping blood in general throughout the body.
A. The heart pumps blood on one side of the body.
B. The heart pumps blood on every side of the body.
C. The heart pumps blood on the left side of the body.
D. The heart pumps blood on the right side of the body.
72. Which is NOT TRUE about the diaphragm during breathing?
A. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts.
B. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes.
C. During inhalation, the diaphragm helps increase the space in the chest cavity.
D. During exhalation, the diaphragm helps maintain the size of the lungs.
73. Why do we need to get rid of carbon dioxide?
A. Carbon dioxide is needed by plants and animals.
B. Carbon dioxide is needed by the soil.
C. Carbon dioxide is considered as waste during respiration.
D. Carbon dioxide is considered useless by the body.
74. What is the relationship between the circulatory and respiratory systems?
A. They both allow air to pass throughout the body.
B. They both allow blood to pass throughout the body.
C. The circulatory system distributes oxygen to the body as it receives oxygen from the respiratory
system.
D. The circulatory system receives oxygen from the respiratory system while it allows carbon dioxide to
be circulated.
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75. All of the following are phases of respiration EXCEPT:

A. internal respiration B. external respiration
C. cellular respiration D. bleeding

76. Which of the following statements BEST describes the respiration process.
A. It is the overall distribution of gases.
B. It is the overall exchange of gases.
C. It is the overall elimination of gases.
D. It is the overall production of energy.
77. Which of the following parts of the circulatory system is considered as the vessel?
A. atrium B. ventricles
C. capillaries D. blood
78. Which is the number of times the heart beats in a minute?
A. heart rate B. carina
C. respiration D. breathing
79. What do we refer as the sites of external respiration?
A. cells B. heart
C. blood vessels D. alveoli
80. Why is the environment essential in respiration?
A. It contains the oxygen.
B. It contains the carbon dioxide.
C. It contains the carbon dioxide and oxygen.
D. It contains the blood.
81. When the chest cavity expands, what happens to pressure?
A. It increases as space increases.
B. It increases as space decreases.
C. It decreases as space increases.
D. It decreases as space decreases.
82. Which is a chronic and allergic condition that makes the breathing airways narrow and swollen, and causes
them to produce extra mucus?
A. asthma B. tuberculosis
C. pneumonia D. bronchitis
83. What is one of the common causes of leading cancer-related deaths among men and women acquired
through exposure to tobacco smoke?
A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) B. lung Cancer
C. emphysema D. influenza
84. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), 8 million people develop this infectious disease and
about 2 million die from it each year?
A. tuberculosis B. asthma
C. emphysema D. bronchitis
85. It is associated with a group of lung diseases: emphysema, asthma, and chronic bronchitis. Which disease is
it that progresses through time causing obstruction of airflow?
A. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) B. lung Cancer
C. emphysema D. influenza
86. How do we BEST prevent respiratory illnesses?
A. changing our food preferences
B. changing our activity preferences
C. changing our household preferences
D. changing our lifestyle
87. The risk of extinction today is different from previous mass extinctions because __________.
A. biodiversity loss is slower
B. the ecosystems are more protected than before
C. the current crisis is caused by human activities
D. natural calamities have reduced the number of species
88. All of the following are causes of premature extinction EXCEPT:
A. habitat fragmentation
B. human population growth
C. overharvesting
D. sustainable development
89. More organisms are being destroyed in which area of the world?
A. desert B. rivers and lakes
C. grasslands D. tropical rainforest
90. In a warmer world, we would expect more __________.
A. loss of biodiversity B. growth of coral reefs
C. moderate weather patterns D. abundance in food production
91. The most effective way to preserve biodiversity is through __________.
A. captive breeding B. habitat destruction
C. habitat fragmentation D. habitat preservation
92. The complete disappearance of the members of a species from Earth is called __________.
A. conservation B. extinction
C. fragmentation D. preservation
93. Species that are in danger of becoming extinct in the near future are known as __________.
A. endangered species B. exotic species
C. keystone species D. threatened species
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94. Humans are using __________ natural resources than they did 100 years ago.
A. more B. fewer
C. better D. appropriate

95. Pollutants dumped into the rivers and streams eventually find their way to __________.
A. the ocean B. the atmosphere
C. groundwater supplies D. canal
96. The average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere may rise as a result of __________.
A. the greenhouse effect B. water pollution
C. garbage dumping D. global warming
97. Many __________ energy resources are being developed to replace fossil fuels.
A. non-renewable B. alternative
C. expensive D. high technology
98. Some endangered species of plants in tropical rain forests may be sources of __________.
A. fossil fuel B. medicine
C. hazardous waste D. recycled materials
99. The Ice Age is an example of __________.
A. background extinction B. commercial extinction
C. mass extinction D. premature extinction
100. Which group of organisms are more prone to extinction?
A. those with specialized diet
B. those with less commercial value
C. those with high reproductive rate
D. those with smaller size of offspring
101. An acid rain becomes acidic due to the presence of a certain gas in the atmosphere. Which one is it?
A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon Dioxide D. Nitrogen
102. All of the following are acidic household items EXCEPT:
A. Vinegar B. Soft drink
C. Milk D. Toothpaste
103. In all of the following situations, the acidity or basicity of matter is important to life EXCEPT for one:
A. Human body functioning B. Food processing
C. Personal care D. Cutting of trees
104. Calamansi juice contains citric acid which has a pH of which of the following?
A. pH 2 B. pH 8
C. pH 10 D. pH 12
105. Which of the following reasons BEST describes the reason why there were three set-ups in testing the effects of acids on metals?
A. To achieve common results
B. To see the effect on the dependent variable
C. To obtain replicate data
D. To see the effect of the independent variable
106. Which of the following is an effect of rust in an iron?
A. Weakens the iron B. Exposes iron to further rusting
C. Both A and B D. None of them
107. In the activity on investigating the effect of an acid in a metal, what acid was really used?
A. Carbonic acid B. Lactic acid
C. Acetic acid D. Citric acid
108. Which of the following BEST describes the characteristics of iron rust?
A. Flaky B. Red-brown
C. Solid D. All of the above
109. Which is the pH of a neutralized solution?
A. pH 8 B. pH 9
C. pH 10 D. pH 7
110. Which of the following is NOT a product of neutralization?
A. Neutral solution B. pH of 7
C. acid + base D. salt
111. Which shows an effective and practical use of the effects of neutralization?
A. Using antacids during indigestion
B. Preparing the soil for planting using fertilizers
C. Activating good bacteria for food preparation
D. Cleaning with hydrochloric acid by making sure windows and doors are open
112. When an indicator is added to a neutral solution, the color change is?
A. Blue B. Yellow
C. Green D. No change
113. Which of the following is a natural cause of making rain acidic?
A. Release of gases from power plants
B. Release of gases from factories
C. Volcanic eruptions
D. Small-scale burning
114. An indicator has which of the following pigments in plants that create color change during the determining of the acidity or
basicity of some common household items?
A. Anthozantins B. Anthocyanides
C. Anthocyanins D. Anthonyns
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115. Which of the following is NOT an expected resulting color change of using an indicator?
A. To blue B. To green
C. To yellow D. To violet
116. What is a rust?
A. Hydrated iron B. Hydrated oxide
C. Oxygenated iron D. Oxygenated oxide
117. What stabilizes the indicator when preparing it?
A. Cola B. Alum
C. Soda D. Starch
118. Which of the examples is NOT proper handling of acids and bases?
A. Proper labeling
B. Keeping them out-of-reach of children
C. Storing in a properly closed bottles or containers
D. Storing in a warm dry place
119. The process of neutralization has some uses in everyday life. Which one is not?
A. Treating insect stings B. Avoiding tooth decay
C. Treating soil D. Treating poisons
120. Which of the following plants is NOT used as a source of an indicator?
A. Mayana B. Eggplant
C. Baston ni San Jose D. Bayabas
121. Which is a mountain where lava comes out from a magma chamber under the ground?
A. Hill B. Volcano
C. Cliff D. Summit
122. What type of volcano is built out of lava from continual eruptions without explosions?
A. Shield B. Stratovolcano
C. Caldera D. Composite
123. Which volcano has a steep profile and has periodic eruptions?
A. Stratovolcano B. Shield
C. Caldera D. Pumice
124. According to the classification of volcanos, which volcano has not erupted in historical times?
A. Active B. Inactive
C. Extinct D. Dormant
125. How are volcanos formed?
A. When two tectonic plates come together.
B. When two tectonic plates come together and one of them goes under.
C. When the oceanic plate and continental plate come together and usually the oceanic plate goes under the continental plate.
D. When the oceanic plate and continental plate come together and usually the continental plate goes under the oceanic plate.
126. When the oceanic and continental plates meet, one goes under the other and this process is called?
A. Abduction B. Deduction
C. Subduction D. Reduction
127. As soon as magma is formed, what could have melted to form this?
A. Metals B. Tectonic Plates
C. Oceanic Plates D. Continental Plates
128. Which of the following melts as it goes under another plate to form magma?
A. Tectonic Plates B. Oceanic Plates
C. Continental Plates D. Crust
129. Which of the following moves over a hot spot in the Earth’s crust to form a volcano?
A. Tectonic Plates B. Oceanic Plates
C. Crust D. Continental Plates
130. When should be the last eruption of an active volcano?
A. 10 000 years ago B. 100 000 years ago
C. 10 years ago D. 1 year ago
131. Which type of volcano is said to be “sleeping” but could awaken in the future?
A. Dormant B. Extinct
C. Active D. Viscous
132. How many years has an extinct volcano NOT erupted?
A. past 1 year B. past 10 years
C. past 100 000 years D. past 10 000 years
133. Which of the following factors DOES NOT affect volcano’s eruptive style?
A. Temperature of magma B. Chemical composition
C. Dissolved gases it contains D. Viscosity
134. Which refers to the property of the materials’ resistance to flow?
A. Temperature B. Chemical composition
C. Gases dissolved D. Viscosity
135. What happens to viscosity as temperature increases?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains the same.
D. It will cause no effect.
136. What is silica’s effect to the viscosity of the magma?
A. The magma that contains less silica is relatively fluid
B. The magma that contains less silica is viscous.
C. The magma that contains less silica is hardened.
D. The magma that contains less silica is soft.
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137. Which is TRUE about the effect of amount of gases contained in magma to its viscosity?
A. Gas dissolved in magma tends to decrease its ability to flow.
B. Gas dissolved in magma tends to increase its ability to flow.
C. Gas dissolved in magma tends to neutralize its ability to flow.
D. Gas dissolved in magma has no effect to its ability to flow.

138. What characteristic of magma mainly determines its explosiveness?

A. Color
B. Amount
C. Temperature
D. Silica content
139. Why can a thick layer of volcanic ash cause collapse to the roofs of buildings?
A. It is solid.
B. It cannot be blown by winds.
C. It becomes heavier as it cools.
D. It consist of tiny fragments of rocks that become heavy as they pile up.
140. Which of the following factors associated with huge volcanic eruptions may cause the decrease in the Earth’s average
temperature for a few years?
A. Heat B. Light
C. Acid rain D. Volcanic ash
141. Which of the following is NOT active volcano?
A. Mayon in Albay
B. Taal in Batangas
C. Vulcan in Camiguin
D. Kanlaon in Negros Oriental
142. What type of volcanic eruption occurred in Mt. Pinatubo in Zambales that is said to be excessively explosive type of eruption of
gas and pyroclastics?
A. Vulcanian B. Plinian
C. Phreatomagmatic D. Phrearic
143. All are negative effects of volcanic eruption EXCEPT:
A. Fertile soil B. Decreased temperature
C. Destruction D. Pollution
144. Which of the following is a volcanic reservoir?
A. Crater B. Vent
C. Magma Chamber D. Cinders
145. Which part of a volcano is called the summit?
A. A compound of silicon B. the peak or highest point
C. The resistance to flow D. molten rock inside the Earth
146. What causes the plate tectonics to move?
A. Heat loss B. Warm temperature
C. Ice blast D. Eruptions
147. What happens to hotter stuff?
A. Moves
B. Hardens
C. Sinks
D. Rises
148. Which of the following is being referred to as the water portion of the Earth?
A. Hydrosphere
B. Biosphere
C. Cryosphere
D. Atmosphere
149. Which is the icy portion of the Earth’s crust?
A. Biosphere
B. Atmosphere
C. Hydrosphere
D. Cryosphere
150. What is the primary agent of crustal weathering?
A. oxygen
B. hydrogen
C. water
D. rocks
151. Which theory states that the planets of our Solar System were formed by the accretion of materials from a cloud of gas and dust?
A. Catastrophism B. Uniformitarianism
C. Nebular Theory D. Utilitarianism
152. The volcano near your place is erupting. What should your family do?
A. Hide under the house.
B. Spray your house with water.
C. Leave your house immediately.
D. Strengthen the house with ropes.
153. A volcano erupted a month ago. People returned to their homes. One day it was announced that another eruption might occur.
What should your family do?
A. Evacuate if necessary.
B. Wait until the volcano erupts.
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C. Ignore the radio announcement.

D. Stay in the house and store some food and water.
154. How can you protect yourself from ashes of an erupting volcano?
A. Wear helmet.
B. Wear a wide-brimmed hat.
C. Cover your mouth and nose with a dry cloth.
D. Cover your mouth and nose with a wet cloth.
155. Which is a beneficial effect of volcanic eruptions?
A. Displacement of people from their homes.
B. Sickness such as allergies and respiratory ailments.
C. Geothermal power plants which generate electricity.
D. Lahar flows.
156. Which of the following statements about the scientific method is ACCEPTABLE?
A. A hypothesis must be agreed upon by more than one scientist.
B. A theory is proven to be true and therefore may not be discarded.
C. A hypothesis cannot predict the outcome of scientific experiments.
D. A theory is a hypothesis that has withstood many scientific tests.
157. The Earth’s external heat engine is NOT responsible for which of the following:
A. Winds B. Erosion
C. Climate D. Tides
158. The descent of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle is the process of _____?
A. Contraction fault B. Divergence zone
C. Subduction D. Accretion
159. The greatest threat to our environment is _____?
A. Bacteria B. Volcanoes
C. Earthquakes D. Humans
160. What caused dust and condensing material to accrete into planetesimals?
A. Heating of gases
B. Gravitational attraction and collisions
C. Nuclear fusion
D. Rotation of the proto-sun
161. Which of the following is NOT one of the four inner planets?
A. Mars B. Earth
C. Neptune D. Pluto
162. The outer planets are composed mostly of?
A. Rocks and Ice B. Oxygen and Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen and Helium D. Helium and Krypton
163. _____ is called the “father” of Geology?
A. John Butler
B. Art Smith
C. James Hutton
D. Alfred Wegner
164. _____ involves transfer of heat by the physical movement of the material?
A. Conduction B. Metamorphism
C. Convection D. Radiation
165. What drives the Earth’s internal heat engine?
A. Radioactivity B. Solar energy
C. Volcanoes D. Ocean tides
166. The layer that separates crust from the core is the?
A. Continent B. Mantle
C. Lithosphere D. Magma Layer
167. How thick is the crust of the Earth?
A. About 4 miles B. About 4 km
C. About 40 km D. About 400 km
168. The heat that caused melting in the Earth’s early history was supplied from which of the following events or causes?
A. Volcanic activity and radioactivity
B. A large impact event and radioactivity
C. Solar heating and volcanic activity
D. A large impact event and solar heating
169. According to the principle of uniformitarianism?
A. Geologic processes we observe today have operated in the past
B. Geologic process in the past operated at the same rate as they do today
C. All of the planets formed from a uniform solar nebula
D. Early Earth was covered by a uniform magma ocean
170. What are the two most abundant elements in the nebula (gas clouds) in the universe?
A. Nitrogen and oxygen
B. Oxygen and silicon
C. Hydrogen and helium
D. Iron and nickel
171. Which of the following concepts of the Newtonian mechanics deals with the concepts that are needed to describe motion, without
any reference to forces?
A. Mechanics B. Kinematics
C. Dynamics D. Physics
172. Which of the following concepts of describing motion is the distance traveled divided by time of travel?
 10

A. Velocity B. Acceleration
C. Speed D. Displacement
173. Which of the following statements about the difference between distance
and displacement is TRUE?
A. Distance has magnitude and displacement has direction.
B. Displacement has magnitude and distance has direction
C. Distance has no magnitude and direction while displacement
has no direction only.
D. Displacement has both magnitude and direction while distance
has magnitude only.
174. All of the following are vector quantities EXCEPT:
A. Displacement B. Velocity
C. Force D. Mass
175. Starting from origin, Kint walks 103 m east, then turns around and walks 62 m west. What is the displacement?
A. 130 m, due east
B. 130 m, due west
C. 90 m, due east
D. 41 m, due west
176. Which of the following is an acceleration unit?
A. m/s B. km/h
C. m/s2 D. cm/min
177. Which of the following formulae will give you the displacement given the velocity and time?
A. d = vt B. v = d/t
C. t = v/d D. d = vf/vi
178. The motion of an object with constant acceleration is also known as __________?
A. Motion
B. Uniformly Accelerated Motion
C. Constant Motion
D. Uniform Motion
179. If a freely falling ball is somehow equipped with a speedometer, by how much would its speed reading increase for every
second?
A. 20 m/s B. 10 m/s
C. 9.8 m/s D. 0 m/s
180. A sepak takraw ball is hit vertically upward by a player. What is its
acceleration after 1 second?
A. -9.8 m/s2 B. 9.8 m/s2
2
C. 1 m/s D. 0
181. A ball is thrown vertically upward. What is its instantaneous speed at its
maximum height?
A. 0 B. 5 m/s
C. 9.8 m/s D. 9.8 m/s2
182. A ball is hit at an angle of 30˚. At what point in its trajectory does this
projectile have the least speed?
A. Just after it was launched.
B. At the highest point in its flight.
C. Just before it hits the ground
D. Halfway between the ground and the highest point
183. Which has more momentum, a heavy truck moving at 30 km/h or a light
truck moving at 30 km/h?
A. Heavy truck
B. Light truck
C. Both have the same momentum
D. Cannot be determined
184. Which is a necessary condition for the total momentum of a system to be
conserved?
A. Kinetic energy must not change.
B. No external force is present.
C. An object must be at rest.
D. Only the force of gravity acts on the system.
185. What is the energy of a motorcycle moving slowly at the top of a hill?
A. Entirely kinetic
B. Entirely potential
C. Entirely gravitational
D. Both kinetic and potential
186. Which is NOT TRUE about the nature of energy?
A. You can feel energy as wind.
B. You can see energy as light.
C. You can hear energy as sound.
D. You cannot eat energy.
187. Which of the following situations shows that energy is NOT being used?
A. Sleeping
B. Watching scenery
C. Eating breakfast
D. None of the above
 11

188. Which of the following statements BEST explains the nature of energy?
A. Energy used to do work is never gained
B. Energy is gained when work is done
C. Energy is neither gained nor used when work is done
D. All of the above
189. All are forms of energy EXCEPT:
A. Mechanical
B. Electromagnetic
C. Entropy
D. Chemical
190. Which of the following is produced by friction?
A. Heat energy B. Chemical energy
C. Electromagnetic D. Mechanical energy
191. Which type of energy is required for atomic bonding?
A. Mechanical energy B. Chemical energy
C. Kinetic energy D. Heat energy
192. Which is an example of chemical energy?
A. Food and drinks B. Electricity
C. Nuclear D. Sunlight
193. Which is a convenient form of electromagnetic energy?
A. Friction B. Electricity
C. Fission D. Fussion
194. Which of the following DOES NOT carry electromagnetic energy?
A. X-ray B. Radio Waves
C. Laser Beams D. Fuel
195. Which form of energy is acquired when work is done on an object?
B. Mechanical energy B. Nuclear energy
D. Atomic energy D. Potential energy
196. Which of the following DOES NOT involve energy conversion?
A. Photosynthesis B. Photography
C. Overloading D. Digestion
197. Which of the following shows the energy conversions occurring in an
automobile engine?
A. chemical – mechanical – heat
B. heat – mechanical – chemical
C. chemical – heat – mechanical
D. heat – chemical – mechanical
198. When is a form of energy in its potential state?
A. it is in motion
B. it is affected by velocity and mass
C. its velocity’s effect is squared
D. it is stored in foods
199. Which is NOT potential energy?
A. running water down hill
B. pulling back an arrow
C. lifting a brick high in the air
D. stretching a rubber band
200. What is a potential energy that is dependent on height called?
A. Ecstatic potential energy
B. Hydrostatic potential energy
C. Gravitational potential energy
D. Electromagnetic potential energy
201. Which statement DOES NOT support the law on conservation of energy?
A. Energy cannot be created
B. Energy cannot be destroyed
C. Energy can be consumed
D. Energy can be converted to various forms
202. What is the acceleration due to gravity equal to?
A. 10 m/s
B. -10 m/s2
C. 9.8m/s2
D. -9.8 m/s2
203. Which of the following situations would be more damaging if two
vehicles suddenly lose their breaks and crash?
A. a 200 kg car running at a speed of 45 km/h and a 150 kg car
running at a speed of 45 km/h
B. a 250 kg car running at a speed of 45 km/h and a 160 kg car
running at a speed of 45 km/h
C. a 400 kg car running at a speed of 45 km/h and a 350 kg car
running at a speed of 45 km/h
D. a 650 kg car running at a speed of 45 km/h and a 500 kg car
running at a speed of 45 km/h
 12

Object Mass (kg) Velocity (m/s) Momentum (kg-m/s)

Bird 0.03 18 0.54
Basketball player 100 5 500
Bullet .004 600 2.40
Baseball .14 30 4.20
Frog .9 12 10.80

Refer to the table above for items 204-205.

204. Which of the following DOES NOT describe momentum of an object?
A. The stopping distance is longer for a heavy object than the light
one.
B. The heavy object has a greater momentum.
C. The less massive body should have greater velocity than the
more massive body.
D. The increase in velocity also increases momentum no matter
what the mass is.
205. What causes changes in momentum?
A. Velocity only
B. Mass only
C. Both mass and velocity
D. Type of object
206. Which is TRUE about conservation of momentum?
A. It requires a system.
B. It can happen in one object.
C. It is present in all objects.
D. It affects only one object in a system.
207. What is the initial momentum of the system in a conserved momentum?
A. Half the mass of the units
B. Zero
C. Equal to the mass of the units
D. Equal to the velocity of the units
208. Which BEST describes a collision of an object that bounced back 1.5
meter in height from a 1 meter height of release?
A. Perfectly elastic B. Perfectly inelastic
C. Moderately inelastic D. Slightly elastic
209. Which of the following BEST explains the reason why the egg does not
break in the handkerchief?
A. the handkerchief increases time of impact
B. the handkerchief is light
C. the handkerchief has less momentum
D. the handkerchief is soft
210. What is the difference between speed and velocity?
A. direction
B. distance
C. time
D. acceleration
211. Which of the following is defined as an external force acting on an object
over a specific time leading to a change in momentum of the object?
A. Impulse B. Impact
C. Force D. Displacement
212. Randy hits a 0.2 kg volleyball ball, giving it a speed of 25 m/s. What
impulse does he impart to the ball?
A. 50 kg-m/s B. 0.50 kg-m/s
C. 5 kg-m/s D. 500 kg-m/s
213. A girl travels 30 miles on her bicycle. The trip takes 2 hours. What is her
speed in miles/hr?
A. 10 miles/hr
B. 15 miles/hr
C. 16 miles/hr
D. 20 miles/hr
214. What is the speed of a jet plane that travels 18 000 meters in 24.24
seconds?
A. 743.58 m/s
B. 742.57 m/s
C. 745.56 m/s
D. 742.55 m/s
215. A race car accelerates uniformly from 37 m/s to 92.2 m/s in 4.94 seconds.
What is its acceleration and distance traveled?
A. a = 11.30 m/s2; d = 79.7m
B. a = 11.20 m/s2; d = 79.8 m
C. a = 11.40 m/s2; d = 79.9 m
D. a = 11.50 m/s2; d = 79.6 m
216. A motorbike starts from rest and accelerates uniformly over a time of
10.42 seconds for a distance of 220 m. What is the acceleration of the car?
 13

A. 4.06 m/s2 B. 4.05 m/s2

2
C. 4.04 m/s D. 4.03 m/s2
217. An airplane accelerates down a runway at 6.40 m/s2 for 65.6 seconds until
it finally lifts off ground. What was the distance traveled prior to take-off?
A. 13772.00 m B. 13770.75 m
C. 13774.00 m D. 13773.00 m
218. Which among the forms of energy is considered a potential energy?
A. Chemical energy
B. Radiant energy
C. Sound energy
D. thermal energy
219. A picture frame falls of the wall. Considering the presence of air, how
does the kinetic energy (K) just before striking the floor compared to the
potential energy (P) at its hanging point?
A. K is equal to P.
B. K is greater than P.
C. K is less than P.
D. It is impossible to tell.
220. What are the two general forms of energy?
A. Potential and Mechanical
B. Kinetic and Chemical
C. Potential and Kinetic
D. Kinetic and Mechanical