Bài thi môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 8

Thời gian làm bài 100 phút

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Số phách
Bằng số: ……………………… GK 1: …………………………….……
Bằng chữ: …………………… GK 2: …………………………….……

SECTION A – READING.
Part 1(10 points): Read the text and choose the best answer.

FOOTBALL GAMES
It's a game which may be never quite caught on with the rest of the world but
it is very much a part of the American sport scene. Basketball, tennis and
volleyball can all well be considered international sports, but American
football is distinctly American in the same way that sumo is uniquely
Japanese.
American football evolved in the 19th century as a combination of rugby and
soccer. The first intercollegiate football match in the United States dates back
to 1869 between Princeton University and Rutgers College at New Brunswick,
New Jersey, but it was more of a kicking match than modern football as we
know it.
In 1880 Walter Camp established the standard formations now used in
football and introduced the current systems used for scoring and tackling.
From all external appearances it is an excessively violent sport in a way in
which tennis, for example, is not. To play American football it is necessary to
be well protected with a helmet, shoulder pads and knee guards. When fully
attired, a football player may well look ready to enter the battlefield. Blocking
and tackling make football one of the most rugged of sports. As far as games
are concerned football also has one of the highest number of casualties.
Players often end up with broken bones, dislocated hips and kneecaps,
sprained backs and shoulders and twisted ankles. Although steps were
introduced at the turn of the century to make the game safer, the violence of
the game continued.
This American game is played by two teams of 11 men each on a field that
measures 91.4 by 48.8 meters. At each end of the field is an end zone 9.14
meters deep in which stand H -shaped goal posts. Play is directed toward
gaining possession of the football and moving it across the opponent's goal
line thereby scoring a touchdown with six points. Additional points are also
scored by kicking the ball over the crossbar between the goal posts.
Professional football began in the 1890s. A professional football association
was formed in 1920 and renamed the National Football League (NFL) in 1922.
But it was not until the rise of television after World War II that it became one
of the dominant sports in America.
The game is never easy for a novice to follow and it is quite easy to lose track
of who possesses the ball. In volleyball, for example the ball is always visible.
It can be seen bouncing from one player to the next in full view of the
spectators. In football it is another matter. Even the shape of the ball defies
convention. It is oval shaped rather than rounded thus making it impossible to
bounce. Therefore, it is often passed secretly from one player to another or
thrown across the field to another member of the team. After each play there
is a heap of jumbled players amassed somewhere on the field as the crowds
cheer their team onward to victory.
Yet, there is a fanaticism and enthusiasm with each game which is difficult to
describe. There is hardly a major college in American which doesn't have a
team, and schools often award scholarships to promising athletes who can
enhance the power and prestige of their team. The height of the professional
football season is the Super Bowl when the winners of the national and
American football leagues vie for the national championship. This Super Bowl
game for league Championship has been a major sports spectacle since it was
introduced in 1967.

1. American football is similar to which two sports?

A. Soccer and tennis B. Rugby and soccer
C. Volleyball and soccer D. Soccer and baseball
2. When did football evolve?
A. The seventeenth century B. The nineteenth century
C. The fifteenth century D. The twentieth century
3. When was the first intercollegiate football game held?
A. In 1869 B. In 1879 C. In 1896 D. In 1886
4. Where did the first intercollegiate football game take place?
A. At Princeton College B. At Rutgers University
C. In New Brunswick, New Jersey D. In New York City
5. Who established the standard formations of the game as we know it now?
A. Walter Camp B. Walter Kant
C. Walter Cramp D. Wally Camp
6. What can be said about American football?
A. It is a game everyone enjoys.
B. It can become violent with many casualties.
C. It is a game which has international appeal.
D. It is a game that TV made famous.
7. How many men are there in one American football team?
A. Nine men B. Ten men. C. Twelve men D. Eleven
men.
8. What is at the end of a football field?
A. The end goal.
B. The end zone with H shaped goal posts.
C. The football goals.
D. The touchdowns
9. In which year was the National Football League (NFL) started?
A. In 1999 B. In 1920 C. In 1921 D. In 1922
10. What is the game called which is played at the height of the Professional
Football season?
A. The Super Bowl. B. The National Football Game
C. The American Football Game. D. The National Championship.
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Part 2 (15 points): Read the text and choose the correct word for
each space:
HOPES AND DREAMS
Some years ago, my daughter was studying English at a university on
the south coast. One evening she phoned to tell me that what she really
wanted to do was (1)_____round the world, so she was looking (2)_____the
possibility of working in another country. She had seen several (3)_____in the
newspaper for student teachers of English abroad and she was (4)_____ in one
in Italy, which she was desperate to visit. She decided that this would be a
good (5)_____to achieve her ambition, so she was writing to (6)_____for the
job. The reply (7)_____a long time to arrive, but eventually she received a
letter asking if she (8)_____go for an interview in London the following week.
She was so excited that she immediately (9)______in touch with the school
owner and agreed to attend the interview. She was determined that nothing
would prevent her (10)______doing what she had set out to do. A
(11)_____days before the interview she had a very strange dream in which she
(12)_____birth to a beautiful baby. She was a little nervous and
(13)______about the dream and phoned to ask me what I thought it might
(14)______ . As I knew something about dreams, I was able to assure her that
it only symbolized her (15)______to do well in the interview.
1. A. journey B. travel C. voyage D. trip
2. A. up B. over C. into D. round
3. A. notices B. posters C. advertisements D.
announcements
4. A. interested B. keen C. attracted D. enthusiastic
5. A. path B. route C. manner D. way
6. A. claim B. inquire C. request D. apply
7. A. was B. took C. spent D. passed
8. A. should B. would C. must D. will
9. A. got B. came C. went D. became
10. A. of B. from C. in D. about
11. A. some B. several C. few D. little
12. A. made B. had C. gave D. produced
13. A. bored B. worried C. offended D. annoyed
14. A. intend B. mean C. interpret D. realize
15. A. desire B. request C. want D. demand
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 3.(6 points). You are going to read a newspaper article about the
place you can go on holiday. Six sentences have been removed from the
article. Choose from the sentence A-H the one which fits each gap. There
are TWO extra
A. the sentences
shows whichare
and cinemas you do not need to use.
available.
B. but I was pleased to be out in the fresh air.
C. where young and old can have fun in the different pools.
D. I prepared some sleeping bags that we could use them in case.
E. I thought the apartments might not be big enough for all of us.
F. I freshly went with a group of friends to stay at the Greenwood
Holiday village.
G. if the children are too young to join these sports
H. They’re the most attractive destinations

GREENWOOD – AN ATTRACTIVE DESTINATION

If you want to take the whole family on holiday and keep everybody
happy, then I have
found just the place for you. (1) ______ F , which is open from May until
October.
Built in the center of a forest, Greenwood is a great place to stay
whatever the weather is. Its main attraction for families is the indoor world of
water, (2) ____ C . Some of these, however, are for serious swimmers only. For
sporty people, the Country Club offers tennis, squash, and badminton. There
are activity clubs (3) _______g . Greenwood is a good place for families as it is
traffic – free - you explore every part of this village on foot or by bike. Some
people grumbled about its inconvenience, (4) _____ b. For evening
entertainment, (5) ______a . Accommodation is in variety of apartments of
different sizes. These have up to four bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom, as
well as a dining area. Before going, (6) _____e , but I was pleasantly surprised
- it was not too crowded at all.
I definitely go back to Greenwood next year. Why don’t you give it a try?
Visit their website for further information now!
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Part 4: (10 points) Fill ONE suitable word into each of the numbered
blanks in the following passage. Write your answers in the space
provided.
During the teenage years, many young people can at (1)_____times be
difficult to talk to. They often seem to dislike (2)_______questioned. They may
seem unwilling to talk about their work at school. This is a normal
development at this (3)_____stage . Though it can be very hard for parents to
(4)____understand , it is part of becoming independent of teenagers trying to
be adults while they are (5)_____still growing up. Young people are usually
unwilling to talk if they believe that questions are trying to check up on them.
Parents should do their (6)_____best to talk to their son and daughter (7)_____about school,
work and future plans but should not push them to talk if they don’t (8)_____want to. Parents
should also watch for danger signs. Some young people in trying to be (9)____adult may experience
with sex, drugs, alcohol or smoking. Parents need to watch for any signs of unusual behavior which
may be connected (10)______with these and help if necessary.
SECTION B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1 (10 points). Read the following passage and decide which
answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write it in ‘Your Answers’
part.
1. Could you ________ in the paper and see what’s on TV tonight?
A. see B. watch C. look D. examine
2. I’m reading a ______ set in Greece during the Second World War.
A. novel B. fiction C. literature D. writing
3. Harry kept us _____ throughout the journey with his non-stop jokes.
A. enjoyed B. entertained C. laughed D. pleasured
4. I never read _____ of films as I don’t trust the critics’ opinions.
A. reviews B. criticisms C. articles D.
investigations
5. I didn’t like this album at first but it’s really starting to ____ on me now
A. grow B. raise C. develop D. increase
6. I think the discussion has gone ______ and we should make a decision
A. enough long B. such long C. long enough D. so long
7. ‘Did you call John?’==> No, because I _____ go out. I’ll try him later today.’
A. had to B. must C. might D. need
8. ‘Why are you taking your PlayStation games?’
‘Oh, just _______ Tommy wants to borrow them.’
A. as long as B. in case C. provided that D. unless
9. The hotel has a poor reputation and ____ people want to stay there.
A. little B. a few C. a little D. few
10. If our flight is delayed, we will _____ our connection in Los Angeles?
A. drop B. miss C. lose D. lack
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2 (10 points). Each numbered line in the following passage has
ONE mistake. Find and correct it.
1 Well, I think there are many way to keep fit.
2 Firstly, you should eat healthy. Don’t eat too much meat, fast food
and fried things.
3 Some people often has a big hamburger and a soft drink for their
lunch.
4 It isn’t good habit because that meal doesn’t include any vegetables.
5 If someone want to have a quick healthy lunch, they should buy
some avocado sushi.
6 Secondly, you shouldn’t to deep-fry food. You should steam it
because steamed dishes don’t use any fat.
7 If you like, you can also stew lean meat with vegetables. It’s healthy
and nutrition.
8 Thirdly, you should get up late and do morning exercise regularly.
9 I think it is not easily for you to follow this advice.
1 But if you follow it you will always be on good health.
0
Your answers:
Lin Mistake Correction lin Mistake Correction
e e
1 6
 2 7
3 8
4 9
5 10

Part 3 (10 points). Complete each sentence below, using the correct
form of the words in brackets.
1. They’re going to ________ the town with more trees and parks. BEAUTY
2. His broken arm is still very __________. PAIN
3. The President was a very __________ man. POWER
4. I’d like a nice __________ orange. JUICE
5. He lives in a __________ house by the sea. WOOD
6. How many __________ holidays do you have? NATION
7. Look out! Those crazy __________ are going too fast. CYCLE
8. An __________ should be good at maths. ACCOUNT
9. Scientists have made __________ tests on the new drugs.
COMPARE
10. We are spending too much. We must __________.
ECONOMY
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
SECTION C – WRITING
Part 1 (9 points). Complete the second sentence so that it has a
similar meaning to the first one. Start with the words given.
1. Not as much coffee is drunk by young people as soda.
Young people ________________________________________________.
2. People think the jewels were stolen by one of the guests.
One of the guests ______________________________________________.
3. “Would you mind getting out of the car?” the driver said to me. “I have to
change a wheel.”
The driver asked ___________________________________________________
4. I’d rather you didn’t play the drums right now.
 Would you mind _______________________________________________________?
5. I didn’t see anyone wearing yellow at the party.
 There________________________________________________________at the party.
6. Jim wasn’t surprised by what I said. He wasn’t shocked by what I said.
 Jim was neither _____________________________________________by what I said
7. If she doesn’t have time, she will not go with us.
 Unless________________________________________________________________.
8. This car costs $10,000 and so does that one.
 This car ______________________________________________________ as that one.
9. He is too young to read this book.
 He isn’t ____________________________________________________________

Part 2 (20 points). Here’s the topic for your writing.

You must write a letter to your friend (about 90-100 words) and DO NOT write
any addresses.
Dear Tom,

.......................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
Part 3: (30 points) Your English teacher has asked you to write a
story (about 90– 100 words) with the title “A BUS JOURNEY I’LL
NEVER FORGET” for your school story writing competition.
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (PHẦN NGHE)

Thời gian làm bài: 20 phút

Điểm bằng số: Giám khảo 1: …………………………... SỐ PHÁCH

……………………………………. …………..
........................
Điểm bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2: …………………………...
…………………………………. …………..
Questions 1-5: Listen to the telephone conversation and complete
the box below.

Questions 6-10. Circle the correct answer A, B or C

6. The caller has paid ______________________________________ .
 A. less than the computer shows
B. more than the computer shows
C. $500 twice
7. The caller is also worried about ____________________________ .
A. a bit that is too high
B. an overpayment to a restaurant
C. a payment that he does not recognize
8. The interest ______________________________________________ .
A. went up in April B. has not changed C. has gone down
9. The caller’s number is _____________________________________ .
A. 020 7997 9909 B. 020 7989 7182 C. 020 8979 7182
10. The operator will ring the caller ________________________
A. tomorrow B. in two hours C. very soon
Questions 11-13. You’re going to a radio interview. Circle the correct
answer A, B, C or D
11. Mr. Gold had problems because he____________________________.
A. hated smoking B. smoked
C. couldn’t touch his shoes D. was very lazy
12. Mr. Gold used to travel across London to _________________________.
A. get exercise B. see London at night
C. get cigarettes D. buy food
13. What did Mr. Gold have difficulty with in the past?
A. running B. giving up smoking
C. getting to sleep at night D. getting up early in the morning
Questions 14-20. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer
14. Mr. Gold stopped smoking on ____________________________________________.
15. M r. Gold said he was _______________________ of it, people had not seen
him smoking.
16. The worst side effects he experienced
were____________________________________.
17. He saw giving up smoking as an
_____________________________________________.
18. It was easier for Mr. Gold to stop smoking than he
had__________________________.
19. The radio presenter would like to have Mr. Gold’s
______________________________.
20. The presenter hopes listeners will find their own _______________________ to
success.

__________________ THE END _

A. PHONETICS
PART 1. Circle A, B, C, or D next to the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from those of the other words. (0.1 x 5 = 0.5 point)
Question 1: A. interviewed B. performed C. finished D. delivered
Question 2: A. chemical B. approach C. achieve D. challenge
Question 3: A. prelude B. bunch C. public D. fluctuation
Question 4: A. language B. advantage C. massage D. village
Question 5: A. theme B. there C. think D. through
PART 2. Circle the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
(0.1 x 5 = 0.5 point)
Question 6: A. achievement B. expertise C. detective D. geography
Question 7: A. perfection B. typical C. interesting D. happiness
Question 8: A. pioneer B. entertainment C. adventure D. understand
Question 9: A. museum B. position C. recommend D. commitment
Question 10: A. possession B. property C. industry D. element
PART 1. Circle A, B, C, or D next to the word or phrase which best completes each of the
following sentences. (0.1 x 20 = 2.0 points)
Question 11: “I can’t remember us ever _______”, replied the stranger.
A. having met B. to have met C. to meet D. being met
Question 12: ________had they left the class when it started to rain.
A. Never B. Hardly C. No sooner D. Just
Question 13: With the help of Russian experts, the factory produced ________ cars in 2018 as the
year before.
A. as twice many B. as many as twice C. as twice as many D. twice as many
Question 14: Having been selected to present the Association of American Engineers at the
International Convention, ________.
A. the members applauded Peter B. a speech had to be given by Peter
C. the members congratulated Peter D. Peter gave a short acceptance speech
Question 15: Paul was ashamed ________ himself for having stolen money from his mother.
A. about B. with C. of D. for
Question 16: My director is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work I ____________last week.
A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done D. could have done
Question 17: Sport today has become ________ and is no longer enjoyable.
A. too much competitive B. far too competitive
C. more too competitive D. competitive
Question 18: John lost the _______ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with
him because of his carelessness.
A. beautiful Japanese blue new B. beautiful new blue Japanese
C. new beautiful blue Japanese D. Japanese beautiful new blue
Question 19: Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” Tony: “________.”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes. You can use it
C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes. It’s all right
Question 20: Kate: “How lovely your cats are!” David: “____________”
A. Really? They are. B. Thank you. It is nice of you to say so.
C. Can you say it again? D. I love them, too.
Question 21: Mary: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” Linda: “___________.”
A. You’re welcome B. Good ideas. Thanks C. Thanks. I will D. It’s my pleasure
Question 22: Peter: “Can you come and give me a hand?” Nancy: “___________.”
A. Yes, I could B. Oh, never mind C. It’s up to you D. OK. Wait for me
Question 23: Joe: “I’m sorry for keeping you waiting so long.” Jane: “___________.”
A. That’s OK B. Don’t mention it
C. Don’t beat around the bush D. Of course not
Question 24: The Earth is the only planet with a large _________ of oxygen in its atmosphere.
A. number B. quality C. amount D. size
Question 25: This is a valuable ________ clock which dates back to the nineteenth century.
A. traditional B. old-fashioned C. antique D. ancient
Question 26: If they invest all their money in the stock market, their business will be on the
________ of closing down.
A. edge B. verge C. danger D. bank
Question 27: If they want to succeed, they should always ___in mind that they will have to try
hard.
A. carry B. remember C. think D. bear
Question 28: All TV channels provide extensive_______ of sporting events.
 A. broadcast B. coverage C. network D. vision
Question 29: Everyone can take part in this competition, _______age and gender.
A. in place of B. regardless of C. in case of D. on behalf of
Question 30: The brochure says that this five-star hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
PART 2. Match the sentence halves together to make meaningful statements. There are two
options that will not be used. Write your answers in the space provided. (0.1 x 5 = 0.5 point)
A. out a new recipe tonight!
Question 31: I think this milk has gone… ______ B. of bread, so we should go and get
some.
Question 32: I ran… ______ C. on for dinner time.
Question 33: Mum’s trying… ______ D. off, so let’s throw it away.
Question 34: It must be getting… ______ E. out quite how I expected.
Question 35: We’d love you to come… ______ F. into Bob in the supermarket
yesterday.
G. round for dinner sometime.

PART 3. There is a mistake in one of the four underlined parts of each sentence. Identify the
mistake by circling A, B, C, or D below the underlined part. (0.1 x 5 = 0.5 point)
Question 36: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.
A B C D
Question 37: The little boy’s mother bought him a five - speeds racing bicycle for his birthday.
A B C D
Question 38: I had my motorbike repair yesterday but now it still doesn’t work.
A B C D
Question 39: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to
pass
A B C D
the exam.
Question 40: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end.
A B C D
PART 4. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits
in the gap. Write your answers in the boxes. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 point)
Question 41: In my class, girls tend to _________ boys by four to one. NUMBER
Question 42: He says he had no intention of hurting her but she is sure he did PURPOSE
it _________.
Question 43: The father warned the children that if they _________ again, BEHAVE
they would be severely punished.
Question 44: Leslie got a lot of great achievements from the _________ tests. STANDARD
Question 45: He wished the young couple a life of happiness and _________. PROSPER
Question 46: Unfortunately, the film got _________ reviews. FAVOR
Question 47: The strikers of our home team played _________ well during STAND
the last match. We scored four goals.
Question 48: Although Joe is _________, he is quite reliable and trustworthy. EXPERIENCE
Question 49: _________, the train had left when we arrived at the station. LUCK
Question 50: That company has 2,000 _________. EMPLOY
41. ........................... 42. .......................... 43. .......................... 44. ........................... 45. ..........................
46. .......................... 47. .......................... 48. .......................... 49. .......................... 50. ..........................
C. READING
PART 1. Read this passage and then choose the best answers to the questions below by
circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (1.0 x 10 = 1.0 point)
Universally acclaimed as America’s greatest playwright, Eugene O’Neill was born in 1888 in
the heart of the theater district in New York City. As the son of an actor he had early exposure to
the world of the theater. He attended Princeton University briefly in 1906, but returned to New
York to work in a variety of jobs before joining the crew of a freighter as a seaman. Upon
returning from voyages to South Africa and South America, he was hospitalized for six months to
recuperate from tuberculosis. While he was recovering, he determined to write a play about his
adventures on the sea. He went to Harvard, where he wrote the one-act Bound East for Cardiff. It
was produced on Cape Cod by the Provincetown Players, an experimental theater group that was
later to settle in the
famous Greenwich Village theater district in New York City. The Players produced several more
of his one-acts in the years between 1916-1920. With the full-length play Beyond the Horizon,
produced on Broadway in 1920, O’Neill’s success was assured. The play won the Pulitzer Prize
for the best play of the year. O’Neill was to be awarded the prize again in 1922, 1928, and 1957
for Anna Christie, Strange Interlude, and Long Day’s Journey Into Night. Although he didn’t
receive the Pulitzer Prize for it, Mourning becomes Electra, produced in 1931, is arguably his
most lasting contribution to the American theatre. In 1936, he was awarded the Nobel Prize.
O’Neill’s plays, forty-five in all, cover a wide range of dramatic subjects, but several themes
emerge, including the ambivalence of family relationships, the struggle between the sexes, the
conflict between spiritual and material desires, and the vision of modern man as a victim of
uncontrollable circumstances. Most of O’Neill’s characters are seeking for meaning in their lives.
According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a
sense, his work chronicled his life.
Question 51: This passage is a summary of O’Neill’s__________.
A. work B. life C. work and life D. family
Question 52: The word “briefly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. seriously B. for a short time C. on scholarship D. without
enthusiasm
Question 53: Where in the passage does the author indicate the reason for O’Neill’s
hospitalization?
A. Lines 2-4 B. Lines 5-7 C. Lines 8-10 D. Lines 11-12
Question 54: How many times was O’Neill awarded the Pulitzer Prize?
A. One B. Three C. Four D. Five
Question 55: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. Harvard B. one-act play C. theater group D. theater
district
Question 56: According to the passage, which of O’Neill’s plays was most important to the
American theatre?
A. Anna Christie C. Long Day’s Journey Into Night
B. Beyond the Horizon D. Mourning becomes Electra
Question 57: The word “struggle” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. influence B. conflict C. appreciation D. denial
Question 58: What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 2: “According to his
biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a sense, his work
chronicled his life”?
A. He used his family and his own experiences in his plays.
B. His biography contained stories about him and his family.
C. He had paintings of himself and members of his family.
D. His biographers took pictures of him with his family.
Question 59: The author mentions all of the following as themes for O’Neill’s plays
EXCEPT___.
A. life in college C. family life
B. adventures at sea D. relationships between men and women
Question 60: We can infer from information in the passage that O’Neill’s plays were not
__________.
A. controversial C. optimistic B. autobiographical D. popular
PART 2. Read this passage and then choose the best answers to the questions below by
circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. (1.0 x 10 = 1.0 point)
One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our
continual exposure to media – particularly to an overabundance of news. If you feel stressed out
by the news, you are far from alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves
from falling into an extreme degree of stress.
The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place,
and the less news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously
changed all that, as did every subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication.
When television came along, it proliferated like a population of rabbits. In 1950, there were
100,000 television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more than a million.
Today, it’s not unusual for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to
perhaps over a hundred channels. News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several
of them it runs 24 hours a day.
What’s more, after the traumatic events of September 11, 2001, live newscasts were paired
with continual text crawls across the bottom of the screen – so that viewers could stay updated
about every story all the time.
Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images
and sound bytes alluding to disaster (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and
the like. Compounding the problem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts
fill in with scare stories about things that possibly might threaten our health, safety, finances,
relationships, and so on. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm a potentially fatal flu
outbreak and the false claims of a wrinkle cream that overpromises smooth skin.
Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma – not to mention so much overblown
anticipation of potential trauma – at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip
into alarm mode when danger looms. Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment.
Exposing ourselves to such input without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other
than a source of chronic stress.
Question 61: According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense
nature of twenty-first-century stress?
A. The degree to which stress affects our life B. Our inability to control ourselves
C. An overabundance of special news D. Our continual exposure to the media
Question 62: In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because ______.
A. printing press, transportation, and telecommunication were not developed
B. means of communication and transportation were not yet invented
C. most people lived in distant towns and villages
D. the printing press changed the situation too slowly
Question 63: The pronoun “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. TV channels B. TV news C. television sets D. cable access
Question 64: The word “traumatic” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fascinating B. upsetting C. exciting D. boring
Question 65: According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts _-
__.
A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu
B. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen
C. are forced to publicise an alarming increase in crime
D. send out frightening stories about potential dangers
Question 66: As stated in the passage, a flu outbreak and the false claims of a wrinkle cream tend to
____.
A. be scarce breaking news B. involve natural and man-made disasters
C. be treated with equal alarm D. be warmly welcomed by the public
Question 67: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media.
 B. Many TV channels supply the public with news.
C. Many people are under stress caused by the media.
D. The news that is reported to us is not good news.
Question 68: The word “slip” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fail B. bring C. release D. fall
Question 69: According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective
is obviously ______.
A. the result of an overabundance of good B. the result of human brain’s switch to alarm
news mode
C. a source of defects in human brain D. a source of chronic stress
Question 70: What is probably the best title for this passage?
A. Developments in Telecommunications B. The Media – A Major Cause of Stress
C. More Modern Life – More Stress D. Effective Ways to Beat Stress
D. WRITING
PART 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one.
Write BETWEEN TWO AND FIVE WORDS in each gap. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 point)
Question 71: I don’t think George can climb right to the top of that mountain.
® I don’t think George ____________________________of climbing to the top of that
mountain.
Question 72: You shouldn’t take food into the theatre.
® You are supposed ______________________________ food into the theatre.
Question 73: It’s time for them to go to bed.
® It’s high time _________________________________ to bed.
Question 74: Wouldn’t you like us to be standing in the middle of Times Square right now?
® Don’t you wish ______________________________in the middle of Times Square right
now?
Question 75: They didn’t get married until 2016.
® It was not until 2016 _______________________________.
Question 76: I prefer taking a walk to staying at home.
® I would rather _____________________________________ at home.
Question 77: “I’m sorry. I didn’t wait for you yesterday”, Charles said to Linda.
® Charles apologized _________________________________ for her the day before.
Question 78: We couldn’t go out because of the heavy rain.
® The heavy rain _____________________________________ going out.

Question 79: She listens more sympathetically than anyone else I know.
® She is a ___________________________________________ anyone else I know.
Question 80: Photographs are not permitted under any circumstances.
® Under ______________________________________________ permitted.
PART 2. Write a paragraph (about 120-150 words) discussing a place you would like to visit
most. (2.0 points)
The following prompts might be helpful to you:
- Landscapes in that place
- Food
- People
- Activities you can do there
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
DE Thi HSG thanh pho 2017-2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH (PHẦN ĐỌC - VIẾT - SỬ DỤNG NGÔN NGỮ)
Thời gian làm bài: 125 phút

Điểm bằng số: ……………… Giám khảo 1: ……………………… SỐ PHÁCH

Điểm bằng chữ: …………………… Giám khảo 2: ………………………

A. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Part 1: (10 points) Choose the word which best completes each of the following sentences. Write
your answers in the space provided.
1. He lost control of the car and drove _____ the river.
A. on B. into C. in D. over
2. It will be easier to read if you ________ the lights.
A. switch B. switch on C. switch over D. switch in
3. It's a good idea to see your doctor regularly for _______________.
A. a revision B. a control C. an investigation D. a check-up
4. If you work for us, you’ll get somewhere to live ______ free.
A. for B. of C. at D. out
5. There is a fault at our television station. Please do not ______ your television set.
A. change B. adjust C. repair D. exchange
6. They received _______ advice from their parents that they became successful.
A. so good B. such a good C. so good an D. such good
7. “What a lovely house you have!” – “___________”
A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in B. You’re welcome!
C. Of course, it’s costly D. No problem
8. . ………….my sisters and brothers, I’d like to thank for your warm reception.
A. Instead of B. On behalf of C. On account of D. In front of
9. We will wait until he shows up. What does ‘shows up’ mean?
A. appears B. answers C. speaks D. finishes
10. ................weather! We can't go out for a walk now.
A. How terrible B. What terrible C. How a terrible D. What a terrible
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2: (15 points) If a line is correct, put a(v) in your answer box. If there is
an extra word in a line, write it in your answer box.
Line Wake up to milk Your answers
0 Delivered in daily to your door by your milkman, In
00 come rain or shine, milk provides a remarkable ˅
1 cocktail of protein, vitamins, minerals and
2 energy for your whole of family, from the
3 youngest to the most oldest. Milk is a delicious,
4 nourishing drink for everyone - not only children.
5 And because of our needs change as we grow
6 older, there is a type of milk for every one member
7 of your family. It’s a refreshing, healthy drink
8 That the dentist will be approve of. There's
9 nothing to beat milk; drink it like plain or as
10 a milk shake flavored with fresh fruit, chocolate
11 or fruit yoghurt. There are also such many ways
12 to drink milk, so it’s no any wonder its popularity
13 never dies. Milk in a bottle is the more “greenest”
14 Way to buy it because milk they bottles are generally
15 re-used for between twelve and forty times.

Part 3: (6 points). Complete the sentences by changing the form of the word in capitals when this is
necessary.
1. The forecast said there was a high ____________ (LIKELY) of rain this weekend.
2. Litter is often a problem in ___________ (RESIDENT) areas.
3. According to ___________________ (ENVIRONMENT), we could be facing a crisis within fifty
years.
4. The giant panda is _________________ (DANGER) because its habitat is being destroyed.
5. We didn’t enjoy our walk because it was absolutely ____________ (FREEZE)
6. With the increase in our mortgage rate, we will be forced to ______________. (ECONOMY)
Your answers:
1 2 3
4 5 6

B. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1: (11 points) Read the text and do the tasks below.
TEEN credit
Your buying and spending needs are growing; your income isn’t; so where do you get the extra cash? For
many, the answer lies in credit cards, but is credit card the right solution for teenagers? Teen now asked
two young people for their opinions:

I think it would be great if I could have a credit card, but I don’t dare ask my parents for one. They think
that if I had a credit card I would develop irresponsible spending habits. I suppose that they’re right in a
way. It might be more tempting to go on a shopping spree if I had a credit card. I work part time during the
school year, though, and I’m also getting a summer job, so I don’t think it would be too difficult for me to
pay off my card. Still, my parents worry that I’ll end up owing money to the bank.
Josh,
17 believe a teenager having a credit card is a very good idea. I’ve read in the papers about working
I don’t
people who run up huge personal debts and are unable to repay them. How are teens that have a limited
income expected to handle such financial responsibility? I think credit cards would only encourage them
to spend more money than they earn. Teens should open a savings account at a bank from which they
would be able to withdraw the exact amount they need to cover their expenses. If a teen really wanted a
card, they could ask their bank to issue a prepaid one. These are cards that you just top up with money and
use like a regular card. So, you can only use it as long as you have money!

Task 1: Mark the following statements T (true), F (false) or NM (not mentioned)

Patricia,
1. Josh’s parents think he’s too young to have a credit card.
18
 2. Josh believes he might spend more money if he had a card.

3. Patricia has read about teens who can’t pay off their debts.

4. Patricia believes savings account would help teens manage their money more easily.

5. Patricia is against the idea of prepaid credit card.

Task 2: Complete the sentences. You must use between FOUR and FIVE words
1. Josh’s parents are against the idea of Josh having a credit card because they think he
……………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Josh believes that he would spend a lot if ………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Josh feels he would be able to ……………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Patricia feels credit cards make teenagers ………………………………………………
5. According to Patricia, teens should have a savings account which they could use to ….
………………………………………………………......... need to cover their expenses.
6. Patricia finds prepaid cards handy because ………………………………………………
………………………………………………...........................as long as you have money.
Part 2: (10 points) Fill ONE suitable word into each of the numbered blanks in the following passage.
Write your answers in the space provided.
The Sydney opera house is located in Sydney, Australia. Visitors travel (1)_____ all over the world
to enjoy performances that range from opera and ballet to theatre (2)_____.live musical productions.
There (3)_____ even special programs for children that include dancing, music and theatre. For many
people, just visiting The Sydney Opera House is entertaining. It is (4) _____ impressive piece of
architecture and visitors can spend hours just walking around (5)_____. Guided tours are available that
take you behind-the-scene in the world famous Concert Hall or Opera Theatre.
John Utzon, (6) _____ young architect from Denmark, designed the building. He entered a contest
in 1956 to design a concert hall in Sydney and (7) _____ announced the winner in 1957. The unique
design caused many difficulties and the Opera House was not completed (8) _____1973. Fortunately, the
building became a huge success and is now considered (9) _____ many to be one of the most beautiful
buildings in the world.
The Sydney Opera House (10) _____ earned a reputation as a world–class performing arts centre
and is a proud symbol of Sydney.
Your anwers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8 9. 10.
Part 3. (10 points) Read the text and choose the best answer

SUNDAY: A DAY OF REST

For many Americans, Sunday is a day of rest. After a busy week of business transactions and work
routines, it is a day to pause and focus on faith and family. However, it is not a day to waste away by
doing nothing. It is a day for many to attend church and to worship with their local community. This
notion is based on the Biblical account of creation when God created the world in six days and rested on
the seventh. For this reason, one day is set aside during the week as a day of rest and worship. On Sunday
most department stores and business are closed for the day and only places of entertainment and culture
may be open to the public.
Sometimes when we read the newspapers and watch TV, we get the false impression that American is an
amoral society where people have no respect for family and religious values. This concept is often
exploited by tabloid papers and the foreign press but nothing could be further from the truth. In spite of
the apparent carefree attitude sometimes projected by the press, many Americans, especially those living
in the rural areas and the deep south, are very traditional in their approach to life, family and religion.
Sundays for them still become a time to attend their local church and to meet with their fellow
parishioners. The church service becomes for them the center of their day's activities.
At the church service, a choir composed of members from the community sings hymns and songs and the
preacher or minister delivers a sermon based on a passage from the Gospel. In some Christian churches
there is also a communion service where a ritual remembrance of the Last Supper is reenacted in a
fellowship which concludes the liturgy. After the service, which may last as long as an hour, the members
of the congregation along with their pastor may meet in the parish hall to enjoy coffee and cake and to
socialize together. This is also the time to exchange social greetings and ideas with one another, to become
informed of the needs of the community, and to find out about the latest happenings in the parish.
Most churches may also distribute a small bulletin containing announcements of births, deaths and
marriages within the community. There may also be additional short notices of special meetings to be held
in the parish, such as choir rehearsals, senior citizen group activities and local scouting events. Upcoming
parish events sponsored by the church also get ample notice. Such events may include a bake sale to
collect money for shut-ins, a cook-out for the underprivileged in a local park, or a holiday trip to a local
resort for members of the parish council.
Belonging to a church is important to many Americans because it helps to bring people together with
others who share the same religious faith and family values.
It also helps to create a sense of the extended family and solidifies the community spirit and a sense of
personal belonging. On the remainder of this day of rest, families are merged into closely knit units by
getting together for a dinner at which one's own extended family is invited.
If one is not a regular churchgoer the day is still a chance to rest. It is spent visiting other relatives or
friends, going to parks or attending ball games, museums or concerts. It is a time to enrich one's life
through leisure and to prepare one's mind for the workweek to follow.

1. From where did Americans develop the concept of Sunday as a "Day of Rest"?
A. From the early settlers. B. From the Bible.
C. From the early pioneers D. From the Pilgrims.
2. Which public services are not opened or offered of Sundays in most of America?
A. Museums B. Theaters C. Banks D. Restaurants
3. Which of the following is true of American society?
A. Most Americans are amoral.
B. Many Americans have deep respect for traditional values.
C. Most Americans have a deep fear of God.
D. Most Americans believe they live in a violent and dangerous country.
4. From which sources do we often get the impression that the United States is a lawless society?
A. From returning visitors. B. From foreign tourists.
C. From the tabloid media. D. From novels and books.
5. Which does not usually occur at a Church service?
A. The choir sings. B. A sermon is delivered by the pastor.
C. A passage from the Bible is read. D. The congregation is segregated.
6. What is remembered at a Christian Communion service?
A. The importance of the present moment B. The Lord's Last supper.
C. The loss of loved ones. D. The future life to come.
7. What may occur after a Sunday church service?
A. People visit the graves of deceased relatives.
B. People hold picnics in the park.
C. There is a small social gathering of the community.
D. People return directly home with their families.
8. Which of the following may NOT be included in a Church bulletin?
A. Announcement of births and deaths.
B. Announcement of upcoming marriages.
C. Announcement of upcoming church events.
D. Want-ads for part-time jobs in the neighborhood.
9. Why is it important to belong to a church community in America?
A. It is important to be known and seen in the community.
B. It is important to "look good" in the community.
C. It is important for people of the same religion to come together to worship.
D. It is important to be saved from eternal damnation.
10. What is NOT true about Sunday as a day of rest?
A. It is only for Christians.
B. It is a time to enrich one's life with spiritual values.
C. It is a day for everyone to enjoy and relax.
D. It is a time to spend with family and friends.
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10

C. WRITING
Part 1: (5 points) Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.
Use the word given and other words to complete each sentence. You must use between TWO and FIVE
words. Do not change the word given.
1. I don’t like your criticizing me all the time. (CRITICIZE)
I wish _______________________________ all the time
2. Taking out a private pension scheme will benefit you. (INTEREST)
It is ___________________________________ out a private pension scheme.
3. People say that Bali is a beautiful island. (SAID)
It is ______________________________ is a beautiful island.
4. My parents don’t mind you staying with us after the concert. (HAPPY)
My parents _____________________________ stay with us after the concert.
5. As a boy, he was a regular churchgoer. (USED)
As a boy, he ______________________________ churchgoer.

Part 2: (20 points). Imagine you are Mai and your pen friend, Peter is going to visit your city next
summer. Write a letter (about 90 – 100 words) to Peter to give him some advice.
..............................................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

........................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

........................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................

..............................................................................................................................................................

........................................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................

Part 3: (25 points) Your English teacher has asked you to write a story (about 100 – 120 words) for the school
magazine. Your story MUST begin with the following words:
I was walking in the park when suddenly I heard the most terrible sound.
.Write your story
.............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................