1.

In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen
and glucose
take place?
A. lysosomes
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. golgi apparatus
Answer is C: ATP production is the function of mitochondria.

2. Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of

digesting a
wide variety of molecules?
A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Centrosomes
D. Golgi complex
Answer is A: the prefi x “lyso-” refers to the ability to dissolve or destroy
molecules
or cells.

3. In which phase of mitosis would chromosomes line up at the centre

of the
Spindle:
A. anaphase
B. interphase
C. prophase
D. metaphase
Answer is D: Remember the metaphase plate occupies the middle of
the cell

4. Which form of transport through the plasma membrane requires the

expenditure
of energy by the cell?
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Active transport
D. Diffusion
Answer is C: The term “active” implies using energy (in the form of ATP)
to
move a molecule against its concentration gradient, while the other
processes are all passive.
5. What results from the events that occur during metaphase of mitosis?
A. The nuclear membranes form around two nuclei.
B. The chromosomes are aligned on a plane in the centre of the cell.
C. The chromosomes become visible and attach to the spindle fi bres.
D. The chromatids from each chromosome separate and move to opposite
sides of the cell.
Answer is B: during metaphase, chromosomes are arranged on a plane (the
metaphase plate) in the middle of the cell, attached to microtubules of the
spindle.

6. What results from the events that occur during metaphase of mitosis?
A. The nuclear membranes form around two nuclei.
B. The chromosomes are aligned on a plane in the centre of the cell.
C. The chromosomes become visible and attach to the spindle fi bres.
D. The chromatids from each chromosome separate and move to opposite
sides of the cell.
Answer is B: during metaphase, chromosomes are arranged on a plane (the
metaphase plate) in the middle of the cell, attached to microtubules of the
spindle.

7. Which of the following is a function of membrane proteins?

A. to process lipids and proteins for secretion through the plasma membrane
B. to act as receptors for hormones
C. to synthesise proteins from amino acids
D. to act as a cytoskeleton to support and shape the cell
Answer is B: One function of membrane proteins is to receive (amino acid
based) hormones that cannot pass through the plasma membrane.

8. How many nucleotides are required to code for a single amino acid?
A. twenty
B. fi ve
C. three
D. one
Answer is C: A sequence of three nucleotides constitute a codon. Each
codon
is specifi c for one of the 20 amino acids.
9. The nucleus of the cell contains the master nucleic acid:
A. DNA
B. RNA
 C. mRNA
D. tRNA
Answer is A: DNA exists in the nucleus. The other three are ribonucleic
acids.
10. What is the standard deviation used for?
A. as a measure of central tendency
B. as a measure of dispersion
C. as a measure of spread of data that are normally distributed
D. as a measure of the error of the mean value
Answer is C: B is also correct but is not as good an answer as choice C.
11. What is meant when a person’s mass is stated as 73.6 kg? That
A. the mass is closer to 73.6 than it is to 73.7 or 73.5
B. the mass is closer to 73.6 than to any other value
C. the mass is between 73.5 and 73.7
D. the mass is 73.6 ± 0.1 kg
Answer is A: because the mass is stated to one decimal place, the absolute
error
is ± 0.05.
12. Most non-molecular compounds form by the chemical combination of:
A. molecules with molecules
B. non-metals with non-metals
C. metals with metals
D. metals with non-metals
Answer is D: ionic compounds are formed when metal atoms react with
nonmetal
atoms. The structures the form are not molecular.
13. The diffusion of water molecules across a cell membrane from the side
where
the solution concentration is more dilute to the side where it is greater, is
known
as which of the following?
A. osmosis
B. filtration
C. hydrolysis
D. buffer action
Answer is A: This is a definition of osmosi
14. Which one of the following processes that describe movement of the
particles
in a solution does NOT require passing through a membrane?
A. diffusion
B. filtration
C. dialysis
D. osmosis
 Answer is A: While diffusion can occur through a membrane, its presence is
not
required in order to define diffusion
15. What is “osmotic pressure”?
A. the pressure exerted by a solution due to its concentration
B. a measure of solution concentration expressed in the units of pressure
C. the pressure exerted by the blood colloidal plasma proteins
D. the pressure that drives water movement out of the arterial end of
capillaries
Answer is B: Osmotic pressure is a way of expressing solution
concentration.
The word pressure in the term “osmotic pressure” makes it tempting to
erroneously
think of the solution exerting some type of pressure due to its solutes.
16. A hypertonic solution is one which
A. has an osmotic pressure that is different to that inside red blood cells
B. has an osmolarity less than that of red blood cells
C. causes no net movement of water through the membrane of red blood
cells
D. has an osmolarity greater than that of red blood cells
Answer is D: “Hyper” means greater than the tonicity (or osmolarity) inside
an
rbc.
17. What is the difference between “molarity” and “osmolarity”?
A. molarity applies only to covalent compounds while osmolarity applies
only
to ionic compounds.
B. osmolarity is molarity multiplied by two.
C. the molarity and osmolarity of a solution is the same for dissolved ionic
compounds, but are different for dissolved covalent compounds.
D. osmolarity refers to the concentration of dissolved particles in a solution
which may not be the same as the number of moles of substance that was
dissolved per litre of solution.
Answer is D: Choice D is better than choice A as molarity can also be
applied
to ionic compounds.
18. The pH of a buffered solution depends on:
A. the ratio of the components of the buffer solution.
B. the amount of acid added to the buffer solution.
C. the amount of base added to the buffer solution.
D. the amount of acid and of base added to the solution.
Answer is A: The pH of the buffered solution will change very little when
either
 acid or base is added.
19. If a patient was suffering from “acidosis”, what would this mean?
A. blood pH is not sufficiently alkaline.
B. blood pH is acidic.
C. there is too little hydronium ion in the plasma.
D. blood pH is too acidic.
Answer is A: Healthy blood is slightly alkaline. Acidosis is applied to blood
with pH below the normal range of 7.35–7.45. If blood has pH <7.35, it is
not
sufficiently alkaline.
20. When a medicine is delivered via a patch attached to the skin, it is said to be
delivered:
A. transdermally
B. subcutaneously
C. topically
D. intramuscularly
Answer is A: Some medicines can be absorbed through the skin to enter the
bloodstream. Choice C applies to ointments that act on the skin hey are
applied
to. Choices B & D are delivered by a penetrating injection to locations deep
to
the skin.
21. Which of the following is NOT a sensory receptor of the skin?
A. a Meissner corpuscle
B. an apocrine gland
C. a root hair plexus
D. a nociceptor
Answer is B: This is a type of sudiferous (sweat) gland.
22. What is the protein that fi lls the outermost dead cells of the epidermis?
A. granstein
B. dermin
C. melanin
D. keratin
Answer is D: Choice C is also a protein, but is deep to the outermost layer,
lying
just superfi cial to the stratum germinativum.
23. What do sudiferous glands do?
A. Secrete sebum into a hair follicle
B. Secrete sweat through a duct to the skin
C. Secrete sweat through a duct to the skin or into a hair follicle
D. Secrete cerumen through a duct to the skin or into a hair follicle
Answer is C: Eccrine sweat gland secrete through a duct, apocrine sweat
glands
 secrete into a hair follicle.
24. Which layer of the integument is the most superfi cial layer?
A. the hypodermis
B. stratum granulosum
C. stratum corneum
D. reticular dermal layer
Answer is C: Stratum corneum is the outermost dead layer of the epidermis.
25. Between which two anatomical structures does the Larynx lie?
A. The nares and the choanae
B. The epiglottis and the trachea
C. The choanae and the glottis
D. The glottis and the epiglottis
Answer is B: The larynx is the tube that surrounds the vocal apparatus. It
consists
of the epiglottis, thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage and is located at the
top of the trachea.
26. Which of the following structures together make up the brainstem?
A. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, cerebellum
B. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain
C. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, thalamus
D. medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain, pineal gland
Answer is B: The cerebellum, thalamus and pineal gland are not part of the
brainstem.
27. Which list of structures in the male reproductive tract has them in correct
sequence?
A. seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, ejaculatory duct
B. epididymis, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
C. seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
D. epididymis, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, urethra, ejaculatory duct
Answer is C: Seminiferous tubules must precede the epididymis; and the
ejaculatory
duct must precede the urethra.
28. Which cells of the retina are responsible for detecting light in scotopic (i.e.
low
light) conditions?
A. bipolar cells
B. rod cells
C. ganglion cells
D. cone cells
Answer is B: Rods and cones are the light sensitive cells. Rods are used for
viewing in low light (dim) or night-time conditions.
29. What is the name of the lobe of the brain that is immediately superior to the
cerebellum?
 A. dorsal
B. occipital
C. posterior
D. parietal
Answer is B: The cerebellum nestles into the cerebrum immediately inferior
to
the occipital lobe.
30. Which of the following statements is true of neuroglia?
A. they are the cells that link motor neurons to sensory neurons
B. it is the non-cellular material that lies between neurons
C. they have only one dendrite and one axon
D. they produce the myelin sheath
Answer is D: Neuroglia refers to several types of cells of the nervous
system
that are not neurones. Some of them form the myelin sheath.
31. The equilibrium potential (E) for
A. An ion species is the membrane potential observed when its
concentrations on each side
of the membrane are in equilibrium.
B. Na_ is about _50 mV in squid axon.
C. An ion species depends on the ratio of the concentrations of the ion
outside (Io) and
inside (Ii) the cell.
D. An ion species is the potential the membrane potential would approach if
it became
freely permeable to that ion.
E. An ion species would be zero if the concentrations of the ion on each side
of the membrane
were equal.
Ans
False It is the membrane potential that would be required to balance the
concentration
gradient for that ion.
B. False A positive membrane potential of about _65 mV is required to
balance the Na_
concentration gradient.
C. True It can be calculated using the Nernst equation:
E_61.5 log10 [Io] [Ii].valence_1 at 37°C.
D. True Membrane potential approaches _65 mV when freely permeable to
Na_.
E. True From the Nernst equation (log101_O).
32. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep differs from non-REM sleep in that
A. The EEG shows waves of higher frequency.
 B. Muscle tone is higher.
C. Heart rate and respiration are more regular.
D. Secretion of growth hormone is increased.
E. Dreaming is more common.

True Wave amplitude is reduced also.

B. False Surprisingly, muscle tone is low.
C. False They are much more irregular.
D. False It is inhibited during REM sleep.
E. True Subjects woken at the end of REM sleep give vivid accounts of
dreams.
33. Lower motor neurone disease
A. Causes loss of voluntary movements but not of reflex movements.
B. Is a later stage of upper motor neurone disease.
C. Causes eventual wasting of the muscles concerned.
D. Does not affect ventilation of the lungs.
E. Is associated with involuntary twitchings of small fasciculi in the affected
muscles.

False The muscles are paralysed and not capable of voluntary or reflex
movements.
B. False It is totally independent of upper motor neurone disease.
C. True It leads to ‘disuse atrophy’.
D. False Ventilation will be affected if the phrenic and intercostal nerves
are involved.
E. True ‘Fasciculation’ is due to denervation hypersensitivity; muscles
become ultrasensitive
to small amounts of acetylcholine released from the degenerating nerve
terminals.
34. Blockade of parasympathetic activity causes a reduction in
A. Sweat production.
B. Resting heart rate.
C. The strength of skeletal muscle contraction.
D. Salivation.
E. Intestinal motility.

False Sweat glands are innervated by sympathetic cholinergic nerves.

B. False Resting heart rate rises due to blockade of vagal tone.
C. False Parasympathetic nerves are not involved in skeletal muscle
activity.
D. True Dryness of the mouth results from blockade of salivary secretion.
E. True Parasympathetic nerves are motor to intestinal smooth muscle.
35. Cutaneous pain
 A. Can be caused by overstimulation of touch receptors.
B. Can be caused by excitation of receptors by chemicals released in injured
tissue.
C. Can be elicited more readily if the tissue has been injured recently.
D. Receptors adapt to stimulation more quickly than touch receptors.
E. Transmission at spinal cord level is facilitated by opening of potassium
channels in the
post-synaptic membrane.

False Pain is due to excitation of specific pain receptors.

B. True Such substances include histamine, bradykinin, 5-
hydroxytryptamine, prostaglandins,
nitric oxide and substance P.
C. True Chemicals released in the injured tissue reduce the stimulation
threshold to cause
hyperalgesia.
D. False Pain receptors adapt much more slowly than touch receptors.
E. False This would inhibit synaptic transmission and may explain how
enkephalin and
endorphin modulate transmission of pain impulses in the substantia
gelatinosa.
36. Cerebrospinal fluid
A. Is formed in the arachnoid granulations.
B. Provides the brain with most of its nutrition.
C. Protects the brain from injury when the head is moved.
D. Has a lower pressure than that in the cerebral venous sinuses.
E. Flow around the adult brain is around half a litre per day.

263.
A. False It is formed in choroid plexuses by active and passive processes.
B. False Most of the brain’s nutrition comes from the blood.
C. True This is its main function and it does so through cushioning and
buoyancy.
D. False Its higher pressure allows drainage by filtration to the dural venous
sinuses via
the arachnoid villi.
E. True This is about four times its volume.
37. An excitatory post-synaptic potential
A. Is the depolarization of a post-synaptic nerve cell membrane that occurs
when a presynaptic
neurone is stimulated.
B. Involves reversal of polarity across the post-synaptic nerve cell
membrane.
 C. May be recorded from a posterior root ganglion cell.
D. Is propagated at the same rate as an action potential.
E. Is caused by the electrical field induced by activity in the pre-synaptic
nerve terminals.

268.
A. True An inhibitory potential is a hyperpolarization.
B. False It is a transient (about 5 msec), small (about 5 mV) depolarization
towards the
threshold for firing.
C. False It may be recorded from a motor neurone.
D. False It is not propagated.
E. False It is caused by transmitters changing permeability in post-synaptic
membranes.
38. 279. _ (alpha) adrenoceptors
A. Are located on myofilaments in smooth muscle cells.
B. Are distinguishable from _ (beta) receptors using electron microscopy.
C. Can be stimulated by both adrenaline and noradrenaline.
D. Are involved in the vasoconstrictor responses in skin to adrenaline.
E. Are involved in the heart rate responses to noradrenaline.

279.
A. False They are located in the cell membranes.
B. False They cannot be visualized; chemical evidence suggests their
structure is similar.
C. True Also by drugs such as ephedrine which has a similar structure.
D. True Alpha receptors predominate in skin arterioles.
E. False Cardiac adrenoceptors are predominantly beta receptors.
39. 282. Nerve fibres continue to conduct impulses when
A. Extracellular sodium is replaced by potassium.
B. Extracellular sodium is replaced by a non-diffusible cation.
C. Temperature is lowered from 37 to 30oC.
D. Temperature is lowered to below 0oC provided freezing does not occur.
E. The sodium-potassium pump is inactivated.

282.
A. False This would depolarize the fibres completely.
B. False Influx of cations is essential for depolarization.
C. True However, conduction is slowed.
D. False Nerve fibres stop conducting before tissue freezing occurs.
E. True They continue to conduct until the electrochemical gradients
created by the pump
 decline.
40. 292. Acetylcholine
A. Acts on the same type of receptor on postganglionic fibres in
sympathetic and parasympathetic
ganglia.
B. Acts on the same type of receptor on target organs at cholinergic
sympathetic and parasympathetic
nerve terminals.
C. Acts on the same type of receptor at autonomic ganglia and at somatic
neuromuscular
junctions.
D. Acts as an excitatory transmitter in the basal ganglia.
E. In blood is hydrolyzed by the same cholinesterase as is found at
neuromuscular junctions.

292.
A. True These are ‘nicotinic’ receptors and the action is blocked at both
sites by drugs
such as hexamethonium.
B. True These are ‘muscarinic’ receptors and the action is blocked at both
sites by atropine.
C. False The receptors are different; curare blocks transmission at somatic
neuromuscular
junctions but not at ganglia.
D. True Anticholinergic drugs are sometimes useful in the treatment of
muscle rigidity in
Parkinsonism.
E. False The ‘pseudocholinesterase’ found in blood differs from the ‘true
cholinesterase’
found near neuromuscular junctions

41. Salt agar is used for

a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus
c. Vibrio d. Shigella

anS
b. Staphylococcus

42. . For sterilization of fermentation

equipment the method followed is
a. Radiation b. Chemicals
c. Heating d. All of these
 ANS :D
43. The diagnosis of tuberculosis is carried
out by
a. Emulator b. Antiformin method
c. Petroff’s method d. Concentration method
e. All of these

ANS e. All of these

44. Wilson and Blair medium is used for
isolation of
a. Staphylococci b. Salmonella typhosa
c. Vibrio cholerae d. Shigella shigae

71. b
45. 15. Nergibodies produced by rabies virus
show characteristic _____ inner granues
a. Basophilic b. Eosinophilic
c. Neutrophilic d. Acidophilic

ANS : A
46. 33. Intensity of attraction between antigen
and antibody molecule is known as
a. Affiniy b. Avidity
c. Reaction d. None of these

ANS : A
47. 52. Basophils have receptors for antibodies
a. IgG b. IgA
c. IgM d. IgE

ANS D
48. 59. Which antibody is called millionaire
molecule?
a. IgA b. IgM
c. IgG d. IgD

ANS B
49. Anthrax vaccine is prepared by
a. Attenuated bacilli
b. Killing the bacilli
c. Live bacilli
d. None of these
 ANS C

50. Attenuated, oral poliomyelitis vaccine is

a. BCG
b. Measles vaccine
c. Sabin vaccine
d. TAB vaccine
83. c
51. 30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these

C
52. 17. ELISA test is used for the identification of
a. Janudice b. AIDS
c. Cancer d. Diabetis

B
53. 31. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
a. Cellwall synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Folate synthesis
d. DNA gyrase

D
54. 61 Coryne bacterium is
a. Gram positive
b. Resistant to Penicillin
c. Gram negative
d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol

A
55. 59. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. C. Bovis
c. C. Jeikeium
d. C. equi
 A

56. 20. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce

a. Lactic acid only
b. Lactic acid + H2O + CO2
c. Lactic acid + CO2
d. Lactic acid + alchohol + CO2

D
57.
28. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas
on Mac Conkey’s medium are
a. Purple colored b. Pink colored
c. Pale colored d. Green colored

C
58. 33. Citrus canker is caused by
a. Phytomonas b. Salmonella
c. Lactobacillus d. Hay bacillus

A
59. 61. Which of the following genera is most
likely to contain organisms capable of
surviving high temperature?
a. Vibrio b. Pseudomonas
c. Torula d. Coxiella

60. 66 Koplic spots observed in the mucous

membrane is characteristic feature of the
disease
a. Rubella b. Measles
c. Mumps d. Influenza

C
61. Among 10 women with cervical cancer, medical records confirm a past
history of herpes simplex type II infection in eight. What is the relative risk
of developing cervical cancer in women with a history of HSV type II
infection? a) 8/10 b) 10/8 c) 8/2 d) 2/10 e) 2/8 Key: True: c

62. In a population of 1000, measles coverage is 60%, one child goes out of
station and comes back with measles from whom 20 more children get
 measles. Secondary attack rate of measles is: a) 0.65% b) 5% c) 6% d) 6.5%
e) 7% Key: True: b

63. When total number of deaths due to measles is presented in relation to the
total cases of measles, it is best labeled as: a) Cause specific death rate b)
Incidence rate c) Prevalence rate d) Case fatality rate e) Proportional
mortality Key: True: d
64. In an epidemiological study the incidence of disease in females is more than
that of males but the prevalence is equal in both. It indicates: a) Case fatality
is more in female b) Mortality in male is higher c) Disease is of less
duration in males d) Females harbour disease for longer duration e) Males
harbour disease for longer duration Key: True: a

65. To give the relevant importance to hypertension control in a health service a

researcher wants to study the prevalence of hypertension. He chose a cohort
study. The design to assess prevalence is? a) Inappropriate b) Suitable c)
Quick d) Feasible e) Expensive Key: True: a

66. A child aged 3 years from a day care centre, was reported to a doctor with
complaints of abdominal colic and constipation for the last 2 days, on
examination there were blue-line on the gums and his appearance was pal
What is the most likely diagnosis? Silicosis
Lead poisoning
Asbestosis
Anthrocosis
Silerosis Key: b

67. An investigator evaluated 100 patients suffering from major depression as

confirmed by the attending psychiatrist. The results were as follows:
Clinical Depression Present Absent + 12 18 (12+18) Test - 28 42 (28+42)
(12+28) (18+42) N = 100
What will be the False-negative rate? 30 % 40 % 54 % 60 % 70 % Key:
True: e
68. In a household survey conducted on ten families the frequency of family
members in different age groups was less than 5 years ? 21, 5 – 14 years ?
16, 15 – 64 years ? 77 & > 65 years ? 1. The relative frequency of members
in 15 – 64 years age group would be: 60.5% 67.5% 70.5% 76.5% 80.5%
Key: True: b
69. Malaria cases were reported throughout the world during the year 1971 –
1978 excluding African region. These cases can be best represented by:
Frequency polygon Histogram Line diagram Pictogram Scatter diagram
 Key: True: c
70. 25. A large study of bladder cancer and cigarette smoking produced the
following data: INCIDENCE OF BLADDER CANCER (per 100,000 males
per year) Cigarette smokers 48.0 Non-smokers 25.4 The relative risk of
developing bladder cancers compared with non-smokers is: Categorical
variable Ordinal data Numerical, continuous variable Numerical, discrete
variable Proportion Key: True: c
71. The relative frequency of a class is obtained by: Dividing the frequency of
that class by the sum of all frequencies Multiplying the frequency of that
class by 100 Dividing the frequency of that class by 100 Dividing the sum
of frequencies by 100 Dividing the frequency of that class by the sum of all
frequencies and multiplied by 100 Key: True: e
72. Information, Ministry of Food & Agriculture, Ministry of Law and Ministry
of Religious affairs should cooperate and coordinate to play their role for
prevention of Iodine deficiency disorders. This reflects: Multi sectoral
approach Equity Equality Appropriate technology Efficiency Key: True: a
73.

A woman traveled a long way from a remote village & came to a population
welfare centre/family planning centr She had enough money but was very
tired on account of traveling. When she went inside, she found a male
doctor dealing with the clients. She decided to go back. The most likely
reason for this decision is lack of: Acceptability Affordability Accessibility
Efficacy Effectiveness Key: True: a
. A health team visited along with the community leaders and health
workers, all the primary schools and mosques in a village to give polio
drops during polio campaign. The community workers facilitated
identification of houses with children less than five years of age. This
reflects: a) Management b) Situation analysis c) Prioritization d)
Community participation e) Intersectoral collaboration Key: True: d
74. 9. Many women in a country are educated, independent and they work for
earning their lively hood too. When the number of males are expressed in
relation with 100 females this is: a) Sex ratio b) Sex rate c) Dependency
ratio d) Literacy rate e) Working women ratio Key: True: a
75. The number of children in 0 to 4 years of age per 1000 women of child
bearing age (15 – 49 years) is defined as: a) General fertility rate b) Total
fertility rate c) Gross reproduction rate d) Net reproduction rate e) Child
woman ratio Key: e

76. 2. The incidence of induced abortion is more among married women of

Dhok Ratta Rawalpindi. Keeping in mind the reproductive health services
of Pakistan, the most likely reason for these abortions is: a) Illegitimacy b)
Unwanted pregnancies c) Anemia d) Under nourished females e) Infections
 Key: True: b
77. 6. A 30 years old woman fitted with an IUCD comes for post insertional
examination and complains of vaginal bleeding; which of the following is
the least important to look for in this patient: a) Break through vaginal
bleeding b) Hyper menorrhea c) Pelvic infection d) Dysmenorrhea e)
Endometrial cancer Key: True: e
78. A 52 year old postmenopausal woman who had never been able to conceive
presented with anorexia, weight loss, nausea, abdominal discomfort,
bloating, fullness, and no history of bleeding per vagina. She had a positive
family history of gynecologic cancer on pelvic examination; it was possible
to feel a pelvic mass. The suspicion of a malignancy should focus upon
which one of the following sites? a) Ovary b) Tube c) Endometrium d)
Cervix of vagina e) No gynecologic organ Key: True: a
79. 80 years old gentleman presented with sudden loss of consciousness. He is
diabetic on oral hypoglycemic drugs. He has skipped his breakfast today.
The first laboratory investigation would be: a) Blood sugar level b) ECG c)
Glycosylated hemoglobin d) EEG e) Urinary glucose Key: True: a

80. 2. Which of the following rates is the most useful measure for comparing
mortality of two populations? a) Standardized death rate b) Infant mortality
rate c) Crude death rate d) Cause -specific death rate e) Proportional
mortality rate Key: True: a
81. Which ONE of the following is not an endogenous mediator of increased
vascular permeability? A. Angiotensin. B. C3a and C5a. C. 5-
hydroxytryptamine. D. Kallikrein. E. Prostaglandin E2. The answer is A.
Angiotensin is produced by the action of renin on angiotensinogen and is
involved in the secretion of aldosterone and in pressor effects

82. Which ONE of the following is not an acceptable characteristic of a

granuloma. A. Composed of altered macrophages. B. Composed of fused
macrophages (giant cells). C. Composed of epithelioid cells. D. Composed
of a mixture of chronic inflammatory cells. E. Composed of
polymorphonuclear leucocytes, cellular debris and fibrin. The answer is E.
Composed of polymorphonuclear leucocytes, cellular debris and fibrin -
This is a description of pus as would be found in an abscess.
Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and nuclear debris can be found in a true
granuloma if there is a focus of suppuration: an infective granuloma. The
definition of 'granuloma' is controversial; it may be used to mean a chronic
inflammatory lesion forming a tissue mass or it may be restricted to a lesion
composed of macrophages or even of altered macrophages (epithelioid
cells).
83. . If the following events were placed in their most probable order of
occurrence following a skin wound which would come fourth? A. Blood
clot formation. B. Growth of granulation tissue. C. Loss of vascularity of
fibrous scar. D. Migration of epithelial cells from wound edges. E. Wound
edges united by collagen. The answer is E. In a wound healing by first
intention the gap fills with blood clot (A); epithelium migrates from the
wound edges and within 48 hours the gap is bridged by epithelium (D);
granulation tissue grows into the wound (B) forming a scaffolding by which
the wound edges are united by collagen (D), producing a narrow fibrous
scar which gradually loses its vascularity (C).

84. Which ONE of the following does not impair healing of a wound? A.
Deficiency of galactosamine. B. Deficiency of vitamin C. C. Excess of
adrenal glucocorticoid hormones. D. Good vascular supply. E. Tissue
hypoxia. 9 The answer is D. Wounds in areas of poor vascularity (i.e., the
skin of the shin) heal very slowly compared with wounds of the face and
scalp. Tissue hypoxia following severe injury results in poor healing (E).
Galactosamine and vitamin C (A, B) are essential for the repair of ground
substances and collagen including type IV (basement membrane) collagen.
Excessive glucocorticoids (C) are associated with poor healing, and this
may be seen in patients on long-term steroid therapy

85. For each of the features of the immunoglobulin molecule listed on the left
select the most appropriate association from those on the right. a. Fab
fragment. b. Fc fragment. c. F(ab1 )2 fragment. A. C-terminal region. B.
Consists of heavy chains only. C. Consists of light chain and part of heavy
chain. D. Consists of light chains only. E. Pepsin digestion product. The
answer is C, A, E. Fab fragment - consists of light chain and part of heavy
chain. Papain digestion of monomeric immunoglobulin results in the
production of two antibodybinding fragments (Fab) which consist of light
chains plus part of the heavy chain. Fc fragment - C-terminal region. Papain
digestion of monomeric immunoglobulin results in the production of a
fragment consisting of the C-terminal ends of the heavy chains linked
together (Fc).

86. 21. If the following features were put in chronological order which would
come fourth? A. Exposure to antigen. B. Differentiation into plasmablasts.
C. Immunoblast proliferation. D. Production of mature plasma cells. E.
Stimulation of germinal centre cells. The answer is B. Exposure to antigen
(A) results in stimulation of (E) the cells in the superficial cortex of the
lymph node (germinal centre cells); these cells enlarge and develop into B-
immunoblasts (C) which divide and some differentiate into plasmablasts
(B), which mature into plasma cells (D). A proportion of the B-
 immunoblasts differentiate into B memory cells and join the circulating pool
of small lymphocytes.

87. . For each of the components of complement listed on the left select the
most appropriate association from the features on the right. a. C3b. b. C5a.
c. C5b-9 complex. A. Chemotactic for neutrophil polymorphs. B.
Deficiency has no pathological effect. C. Inhibits mast cell degranulation.
D. Macrophage surface receptor. E. Target cell plasma membrane injury.
The answer is D, A, E. C3b - macrophage surface receptor. Macrophages
(and polymorphs) have surface receptors for C3b which results in enhanced
adherence of these cells to target cells with C3b on their surface.

88. . If the following features of the atopic reaction were placed in their correct
order which would come fourth? A. Antigen absorbed for the second time.
B. Degranulation of mast cells. C. Inhalation of pollen. D. Mast cell binding
by Fc component of IgE. E. Production of IgE. The answer is A. Atopy
(anaphylactic, immediate or type 1 hypersensitivity) occurs when IgE binds
to mast cells and causes degranulation; antigen is absorbed (C) and the
immune response produces specific IgE (E) which binds by its Fc
component to mast cells (D); subsequent exposure to the antigen (A) results
in antigen trapping by the IgE Fab components on the mast cells with
subsequent degranulation (B).
89. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of interferons? A. Imparts
resistance to virus infection. B. Inhibits virtually all viruses. C. Released
from cells in response to virus infection. D. Species specific cellular protein.
E. Virus specific antiviral effect. The answer is E. The production of
interferons is induced in host cells by virus; the interferons are not specific,
but are an important host defence mechanism against virus infection. They
act by inhibiting translation of viral mRNA by host cells.
90. 30. Which one of the following is the best definition of gangrene? A.
Digestion of dead tissue by saprophytic bacteria. B. Digestion of living
tissue by saprophytic bacteria. C. Gas production in dead tissue. D. Necrosis
of tissue caused by bacterial toxins. E. Necrosis of tissue caused by
ischaemia. The answer is A. In gangrene, tissue which is dead is digested by
bacteria which are incapable of invading and multiplying in living tissue
(saprophytes). Gas production (C) may be present in some forms of
gangrene particularly when caused by the anaerobic Clostridia. Necrosis of
tissue is an essential prerequisite for gangrene, but it may be caused by
ischaemia (E), i.e., secondary gangrene or by bacterial toxins (D), i.e.,
primary gangrene.
91. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of thromboxane A2? A.
Inhibits platelet adenyl cyclase. B. Produced by action of an endothelial cell
 enzyme. C. Produced by conversion of cyclic endoperoxidase by platelets.
D. Prostaglandin with a half-life of 30 seconds. E. Stimulates platelet
adhesion and aggregation. The answer is B. Vascular endothelium is rich in
prostacyclin synthetase which produces prostacyclin from the cyclic
endoperoxidases. Thromboxane A2 is produced by the action of platelet
thromboxane synthetase on cyclic endoperoxides (C). It stimulates platelet
adhesion and aggregation (E) by inhibiting platelet adenyl cyclase (A). It is
a prostaglandin with a very short half life (D).

92. Which ONE of the following is not a cause of secondary

hyperaldosteronism? A. Adrenocortical adenoma. B. Hepatic cirrhosis with
ascites. C. Nephrotic syndrome. D. Renal artery stenosis. E. Untreated
congestive cardiac failure. The answer is A. Adrenocortical adenomas may
secrete excess aldosterone producing primary hyperaldosteronism. Patients
with hepatic cirrhosis with ascites (B), nephrotic syndrome (C) and cardiac
failure (E) have retention of sodium and water (oedema), but the sodium is
extravascular and so the kidney responds as in sodium deprivation. Renal
artery stenosis (D) results in a stimulus to renin release

93. For which ONE of the following tumours is there a definite genetic basis in
a proportion of cases? A. Bronchial carcinoma. B. Cervical carcinoma. C.
Colonic carcinoma. D. Endometrial carcinoma. E. Vaginal carcinoma. The
answer is C. Polyposis (adenomatosis) coli has a Mendelian dominant
inheritance, half the members of the family developing colonic polyps with
resultant colonic carcinoma in early adult life.

94.
Which ONE of the following is not associated with EB virus infection? A.
Burkitt's lymphoma. B. Carcinoma of the cervix uteri. C. Infectious
mononucleosis. D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. E. No clinical symptoms.
The answer is B. Carcinoma of the uterine cervix is associated with
infection by another DNA virus (herpes simplex type 2). Burkitt's
lymphoma (A) is caused by EB virus which infects B-lymphocytes and
occurs in areas where malaria is endemic causing depression of T-cell
function. Infectious mononucleosis (C) is a febrile illness with
lymphadenopathy caused by EB virus infection in which there is a vigorous
T-cell response; presumably eliminating the transformed B-cells.
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma occurs particularly in China, the tumour cells
contain integrated EB virus DNA (D). The majority of people have no
detectable clinical illness when infected by EB virus (E).
95. Which ONE of the following is not a predisposing factor for atheroma? A.
Cigarette smoking. B. High level of serum high density lipoprotein. C. High
level of serum low density lipoprotein (LDL). D. Male sex. E. Systemic
hypertension. The answer is B. High levels of serum HDL are associated
with decreased risk of ischaemic heart disease; in vitro, HDL results in
transfer of cholesterol from the intima of cultured aorta to the culture
medium. High level of serum LDL is the major risk factor of atheroma (C);
the others increase the risk by unknown mechanism.

96. Which ONE of the following is not involved in the aetiology of systemic
hypertension? A. Arteriolosclerosis. B. Chronic glomerulonephritis. C.
Conn's syndrome. D. Phaeochromocytoma. E. Raised sodium intake. The
answer is A. Arteriolosclerosis is the result of hypertension. Renal
hypertension is usually the result of chronic glomerulonephritis (B) or
chronic pyelonephritis. Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) is
due to an adrenal tumour secreting aldosterone (C). Phaeochromocytomas
(D) secrete catecholamines. Population studies have shown hypertension to
correlate well with high average salt intake (E).

97. 63. Which ONE of the following is least likely to be found in a child dying
of acute rheumatic fever? A. Aschoff bodies. B. 'Bread and butter'
pericarditis. C. History of recent sore throat. D. Large crumbling vegetations
on the mitral valve. E. Raised anti-streptolysin O titre (ASO) titre. 30 The
answer is D. The vegetations of acute rheumatic fever are usually small
nodular aggregates of fibrin and platelets along the line of apposition of the
valve cusps. Aschoff bodies (A) are pathognomonic of rheumatic carditis.
Pericarditis of an exudative fibrinous type (B) is present as rheumatic fever
is a pancarditis; the 'bread and butter' appearance is due to the sticky
fibrinous exudate. A recent sore throat due to infection by beta-haemolytic
streptococci (C) is reflected in the raised ASO titre (E).
98. Which ONE of the following is an example of acyanotic congenital heart
disease? A. Anomalous venous drainage. B. Coarctation of the aorta. C.
Fallot's tetralogy. D. Tricuspid atresia. E. Truncus arteriosus. The answer is
B. Coarctation of the aorta occurs predominantly in males and is a
narrowing of the aorta between the left subclavian artery and the orifice of
the ductus arteriosus. The others are all examples of cyanotic anomalies in
which systemic venous blood is mixed with oxygenated blood leaving the
heart; the red cell count rises which increases the cyanosis

99. Which ONE of the following is least likely to result in a sustained rise in
pulmonary artery pressure? A. Atrial septal defect. B. Chronic bronchitis
and emphysema. 33 C. Lobar pneumonia. D. Pulmonary fibrosis. E.
 Pulmonary thrombo-embolic disease.

The answer is C. Lobar pneumonia is usually a short-term illness with resolution

without chronic lung damage.
Congenital shunts, i.e., ASD (A) which are pre-tricuspid produce pulmonary
hypertension in adolescence. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema (B) results in
chronic
hypoxia which stimulates muscularization of the pulmonary vascular tree.
Pulmonary fibrosis
(D) has a similar effect, but eventually there is fibrous obliteration of the
vasculature.
Pulmonary thromboembolic disease (E) of the recurrent type leads to a progressive
increase
in pulmonary vascular resistence.
100. Which ONE of the following is least likely to result in a sustained rise in
pulmonary artery pressure? A. Atrial septal defect. B. Chronic bronchitis
and emphysema. 33 C. Lobar pneumonia. D. Pulmonary fibrosis. E.
Pulmonary thrombo-embolic disease. The answer is C. Lobar pneumonia
is usually a short-term illness with resolution without chronic lung
damage. Congenital shunts, i.e., ASD (A) which are pre-tricuspid produce
pulmonary hypertension in adolescence. Chronic bronchitis and
emphysema (B) results in chronic hypoxia which stimulates
muscularization of the pulmonary vascular tree. Pulmonary fibrosis (D)
has a similar effect, but eventually there is fibrous obliteration of the
vasculature. Pulmonary thromboembolic disease (E) of the recurrent type
leads to a progressive increase in pulmonary vascular resistence.
101. 105. When complete learning has taken place, the best way of
responding to a situation becomes:

(a) Temporary

(b) Permanent

(c) Haphazard

(d) Unnecessary

(e) None of the above

B
102. 110. ‘Negative Reinforcement’ and ‘Punishment’ are:
 (a) Similar terms

(b) Dissimilar terms

(c) Similar to some extent

(d) Similar depending on the situation

(e) None of the above

103. 114. Imprinting is a special form of learning in which a specific

stimulus-response connection is established at:

(a) Childhood

(b) Early childhood

(c) Critical periods

(d) Adulthood

(e) None of the above

C
104. 118. Which procedure involves a rationale opposite to the one
involved in systematic desen- sitization?

(a) Flooding or Implosive Therapy

(b) Systematic Deconditioning

(c) Aversive Therapy

(d) Place Learning

 (e) None of the above

A
105. 128. Which type of theory of learning emphasizes the role of
perception and the changes in perception during the learning
process?

(a) Cognitive Theory

(b) Sign-Gestalt theory

(c) Imprinting

(d) Conditioning

(e) Insightful Learning

A
106. 106. “Raven’s progressive Matrices (RPM)” is a:

(a) Culture-bound test

(b) Test of Memory

(c) Personality Test

(d) Culture Fair Test

(e) None of the above

D
107. 116. Which type of tests of intelligence was developed when people
of different languages or illiterates had to be tested?

(a) Verbal tests

(b) Reasoning tests

 (c) Non-verbal tests

(d) Culture-free tests

(e) None of the above

C
108. 119. The two-factor and the group-factor theories emerge from the
methods of:

(a) Psychophysics

(b) Psychotherapy

(c) Psychophysiology

(d) Factor Analysis

(e) None of the above

D
109. 122. The concept of “Intelligence Quotient” was devised by a German
psychologist:

(a) Spencer

(b) Stern

(c) Thurstone

(d) E. G. Boring

(e) Galton

B
110. 126. The I.Q. range of average intelligence is:

(a) 30-60
 (b) 15-75

(c) 85-115

(d) 150-185

(e) 240-340

C
111. 15. Sensation increases by a constant amount each time the stimulus
is doubled. This is called:

(a) Lewin-Zeigamik Effect

(b) Lewin-Prentice Effect

(c) Mallinoswki Law

(d) Webber-Fechner Law

(e) None of the above

D
112. 22. The condition of night-blindness is a consequence of:

(a) Rhodopsin deficiency in rods

(b) Defective rods

(c) Defective Cones

(d) Defective Retina

(e) None of the above

A
113. 24. The alteration in the comparative sensitivity of the retinal
apparatus which accompanies change in the level of light energy is
 known as:

(a) Purkinje Effect

(b) Dark Adaptation

(c) Scotopic Vision

(d) Visual Acuity

(e) None of the above

A
114. 29. Visual reaction of the dark adapted eye to very feeble light is
called :

(a) Photopic Vision

(b) Scotopic vision

(c) Visual Acuity

(d) Colourless Vision

(e) None of the above

B
115. 33. Cases of yellow-blue colour blindness are:

(a) Maximum

(b) Exceedingly Rare

(c) Mostly found in children

(d) Mostly found in women

(e) Mostly found in men

 B
116. 69. Helmholtz’s theory of space perception centred around the
concept of:

(a) Unconscious inference

(b) Conscious inference

(c) Recurrent Inhibition

(d) Mechanism of Vision

(e) The Static sense

A
117. 74. Gestalt Psychology looks upon the world as:

(a) Psychophysical

(b) Psychological

(c) Physical

(d) Neuro-physiological

(e) Neurological

A
118. 90. Outline or boundary of an object is called:

(a) Contour

(b) Figure

(c) Ground

(d) Brightness
 (e) None of the above

A
119. 91. Prolongation or renewal of a sensory experience after the
stimulus has ceased to affect the sense organ is called:

(a) After image

(b) Illusion

(c) Hallucination

(d) Autokinetic Effect

(e) Stroboscopic Motion

A
120. 96. The process of converting physical energy into nervous system
activity is called:

(a) Transmission

(b) Nerve Impluse

(c) Inhibition

(d) Transduction

(e) None of the above

D
121. Amalgamation favors the process of ____________. A. Acculturation B. Diffusion
C. Assimilation D. None of the above

C
122. 193. “Values are general standards, and may be regarded as higher order norms.”
 Who said it? A. MacIver B. H. M. Johnson C. Weber D. Nimkoff

B
123. ___________ culture is communicated mostly to the like-minded. A. Non-material
B. Explicit C. Material D. Utilitarian

A
124. The _____________ status is the position assigned to an individual without
reference to his innate differences and abilities. A. Social B. Ascribed C. Group D.
Achieved

B
125. Name the group which provides experience, lacking in intimacy. A. Social group
B. Primary group C. Secondary group D. Peer Group

C
126. 168. Knowledge is an example of ______________ culture. A. Material B. Non-
material C. Explicit D. None of the above

B
127. Culture bound or culture specific traits are known as ________ culture. A. Emic
B. Counter C. Etic D. Universal

A
128. Human beings organize themselves into groups called ___________, for the
achievement of some object or goal. A. Institutions B. Community C. Society D.
None of the above

A
129. _________ theory states that people are motivated by self-interest in the
interactions with other people. A. Conflict B. Exchange C. Interaction D.
Structural

A
130. Which is not a characteristic of groups? A. Plurality of individuals B. Reciprocity
C. Antagonism D. We-feeling
 C
131. AnRole-learning theory suggests that…

a) we internalise and take on social roles from a pre-existing

framework
b) we create and negotiate our roles through interaction with
others
c) social roles are not fixed or stable but fluid and pluralistic
d) roles have to be learned to suppress unconscious motivations

A
132. Freud's notion of the 'ego' referred to:

a) the unconscious mass of instinctive drives that may be

repressed
b) the self as a whole: an unstable mix of conscious and
unconscious elements
c) the conscious part of the mind that regulates emotional
drives on a practical, rational level
d) the neurotic part of the mind that longs for belonging and
may suffer an inferiority complex
C
133. The term 'emotion work' (Hochschild 1983) refers to:

a) the techniques used to consciously manage and present

emotions that are deemed appropriate for public settings of
interaction
b) the work done by psychologists, counselors and therapists to
help clients with mental and emotional problems
 c) experiences such as grieving and falling in love, which
demand a lot of emotional energy from a person
d) the way in which increasing levels of risk and anxiety have
made us think more reflexively about our self-identities

134. The 'demographic transition' is a social trend that involves:

a) a reduction in population size, caused by a higher rate of

emigration than immigration
b) a change in the principal causes of death and disease since
industrialization
c) increased birth and death rates, resulting in a relatively young
population
d) a decline in the birth rate, greater life expectancy, and an
ageing population

Correct answer:
d) a decline in the birth rate, greater life expectancy, and an ageing population

135. The view of anti-psychiatrists like Scheff was that mental illness was:

a) a form of deviance, occurring when people challenged taken

for granted expectations about interaction
b) a socially negotiated 'insanity role' into which anyone could
drift
 c) shaped by the processes of interaction taking place within the
family and community
d) all of the above

Ansd) all of the above

Feedback:

136. Foucault's term 'biopolitics' refers to:

a) forms of power over the body, such as physical training, as a

means of disciplining the mind
b) forms of knowledge such as demographic statistics, which
allow us to map and measure populations
c) public health measures, such as improved sanitation and
freshwater schemes
d) intervention by the state to regulate sexual behaviour
Correct answer:
b) forms of knowledge such as demographic statistics, which allow us to map
and measure populations

137. If a deviant act is 'normalized', it is:

a) recognised as breaking an important norm of behaviour

b) seen a temporary aberration from an otherwise 'normal'
character
c) the first step in establishing a deviant career
d) attributed to the person's genetic or anatomical make up
Correct answer:
b) seen a temporary aberration from an otherwise normal characte
138. When the offsprings inherit the father’s name, the family is
called-
(a) patronymic

(b) patrilineal

(c) patriarchal

(d) conjugal

Ans. (a)

139. If in a kinship system, maternal uncle enjoys a pre-eminent

place in the life of his nephews and nieces as a matter of
convention, the kinship usage is called_____________.
(a) avunculate

(b) amitate

(c) couvade

(d) matriliny

Ans. (a)

140. Which of the following tribes is expert in cultivation?

(a) Tharo

(b) Chenchu

(c) Irula

(d) Onge
 Ans. (a)

141. The change from the occupational role to the retirement

role is an example of situation involving a degree of
(a) role -detachment

(b) role discontinuity

(c) preferential role

(d) primary role

Ans. (b)

142. Which among the following is not true regarding, ‘reflexive

role taking’?
(a) Taking the role of another by viewing oneself from the point
of view of the other

(b) Reflexive role taking allows a person to become object in

himself as other’s see him

(c) The concept of reflexive role taking is like precedence of one

role over another.

(d) The concept of reflexive role taking is similar to the Cooley’s

concept of the looking-glass self.

Ans. (c)

143. Name the sociologist who had made distinction between

achieved status and ascribed status.
(a) R.K. Merton

(b) K. Davis
 (c) C.H. Cooley

(d) R. Linton

Ans. (d)

144. As compared to Marx’s analysis, Weber’s analysis of

social stratification is
(a) Simple

(b) Exhaustive

(c) More complex and diversified

(d) Ambiguous

Ans. (c)

145. In a distribution of 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, the x̅ is 30, the sum of
deviations from x̅ will be:
(a) 0

(b) 60

(c) 30

(d) 15

Ans. (a)

146. 64. Froebel, the well-known child educationist was a:

(a) Realist from the United Kingdom

(b) French psychologist

(c) Psychologist of the progressive education movement

 (d) German educationist with poor education

Ans. (d)

147. ‘Before and after’ observations are made in studies

involving:
(A) Exploratory Design

(B) Experimental Design

(C) Descriptive Design

(D) Cross-cultural Design

Ans. (D)

148. _____________ is a set of techniques to measure

attractions and repulsion in interpersonal relation ‘in
quantitative and diagrammatic terms’.
(a) Social statistics

(b) Sociometry

(c) Social survey

(d) Quantitative method

Ans. (b)

149. Among the _____ one is often obliged to marry one’s

father’s widows, other than one’s own mother.
(a) Rengami Naga

(b) Kuki tribe

(c) Sema Naga

 (d) Toda tribe

Ans. (c)

150. Kinship by nature is:

(a) always specific

(b) always unspecific

(c) never specific

(d) in some case specific, while others not

Ans. (d)

151. 87. Most common bone to fracture in body is

a) Radius
b) Clavicle
c) femur
d) vertebra
e) Pelvis
Ans:b

152. 92.Bennet's fracture is fracture dislocation of base of _____ matacarpal

a) 4th
b) 3rd
c) 2nd
d) 1st
Ans:d

153. 88.Cock up splint is used in management of

a) Ulnar nerve palsy
b) brachial plexus palsy
c) radial nerve palsy
d) combined ulnar & median nerve palsy
Ans:c
154. 76. Muscles involved in Volkmann's ischemic contracture
a) Flexor pollicis longus
b) Flexor profundus
c) Flexor sublimis
d) All
Ans:d

155. 67.Meyer's operation is done for

a) Recurrent dislocation of patella
b) Dislocation of shoulder joint
c) Dislocation of hip joint
d) Scaphoid

Ans:b

156.

D
157.

B
158.

d
159.

C
160.
 13 c
161.
18 d

162.

33
b
163.

4a
164.

10b
165. 14d

166. 28 - sever's disease refers to ?

a- calcaneum
b- radius
 c- talus
d- capitulum

answer is a . calcaneum osteochondritis is called sever's disease . the

osteochondritis of the navicular bone is called kohler's disease .
osteochondritis of the capitulum of the humerus is called panner's
disease .
167. lisfranc dislocation is ?

a- tarsometatarsal dislocation
b- lunate dislocation
c- scaphoid dislocation
d- posterior dislocation of the elbow

answer is a . tarsometatarsal dislocation.

168. 62.Duga's test is helpful in
a) Dislocation of hip
b) Scaphoid fracture
c) Fracture neck of femur
d) Anterior dislocation of shoulder
Ans:d

169. 58. A football player, while playing, twists his knees over the ankle. He still
continues to play.
a) Medial meniscus tear
b) Anterior cruciate ligament tear
c) Medial collateral ligament injury
d) Posterior cruciate ligament injury.
Ans:a

170. 51.Menisci calcification is a feature of

a) Gout
b) Hyperparathyroidism
c) pseudogout
d) ankylosing spondylosis
 Ans:c

171. 10.In classical caesarean section more chances of rupture of uterus is in

a) upper uterine segment
b) lower uterine segment
c) utero cervical junction
d) posterior uterine segment.

Ans:a

172. 7.Commonest complication of extracapsular fracture of neck of femur is

a) Non Union
b) iscnemic necrosis
c) Maiunion
d) aTPuTmonary complications

Ans:c

173. 3.Injury to the popliteal artery in fracture lower end of femur is often due to?
a) Distal fragment pressing the artery
b) Proximal fragment pressing the artery
c) Tight plaster
d) Hematoma

Ans:a

174.
9.Blood coagulation profile in pregnancy is
a) Increase in fibrinogen level of 10-25 %
b) Decrease in factor X, XI, XII
c) Decrease in plasminogen activity
d) Increase in platelet count

Ans:a

175. 13.Myositis ossificans is commonly seen at the ____ joint

d) Hip
 a) Knee
b) Elbow
c) Shoulder
d) Hip

Ans:b

176. 128 - which of the following is the fracture of atlas vertebrae ?

a- jefferson's fracture
b- bennet's fracture
c- essex loprestti frx
d- green stick fracture

answer is a .
177. 133. Perthe's disease

(a) Usually presents before 10 years of age

(b) Is due to avascular necrosis of the distal femoral epiphysis
(c) Is more common in girls
(d) Plain x-ray may show the capital femoral epiphysis to be smaller,
denser and flatter
(e) May require surgical containment with a subtrochanteric
osteotomy

----------------------------------------

a , d , e are true . Perthe's disease is due to avascular necrosis of the

capital femoral epiphysis. It presents with hip pain and a limp usually
before the age of 10 years. The male to female ratio is 4:1. X-rays
shows the capital femoral eiphysis to be small, dense and flattened. A
bone scan shows a cold spot within the epiphysis.
178. 81) Disc Prolapse is Common in
a. L4, L5,
 b. L5, S1

c. T12, L1

d. S1, S2

Answer : (a) L4 – L5

179. Most common complication of Extra Capsular Fracture in a female

patient aged 30 years is

a. Malunion

b. Non Union

c. Fracture of Radius

d. None of the above

Answer : (a) Malunion

180. Common Complication of Septic Arthritis of Hip is

a. Hypermobile Joint

b. Bony Ankylosis

c. Both

d. None

Answer : (b) Bony Ankylosis

181. A physical therapist evaluating a 66 year old female who has a history of severe
head trauma following a motor vehicle accident. The patient has difficulty with
rapid alternating movements while performing neurologic testing. The BEST term
to describe this specific impairment is:

1. Ataxia
2. Dysmetria
3. Dysarthria
4. Dysdiadocokinesia
 D
182. A patient with a stroke affecting the right middle cerebral artery has difficulty
walking, especially over uneven surfaces. Which of the following describes the
MOST appropriate initial treatment to improve the patient’s ability to walk over
uneven surfaces?

1. Place a single point cane in the patient’s left hand and train him to use a
step-to gait pattern.
2. Place a single point cane in the patient’s right hand and train him to use a
step-to gait pattern.
3. Fit the patient with a 4-wheeled walker and instruct him to use a 4-point
gait pattern.
4. Fit the patient with axillary crutches and instruct him to use a 4-point gait
pattern.

B
183. A 79 year old female presents to outpatient rehabilitation services 6 weeks
following a CVA with right hemiplegia. She complains of right shoulder pain
working on functional upper extremity movements and has severe shoulder pain
when practicing bed mobility activities such as rolling and scooting. On
examination, it is observed that the humeral head is inferiorly displaced. Which of
the following would be the MOST appropriate for her condition?

1. Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)

2. Functional Electrical Stimulation (FES)
3. Short Wave Diathermy (SWD)
4. Interferential Current (IFC) Stimulation

B
184. A patient presents to the inpatient rehabilitation unit who has suffered a vertebro-
basilar CVA and has difficulty adducting and depressing his eyes. Which cranial
nerve is the MOST likely cause of this impairment?

1. CN I
2. CN II
3. CN III
4. CN IV

The answer is:

Cranial nerve testing for ocular movements is performed using the “H” pattern to
 assess tracking movements. Difficulty adducting and depressing the eye is
indicative of Trochlear nerve involvement (CN IV).

185. A 22 year old female presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of knee pain
following a twisting injury while playing soccer 5 days ago. The patient’s knee is
swollen significantly and is unable to jump or run. What special test would be the
MOST appropriate to diagnose the injury?

1. Lachman’s test
2. Posterior drawer test
3. Active Lachman’s test
4. External Rotation Recurvatum Test

The correct answer is:

1. This is the most correct answer. The overwhelming majority of

injuries to female soccer players is to the ACL, especially with a
running/twisting injury and swelling. In addition, the Lachman’s test
is validated well by multiple studies.
2. PCL’s are an issue with twisting injuries, but not to the extent that ACL’s
are.
3. Active Lachman’s test has not had near the validation that the plain-vanilla
Lachman’s test has.
4. Good test, but not the MOST appropriate.

186. A patient presents to the clinic with signs of lethargy and mild dizziness. The
patient’s resting blood pressure is 100/70. Which of the following is MOST likely
to cause this decrease in blood pressure?

1. Lisinopril
2. Prednisone
3. Sertraline
4. Metformin

The correct answer is:

1. This is the correct answer. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and is used

primarily for the treatment of hypertension.
2. This is used to treat inflammatory diseases and is typically not associated
with decreases in blood pressure.
 3. Sertraline treats depression and is typically not associated with decreases in
blood pressure.
4. Metformin controls blood sugar in Type II Diabetes and is not typically
associated with decreases in blood pressure.

187. While treating a patient for cardiac rehab, a physical therapist relies on the Borg
RPE scale. The Borg rating of perceived exertion scale (RPE) is MOST
representative of which type of data scale?

1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Cardinal
4. Marginal

The correct answer is:

1. Nominal scales are used to indicate categories that are not higher or lower
(example: race, gender, etc.)
2. Ordinal scales are used to represent data that is comparatively higher
or lower that other data. This is the most correct answer.
3. Cardinal scales are used when there is an absolute zero and are
quantitative. Age and weight are good examples of these.
4. Not related.

188. A patient with cystic fibrosis is receiving postural drainage and percussion for the
right lung’s middle lobe. What is the MOST appropriate patient position?

1. Supine on a wedge with the left shoulder elevated on pillows with the head
lower than the pelvis.
2. Supine on a wedge with the right shoulder elevated on pillows with the
head lower than the pelvis.
3. Prone with the right shoulder elevated on pillows and the head on the same
plane as the pelvis.
4. Prone with the left shoulder elevated on pillows and the head on the same
plane as the pelvis.

The correct answer is:

1. This is the drainage position for the left lingular lobe.

2. This is the correct position and is most appropriate for the right
middle lobe.
 3. This is the drainage position for the right posterior lower lobe.
4. This is the drainage position for the left posterior lower lobe.

189. 29.

A patient is receiving cardiac rehab and has a heart rate of 110 during moderate
intensity exercise. The patient reports a 16 on the Borg RPE scale. Which class of
heart medications is MOST likely present?

1. Beta Blockers
2. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors
3. Calcium Channel Blockers
4. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers

The correct answer is:

1. This is the correct answer. Beta blockers work on the beta-adrenergic

receptors to decrease sympathetic responses to stress, primarily the
heart rate. The Borg Scale should represent Heart Rate divided by
10. Thus there is a disparity in heart rate and exertion, indicating a
blunted heart rate.
2. ACE inhibitors block the angiotensin-converting enzyme to prevent vessel
constriction during sympathetic responses to stress, primarily blood
pressure.
3. Calcium channel blockers work on the heart musculature to decrease the
force of contraction, as well as decreasing the vasoconstrictive smooth
muscle in the arteries. The primary response is decreased blood pressure.
4. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers do not prevent the angiotensin I to
angiotensin II conversion; rather, they block the receptors of angiotensin II
and have an effect similar to the ACE inhibitors.

190. A patient is recovering from a broken tibia and has just been instructed to
discontinue use of a walking boot. The patient demonstrates excessive pronation
and complains of pain and instability in the ankle while ambulating. Which of the
following is the MOST appropriate treatment?

1. Begin a single leg standing program and advance to eccentric calf

strengthening as tolerated.
2. Begin with open-chain exercises and progress to closed-chain
strengthening of the ankle as tolerated.
3. Begin with closed-chain exercises and progress to open-chain
 strengthening of the ankle as tolerated.
4. Begin a strengthening program involving primarily ankle evertors,
progressing as tolerated.

The correct answer is:

1. This is a good answer, but not the MOST correct.

2. This is the correct answer. Progressive strengthening of the ankle will
be the MOST appropriate treatment.
3. This answer is backwards and not the most appropriate.
4. This may be a part of the program, but is not the most appropriate
treatment for ankle weakness after discontinuing a walking program.

191. If a magnetic resonance image (MRI) correctly identifies 95% of patients as

positive for anterior cruciate ligament tears, then the MRI is:

1. Sensitive
2. Specific
3. Significant
4. Stable

The correct answer is:

1. This is the correct answer. A test that is sensitive will correctly

identify the true positives. With high sensitivity, a test that is negative
will likely mean that you can rule OUT the condition because positives
are so reliable.
2. Specificity is the % of true negatives identified. With high specificity, a
test that is positive will rule IN the condition because the negatives are so
reliable.
3. Statistically significant would mean the result is likely NOT due to chance.
4. Stable would mean the result does not fluctuate.

192. A physical therapist examines a patient and determines that the patient has a
positive Active Compression test (O’Brien’s Test). Which of the following
pathologies is MOST implicated?

1. Rotator cuff tear

2. Biceps tendonitis
3. Superior labral tear
 4. Acromioclavicular joint sprain

The correct answer is:

1. RTC tears are indicated by tests such as the drop arm test, external rotation
lag sign, belly press test.
2. This is indicated by tests such as Yergason’s Test.
3. This is the correct answer. The O’Brien’s test is indicative of SLAP
tears.
4. AC joint sprains are indicated by tests similar to the Cross-over test.

193. Nodding movement of head is example of_____order lever.

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
Ans:- A

194. Knee flexion in prone lying is an example of a. lst order lever

b. 2nd order lever
c. 3rd order lever
d. 4th order lever
Ans:- C

195. Friction is the resistive force offeFed by the surface, when i one surface moves over
the other, which IS directly proportional to_______
a. The area of the surface 1n contact
b. Nature of the surface
c. Weight of the moving object
d. All of the above
Ans:- D

196. 40 Kg traction force IS applied to the part at an angle of 30 degrees What will be the
effective distractive force at the joint?
a. 30kg
b. 35kg
c. 40 kg
d. 45 kg
Ans:- B
197. A 20 year old male soccer player presents with a Grade II right lateral ankle sprain
upon evaluation. What are the characteristics of a Grade II ankle sprain?

1. Partial tear of the lateral ligament complex with mild joint instability,
moderate intra-capsular swelling and tenderness, and some loss of ROM
and joint function
2. Complete rupture of the anterior talofibular ligament, calcaneofibular
ligament, and capsule with mechanical joint instability; severe intra/extra-
capsular swelling, ecchymosis, tenderness and inability to weight-bear.
3. Stretch of the lateral ligament complex with no macroscopic tear or joint
instability, little swelling or tenderness
4. Partial tear of the syndesmosis, creating generalized swelling and
tenderness throughout the ankle joint complex; inability to bear weight,
severe ecchymosis, and mortise widening.

The correct answer is:

1. This is the correct answer. This describes a Grade II lateral ankle

sprain.
2. This describes a severe or Grade III lateral ankle sprain.

198. A 12 year old male athlete is being evaluated by a physical therapist. The patient
reports pain with running and has a sharp pain over the patellar tendon,
particularly on the tibial tubercle. Which of the following disorders is MOST
likely present?

1. Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease
2. Chondromalacia patellae
3. Osgood-Schlatter disease
4. Pes anserine bursitis

3
199. 1. Your physical therapist tells you you have become
"diaphoretic" during your session. What does he mean?

Your diaphragm is swollen.

You need to see a specialist.
You are weaker that he thought.
You are perspiring.
 D
200. What are "plyometrics"?

An eccentric contraction, followed by a strong concentric

contraction.
A strong concentric contraction followed by an eccentric
contraction.
A measurement of the pliability of tissue.
None of these
A