Examiners’ Report

NEBOSH INTERNATIONAL DIPLOMA IN

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY

UNIT IA:
INTERNATIONAL MANAGEMENT OF
HEALTH AND SAFETY

JULY 2017

CONTENTS

Introduction 2

General comments 3

Comments on individual questions 4

Examination technique 12

Command words 15

 2017 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email: [email protected] website: www.nebosh.org.uk

The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444
 Introduction

NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as
an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a comprehensive
range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the health, safety,
environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and public sectors.

Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 50,000 candidates annually and are offered
by over 600 course providers, with examinations taken in over 120 countries around the world. Our
qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution
of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety Management
(IIRSM).

NEBOSH is an awarding body that applies best practice setting, assessment and marking and applies
to Scottish Qualifications Authority (SQA) Accreditation regulatory requirements.

This report provides guidance for candidates and course providers for use in preparation for future
examinations. It is intended to be constructive and informative and to promote better understanding of
the syllabus content and the application of assessment criteria.

© NEBOSH 2017

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:

NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester
LE19 1QW

tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
email: [email protected]

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 General comments

Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate
understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations.

There are other candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who
show both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key concepts
should be applied to workplace situations, which is an essential requirement at Diploma level.

This report has been prepared to provide feedback on the standard date examination sitting in July
2017. This report covers both the 2011 and 2015 specifications.

Feedback is presented in these key areas: responses to questions, examination technique and
command words and is designed to assist candidates and course providers prepare for future
assessments in this unit.

Candidates and course providers will also benefit from use of the ‘Guide to the NEBOSH International
Diploma in Occupational Health and Safety’ which is available via the NEBOSH website. In particular,
the guide sets out in detail the syllabus content for Unit IA and tutor reference documents for each
Element.

Additional guidance on command words is provided in ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ which is also available via the NEBOSH website.

Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit IA ‘Example question paper
and Examiners’ feedback on expected answers’ which provides example questions and details
Examiners’ expectations and typical areas of underperformance.

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 Unit IA
International management of health and safety

Question 1 (a) Give the meaning of the term ‘motivation’. (2)

(b) Outline Maslow’s model of the hierarchy of human needs AND

give a suitable example within EACH stage of the model. (8)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcome 8.1: Outline psychological and sociological factors which may give rise to
specific patterns of safe and unsafe behaviour in the working environment. Equivalent
to 7.1 in the 2011 specification.

In part (a) answers demonstrated a general understanding that motivation is a driving

force for individual behaviour. However, few candidates went further than this.

Part (b) sought to test the theory of motivation as described by Maslow. The hierarchy
of needs described by Maslow is a useful tool for describing motivation at a basic level.
Few candidates were able to recall the hierarchy and therefore were unable to give
suitable examples of each stage.

In some answers it was evident that there was confusion between motivational theory
and encouragement to make workers work harder.

Understanding the theory will help practitioners apply systems in the workplace to
improve the health and safety performance of workers.

Question 2 Outline what should be considered when planning a health and safety
inspection programme. (10)
Information on the specific workplace behaviours or conditions that might
be covered in an inspection is not required.

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcome 4.3: Describe the variety of health and safety monitoring and measurement
techniques. Equivalent to 3.3: Describe the variety of monitoring and measurement
techniques, in the 2011 specification.

The question included a clear note stating that what may be inspected was not
required. However, many candidates still focused on this in their answers. Care in
reading and re-reading the question and instructions are required. There were several
candidates who could not go beyond who carries out the inspections, their
competence, recording of findings and management commitment, thus limiting the
marks that could be awarded. The broader aspects of inspection planning such as
recording methods, etc were seldom referred to.

Planning monitoring activities is an important function of the health and safety

practitioner and a knowledge of planning and putting together the processes is required
in order to get the most appropriate and useful information to assist health and safety
management.

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Question 3 (a) Give the meaning of the term ‘health and safety culture’. (2)

(b) Outline organisational factors that may act as barriers to the

improvement of the health and safety culture of an organisation. (8)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 7.7: Explain health and safety culture and climate; and 7.8: Outline the factors
which can both positively and negatively affect health and safety culture and climate.
6.1: Explain the internal and external influences on health and safety in an organisation;
and 6.7 in the 2011 specification.

Part (a) was generally well answered. Candidates were expected to link attitude,
beliefs, etc to safety behaviour in the workplace in order to be awarded the marks
available.

Part (b) set out to give candidates the opportunity to demonstrate an understanding of
culture and influences focusing on barriers rather than promoters of culture. Barriers to
improving organisational safety culture could have included lack of commitment from
senior management, inadequate resourcing, high staff turnover, etc.

Culture and human factors are key parts of the syllabus and candidates should be
prepared to tackle questions on these subjects which are framed in both positive and
negative formats. Again, reading the question is key. Providing a rehearsed answer to
the subject area will not gain good marks at this level of examination.

Question 4 Identify FIVE groups external to an organisation that may need to be

provided with health and safety information for legal or good practice
reasons AND, in EACH case, outline the type of information to be
provided. (10)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 5.1: Explain how to use internal and external information sources in
identifying hazards and the assessing of risk; and 7.3: Explain the internal and external
influences on health and safety in an organization. Equivalent to 6.1: Explain the
internal and external influences on health and safety in an organisation; and 6.5: Outline
the development of a health and safety management information system, the relevant
duties and the data it should contain, in the 2011 specification.

Overall this question was well answered with candidates making reference to: Trade
associations, emergency services, government departments, etc.

The question also asked for an outline of the type of information to be provided which
posed more difficulty to candidates as several seemed to be unsure of the information
requirements and therefore missed available marks.

It is important that candidates recognise the importance of stakeholder management

and develop a good understanding of both legal and good business requirements.

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Question 5 Outline the essential features of permit-to-work systems. (10)
Detail of the content of permit forms is not required.

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

6.3: Explain the development, main features and operation of safe systems of work and
permit-to-work systems (equivalent to 5.3 in the 2011 specification).

This question set out to assess candidates’ knowledge and understanding of permit-to-
work systems rather than permit-to-work forms. This was made clear in the question
by reference to permit-to-work systems and the instruction in italics that the content of
forms was not required.

Answers that covered the system such as co-ordination and control of permits, permit
suspensions, hand-back and shift handover procedures, etc would have gained marks.
Many candidates referred solely to the permit form, which while an important part of the
system, it is only part of it and therefore several available marks could not be not
awarded.

It was clear from many of the responses that there is a good knowledge of permits-to-
work. However, a more managerial approach to the system was required to gain good
marks.

Question 6 (a) Distinguish between prescriptive legislation and goal-setting

legislation. (2)

(b) Outline TWO benefits and TWO limitations of prescriptive

legislation. (4)

(c) Outline TWO benefits and TWO limitations of goal-setting

legislation. (4)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

2.1: Describe comparative governmental socio-legal and regulatory models. Equivalent
to 8.1: Describe comparative governmental and socio-legal, regulatory and corporate
models, in the 2011 specification.

The key distinguishing characteristic of prescriptive and goal setting legislation is based
on the fact that prescriptive legislation describes the minimum standards, whereas goal
setting legislation describes the desired outcome rather than the method of achieving
the outcomes.

The benefits and limitations of each are related to, among other things, the level of
expertise required to interpret the requirements and whether compliance has actually
been achieved, as well as the relevance of the legislation over time.

There were some good answers to the question which showed a good understanding
of the subject and other responses that suggested that some candidates had never
heard the terms prescriptive and goal setting in this context before.

Given the international nature of the course, candidates should be well prepared on
legal principles and systems.

Course providers are reminded of the need to support candidates in their examination
preparation. Candidates should develop an understanding of the syllabus requirements
and be prepared to answer questions that are not solely based on memory recall, but
require an understanding of the subject as the questions are likely to be phrased in
various ways to assess knowledge.

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Question 7 A forklift truck is used to move loaded pallets in a large distribution
warehouse. On one particular occasion the truck skidded on a patch of
oil. As a consequence, the truck collided with an unaccompanied visitor
and crushed the visitor’s leg.

(a) Outline why the accident should be investigated. (4)

(b) The initial responses of reporting and securing the scene of the
accident have been carried out.

Outline actions that should be taken in order to collect evidence

for an investigation of the accident. (8)

(c) The investigation reveals that there have been previous skidding
incidents that had not been reported and the organisation
therefore decides to introduce a formal system for reporting near
miss incidents.

Outline factors that should be considered when developing and

implementing such a system. (8)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 3.1: Outline theories/models and use of loss causation techniques; 3.3:
Explain the significance and use of statutory and internal reporting of loss events; and
3.4: Explain the reasons for loss and near miss investigations and the procedures to be
followed. (Equivalent to 2.1: Explain the theories of loss causation; 2.2: Explain the
quantitative analysis of accident/incident and ill health data, limitations of their
application, and their presentation in numerical and graphical form; 2.3: Explain the
external and the internal reporting and recording systems for loss events (injuries, ill-
health, dangerous occurrences) and near-misses; and 2.4: Explain loss and near miss
investigations; the requirements, benefits, the procedures, the documentation, and the
involvement of and communication with relevant staff and representatives, in the 2011
specification).

Part (a) was looking for reasons why the accident should be investigated. Most of the
candidates who chose to answer this question gained good marks; citing reasons such
as identification of causes (direct and underlying), prevention of a recurrence, etc.
However, those candidates who did not gain good marks tended to list the reasons
rather than provide an outline as required in the question.

In part (b) candidates needed to provide outlines of specific actions to be taken including
reviewing CCTV footage, interviewing appropriate persons, examining the forklift truck
for defects, etc. Again, most candidates were able to provide a good response to the
question and showed they had experience of accident investigation and data gathering
tools.

Candidates who had difficulty in part (b) tended to repeat similar actions under different
guises, eg examine photographs, examine sketches or measure parts of the scene, or
gave a list rather than outline the actions to be taken.

Part (c) seemed to offer the biggest challenge to candidates in this question since it
focused on the system rather than the activity of accident investigation. Candidates
were expected to take the broader managerial view of the development and
implementation of the system required. Marks were available for factors such as
consultation with workers, no blame culture, clear reporting lines, etc. Those
candidates who were able to move from the process to the system (and there were
many) gained good marks.

Accident theory and investigation is a core part of the health and safety practitioner role,
as is the process of system development and implementation. Candidates should be
prepared to tackle this type of managerial question at this level.

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Question 8 Outline the key elements of ONE of the following:

ILO-OSH-2001 Guidelines on Occupational Health and Safety

Management Systems;

OHSAS 18001:2007 Occupational Health and Safety Management

Systems. (20)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

1.4: Explain the principles and content of an effective health and safety management
system including the reasons for integration with other management systems.
Equivalent to 1.3: Explain the principles and content of effective health and safety,
quality, environmental, and integrated management systems with reference to
recognised models and standards, in the 2011 specification.

This was not a particularly popular Section B question despite the prevalence of health
and safety management systems in organisations.

Candidates who did attempt the question tended to focus on the OSHAS 18001
management system. However, many candidates did not seem to know the key stages
of the OHSAS 18001 management system, ie policy, planning, implementation and
operation, checking corrective action, management review and continual improvement
and therefore did not structure their answer in this sequence. Some answers mixed not
only the OHSAS 18001 system contents and the ILO OSH system contents, but other
management system contents as well.

It could be that answers tended to reflect an operational view of health and safety in the
workplace rather than a higher level managerial or strategic view. However, it is an
expectation that candidates of the International Diploma are able to understand and
communicate the principles and content of health and safety management systems.
Furthermore there is a reasonable expectation that candidates will be prepared to
explain the application of management systems in a workplace setting.

Question 9 (a) Outline the meaning and relevance of the following terms in the
context of controlling human error in the workplace:

(i) ergonomics; (2)

(ii) anthropometry; (2)
(iii) task analysis. (2)

(b) Other than ergonomic issues, outline ways in which human

reliability in the workplace may be improved. (14)
In your answer, consider ‘individual’, ‘job’ and ‘organisational’
issues.

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 8.5: Explain how organisational factors can contribute to improving human
reliability; 8.6: Explain how job factors can contribute to improving human reliability; 8.7:
Outline the principles, conditions and typical content of behavioural change
programmes designed to improve safe behaviour in the workplace. (Equivalent to 7.5,
7.6 and 7.7 in the 2011 specification).

A fairly popular choice of the Section B questions that sought to test a mix of theory and
practice.

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 In part (a) candidates were generally able to outline the meaning of the terms
‘ergonomics’, ‘anthropometry’ and ‘task analysis’. However, fewer candidates were
able to gain the full mark allocation as the question required reference to the relevance
of the terms in controlling human error. Marks were awarded for points such as
including accounting for human limitations, application of reach distances to equipment
design and analysing the scope for human error.

In part (b) candidates were prompted to structure their answers using the headings of
Individual, Job and Organisational issues, which it was expected would be helpful to
candidates. However, there were many candidates who did not refer to these prompts.
Those who structured their answers using the prompts tended to gain more marks than
those who did not. Marks were available for consideration of individual skills, use of job
rotation and developing a positive health and safety culture, for example.

Where a question includes a structure or prompt to candidates for their answers it is

recommended that candidates follow the prompt as they are designed to assist the
candidate in their answer.

Question 10 The management of a chemical store with major on-site and off-site
hazard potential is analysing the risks and controls associated with a
particular storage facility and potential containment failure. Following
containment failure (f=0.5 per year), an automatic failure detection
mechanism should detect the release. Once detected, an alarm sounds
followed by a suppressant being dispersed. Finally, in order to reduce
the consequences of the event an operator is required to take manual
control measures following the release of the suppressant. As part of the
analysis, the organisation has decided to quantify the risks from the
containment failure and develop a quantified event tree from the data.

Activity Frequency / reliability

Process containment failure 0.5 per year
Failure detection 0.98
Alarm sounders 0.99
Release suppression 0.8
Manual control measures activated 0.7

(a) Using the data provided, construct an event tree that shows the
sequence of events following process containment failure. (6)

(b) Calculate the frequency of an uncontrolled release resulting

from process containment failure. (6)

(c) Outline factors that should be considered when determining

whether the frequency of the uncontrolled risk is tolerable. (5)

(d) Outline a methodology for cost benefit analysis with regard to

the process described. (3)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

5.5: Explain the principles and techniques of failure tracing methodologies with the use
of calculations (equivalent to 4.4 in the 2011 specification).

This was a popular question that seemed to attract either very good marks or very few
marks.

The tree construction was the most consistent part of the question for gaining marks
with many candidates achieving top marks.

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 The calculations required in part (b) were a little more mixed, with a range of responses
that were accurate, some contained calculation errors and some that used the wrong
methodology. Candidates who calculated a frequency of around every 4.4 years were
correct. However, it is important to emphasise that candidates must show their
calculations at each stage in order to gain good marks. Stating that the frequency was
4.4 years without providing the relevant calculations is not worthy of marks in the
context of this examination.

Part (c) required candidates to provide evidence of understanding the use of such tools
as event tree analysis in determining the tolerability of risk. Candidates who had
referred to published data and comparative data, as well as other implications (such as
societal), gained good marks. There were several candidates who showed little or no
understanding of the term ‘tolerable’.

In part (d) candidates were required to offer the methodology that recognises
quantification of loss in terms of monetary value, quantification of improvement costs in
terms of money, and a comparison of the two values to assist in the process of cost
benefit analysis and decision making. While full marks were often awarded, equally
there was evidence that the concept was not well understood by many candidates.

Calculation-type questions offer candidates a good chance to gain good marks provided
they understand the methodology required. However, it is equally important that
candidates understand the overall process being examined and how to apply and
analyse the data to help make useful risk management decisions.

Question 11 (a) Outline the purpose of International Labour Organisation (ILO)

Codes of Practice. (2)

(b) Outline how International labour standards are created at the

International Labour Conference. (5)

(c) Outline how the ILO can influence health and safety standards
in different countries. (5)

(d) Outline how the media can influence attitudes towards health
and safety. (8)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 2.3: Explain the role and limitations of the International Labour Organisation
in a global health and safety setting; and 2.4: Explain the role non-governmental bodies
and self-regulation has in securing common health and safety standards in a global
economy (equivalent to 8.2 and 8.3 in the 2011 specification).

The International Diploma requires a knowledge of the role, function and processes of
the International Labour Organisation along with other influences on organisational
health and safety.

This was not a popular question with candidates and those who did attempt it showed
a range of knowledge on the subject, indicating that it may have been a forced choice
in some cases.

In part (a) candidates were required to offer an outline of the advisory nature of the
Codes of Practice in supporting the ILO conventions.

Part (b) required candidates to offer the process of standard creation at the International
Labour Conference. Marks were available for elements of the process such as
amendments proposed and voting qualified by a 2/3 majority.

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Part (c) then required candidates to recognise how the ILO can use the standards
among other things to influence health and safety in different countries. Marks were
available for the ILO role in monitoring implementation of standards, dealing with
complaints, and providing technical assistance, for example.

Part (d) required candidates to provide an outline of how the media (news, television,
printed, online, etc) can influence attitudes towards health and safety. Nowadays there
is instantaneous global coverage of events through online reporting and social media
as well as traditionally broadcast and paper news, which provides information to readers
and observers and therefore can influence perception and attitudes. Also there are
concepts such as state media control that can affect individual and group views of
events and situations.

A good answer to this question required a good understanding of influential

organisations and social development worldwide. As such, course providers and
candidates are reminded to read widely while studying the International Diploma in
Occupational Health and Safety.

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Examination technique
The following examination techniques are consistently identified as the main areas in need of
improvement for candidates:

Candidates misread/misinterpreted the question

Careful and thorough preparation for the examination is vital for candidates. Accredited course
providers should assist candidates in setting out and applying sound revision and examination practice
and preparation techniques to ensure that they are well prepared for the examination. This includes
ensuring that candidates carefully read the question to determine exactly what is being asked and
answer accordingly.

Examiners noted that there was evidence of candidates not understanding the question that was asked
and therefore providing an answer that was not relevant to the question.

The range of English language skills demonstrated in the examination by candidates varies enormously.
Examiners often find themselves faced with scripts where candidates do not appear to have understood
the question and struggle to write a coherent answer in English. Candidates for this examination should
satisfy the required IELTS Level 7 language requirements. Course providers are reminded that it is
incumbent on them to provide appropriate advice and guidance to candidates to help ensure that they
stand a reasonable chance of success in the study of the NEBOSH Diploma.

There were numerous examples of quite long, detailed answers that suggest practical experience but
do not focus on the question being asked. This may be a result of candidates either not reading the
question properly, or because of possible language issues where candidates do not understand what
the question is asking.

The examination is assessing candidates on their understanding of ‘managing’ health and safety and a
number of candidates did not seem to grasp this resulting in long, detailed answers on such issues as
‘what to look for in an audit’ rather than how to prepare for and manage an audit.

Examiners ask questions based on the syllabus. Points, no matter how valid, but unrelated to the
question being asked, will not attract any marks. Candidates should note that where there is emphasis
in a question (eg by the use of italics) it is to guide candidates towards a particular point. Reading and
re-reading the question encompasses taking due note of this emphasis.

Candidates’ handwriting was illegible

The examination situation is a stressful time for candidates and while the examination is not a test of
the English language or handwriting, scripts must be legible for Examiners to mark them fairly. As the
examination progresses, candidates can become both mentally and physically tired. In an increasingly
electronic age, professional people do not have the same need to write text in longhand. However, to
pass this examination it is an essential and necessary part of the preparation to rehearse writing
questions in full and in the time allocated.

When practicing examination technique, candidates should hand-write their answers and get feedback
from their course providers on legibility (as well as how they performed).

Course providers need to identify those candidates whose handwriting is illegible and provide them with
appropriate advice. Examiners cannot award marks for answers that they are unable to read.

Candidates unnecessarily wrote the question down

There are 15 minutes to answer a 10-mark question in Section A and 30 minutes available to answer a
20-mark question in Section B of the question paper. This time will be required for reading, re-reading
and understanding the question, developing an answer plan on the answer booklet and finally
committing the answer to the answer booklet. The efficient use of time is essential in order to answer
the 9 questions within the 3 hours available. The majority of Examiners reported that candidates felt it
necessary to write the question out in full, before providing the associated answer, and this limits the
time available. Course providers should remind candidates that it is not necessary to include a question
with their answer.

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Good examination technique is followed where the candidate frames the answer in the context of the
question, rather than rewriting the whole of the question. As with the other examination technique points
above, good examination technique is developed through practice and good preparation.

Candidates repeated the same point but in different ways

In some cases candidates tended to make the same point more than once. Once a valid point has been
made and the mark awarded, Examiners will not be able to award the mark again. Unless otherwise
stated, most questions require candidates to respond with a wide range of issues to gain high marks.
Consequently candidates should take care when using terms that contain numerous points that should
be made separately.

Accredited course providers should brief candidates on examination technique by way of understanding
what points are mark worthy in an answer and those that are not.

Candidates did not respond effectively to the command word

A key indicator in an examination question will be the command word, which is always given in bold
typeface. The command word will indicate the depth of answer that is expected by the candidate.

Generally, there has been an improvement in response to command words, but a number of candidates
continue to produce answers that are little more than a list even when the command word requires a
more detailed level of response, such as ‘outline’ or ‘explain’. This is specifically addressed in the
following section dealing with command words, most commonly failure to provide sufficient content to
constitute an ‘outline’ was noted. Failure to respond to the relevant command word in context was also
a frequent problem hence information inappropriate to the question was often given.

Course exercises should guide candidates to assessing the relevant points in any given scenario such
that they are able to apply the relevant syllabus elements within the command word remit.

Candidates provided rote-learned responses that did not fit the question

Examiners report a high incidence of candidates writing down answers they have memorised from
previous Examiners’ Reports. These answers often relate to a similar, but different question, to which
the memorised answer is not wholly applicable. For example, it may require a different aspect of the
topic or relate to a different scenario.

Candidates are expected to apply their knowledge and understanding to the actual question given, not
the question they think they see. This is why it is extremely important that candidates understand and
are able to apply their knowledge, and not just memorise. Course providers should help candidates
apply their knowledge to a range of different scenarios to aid understanding of the topic.

Candidates did not allocate enough time to the question

Some candidates were unable to give answers of sufficient depth to warrant good marks and sometimes
spent more time on questions carrying fewer marks than was warranted by the command word.

Candidates need to take note of the fact that answers in Section A are worth 10 marks and those in
Section B are worth 20 marks. The Examiners’ expectation is that more detailed answers are required
in Section B. Some candidates spend a disproportionate amount of time in writing long answers to
Section A questions at the expense of time spent on the more in-depth answers demanded in Section
B. Proper preparation and ‘mock’ examinations can help to correct this.

Accredited course providers should ensure that candidates are given adequate opportunity to develop
examination skills to ensure that answers are provided to the depth and breadth required.

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Structured Answers

It is important for candidates to structure their answers as this helps cover all the requirements of the
question without losing focus. It is good examination technique to look for the principles or the concepts
that underpin the topic and to use those as a basis for delivering a structured answer.

Candidates answered by posing a question

Candidates need to resist the temptation to present their answers as merely a series of questions.
‘Outline’ requires candidates ‘To indicate the principal features or different parts of’ and this is not done
through posing questions to the Examiners.

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Command words

Please note that the examples used here are for the purpose of explanation only.

The following command words are listed in the order identified as being the most challenging for
candidates:

Outline

Outline: To indicate the principal features or different parts of.

Most candidates are familiar with the requirements of ‘outline’. However, a number of candidates expect
that by listing or giving bullet points that will be sufficient. At this level of qualification candidates are
expected to be able to construct sentences around their answers.

An ‘outline’ question requires candidates to give the main issue and then provide the key features in the
context of the question. Where a question that requires candidates to ‘outline the issues to be
addressed in the development of an audit system’ the response should provide adequate context to the
issues in order to gain the marks. An answer that merely includes issues such as ‘scope, training,
commitment, etc’ will not gain good marks since while the issues are relevant there is no context to the
issues in relation to the question asked.

Candidates should provide context to the point being made to demonstrate understanding of the subject.

As required by a Diploma level qualification candidates should be able to demonstrate a detailed

understanding of the subject matter and therefore be able to summarise and contextualise technical
points in the field of health and safety. Those candidates who did provide good outlines to questions
demonstrated understanding of the topic without going into too much detail.

If asked to ‘outline the purpose of local exhaust ventilation’ in a given scenario, an answer such as
‘contaminant removal, exposure limits’ would be insufficient as this represents a listed answer.
However, removal of contaminant at source (as far as possible) and ensuring exposure limits are not
exceeded would higher gain marks.

If asked to ‘outline how health risks from exposure to lead should be managed…’ in a given scenario,
an answer such as medical tests, PPE, RPE would be insufficient as this represents a listed answer.
However, surveillance tests for lead in blood/urine, the use of PPE such as overalls, the use of RPE
such as respirator with appropriate particulate/fume filters would gain marks.

Explain

Explain: To provide an understanding. To make an idea or relationship clear.

Many candidates are still not properly prepared for this command word. A list of points (no matter how
relevant) will not satisfy Examiners when the command word is ‘explain’. So for example, where
candidates were asked to explain the circumstances where heat and smoke detectors would be
inappropriate, Examiners were looking for candidates to explain that heat detectors would be
inappropriate in environments where temperatures fluctuate suddenly during normal work activities.
Just saying ‘workshops’, for example, is not enough to provide an answer to an ‘explain’ question.

Commonly, candidates do not provide adequate detail in relation to this command word, eg ‘explain
limitations of relying on accident numbers only as a measure of health and safety performance’. An
appropriate response would provide the reader with reasons why relying solely on accident numbers
would not provide a comprehensive view of the organisational performance in health and safety, eg
accident numbers do not indicate incidence of ill-health and accident data may go up following initiatives
following underreporting, etc.

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Candidates are generally unable to provide clear answers where this command word is used but that
may be due to lack of knowledge rather than not understanding what is required, since an explanation
requires the candidate to provide reasoning for their answer. For example, when a question specifies
‘explain’ the candidate is required to provide an understanding or make clear an idea or relationship.
For example ‘explain how malaria is transmitted to humans’. If a candidate responded with mosquito
bites humans this would be insufficient to merit full marks as this does not provide a deep enough
understanding or relationship from the specified command word or the context in which the question is
asked. However, a candidate would get full marks if they elaborated on this stating that the disease
originates with the plasmodium parasite that is then transmitted to humans via a bite from a feeding
female mosquito that carries it; the parasite then transferring to the human blood stream, travelling to
the liver.

Describe

‘Describe. To give a detailed written account of the distinctive features of a subject. The account should
be factual without any attempt to explain.’

Candidates are required to provide a word picture in response to this command word and therefore the
candidate needs to have a good understanding of the subject of the question in the examination in order
to gain good marks. Typically, a limited response to this command word will be an inadequate amount
of detail in the answer.

For example, when asked to describe the contents of a safety policy candidates should provide the
Examiner with relevant information about the contents of the policy, eg ‘the policy should contain details
of the organisational commitment to health and safety’. This would be supported with specific targets
and commitment resource to ensuring compliance as a minimum but developing the health and
wellbeing of the employees, etc’. An answer that goes no further than listing the subjects of to be
covered in the policy would not attract good marks in the examination.

In the examination, lists and single word answers will rarely satisfy the requirement of the Examiners in
terms of answering the question at this level. It is noticeable that the well prepared candidate has less
trouble deciphering command words and tends to gain good marks whereas those candidates who use
single word answers will tend not to have the knowledge to write anything further in the context that is
required.

Give

Give: Only a short answer is required, not an explanation or a description.

‘Give’ is normally used in conjunction with a further requirement, such as ‘give the meaning of’ or ‘give
an example in EACH case’.

In some circumstances candidates may spend too much time giving unrequired detail in response to
this command word. It is often used in conjunction with the meaning of a phrase or statement and
candidates can over-elaborate the required answer. Time management is important in the examination
and candidates should ensure that they respond with appropriate brevity where the command word and
available marks suggest that is all that is required.

When asked to ‘give the meaning of motivation’, it would appropriate to say that ‘motivation is the driving
force that leads an individual to behave in a certain way’. It would not be appropriate to discuss in detail
different motivational theories.

On the whole most candidates respond well to this command word, often by offering a definition. There
is evidence where candidates go into too much detail that left those candidates writing large amounts
of text for very few marks.

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Identify

Identify: To give a reference to an item, which could be its name or title.

As with ‘give’ above it is not uncommon for candidates to over-elaborate their answers in response to
this command word. It is adequate for a candidate to provide the key point to the Examiner without
further developing the point with supporting theory or examples unless they are specifically asked for.t

When providing a response to ‘identify’ the mental selection and naming of an answer that relates to the
question should be sufficient. In most cases, one or two words would be sufficient to be awarded
corresponding marks. Any further detail would not be required and impacts negatively on the time limit
for completing the examination. For example, if the question was ‘identify possible effects on the body
when someone is exposed to lead’ suitable responses would include developmental effects in unborn
babies, anaemia, nausea/vomiting in order to be awarded a mark.

For additional guidance, please see NEBOSH’s ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ document, which is available on our website:
www.nebosh.org.uk/students/default.asp?cref=1345&ct=2.

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