Sapm Notes
Sapm Notes
Sapm Notes
1
financial or physical form in the presence of an expectation of receiving
additional return in future. In the present context of portfolio management, the
investment is considered to be financial investment, which imply employment
of funds with the objective of realizing additional income or growth in value of
investment at a future date. Investing encompasses very conservative position as
well as speculation the field of investment involves the study of investment
process. Investment is concerned with the management of an investors’ wealth
which is the sum of current income and the present value of all future incomes.
In this text investment refers to financial assets. Financial investments are
commitments of funds to derive income in form of interest, dividend premium,
pension benefits or appreciation in the value of initial investment. Hence the
purchase of shares, debentures post office savings certificates and insurance
policies all are financial investments. Such investment generates financial assets.
These activities are undertaken by any one who desires a return, and is willing to
accept the risk from the financial instruments.
Thus an expected change is the basis for speculation but not for
investment. An investment also can be distinguished from speculation by the
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time horizon of the investor and often by the risk return characteristic of
investment. A true investor is interested in a good and consistent rate of return
for a long period of time. In contrast, the speculator seeks opportunities
promising very large return earned within a short period of time due to changing
environment. Speculation involves a higher level of risk and a more uncertain
expectation of returns, which is not necessarily the case with investment.
3
In any stock exchange, there are two main categories of speculators
called the bulls and bears. A bull buys shares in the expectation of selling them
at a higher price. When there is a bullish tendency in the market, share prices
tend to go up since the demand for the shares is high. A bear sells shares in the
expectation of a fall in price with the intention of buying the shares at a lower
price at a future date. These bearish tendencies result in a fall in the price of
shares.
INVESTMENT PROCESS
Given the foundation for making investment decisions the trade off
between expected return and risk- we next consider the decision process in
investments as it is typically practiced today. Although numerous separate
decisions must be made, for organizational purposes, this decision process has
traditionally been divided into a two step process: security analysis and portfolio
management. Security analysis involves the valuation of securities, whereas
4
portfolio management involves the management of an investor’s investment
selections as a portfolio (package of assets), with its own unique characteristics.
Security Analysis
Portfolio Management
5
and return of the portfolio and the attitudes of the investor toward a risk-return
trade-off stemming from the analysis of the individual securities.
Characteristics of Investment
Risk: Risk is inherent in any investment. Risk may relate to loss of capital,
delay in repayment of capital, nonpayment of return or variability of returns.
The risk of an investment is determined by the investments, maturity period,
repayment capacity, nature of return commitment and so on.
Investment categories:
Real assets: Real assets are tangible material things like building, automobiles,
land, gold etc.
The term ‘securities’ used in the broadest sense, consists of those papers
which are quoted and are transferable. Under section 2 (h) of the Securities
Contract (Regulation) Act, 1956 (SCRA) ‘securities’ include:
7
i) Shares., scrip’s, stocks, bonds, debentures, debenture stock or
other marketable securities of a like nature in or of any incorporated company or
other body corporate.
ii) Government securities.
iii) Such other instruments as may be declared by the central
Government as securities, and,
iv) Rights of interests in securities.
8
2. Deposits in banks and non banking companies
3.Post office deposits and certificates
4.Life insurance policies
5.Provident fund schemes
6.Government and semi government securities
7.Mutual fund schemes
8.Real assets
CORPORATE SECURITIES
9
Blue Chips (also called Stalwarts) : These are stocks of high quality,
financially strong companies which are usually the leaders in their industry.
They are stable and matured companies. They pay good dividends regularly and
the market price of the shares does not fluctuate widely. Examples are stocks of
Colgate, Pond’s Hindustan Lever, TELCO, Mafatlal Industries etc.
Growth Stocks: Growth stocks are companies whose earnings per share is
grows faster than the economy and at a rate higher than that of an average firm
in the same industry. Often, the earnings are ploughed back with a view to use
them for financing growth. They invest in research and development and
diversify with an aggressive marketing policy. They are evidenced by high and
strong EPS. Examples are ITC, Dr. Reddy’s Bajaj Auto, Sathyam Computers and
Infosys Technologies ect.. The high growth stocks are often called “
GLAMOUR STOCK’ or HIGH FLYERS’.
Income Stocks: A company that pays a large dividend relative to the market
price is called an income stock. They are also called defensive stocks. Drug,
food and public utility industry shares are regarded as income stocks. Prices of
income stocks are not as volatile as growth stocks.
Cyclical Stocks: Cyclical stocks are companies whose earnings fluctuate with
the business cycle. Cyclical stocks generally belong to infrastructure or capital
goods industries such as general engineering, auto, cement, paper, construction
etc. Their share prices also rise and fall in tandem with the trade cycles.
Discount Stocks: Discount stocks are those that are quoted or valued below
their face values. These are the shares of sick units.
10
Under Valued Stock: Under valued shares are those, which have all the
potential to become growth stocks, have very good fundamentals and good
future, but somehow the market is yet to price the shares correctly.
Turn Around Stocks: Turn around stocks are those that are not really doing
well in the sense that the market price is well below the intrinsic value mainly
because the company is going through a bad patch but is on the way to recovery
with signs of turning around the corner in the neat future. Examples- EID –
Parry in 80’s, Tata Tea (Tata Finlay), SPIC, Mukand Iron and steel etc.
11
issuing company. A GDR issued in America is an American Depositary Receipt
(ADR). Among the Indian companies, Reliance Industries Limited was the first
company to raise funds through a GDR issue. Besides GDRs, ADRs are also
popular in the capital market. As investors seek to diversify their equity
holdings, the option of ADRs and GDRs are very lucrative. While investing in
such securities, investors have to identify the capitalization and risk
characteristics of the instrument and the company’s performance in its home
country (underlying asset).
12
Derivatives: The introduction of derivative products has been one of the most
significant developments in the Indian capital market. Derivatives are helpful
risk-management tools that an investor has to look at for reducing the risk
inherent in as investment portfolio. The first derivative product that has been
offered in the Indian market is the index future. Besides index futures, other
derivative instruments such as index options, stock options, have been
introduced in the market. Stock futures are traded in the market regularly and in
terms of turnover, have exceeded that of other derivative instruments. The
liquidity in the futures market is concentrated in very few shares. Theoretically
the difference between the futures and spot price should reflect the cost of
carrying the position to the future of essentially the interest. Therefore, when
futures are trading at a premium, it is and indication that participants are bullish
of the underlying security and vice versa. Derivative trading is a speculative
activity. However, investors have to utilize the derivative market since the
opportunity of reducing the risk in price movements is possible through
investments in derivative products.
DEPOSITS:
13
Savings Bank Account with Commercial Banks:
The maturity period varies from three to five years. Fixed deposits in
companies have a high risk since they are unsecured, but they promise higher
returns than bank deposits.
14
Post Office Deposits and Certificates:
There are a variety of post office savings certificates that cater to specific
savings and investment requirements of investors and is a risk free, high
yielding investment opportunity. Interest on these instruments is exempt from
incometax. Some of these deposits are also exempt from wealth tax.
15
Provident Fund Scheme:
Pension Plan:
16
Money market instruments are traded in the Wholesale Debt Market (WDM)
trades and retail segments. Instruments traded in the money market are short-
term instruments such as treasury bills and repos. The government also
introduced the pricatisation programme in many corporate enterprises and these
securities are traded in the secondary market. These are the semi-government
securities. PSU stocks have performed well during the years 2003-04 in the
capital market.
The Unit Trust of India is the first mutual fund in the country. A number
of commercial banks and financial institutions have also set up mutual funds.
Mutual funds have been set up in the private sector also. These mutual funds
offer various investment schemes to investors. The number of mutual funds that
have cropped up in recent years is quite large and though, on an average, the
mutual fund industry has not been showing good returns, select funds have
performed consistently, assuring the investor better returns and lower risk
options.
REAL ASSETS
Investments in real assets are also made when the expected returns are
very attractive. Real estate, gold, silver, currency, and other investments such as
art are also treated as investments since the expectation from holding of such
assets is associated with higher returns.
17
movable/immovable property other than buildings. Besides making a personal
assessment from the market, the assistance of government-approved valuers may
also be sought. A valuation report indication the value of the each of the major
assets and also the basis and manner of valuation can be obtained from an
approved valuer against the payment of a fee. In case of a plantation, a valuation
report may also be obtained from recognized private valuers.
Given the foundation for making investment decisions the trade off
between expected return and risk – we next consider the decision process in
investments as it is typically practiced today. Although numerous separate
decisions must be made, for organizational purposes, this decision process has
traditionally been divided into a two step process: security analysis and portfolio
management. Security analysis involves the valuation of securities, whereas
portfolio management involves the management of an investor’s investment
selections as a portfolio (package of assets), with its own unique characteristics.
19
termed as “ risk less security “ or “ risk free security “. Risk is inherent in all
walks of life. An investor cannot foresee the future definitely; hence, risk will
always exist for an investor. Risk is in fact the watchword for all investors who
enter capital markets. Investment risk can be an extraordinary stress for many
investors. When the secondary market does not respond to rational expectations,
the risk component of such markets are relatively high and most investors fail to
recognize the real risk involved in the investment process. Risk aversion is the
criteria commonly associated with many small investors in the secondary
market. Many small investors look upon the market for a definite return and
when their expectations are not met, the effect on the small investors’ morale is
negative. Hence these investors prefer to lock up their funds in securities that
would rather give them back their investment with small returns than those
securities that yield high returns on an average but are subject to wild
fluctuations.
Inflation risk: Inflation in the economy also influences the risk inherent in
investment. It may also result in the return from investment not matching the
rate of increase in general price level (inflation). The change in the inflation rate
also changes the consumption pattern and hence investment return carries an
additional risk. This risk is related to interest rate risk, since interest rate
generally rise as inflation increases, because lenders demands additional
inflation premium to compensate for the loss of purchasing power.
Business risk: The changes that take place in an industry and the environment
causes risk for the company in earning the operational revenue creates business
risk. For example the traditional telephone industry faces major changes today in
the rapidly changing telecommunication industry and the mobile phones. When
a company fails to earn through its operations due to changes in the business
situations leading to erosion of capital, there by faces the business risk.
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Financial r isk: The use of debt financing by the company to finance a larger
proportion of assets causes larger variability in returns to the investors in the
faces of different business situation. During prosperity the investors get higher
return than the average return the company earns, but during distress investors
faces possibility of vary low return or in the worst case erosion of capital which
causes the financial risk. The larger the proportion of assets finance by debt (as
opposed to equity) the larger the variability of returns thus lager the financial
risk.
Exchange rate risk: The change in the exchange rate causes a change in the value
of foreign holdings, foreign trade, and the profitability of the firms, there by
returns to the investors. The exchange rate risk is applicable mainly to the
companies who operate oversees. The exchange rate risk is nothing but the
variability in the return on security caused by currencies fluctuation.
Political risk: Political risk also referred, as country risk is the risk caused due
to change in government policies that affects business prospects there by return
to the investors. Policy changes in the tax structure, concession and levy of duty
to products, relaxation or tightening of foreign trade relations etc. carry a risk
component that changes the return pattern of the business.
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TYPES OF RISK
Thus far, our discussion has concerned the total risk of an asset, which is
one important consideration in investment analysis. However modern
investment analysis categorizes the traditional sources of risk identified
previously as causing variability in returns into two general types: those that are
pervasive in nature, such as market risk or interest rate risk, and those that are
specific to a particular security issue, such as business or financial risk.
Therefore, we must consider these two categories of total risk. The following
discussion introduces these terms. Dividing total risk in to its two components, a
general (market) component and a specific (issue ) component, we have
systematic risk and unsystematic risk which are additive:
Total risk = general risk + specific risk
= market risk + issuer risk
= systematic risk + non systematic risk
23
Non-systematic risk: Variability in a security total return not related to overall
market variability is called un systematic (non market) risk. This risk is unique
to a particular security and is associated with such factors as business, and
financial risk, as well as liquidity risk. Although all securities tend to have some
nonsystematic risk, it is generally connected with common stocks.
MEASURING RETURNS:
Total Return
All the items are measured in rupees. The price change over the period,
defined as the difference between the beginning (or purchase) price and the
ending (or sale) price, can be either positive (sales price exceeds purchase price),
negative (purchase price exceeds sales price), or zero. The cash payments can be
24
either positive or zero. Netting the two items in the numerator together and
dividing by the purchase price results in a decimal return figure that can easily
be converted into percentage form. Note that in using the TR, the two
components of return, yield and price change have been measured.
Where
CFt = Cash flows during the measurement period
PE = price at the end of the period t or sale price
PB = purchase price of the asset or price at the beginning of the
period
PC = change in price during the period, or PE minus PB
The cash flows for a bond comes from the interest payments received,
and that for a stock comes for the dividends received. For some assets, such as
warrant or a stock that pays no dividends, there is only a price change. Although
one year is often used for convenience, the TR calculation can be applied to
periods of any length.
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different assets, such as stocks versus bonds, or of different securities have to be
sold within the same type, such as several common socks.
RETURN RELATIVE:
The total return, return relative, are useful measures or return for a
specified period of time. Also needed in investment analysis are statistics to
describe a series of returns. Two such measures used with returns data are
described below:
26
X
X=
n
Or the sum of each of the values being considered divided by the total
number of values n.
Calculation of the Arithmetic and Geometric mean for the years 1996-2005 for
the Sensex Stock Composite Index
27
Arithmetic mean = [-3.14 + 30.00 +…. + 20.88]/10
= 18.76%
Geometric mean = [(0.9687) (1.30001)(1.30001)(1.09942)…
(1.2088)] 1/10 - 1
= 1.18 - 1
= 0.18, or 18%
The geometric mean returns measure the compound rate of growth over
time. It is often used in investments and finance to reflect the steady growth rate
of invested funds over some past period; that is, the uniform rate at which
money actually grew over time per period. Therefore, it allows measuring the
realized change in wealth over multiple periods. It is calculated as follows:
The geometric mean will always be less than the arithmetic mean unless
the values being considered are identical. The spread between the two depends
on the dispersion of the distribution; the greater the dispersion, the greater the
spread between the two means.
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Geometric mean is a better measure of the change in wealth over the
past. It is a backward-looking concept, measuring the realized compound rate of
return at which money grew over a specific period.
MEASURING RISK:
STANDARD DEVIATION:
n
29
2
(X-X)
i=1
2 =
n -1
Where
PRESENT-VALUE APPROACH:
Rs.26.50 - Rs.25.00
Capital gains yield = = .06
Rs.25
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The total rate of return achieved is .04 + .06 = .10, or 10 percent.
The same notion in terms of present values is thus:
D1 P1
P0 = +
1+r 1+r
Where
Rs.1.00 Rs.26.50
P0 = +
1 + .15 1 + .15
= Rs.23.91
An alternative approach would be to ask the question; at what price must
we be able to sell the stock at the end of one year (if the purchase price is Rs.25
and the dividend is Rs.1) in order to attain a rate of return of 15 percent?
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Rs.1.00 P1
Rs.25 = +
1 + .15 1 + .15
Rs.24.13 = Rs.0.87P1
Consider holding a share of the X Co. for five years. In most cases the
dividend will grow from year to year. To look at some results, let us stipulate the
following:
g = annual expected growth in earnings, dividends and price = 6 %
e0 = most recent earnings per share = Rs.1.89
d/e = dividend payout (%) = 50 %
r = required rate of return = 10 %
P = price per share
P/E = price earnings ratio = 12.5
N = holding period in years = 5
P= ( (1 + r) n ) +( (1 + r)N )
n=1
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This imposing formula says, “Sum the present value of all dividends to
be received over the holding period, and add this to the present value of the
selling price of the stock at the end of the holding period to arrive at the present
value of the stock.”
Let us write out the string of appropriate numbers. Since the current
earnings per share e0 are Rs.1.89 and the dividend payout d/e is 50 percent, the
most recent dividend per share is e0 time’s d/e or Rs.1.89 times 50 percent, or
Rs. 945. This was stipulated in the beginning of the problem. After one year, the
1 .
dividend is expected to be Rs..943 times (1 + g) So the first year’s dividend
will be Rs.1. The process is repeated for years 1 through 5 as follows:
The next step is to discount each dividend at the required rate of return of
10 percent. Thus:
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The string of fractions reduces to
The price of the stock at the end of the holding period (year 5) is the last
part of our equation. Let us assume that the current price of the stock is Rs.25,
forecasted earnings per share e1 are Rs.2.00 [Rs.1.89 (1.06)], and the price-
earnings ratio (P/E) is 12.5. Holding P/E at 12.5, the earnings, expected to grow
at 6 percent per year, should amount to Rs.2.68 [Rs.1.89 (1.06) 6] for year
6.Thus:
It is estimated that at the end of 2005 the stock will sell for twelve times
2005 earnings. Given the estimated earnings in 2005 of Rs.8.80, the forecast
selling price at the end of the fifth year is Rs.105 (Rs.8.80 X 12).
What rate of return would equate the flow of dividends and the terminal
price shown above back to the current price of Rs.52? Alternatively stated, what
yield or return is required on an investment of Rs?
Where r is the rate of return. Calculating the rate that will solve the
equation is a somewhat tedious task, requiring trial-and-error computation. Let
us turn the equation into columnar form and try a discount rate:
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What happened to earnings? We instinctively feel that earnings should
be worth something, whether they are paid out as dividends or not, and wonder
why they do not appear in the valuation equation. In fact, they do appear in the
equation but in the correct form. Earnings can be used for one of two purposes:
they can be paid out to stockholders in the form of dividends or they can be
reinvested the firm. If they are reinvested in the firm they should result in
increased future earnings and increased future dividends. To the extent earnings
at any time, say time t are paid out to stockholders, they are measured by the
term Dt and to the extent they are retained in the firm and used productively they
are reflected in future dividends and should result in future dividends being
larger than Dt .To discount the future earnings stream of a share of stock would
be double counting since we would count retained earnings both when they were
earned and when they, or the earnings from their reinvestment, were later paid to
stockholders.
Constant Growth:
D1
P=
r- g
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This model states that the price of a share of stock should be equal to
next year’s expected dividend divided by the difference between the appropriate
discount rate for the stock and its expected long-term growth rate. Alternatively,
this model can be stated in terms of the rate of return on a stock as
D1
r= +g
P
The constant growth model is often defended as the model that arises
from the assumption that the firm will maintain a stable dividend policy (keep
its retention rate constant) and earn a stable return on new equity investment
over time.
How might the single period model be used to select stocks? One way is
to predict next year’s dividends, the firm’s long-term growth rate, and the rate of
return stockholders require for holding the stock. The equation could then be
solved for the theoretical price of the stock that could be compared with its
present price. Stocks that have theoretical prices above their actual price are
candidates for purchase; those with theoretical prices below their actual price are
candidates for sale.
Another way to use the approach is to find the rate of return implicit in
the price at which the stock is now selling. Thos can be done by substituting the
current price, estimated dividend, and estimated growth rate into Equation 4.6
and solving for the discount rate that equates the present price with the expected
flow of future dividends. If this rate is higher than the rate of return considered
appropriate for the stock, given its risk, it is a candidate for purchase.
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It seems logical to assume that firms that have grown at a very high rate
will not continue to do so infinitely. Similarly, firms with very poor growth
might improve in the future. While a single growth rate can be found that will
produce the same value as a more complex pattern, it is so hard to estimate this
single number, and the resultant valuation is so sensitive to this number that
many analysts have been reluctant to use the constant growth model without
modification.
Two-Stage Growth:
t
N D0 (1 + gs) DN+1
1
P0 = +
40
t=1 ( 1 + rs )t rs – gn ( 1 + r s )N
Where:
gs = above-normal growth rate
gn = normal growth rate
N = period of above-normal growth rate
Assumptions:
a. Required rate of return = 16%
b. Growth rate is 15% for ten years 10% thereafter
(gs =15%, gn = 10%, and N=10)
c. Last year’s dividend was Rs.0.71 (d0 = Rs.0.71)
41
Step 1. Find the present value of dividends during the rapid growth period
End of year Dividend
Rs. 0.71(1.15) t PVIF = 1/(1.16) t PV
t
t=1 ( 1 + rs )
= Rs.6.82
d11 Rs.2.88 (1.10)
P10 = = = Rs.52.80
rs - gn 0.06
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b. Discount P10 back to the present:
10
1
PV = P10 = Rs.52.80 (.226) = Rs.11.93
1 + rs
Step 3. Sum to find out the total value of the stock today:
43
The terms multiplier and price earnings ratio (P/E) are used interchangeably.
Thus:
44
STATISTICAL APPROACHES TO P/E:
D
P= (And)
r-g
D/E
P/E =
r-g
The relationship that exists in the market at any point in time between
price or price-earnings ratios and a set of specified variables can be estimated
using regression analysis.
45
analysis, it finds that linear combination of a set of variables that best explains
price earnings ratios.
47
48
UNIT – II
Equity Stock Analysis
King observed that on an average over half the variation in stock prices
could be attributed to a market influence that affects all stock market indexes.
But stocks are also subject to industry influence over and above the influence
common to all stocks. King noted that industry influence explained, on the
average, 13 percent of the variations in a stocks price.In sum about two thirds of
variation in the prices of stocks observed in the kings study was the result of
market and industry. This highlights the necessity of the financial analyst to
examine the economic and industry influences as well as the individual
companies’ performance in order to accurately take any investment decisions.
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Industry-wise factors: These factors are specific to the industry in
which the firm is operating; for example the demand supply gap in the
industry, the emergence of substitute products and changes in
government policy relating to the industry.
Firm specific factors: Such as age of the plant, the quality of its
management, the brand image of its products and its labour relations.
Economic Analysis
Return assumptions for the stock and bond markets and sales, cost, and
profit projections for industries and nearly all companies necessarily embody
economic assumptions. Investors are concerned with those forces in the
economy which affect the performance of organization in which they wish to
participate, through purchase of stock. By identifying key assumptions and
variables, we can monitor the economy and gauge the implications of new
information on our economic outlook and industry analysis. In order to beat the
market on a risk adjusted basis, the investor must have forecasts that differ from
the market consensus and must be correct more often than not.
Economic trends can take two basic forms: cyclical changes that arise
from ups and downs of the business cycle, and structural changes that occur
when the economy is undergoing a major change in how it functions. Some of
the broad forces which impact the economy are:
Population
50
service industries like health, consumer demand like refrigerators and cars.
Increasing population therefore shows a greater need for economic development.
Although it does not show the exact industry that will expand.
Macroeconomic Stability
51
economies of scale in exporting industries. It is often argued that exchange rates
need to be adjusted downwards at the same time, to ensure that potential
exporters can compete on world markets. To encourage direct foreign
investment restrictions on international capital flows may need to be reduced.
GDP measures the total output of goods and services for final use
occurring within the domestic territory of a given country, regardless of the
allocation to domestic and foreign claims. Gross domestic product at purchaser
values (market prices) is the sum of gross value added by all resident and
nonresident producers in the economy plus any taxes and minus any subsidies
not included in the value of the products. Higher GDP level is an indication of
higher economic development and thereby higher investment ability.
International Trade
Exports and Imports of goods and services represent the value of all
goods and other market services provided to or received from the rest of the
world. They include the value of merchandise, freight, insurance, transport,
travel, royalties, license fees, and other services, such as communication,
construction, financial, information, business, personal, and government
services. They exclude labor and property income (formerly called factor
52
services) as well as transfer payments. Higher levels of international trade
especially higher exports are indicative of higher earnings and therefore higher
economic development of a country.
Inflation
Interest Rates
Banks usually benefit from volatile interest rates because stable interest
rates lead to heavy competitive pressures that squeeze their interest margins.
High interest rates clearly harm the housing and the construction industry.
Economic Indicators
Besides the factors discussed above there are other significant economic
indicators such as country’s fiscal policy, monetary policy, stock prices, state of
capital market, labour productivity, consumer activity etc.
53
A look of India’s economic indicators for the year 2005-2006 is as follows
ECONOMIC SUMMARY
2005-06 Growth
%
3200.6
GDP at factor cost at current prices:
12.5
(Rs. Thousand crore) US$ million
72316.3
At 1999-00 prices (Rs. Thousand 2586.6
crore) 8.1
US$ million 584542.3
508.6
Agriculture and allied sectors:
2.3
(Rs. Thousand crore) (US$ million)
114937.8
Food grains production (Million
209.3 2.3
tones)
Index of industrial production 215.4 7.8
Electricity generated (Billion kwh) 458.6 4.7
196.2
Wholesale price index 4.1
(on February 4, 2006)
Consumer price index for industrial 550
5.6
workers (December 2005)
2551.9
Money supply (Rs. Thousand crore)
(on January 20, 2006)
(Outstanding at the end of financial 16.4
year) (US$ million)
576700.5
Imports at current prices (US$ 108,803
26.7
million) (April-Jan 2005-06)
Exports at current prices (US$ 74,978
18.9
million) (April-Jan 2005-06)
Foreign currency assets (US$ 133,770
8.2
million) (by end January 2006)
44.25
Exchange rate (Re/US$) (Average exchange rate for 2.1
April-January 2005-06)
54
Forecasting techniques
the future course of events in the economy. The method to do this is approximate
55
Opportunistic Model Building: This method is the most widely used economic
forecasting method. This is also sectoral analysis of Gross National Product
Model Building. This method uses the national accounting data to be able to
forecast for a future short-term period. It is a flexible and reliable method of
forecasting. The method of forecasting is to find out the total income and the
total demand for the forecast period. To this are added the environment
conditions of political stability, economic and fiscal policies of the government,
policies relating to tax and interest rates. This must be added to Gross domestic
investment, government purchases of goods in services, consumption expenses
and net exports. The forecast has to be broken down first by an estimate of the
government sector which is to be divided again into State Government and
Central Government expenses. The gross private domestic investment is to be
calculated by adding the business expenses for plan, construction and equipment
changes in the level of business. The third sector which is to be taken is the
consumption sector relating to the personal consumption factor. This sector is
usually divided into components of durable goods, non-durable goods and
services. When data has been taken of all these sectors these are added up to get
the forecast for the Gross National Product
Industry Analysis
Classification of industries
In India asset based industry grouping used to exist under MRTP Act and
FERA Act. However, since economic reforms in 1991 onwards, there is no limit
to the asset growth and the classification of MRTP and non MRTP companies
has since disappeared. Nowadays, even multinational firms can operate in India
through their subsidiaries or directly by having a majority stake in a company.
Small scale units: These industries are not listed and those which have a
minimum paid up capital of Rs 30 lakhs can be listed on OTCEI.
Medium Scale Industries: The units having paid up capital of Rs 5 crores and
above can be listed on regional stock exchanges.
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Proprietary Based Classification
The industries can be classified on the basis of ownership into (a) private
sector industries which are open to the general public for investment (b) public
sector (Government and semi-government ownership) (c) and in joint sector.
(a) Basic Industries: These are in the core sector in India and constitute the
infrastructure industries which are mostly in the public sector but are
now kept open to the public sector. The examples are fertilizers,
chemicals, coal, cement, steel etc.
(b) Capital Goods Industries: These are both in the private and public
sectors. These are highly capital intensive industries and are used to
produce inputs of other industries such as machine tools, agricultural
machinery, wires, cables etc.
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Input based Classification
(a) Agro based products like jute, sugar cotton, tobacco, groundnuts etc.
(b) Forest based products like plywood, paper, wood, ivory, resin honey etc.
(c) Marine based products like fisheries, prawns, etc.
(d) Metal based products like engineering products, aluminium, copper, gold
etc.
(e) Chemical based products like fertilizers, pesticides, drugs paints etc.
1. Pioneering Development
2. Rapid accelerating growth
3. Mature growth during this period is very small or negative profit margins
and profits.
4. Stabilization and market maturity
5. Deceleration of growth and decline.
3. Mature Growth: The success in stage two has satisfied most of the
demand for the industry goods or service. Thus, future scales growth
may be above normal but it no longer accelerates for example, if the over
all economy is growing at 8% scale for this industry might grow at an
above normal rate of 15% to 20% a year. Also the rapid growth of scales
and high profit margins attract competitors to the industry which causes
an increase in supply and lower prices which means that the profit
margins begin to decline to normal levels.
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4. Stabilization And Market Maturity: During this stage which is
probably the longest phase the industry growth rate declines to the
growth rate of the aggregate economy or its industry segment. During
this stage investors can estimate growth easily because scales correlate
highly with an economic series. Although scales grow in line with the
economy profit growth varies by industry because the competitive
structure varies by industries and by individual firms within the industry
because the ability to control costs differs among companies.
Competition produces tight profit margins and the rates of return on
capital eventually become equal to or slightly below the competitive
level.
The industry life cycle tends to focus on sales and share of the market
and investment in the industry. Although all of these factors are important to
investors, they are not the final items of interests. Given these qualifications to
industry life cycle analysis, what are the implications for investors?
The pioneering stage may offer the highest potential returns, but it also
poses the greatest risk. Several companies in an industry will fail or do poorly.
Such risk may be appropriate for some investors, but many will wish to avoid
the risk inherent in this stage.
Clearly, companies in the fourth stage of the industrial life cycle, decline,
are usually to be avoided. Investors should seek to spot industries in this stage
and avoid them. It is the second stage, expansion that is probably of most
interest to investors. Industries that have survived the pioneering stage often
offer good opportunities for the demand for their products and services is
growing more rapidly than the economy as a whole. Growth is rapid but orderly
an appealing characteristic to investors.
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ELEMENTS OF FINANCIAL ANALYSIS
Share price depends partly on its intrinsic worth for which financial
analysis of a company is necessary to help the investor to decide whether to buy
or not the shares of that company. The soundness and intrinsic worth of a
company is known only by such analysis. The market price of a share depends,
among others on the sound fundamentals of the company, the financial and
operational efficiency and the profitability of that company. These factors can be
examined by a study of the financial management of the company. An investor
needs to know the performance of the company, its intrinsic worth as indicated
by some parameters like book value, EPS, P/E multiple etc., and come to a
conclusion whether the share is rightly priced for purchase or not. This, in short
is the importance of financial analysis of a company to the investor.
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Comparison of the Financial Statements
RATIO ANALYSIS
Ratios, are probably the most frequently used tool to analyse a company, and are
popular because they are readily understood and can be computed with ease. In
addition, the information used in ratio analysis is easy to obtain, for many ratios
employ data available in a firm’s annual report and quarterly reports. Ratio’s are
used not only by investors but also by a firm’s management and its creditors.
Creditors use the analysis to establish the ability of the borrowers to pay interest
and retire debt. Management use ratio’s to plan, control, and to identify
weaknesses within the firm. Shareholders use ratio’s to measure firms
profitability. The ratio is a statistical yardstick that provides a measure of
relationship between any two variables.
(i) Balance Sheet Ratios which deal with the relationships between two
items or groups of items which are both in the Balance Sheet, e.g., the
ratio of current assets to current liabilities (Current Ratio).
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(ii) Revenue Statement Ratios which deal with the relationship between two
items or groups of items which are both in the Revenue Statement, e.g.,
ratio of gross profit to sale or gross profit margin.
(iii) Balance Sheet and Revenue Statement Ratios which deal with
relationship between items from the Revenue Statement and. items from
the Balance Sheet, e.g., ratio of net profit to own Funds (Composite
Ratios), Return on Total Resources, Return on Own Funds (iv) solvency
ratios which deal with the liquidity and ability of the company e.g. Debt
to Equity Ratio, Current ratio etc
Further ratios can be classified on the basis of objective for which they are being
used.
(i) Liquidity Ratio’ s: Liquidity is the ease with which assets may be
quickly converted into cash without the firm incurring a loss. If the firm
has a high degree of liquidity, it will be able to meet its debt obligations
as they become due. Therefore, liquidity ratios are a useful tool for the
firm’s creditors, who are concerned about being paid. These include
current ratio and quick ratio.
The Acid-Test Ratio thus ignores less liquid assets like inventory, or
prepaid and deferred charges, and takes into account only the most readily
available cash and other assets which can be applied for meeting short-term
obligations at short notice. As a rule of thumb, a quick ratio of 1:1 is indicative
of a company having a good short-term liquidity, and one which can meet its
short-term debts without strain.
(ii) Activity Ratios: Activity ratios indicate the rate at which the firm is
turning its inventory and accounts receivable into cash. The more rapidly
the firm turns over its inventory and receivables, the more quickly it
acquires cash. Higher turnover indicates that the firm is rapidly receiving
cash and is in a better position to pay its liabilities as they become due.
Such high turnover however may not indicate that the firm is making
profits. For example, high inventory turnover may indicate that the firm
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is selling items for too low a price in order to have quicker sales. These
ratio’s include inventory turnover ratio, average collection period,
receivables turnover, fixed asset turnover etc.
The higher the turnover of current assets ratio, the greater is the liquidity
of the firm, and the lesser is the amount blocked in current assets. This ratio will
vary from business to business and should be high for a trading company not
involved in manufacturing activity, which should be able to sell-off stock
through its distribution channels as quickly as possible. It will be low for
companies having a long reduction time, e.g., ship manufactures or heavy
equipment manufactures with long product manufacturing cycles.
b) Turnover of Inventory Ratio
This is defined as:
Turn over of Inventory Ratio = Cost of Goods Sold
Average Inventory
This ratio gives the turnover of inventory and indicates how funds
invested in inventories ire being turned over. The higher the turn over of
inventory ratio, the smaller is the amount blocked in inventory and, therefore,
the less need is there for working capital for financing the inventory. A high ratio
indicates that manufacturing activity is capable of being sustained with the help
of smaller inventory stock and consequently there is less chance of stock
becoming obsolete/ in saleable and also that the company can afford to sell on a
small gross profit margin. This is important in a highly competitive market
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where small margins can be important. The volume of profits having to come
from high turn over volume rather than from high margins on unit-product.
The smaller the number of days, the higher will be the efficiency of the
credit collection department. This ratio is indicative of the efficiency of the bill
collectors of the company. It; indicates whether the company is haying too
liberal a credit position and which would, therefore, require tightening up. This
ratio is useful for Sales Manager both to review the efficiency of his credit
collectors, and to review his credit policy, as also to appraise the supervisors/
salesmen responsible for collection of credit sales proceeds.
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And is expressed as a percentage. The gross profit margin shows the
proportion of sales after meeting the direct cost of goods sold, i.e., direct
material, direct labour and other direct expenses. The gross profit margin should
be high enough to covey other operating, administrative and distribution
expenses as otherwise the line of activity would not be profitable for the
company. Usually, if the level of corporate profit taxation is, say 65-70 per cent
at the highest slab, the gross profit margins should be of the order of 30-35 per
cent, in order to leave a margin of 12 per cent post-tax, which is usually
considered to be a satisfactory level if continued resources for ploughing back
for growth have to be found by a company out of its own resources. If the
management wants to analyse which product of multi-product range should be
discarded or stopped it should analyse the gross profit margin of each product
and then come to a rational decision.
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The net profit ratio, expressed as percentage, shows the return left for the
shareholders after meeting all expenses and taxes.
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(iv) Leverage Ratios: In order to magnify the return to shareholders a firm
may use leverage in the capital structure. Financial leverage refers to the
extent to which a firm finances its assets by use of debt. Since debt
financing impacts return to shareholders each of these ratios is extremely
valuable in analyzing the financial position of the firm. The most
commonly used leverage ratios are debt equity ratio and debt to total
asset ratio.
Interest payments and principal installments falling due during the year.
You have to cope with the following problems while analyzing financial
statements.
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analysis appears to be ad hoc, informal, and subjective. As Horrigan put it:
"From a negative viewpoint, the most striking aspect of ratio analysis is the
absence of an explicit theoretical structure...... As a result the subject of ratio
analysis is replete with untested assertions about which ratios should be used
and what their proper levels should be."
Conglomerate Firms: Many firms, particularly the large ones, have operations
spanning a wide range of industries. Given the diversity of their product lines, it
is difficult to find suitable benchmarks for evaluating their financial
performance and condition. Hence, it appears that meaningful benchmarks may
be available only for firms which have a well defined industry classification.
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preliminary and pre-operative expenses, provision of reserves, and revaluation
of assets. Due to diversity of accounting policies found in practice, comparative
financial statement analysis may be vitiated.
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Guidelines for Financial Statement Analysis
From the foregoing discussion, it is clear that financial statement analysis cannot
be treated as a simple, structured exercise. When you analyse financial
statements bear in mind the following guidelines.
1. Use ratios to get clues to ask the right questions: By themselves ratios
rarely provide answers, but they definitely help you to raise the right
questions.
4. Know the tricks used by accountants: Since firms tend to manipulate the
reported income, you should learn about the devices employed by them.
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Cash Flow Analysis
Analysis of a firm’s income statement and balance sheet with special emphasis
on profitability and net earnings available to the shareholder is important.
However, increased interest has developed among financial analysts in a firm’s
operational income and cash flow. Since net earnings may be affected by non
recurring items for example profit on sale of fixed assets, some financial
analysts place more emphasis on cash flow. The argument is that the cash flow
generated by a firm’s operations is a better indication of its profitability and
value. Thus the use of cash flow is greatly increasing. This statement determines
the changes in the firm’s holdings of cash and cash equivalent (i.e. short term
liquid assets, treasury bills etc). The emphasis is not on the income or the firm’s
assets and liabilities but on the inflow and outflow of cash from the firms
operations, investments, and financing decisions. By placing emphasis on cash,
the statement permits the individual to see where the firm generated cash and
how these funds were used.
The cash flow statement can also help investors examine the quality of
earnings. For example, if inventories are rising more quickly than sales, this can
be a real sign of trouble – demand is weakening. If a firm is cutting back on its
capital expenditures, this could be a signal of problems down the road. If
accounts receivables are rising at a greater rate than sales are increasing a
company may be having trouble collecting money owed. If accounts payable are
rising too high this may indicate that the company is trying to conserve cash by
delaying payment to creditors and suppliers which may lead to problems for the
company.
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HOW TO PREPARE CASH FLOW STATEMENT?
The data come from the Balance sheet and Income Expenditure
statement in the form of changes over a period of each in the items of these
financial statements. The example of a cash flow statement is as follows:
Decline in Cash
Cash at Bank 10,000 Increase in Inventories 20,000
AM: Cash inflows Purchase of Fixed Assets 60,000
(a) Issue of Equity Capital 50,000 Increase in Debtors 20,000
as Rights Payment for Expenses 30,000
(b) Issue of Debentures 20,000
(c) Raising of Public 10,000
Deposits
(d) Increase of Creators 10,000
(e) Cash Trading Profits
(generated) 60,000
160,000 130,000
Closing Balance in Bank 30,000
Cash profits are brought forward from profit allocation statement, while
the other items are derived from the Balance Sheet and income and expenditure
statement. A reading of the above statement helps the cash management
techniques adopted by the company and its liquidity position.
Trend Analysis
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These techniques require a good deal of data of the past and analysis for a length
of time for experimentation. Trend Analysis refers to comparison of some
important ratios and rates of growth over a time period of a few years. These
trends in the case of GPM or Sales Turnover are useful to indicate the extent of
improvement or deterioration over a period of time in the aspects considered.
The trends in dividends, E.P.S., asset growth or sales growth are some examples
of the trends used to study the operational performance of the companies. Any
temporary rise in inventories to sales would indicate sluggish demand for the
products of the company.
Thus, the trends of the results, rather than the actual ratios and
percentages, are important. Structural relationships taken from the financial
statements of one year only are of limited value and the trends of these structural
relationships established from statements over a number of years may be more
significant than absolute ratios
Forecasting earnings
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The considerable amount of research on statistical forecasting models
in the literature has created the need for varied means of categorization to
identify and select models one means of basic categorization of the statistical
forecasting methods used to aid in model selection is to identify models as
either being linear or nonlinear. Another categorization of statistical
forecasting models is to refer to them as being either "univariate" (i.e., using
one independent variable in the model) or "multivariate" (i.e., more than one
independent variable). In the context of EPS forecasts, to date, the majority of
the statistical methods used in forecasting EPS are linear. For example, the
family of time-series forecast models widely used in forecasting EPS belongs
to the linear forecasting category. Some practical methods are as follows:
EBT={R+(R-I) L /E} E
Where, R is the average return on Investments or Assets, I is the interest cost
on liabilities other than equity, L/E is the debt equity ratio or total liabilities
other than equity to equity.
If we have the data on the past ernings on assets, the manner of financing and
the average cost of interest on liabilities, we will have the average past trends
of R, I and plug in these values for the present and future. If we know EBT, by
deducting the tax payable at the effective rate in the past we can arrive at the
EAT (Earning after tax). Once we know EAT by dividing EAT by the
outstanding number of shares we will get the EPS (Earning per share). If the
past average P/E (Price earning ratio) multiple is say Rs15 and the EPS works
out to Rs 10 then the market price can be estimated at Rs 150 i.e., EPS x P/E .
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2. Market Share Approach
Intrinsic Value
For equity analysis, Graham and Dodd noted that there were three
approaches. The first they called the anticipation approach. This involved
selecting and recommending that equity shares "out perform" the market over a
given span of time, usually the ensuing 12 months. This approach they noted did
not involve seeking an answer to the question:" What is the stock worth?" The
second concept stands in market contrast. It attempts to value a share
independently of its current market price. If the value found is substantially
above or below the current price, the analyst concludes that the issue should be
bought or disposed off. This independent value has a variety of names, the most
familiar of which is the intrinsic value. It may also be called indicated value,
central value, normal value, investment value, reasonable value, fair value and
appraised value. Graham, Dodd and Cattle's third approach is concerned with
relative rather than with intrinsic value from the current level of the equity
prices. In estimating relative value, the analyst more or less accepts the
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prevailing market level and seeks to determine the value of equity in terms of it.
His efforts, therefore, are devoted fundamentally to appraising the relative
attractiveness of individual issues in terms of the then existing level of equity
prices and not to determine the fundamental worm of equity.
Graham, Dodd and Cottle were explicit that their intrinsic value approach would
not apply to high growth rate stocks or inherently speculative issues since they
do not admit of a "soundly ascertained value". They consider only growth stocks
at high price earnings ratios basically in this category. In other words, a genuine
growth stock will typically appear to be selling too high by one evaluation
standards and the true investor may do well to avoid it for mis reason. But both
the price and the ultimate value may often develop independently of, and
contrary to, any given valuation.
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At maturity, the principal will be paid to the bondholder. In the case of a firm's
insolvency, a bondholder has a priority of claim to the firm's assets before the
preferred and common stockholders. Also, bondholders must be paid interest due
them before dividends can be distributed to the stockholders. A bond's par value
is the amount that will be repaid by the firm when the bond matures.
An indenture (or trust deed) is the legal agreement between the firm
issuing the bonds and the bond trustee who represents the bondholders. It
provides the specific terms of the bond agreement such as the rights and
responsibilities of both parties. The current yield on a bond refers to the ratio of
annual interest payment to the bond’s market price.
Bond valuation is the process of determining the fair price of a bond. As with
any security, the fair value of a bond is the present value of the stream of cash
flows it is expected to generate. Hence, the price or value of a bond is
determined by discounting the bond's expected cash flows to the present using
the appropriate discount rate.
GENERAL RELATIONSHIPS
The fair price of a straight bond (a bond with no embedded option; is determined
by discounting the expected cash flows:
Cash flows:
o the periodic coupon payments C, each of which is made once
every period;
o the par or face value P, which is payable at maturity of the bond
after T periods.
Discount rate: the required (annually compounded) yield or rate of return
r.
o r is the market interest rate for new bond issues with similar risk
ratings
Bond Price =
Because the price is the present value of the cash flows, there is an inverse
relationship between price and discount rate: the higher the discount rates the
lower the value of the bond (and vice versa). A bond trading below its face value
is trading at a discount; a bond trading above its face value is at a premium.
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Coupon yield
The coupon yield is simply the coupon payment (C) as a percentage of the face
value (F).
Coupon yield = C / F
Coupon yield is also called nominal yield.
Current yield
The current yield is simply the coupon payment (C) as a percentage of the bond
price (P).
Current yield = C / P0.
Yield to Maturity
The yield to maturity, YTM, is the discount rate which returns the market price
of the bond. It is thus the internal rate of return of an investment in the bond
made at the observed price. YTM can also be used to price a bond, where it is
used as the required return on the bond.
Solve for YTM where
Market Price =
To achieve a return equal to YTM, the bond owner must 1) Reinvest each
coupon received at this rate 2) Redeem at Par 3) Hold until Maturity
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BOND PRICING
In this approach, the bond price will reflect its arbitrage free price
(arbitrage=practice of taking advantage of a state of imbalance between
two or more markets). Here, each cash flow is priced separately and is
discounted at the same rate as the corresponding government issues Zero
coupon bond. (Some multiple of the bond (or the security) will produce
an identical cash flow to the government security (or the bond in
question).) Since each bond cash flow is known with certainty, the bond
price today must be equal to the sum of each of its cash flows discounted
at the corresponding risk free rate - i.e. the corresponding government
security. Were this not the case, arbitrage would be possible - see
rational pricing.
Here the discount rate per cash flow, rt, must match that of the
corresponding zero coupon bond's rate.
Bond Price =
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BOND INTRINSIC VALUES
88
BOND MANAGEMENT STRATEGIES
Sources
Jones P. Charles (2002). Investments. 8th Edition: John Wiley and Sons Inc.
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Questions
4. The three important elements of investments are risk return and timing.
Elaborate.
5. What are the basic valuation models of bonds? How do you calculate
‘yield’ on bonds?
6. Find the present value of the bond when par value is Rs 100, coupon
rate is 15% and current market price is Rs 90. The bond has a six year
maturity value and has a premium of 10%.
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UNIT - III
Syllabus
Options: Types - Determinants of Option value - Option Position and Strategies
-Option pricing. Futures: Stock Index futures - Portfolio strategies using futures
-Futures on fixed income securities - Futures on long term Securities.
CONTENTS DESIGN:
3.1. Introduction.
3.2 Options-Meaning
Reasons for using Options
Working of options
Types of Options
Pricing of Options
Factors affecting the Option premium
Option zones
Assumptions and Notations
Upper and Lower boundaries for option prices
Greeks
Trading Strategies
Bull Market Strategies
Bear Market Strategies
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3.7.3 Volatile Market Strategies
3.7.4. Stable Market Strategies
3.8 .Futures Contract - Meaning
Futures Characteristics
Contract specification for Index futures contracts.
Eligibility Criteria for introducing futures option contracts on Index.
Importance of index futures.
Security Futures
Cataract specifications for single stock futures.
Eligibility criteria for introducing futures option contracts on stocks.
Security Futures Vs stock options.
Trading system
The players
Order matching rules.
Order conditions
Session timings
Price bands.
Limited trading membership
Futures strategies
Advantages of Future Index
Future on fixed income securities.
Hedging by fixed income founds.
Valuations of index futures.
Futures of bonds.
Security futures risks.
Some technical terms.
Activities
Self Analyzing questions.
References.
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3.1. INTRODUCTION
BSE created history on June 9th, 2000 by launching the first Exchange
traded Index Derivative Contract i.e. futures on the capital market benchmark
index - the BSE Sensex. The inauguration of trading was done by Prof. J.R.
Varma, member of SEBI and chairman of the committee responsible for
formulation of risk containment measures for the Derivatives market. The first
historical trade of 5 contracts of June series was done on June 9, 2000 at 9:55:03
a.m. between M/s Kaji & Maulik Securities Pvt. Ltd. and M/s Emkay Share &
stock Brokers Ltd. at the rate of 4755.
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OPTIONS-MEANING
An option is a contract whereby one party (the holder or buyer) has the
right, but not the obligation, to exercise the contract (the option) on or before a
future date (the exercise date or expiry). The other party (the writer or seller) has
the obligation to honour the specified feature of the contract. Since the option
gives the buyer a right and the seller an obligation, the buyer has received
something of value. The amount the buyer pays the seller for the option is called
the option premium.
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master bedroom; furthermore, a family of super-intelligent rats
have built a fortress in the basement. Though you originally
thought you had found the house of your dreams, you now
consider it worthless. On the upside, because you bought an
option, you are under no obligation to go through with the sale.
Of course, you still lose the Rs.3, 000 price of the option.
This example demonstrates two very important points. First, when you
buy an option, you have a right but not an obligation to do something. You can
always let the expiration date go by, at which point the option becomes
worthless. If this happens, you lose 100% of your investment, which is the
money you used to pay for the option. Second, an option is merely a contract
that deals with an underlying asset. For this reason, options are called
derivatives, which mean an option derives its value from something else. In our
example, the house is the underlying asset. Most of the time, the underlying
asset is a stock or an Index.
a. Speculation
Speculation is the territory in which the big money is made - and lost.
The use of options for making big money or less is the reason why they have the
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reputation of being risky. This is because when one buys an option; one has to
be correct in determining not only the direction of the stock's movement, but
also the magnitude and the timing of this movement. To succeed, one must
correctly predict whether a stock will go up or down, and has to be right about
how much the price will change as well as the time frame it will take for all this
to happen commissions must also be taken into account.
b. Hedging
WORKING OF OPTIONS
Remember, a stock option contract is the option to buy 100 shares; that's
why you must multiply the contract by 100 to get the total price. The strike price
of Rs. 78 means that the stock price must rise above Rs.78 before the call option
is worth anything; furthermore, because the contract is Rs.3.70 per share, the
break-even price would beRs.81.
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When the stock price is Rs.67, it's less than the Rs.70 strike price, so the
option is worthless. But don't forget that you've paid Rs.315 for the option, so
you are currently down by this amount.
Three weeks later the stock price is Rs.84. The options contract has
increased along with the stock price and is now worth Rs.6 x 100 = Rs.600.
Subtract what you paid for the contract, and your profit is (Rs.3) x 100 = Rs.300.
You almost doubled the money in just three weeks! You could sell your options,
which are called "closing your position," and take your profits - unless, of
course, you think the stock price will continue to rise. For the sake of this
example, let's say we let it ride. By the expiration date, the price drops to Rs.60.
Because this is less than our Rs.78 strike price and there is no time left, the
option contract is worthless. We are now down to the original investment of
Rs.300. Putting it in the form of a table: here is what happened to our option
investment:
The price swing for the length of this contract from high to low was
Rs.600, which would have given us over double our original investment.
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Option frameworks
The buyer pays the price (premium) to the seller (writer).The buyer
assumes a long position and the writer a corresponding short position.
Thus the writer of a call option is "short a call" and has the obligation to
sell to the holder, who is "long of a call option" and who has the right to
buy. The writer of a put option is "on the short side of the position", and
has the obligation to buy from the taker of the put option, who is "long a
put".
The option style determines when the buyer may exercise the option which
will affect the valuation. Generally the contract will either be American
style - which allows exercise up to the expiry date - or European style -
where exercise is only allowed on the expiry date - or Bermudian style -
where exercise is allowed on several, specific dates up to the expiry date.
European contracts are easier to value.
The risk for the option holder is limited: he cannot lose more than the
premium paid as he can "abandon the option". His potential gain with a
call option is theoretically unlimited;
The maximum loss for the writer of a put option is equal to the strike price.
In general, the risk for the writer of a call option is unlimited. However, an
option writer who owns the underlying instrument has created a covered
position; he can always meet his obligations by using the actual
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underlying. Where the seller does not own the underlying on which he has
written the option, he is called a "naked writer", and has created a "naked
position".
TYPES OF OPTIONS
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e. Traded options (also called "Exchange-Traded Options" or
"Listed Options") are Exchange traded derivatives which have:
standardized contracts; quick systematic pricing; and are settled
through a clearing house (ensuring fulfillment.) These include:
stock options; bond options; interest rate options; and swaption.
f. Vanilla options are 'simple', well understood and traded options,
whereas an exotic option is more complex, or less easily
understood and non-standard in nature. Asian options, look back
options, barrier options are considered to be exotic, especially if
the underlying instrument is more complex than simple equity or
debt.
g. Employee stock options are issued by a company to its
employees as compensation.
PRICING OF OPTIONS
Options are used as risk management tools and the valuation or pricing
of the instruments is a careful balance of market factors.
There are four major factors affecting the Option premium:
Price of Underlying
Time to Expiry
Exercise Price Time to Maturity
Volatility of the Underlying
And Two less important factors:
Short – Term Interest Rates
Dividends
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a. The Intrinsic Value of an Option
Comparing two calls with the same underlying asset; the higher the exercise price
of a call, the lower its premium.
Call
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Comparing two puts with the same underlying asset; the higher the
exercise price of a put, the higher its premium.
Put
b. Price of Underlying
Call options become more valuable as the stock price increases and less
valuable as the strike price increases. For a put option, the payoff on exercise is
the amount by which the strike price exceeds the stock price. Put options,
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therefore, behave in the opposite way to call options. They become less valuable
as the stock price increases and more valuable as the strike price increases.
The option premium will be higher when the price of the underlying asset is
higher.
Call
The option premium will be lower when the price of the underlying asset
is lower .
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Put
Generally, the longer the time remaining until an option’s expiration, the
higher will be its premium, because the longer an option’s lifetimes, greater is
the possibility that the underlying share price might move so as to make the
option in-the-money. All other factors affecting an option’s price remaining the
same, the time value portion of an option’s premium will decrease with the
passage of time.
Both put and call American options become more valuable as the time to
expiration increases. To see this, consider two options that differ only with
respect to the expiration date. The owner of the long-life option has all the
exercise opportunities open to that of the owner of the short-life on- and more.
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The long-life option must, therefore, always be worth at least as much
as the short-life option.
The value of an option will be lower at the near closer of the expiration
date, when all other factors remaining equal. The loss of time value is faster as
the expiration date approaches.
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d. Volatility
The owner of a call benefits from price increases but bas limited
downslide risk in the event of price decreases because the most that the owner
can lose is the price of the option. Similarly, the owner of a put benefits from
price decreases but has limited downslide risk in the event of price increases.
The value of both calls and puts, therefore, increases as volatility increase.
The higher the price volatility of the underlying asset, the higher the
likelihood that the option will end up in-the-money; therefore, the higher the
premium.
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Call
The higher the price volatility of the underlying asset, the higher the
likelihood that the option will end up out-of-the-money; therefore, the lower the
premium.
Put
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e. Interest rates
In general interest rates have the least influence on options and equate
approximately to the cost of carry of a futures contract. If the size of the options
contract is very large, then this factor may take on some importance. All other
factors being equal as interest rates rise, premium costs fall and vice versa. The
relationship can be thought of as an opportunity cost. In order to buy an option,
the buyer must either borrow funds or use funds on deposit. Either way the
buyer incurs an interest rate cost. If interest rates are rising, then the opportunity
cost of buying options increases and to compensate the buyer premium costs
fall. Why should the buyer be compensated? Because the option writer
receiving the premium can place the funds on deposit and receive more interest
than was previously anticipated. The situation is reversed when interest rates
fall -premiums rise. This time it is the writer who needs to be compensated.
As interest rates in the economy increases, the expected growth rate of the
stock price tends to increase and the present value of any future cash flows
received by the holder of the option decreases. These two effects tend to
decrease the value of a put option and hence, put option prices decline as the
risk-free interest rate increases. In the case of calls, the first effect tends to
increase the price and the second effect tends to decrease it. It can be shown that
the first effect always dominates the second effect; that the price of a call
always increases as the risk-free interest rate increases.
The higher the "riskless interest rate", the higher the call premium. The
higher the "riskless interest rate", the lower the put premium
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f. Dividends
Dividends have the effect of reducing the stock price on the ex-dividend
date. The value of a call option is negatively related to the size of any
anticipated dividend and the value of a put option is positively related to the size
of any anticipated dividend.
option zones
The value of the stock option has three different zones, as shown below:
1. Out of the Money : Where the stock price is below the exercise price.
2. At the Money : Where it is close to or at the exercise price.
3. In the Money: Where the stock price is above the exercise price.
These zones are depicted in the chart below:
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Say the exercise price is Rs.60. If the stock price is below 60, there is no
economic value. There is only time value; if stock price starts above Rs.60 it
will have been economic value and time value. As seen from the chart time
value is maximum, when the exercise price and stock price are the same but is
lower below the exercise price or above it. If the actual price is lower than the
exercise price there is less change of profit on the call. If the actual price is
above the exercise price, then there is a chance of profit, and there is less reason
to pay a premium over the economic value (intrinsic value)
Some relationships have been derived between option price that do not
require any assumptions about volatility and the probabilistic behavior of stock
prices For this purposes it is, therefore, reasonable to assume that there are no
arbitrage opportunities.
The following notations have been used: .
So :current stock price
ST: stock price at time T
X: strike price of option
T: time of expiration of option
r: risk-free rate of interest for maturity T (continuously
compounded)
C: value of American call option to buy one share
P: value of American put option to sell one share
c: value of European all option to buy one share
p: value of European put option to sell one share
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It should be noted that r is the nominal rate of interest, not the real rate of
interest and assumed that r > O. Otherwise, a risk-free investment would provide
no advantages over cash.
If the option price is above the upper bound or below the lower bound,
there are profitable opportunities for arbitrageurs.
Upper Bounds:
An American or European call option gives the holder the right to buy
one share of a stock for a certain price. No matter what happens, the option can
never be worth more than the stock. Hence, the stock price is an upper bound to
the option price:
c < So and C < So
If these relationships do not hold, an arbitrageur can easily make a risk
less profit by buying the stock and selling the call option.
An American or European put option gives the holder the right to sell
one share of a stock for X. No matter how low the stock price becomes, the
option can never be worth more than X. Hence
P< X and P < X
For European put options, we know that at time T the option will not be
worth more than X. It follows that its value today cannot be more than the
present value of X:
P < Xe- rT
If this were not true, an arbitrageur could make a risk less profit by
selling the option and investing the proceeds of the sale at the risk-free Interest
rate.
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Lower Bound for European Calls on Non-Dividend-Paying Stocks
First illustrated with a numerical example and then with a more formal
argument.
Suppose that So = Rs20, X = Rs18, r = 10% per annum, and T = 1 year.
In this case,
So -Xe- rT = 20 -18e-0-i = 3.71
or Rs3.71. Consider the situation where the European call price is Rs3.00,
which is less than the theoretical minimum of Rs3.71. An arbitrageur can buy
the call and short the stock. This provides a cash inflow of Rs20.00 Rs3.00 =
Rs17.00. If invested for one year at 10% per annum, the Rs17.00 grows to
Rs18.79. At the end of the year, the option expires. If the stock price is greater
than Rs18, the arbitrageur exercises the option, closes out the short position, and
makes a profit of
Rs18.79 -Rs18.00 = Rs0.79
If the stock price is less than Rs18, the stock is bought in the .market and
the short (X) position is closed out. The arbitrageur then makes an even greater
profit. For example, if the stock price is Rs17, the arbitrageur's profit is
Rs18.79 -Rs17.00 = l. 79
For a more formal argument, we consider the following two portfolios:
Portfolio A: one European call option plus an amount of cash equal to
Xe-
rT
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A is worth ST. If ST < X, the call option expires worthless and the portfolio is
worth X. Hence, at time T portfolio A is worth
max(ST, X)
Portfolio B is worth ST at time T. Hence, portfolio A is always worth at
least as much and is sometimes worth more than, portfolio B at time T. It
follows that it must be , worth at least as much as portfolio B today.
Hence, C + X e-rT > So
or
C > So -Xe-rT.
Because the worst that can happen to a call option is that it expires
worthless, its value must be positive. This means that c > 0 and, therefore,
C+ Xe-rT > So
or
C > max (So - Xe-rT, 0)
Lower Bound for European Puts on Non-Dividend-Paying Stocks
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If the stock price is greater than Rs40.00, the arbitrageur discards the
option, sells and repays the loan for an even greater profit. For example, if the
stock price is . 2.00, the arbitrageur's profit is
Rs.42.00 –Rs.38.9.6 = Rs3.04
For a more formal argument, we consider the following two portfolios:
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Summary - Factors affecting the option premium
Greeks
117
For example, an option with a delta of 0.5 will move Rs 5 for every
change of Rs 10 in the underlying stock or index.
Illustration:
Far out-of-the-money calls will have a delta very close to zero, as the
change in underlying price is not likely to make them valuable or cheap. At-the-
money call would have a delta of 0.5 and a deeply in-the-money call would
have a delta close to 1.
While Call deltas are positive, Put deltas are negative, reflecting the fact
that the put option price and the underlying stock price are inversely related.
This is because if one buys a put his view is bearish and expects the stock price
to go down. However, if the stock price moves up it is contrary to his view
therefore, the value of the option decreases. The put delta equals the call delta
minus 1.
Uses: The knowledge of delta is of vital importance for option traders because
this parameter is heavily used in margining and risk management strategies.
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The delta is often called the hedge ratio. e.g. if you have a portfolio of 'n' shares
of a stock then 'n' divided by the delta gives you the number of calls you would
need to be short (i.e. need to write) to create a riskless hedge -i.e. a portfolio
which would be worth the same whether the stock price rose by a very small
amount or fell by a very small amount.
In such a "delta neutral" portfolio any gain in the value of the shares
held due to a rise in the share price would be exactly offset by a loss on the
value of the calls written, and vice versa.
Note that as the delta changes with the stock price and time to expiration
the number of shares would need to be continually adjusted to maintain the
hedge. How quickly the delta changes with the stock price is given by gamma,
which we shall learn subsequently.
Gamma
For example, if a Call option has a delta of 0.50 and a gamma of 0.05,
then a rise of +/- 1 in the underlying means the delta will move to 0.55 for a
price rise and 0.45 for a price fall. Gamma is rather like the rate of change in
the speed of a car -its acceleration -in moving from a standstill, up to its
cruising speed, and braking back to a standstill. Gamma is greatest for an A TM
(at-the- money) option (cruising) and falls to zero as an option moves deeply
ITM (in-the-money ) and OTM (out-of-the-money) (standstill).
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If you are hedging a portfolio using the delta-hedge technique described
under "Delta", then you will want to keep gamma as small as possible as the
smaller it is the less often you will have to adjust the hedge to maintain a delta
neutral position. If gamma is too large a small change in stock price could wreck
your hedge. Adjusting gamma, however, can be tricky and is generally done
using options --unlike delta, it can't be done by buying or selling the underlying
asset as the gamma of the underlying asset is, by definition, always zero so more
or less of it won't affect the gamma of the total portfolio.
Theta
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Vega
If for example, XYZ stock has a volatility factor of 30% and the
current premium is 3, a Vega of .08 would indicate that the premium would
increase to 3.08 if the volatility factor increased by 1 % to 31 %. As the stock
becomes more volatile the changes in premium will increase in the same
proportion. Vega measures the sensitivity of the premium to these changes in
volatility.
Rho
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Example:
Assume the value of Rho is 14.10. If the risk free interest rates go up by
1 % the price of the option will move by Rs 0.14109. To put this in another way:
if the risk-free interest rate changes by a small amount, then the option value
should change by 14.10 times that amount.
For example, if the risk-free interest rate increased by 0.01 (from 10%
to 11 %), the option value would change by 14.10*0.01 = 0.14. For a put
option, inverse relationship exists. If the interest rate goes up the option value
decreases and therefore, Rho for a put option is negative. In general Rho tends
to be small except for long-dated options.
TRADING STRATEGIES
3.7.1. Bull Market Strategies
Call in a Bullish Strategy:
An investor with a bullish market outlook should buy call option. It one
expects the market price of the underlying asset to rise, then, he would rather
have the right to purchases at a specified price and sell later at a higher price
than have the obligation to deliver later at a higher price.
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The investor’s profit potential on buying a call option is unlimited. His
profit is the market price less the exercise price less the premium. The increase
in price of the underlying increases the investor’s profit.
The investor's potential loss is limited. Even if the market takes a drastic
decline in price levels, the holder of a call is under no obligation to exercise the
option and let the option expire worthless. The investor breaks even when the
market price equals the exercise price plus the premium.
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Puts in a Bullish Strategy
By writing Puts, profit potential is limited. A Put writer profits when the
price of the underlying asset increases and the option expires worthless. The
maximum profit is limited to the premium received.
The break-even point occurs when the market price equals the exercise
price: minus the premium. At any price less than the exercise price minus the
premium, the investor loses money on the transaction. At higher prices, his
option is profitable.
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To "sell a call spread" is the opposite, here the trader buys a call with a
higher exercise price and writes a call with a lower exercise price, receiving a
net premium for the position.
To put on a bull spread, the trader needs to buy the lower strike call and
sell the higher strike call. The combination of these two options will result in a
bought spread. The cost of Putting on this position will be the difference
between the premium paid for the low strike call and the premium received for
the high strike call.
The investor's profit potential is limited. When both calls are in-the-
money, both will be exercised and the maximum profit will be realised. The
investor delivers on his short call and receives a higher price than he is paid for
receiving delivery on his long call.
The investor’s potential loss is limited. At the most, the investor can lose
is the net premium. He pays a higher premium for the lower exercise price call
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than he receives for writing the higher exercise price call than he receives for
writing the higher exercise price call.
The investor breaks even when the market price equals the lower
exercise price plus the net premium. At the most, an investor can lose is the net
premium paid. To recover the premium, the market price must be as great as the
lower exercise price plus the net premium.
Now let us look at the fundamental reason for this position. Since this is
a bullish strategy, the first position established in the spread is the long lower
strike price call option with unlimited profit potential. At the same time to
reduce the cost of purchase of the long position a short position at a higher call
strike price is established. While this not only reduces the outflow in terms of
premium but also his profit potential and at the sometime the risk is limited.
Based on the above figures the maximum profit, maximum loss and breakeven
point of this spread would be as follows:
Maximum profit = Higher strike price -Lower strike price -Net premium paid
= 110-90-10
= 10
Maximum Loss = Lower strike premium -Higher strike premium
= 14-4 = 10
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Breakeven Price = Lower strike price + Net premium paid
= 90 + 10 = 100
Bullish Put Spread Strategies
A vertical Put spread is the simultaneous purchase and sale of identical
Put options but with different exercise prices.
To "sell a put spread" is the opposite: the trader buys a Put with a lower
exercise price and writes a put with a higher exercise price, receiving a net
premium for the position.
To put on a bull spread can be created by buying the lower strike and
selling the higher strike of either calls or put. The difference between the
premiums paid and received makes up one leg of the spread.
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The investor's profit potential is limited. When the market price reaches
or exceeds the higher exercise price, both options will be out-of-the-money and
will expire worthless. The trader will realize his maximum profit, the net
premium.
The investor's potential loss is also limited. If the market falls, the
options will be in-the-money. The puts will offset one another, but at different
exercise prices.
The investor breaks-even when the market price equals the lower
exercise price less the n premium. The investor achieves maximum profit i.e.
the premium received; when the mark price moves up beyond the higher
exercise price (both puts are then worthless).
Lets us assume that the cash price of the scrip is Rs.100. One now buys a
November put option scrip with a strike price of Rs.90 at a premium of Rs.5 and
sells a put option with a strike price Rs.110 at a premium of Rs.15.
The first position is a short put at a higher strike price. This has resulted in
some inflow in terms of premium. But here the trader is worried about risk and
so caps his risk by buying another put option at the lower strike price. As such,
a part of the premium received goes off and the ultimate position has limited
risk and limited profit potential. Based on the above figures the maximum
profit, maximum loss and breakeven point of this spread would be as follows:
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Maximum loss = Higher strike price -Lower strike price -Net premium
received
= 110-90-10= 10
Breakeven Price = Higher Strike price -Net premium income
= 110-10= 100
3.7.2. Bear Market Strategies
When one purchases a put he is long and wants the market to fall. A put
option is a bearish position which will increase in value if the market falls. By
purchasing put options, the trader has the right to choose whether to sell the
underlying asset at the exercise price. In a falling market, this choice is
preferable to being obligated to buy the underlying at a price higher.
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The investor's potential loss is limited. If the price of the underlying asset
rises instead of falling as' the investor has anticipated, he may let the option
expire worthless. At the most, he may lose the premium for the option.
The trader's breakeven point is the exercise price minus the premium.
To profit, the market price must be below the exercise price. Since the trader
has paid a premium he must recover the premium he paid for the option.
For this an Investor needs to write a call option. If the market price falls,
long call holders will let their out-of-the-money options expire worthless,
because they could purchase the underlying asset at the lower market price.
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The investor breaks even when the market price equals the exercise
price: plus the premium. At any price greater than the exercise price plus the
premium, the trader is losing money. When the market price equals the exercise
price plus the premium, the trader breaks even.
An increase in volatility will increase the value of call and decreases its
return.
When the option writer has to buy back the option in order to cancel out
his position, he will be forced to pay a higher price due to the increased value of
the calls.
To "sell a put spread" is the opposite. The trader buys a put with a lower
exercise price and writes put with a higher exercise price, receiving a net
premium for the position.
To put on a bear put spread buy the higher strike put and sell the lower
strike put.
Sell the lower strike and buy the higher strike of either calls or puts to set
up a bear spread.
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An investor with a bearish market outlook should: buy a put spread. The
“Bear Put Spread” allows the investor to participate to a limited extent in a bear
marker, while at the same time limiting risk exposure.
The investor's profit potential is limited. When the market price falls to
or below the lower exercise price, both options will be in-the-money and the
trader will realize his maximum profit when he recovers the net premium paid
for the options.
The investor breaks even when the market price equals the higher
exercise price less the net premium. For the strategy to be profitable, the market
price must fall. When the market price falls to the high exercise price less the net
premium, the trader breaks even. When the market falls beyond this point, the
trader profits.
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An example of a bearish put spread.
Lets assume that the cash price of the scrip is Rs 100. One buys a
November put option on a scrip with a strike price of Rs 110 at a premium of
Rs 15 and sell a put option with a strike price of Rs 90 at a premium of Rs 5.
In this bearish position the put is taken as long on a higher strike price
put with the outgo of some premium. This position has huge profit potential on
downslide. The trader may recover a part of the premium paid by him by writing
a lower strike price put option. The resulting position is a mildly bearish position
with limited risk and limited profit profile. Though the trader has reduced the
cost of taking a bearish position, he has also capped the profit portential as well.
The maximum profit, maximum loss and breakeven point of this spread would
be as follows:
Maximum profit = Higher strike price option -Lower strike price option -Net
premium paid
= 110-90-10= 10
Maximum loss = Net premium paid
= 15-5= 10
Breakeven Price = Higher strike price -Net premium paid
= 110-10= 100
Bearish Call Spread Strategies
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To "sell a call spread" is the opposite: the trader buys a call with a higher
exercise price and writes a call with a lower exercise price, receiving a net
premium for the position.
To put on a bear ca" spread you sell the lower strike call and buy the
higher strike call. An investor sells the lower strike and buys the higher
strike of either calls or puts to put on a bear spread.
An investor with a bearish market outlook should: sell a call spread. The
"Bear Call Spread" allows f the investor to participate to a limited extent in a
bear market, while at the same time limiting risk exposure.
The investor's profit potential is limited. When the market price falls to
the lower exercise price, both out-of-the-money options will expire worthless.
The maximum profit that the trader can realize is the net premium: The
premium he receives for the call at the higher exercise price.
Here the investor's potential loss is limited. If the market rises, the
options will offset one another, At any price greater than the high exercise
price, the maximum loss will equal high exercise price minus low exercise price
minus net premium.
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The investor breaks even when the market price equals the lower
exercise price plus the net premium. The strategy becomes profitable as the
market price declines. Since the trader is receiving a net premium, the market
price does not have to fall as low as the lower exercise price to breakeven.
Let us assume that the cash price of the scrip is Rs.100. One now buys a
November call option on a scrip with a strike price of Rs.110 at a premium of
Rs.5 and sell a call option with a strike price of Rs.90 at a premium of Rs.15.
In this spread he has to buy a higher strike price call option and sell a
lower strike price option. As the low strike price option is more expensive than
the higher strike price option, it is a net credit strategy. The final position is left
with limited risk and limited profit. The maximum profit, maximum loss and
breakeven point of this spread would be as follows:
Maximum profit = Net premium received
= 15-5= 10
Maximum loss = Higher strike price option -Lower strike price option -Net
premium received
= 110-90-10= 10
Breakeven Price = Lower strike price + Net premium paid
= 90 + 10 = 100
Volatile market trading strategies are appropriate when the trader believes
the market will move but does not have an opinion on the direction of movement
135
of the market. As long as there is significant movement upwards or downwards,
these strategies offer profit opportunities. A trader need not be bullish or bearish.
He must simply be of the opinion that the market is volatile.
136
Here the investor's profit potential is unlimited. If the market is volatile,
the trader can profit from an up- or downward movement by exercising the
appropriate option while letting the other option expire worthless. (Bull market,
exercise the call; bear market, the put.)
If the price of the underlying asset remains stable instead of either rising
or falling as the trader anticipated, the maximum he will lose is the premium he
paid for the options.
In this case the trader has long two positions and thus, two breakeven
points. One is for the call which is exercise price plus the premiums paid, and
the other for the put, which is exercise price minus the premiums paid.
A strangle is similar to a straddle, except that the call and the put have
different exercise price Usually, both the call and the put are out-of-the-money.
137
To "buy a strangle" is to purchase a call and a put with the same
expiration date, but differ exercise prices.
To "sell a strangle" is to write a call and a put with the same expiration
date, but different exercise prices.
The investor's potential loss is limited. Should the price of the underlying
remain stable, the most the trader would lose is the premium he paid for the
options. Here the loss potential is also very minimal because, the more the
options are out-of-the-money, the lesser the premiums.
Here the trader has two long positions and thus, two breakeven
points. One for the call, which breakevens when the market price equal the
high exercise price plus the premium paid, and the put, when the market
price equals the low exercise price minus the premium paid.
Like the volatility positions ,the Short Butterfly position will realize a
profit if the market makes a substantial move. It also uses a combination of puts
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and calls to achieve its profit/loss profile -but combines them in such a manner
that the maximum profit is limited.
The profit loss profile of a short butterfly spread looks like two short
options coming together at the center Calls.
One’s potential gains or losses are: limited on both the upside and the
downside.
The call ratio back spread is similar in contraction to the short butterfly
call spread. The only difference is that one omits one of the components (or
legs) used to build the short butterfly when constructing a call ratio back
spread.
When putting on a call ratio back spread, one is neutral but want the
market to move in either direction. The call ratio back spread will lose money if
the market sits. The market outlook one would have in putting on this position
would be for a volatile market, with greater probability that the market will
rally.
To put on a call ratio back spread, one sells one of the lower strike and
buy two or more of the higher strike. By selling an expensive lower strike
option and buying two less expensive high strike options, one receives an initial
credit for this position. The maximum loss is then equal to the high strike price
minus the low strike price minus the initial net premium received.
The profit on the downside is limited to the initial net premium received
when setting up the spread. The upside profit is unlimited.
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An increase in implied volatility will make the spread more profitable.
Increased volatility increases a long option position's value. The greater
number of long options will cause this spread to become more profitable when
volatility increases.
When put on a put ratio backspread one is neutral but wants the market to
move in either direction.
The two long puts offset the short. put and result in practically
unlimited profit on the bearish side of the market. The cost of the long puts is
140
offset by the premium received for the (more expensive) short put, resulting in
a net premium received.
To put on a put ratio backspread, one buy two or more of the lower
strike and sell one of the higher strike.
One sells the more expensive put and buy two or more of the cheaper put.
One usually receives an initial net premium for putting on this spread. The
Maximum loss is equal to: High strike price -Low strike price -Initial net
premium received.
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The investor's potential loss is unlimited. Should the price of the
underlying rise or fall, the writer of a call or put would have to deliver,
exposing himself to unlimited loss if he has to deliver on the call and practically
unlimited loss if on the put.
The breakeven points occur when the market price at expiration equals
the exercise price plus the premium and minus the premium. The trader is short
two positions and thus, two breakeven points; One for the call (common
exercise price plus the premiums paid), and one for the put (common exercise
price minus the premiums paid).
A strangle is similar to a straddle, except that the call and the put have
different exercise prices. Usually, both the call and the put are out-of-the-money.
142
To "sell a strangle" is to write a call and a put with the same expiration
date, but different exercise prices.
The trader is short two positions and thus, two breakeven points. One for
the call (high exercise price plus the premiums paid), and one for the put (low
exercise price minus the premiums paid).
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The risk is lower with a strangle. Although the seller gives up a
substantial amount of potential profit by selling a strangle rather than a straddle,
he also holds less risk. Notice that the strangle requires more of a price move in
both directions before it begins to lose money.
Long Butterfly Call Spread Strategy: The long butterfly call spread is a
combination of a bull spread and a bear spread, utilizing calls and three different
exercise prices.
A long butterfly call spread involves:
Buying a call with a low exercise price,
Writing two calls with a mid-range exercise price,
Buying a call with a high exercise price.
This spread is put on by purchasing one each of the outside strikes and
selling two of the inside strike. To put on a short butterfly, you do just the
opposite.
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The investor' s profit potential is limited.
Maximum profit is attained when the market price of the underlying
interest equals the mid-range exercise price (if the exercise prices are
symmetrical).
The breakeven points occur when the market price at expiration equals
the high exercise minus the premium and the low exercise price plus the
premium. The strategy is profitable when the market price is between the low
exercise price plus the net premium and the high exercise price minus the net
premium.
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Calendar Spreads
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Calendar Spread Created using two calls.
In a neutral calendar spread a strike price close to the current stock price
is chosen. A bullish calendar spread involves a higher strike price, whereas a
bearish calendar spread ,involves a lower strike price.
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Calendar spreads can be created with put options as well as call options.
The trader buys long maturity put option and sells a short-maturity put option.
As shown in the above figure, the profit pattern is similar to that obtained from
using calls.
Diagonal Spreads
Bull, bear, and calendar spreads can all be created from a long position
in one call (put) and a short position in another call (put). In the case of bull and
rear spreads, the calls (puts) have different strike prices and the same expiration
date. In the case of calendar spreads, the calls (puts) have the same strike price
and different expiration dates. In it diagonal spread both the expiration dates
and the strike prices of the call (puts) are different. There are several types of
diagonal spreads. Their profit pattern are generally variations on the profit
patterns from the corresponding bull or spreads.
COMBINATIONS
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Straddle
(An up- Straddle front investment of Rs7 is required, the call expires
worthless, and the put expires worth Rs1.) If the stock price moves to Rs70, a
loss of Rs7 is experienced- (This is the worst that can happen.)
Range of Pay of From Pay of From Total
Stock Price Call Put Payoff
ST < X 0 X-ST X – ST
ST > X ST – X 0 ST - X
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However, if the stock price jumps to Rs90, a profit ofRs13 is made; if the
stock moves down to Rs55, a profit of 'i;8 is made; and so on.
A straddle seems like a natural trading strategy when a big jump in the
price of a company's stock is expected for example, when there is a takeover bid
for the company or when the outcome of a major lawsuit is expected to be
announced soon. However, this is not necessarily the case. If the general view of
the market is that there will be a big jump in the stock price soon, that view will
be reflected in the prices of . options. A trader will find options on the stock to be
significantly more expensive I than options on a similar stock. for which no
jump is expected. For a straddle to be an t effective strategy, the trader must
believe that there are likely to be big movements in the stock price, and this
belief must be different from those of most other market participants.
A strip consists of a long position in one call and two puts with the same
strike price and one put with the same price and expiration data. A strap consists
of a long position in two calls and one put with the same strike price and
expiration data. The profit patterns from strips and straps are show in Figure
8.11. In a strip the trader is betting that there will be a big stock price move and
considers a decrease in the stock price to be more likely than an increase. In a
strap the trader is also betting that there will be a big stock price
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move. However, in a strap the trader is also betting that there will be a big
stock price move. However, in this case, an increase in the stock price is
considered to be more likely than a decrease.
Combining any of the four basic kinds of option trades (possibly with
different exercise prices) and the two basic kinds of stock trades (long and short)
allows a variety of options strategies. Simple strategies usually combine only a
few trades, while more complicated strategies can combine several.
Covered call — Long the stock, short a call. This has essentially the
same payoff as a short put.
Straddle — Long a call and long a put with the same exercise prices (a
long straddle), or short a call and short a put with the same exercise prices
(a short straddle).
Strangle — Long a call and long a put with different exercise prices (a
long strangle), or short a call and short a put with different exercise prices
(a short strangle).
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Bull spread — Long a call with a low exercise price and short a call
with a higher exercise price, or long a put with a low exercise price and
short a put with a higher exercise price.
Bear spread — Short a call with a low exercise price and long a call
with a higher exercise price, or short a put with a low exercise price and
long a put with a higher exercise price.
Butterfly — Butterflies require trading options with 3 different exercise
prices. Assume exercise prices X1 < X2 < X3 and that (X1 + X3) /2 = X2
o Long butterfly — long 1 call with exercise price X1, short 2 calls with
exercise price X2, and long 1 call with exercise price X3. Alternatively,
long 1 put with exercise price X1, short 2 puts with exercise price X2, and
long 1 put with exercise price X3.
o Short butterfly — short 1 call with exercise price X1, long 2 calls with
exercise price X2, and short 1 call with exercise price X3. Alternatively,
short 1 put with exercise price X1, long 2 puts with exercise price X2, and
short 1 put with exercise price X3.
Box spreads — Any combination of options that has a constant payoff at
expiry. For example combining a long butterfly made with calls, with a
short butterfly made with puts will have a constant payoff of zero, and in
equilibrium will cost zero. In practice any profit from these spreads will be
eaten up by commissions (hence the name "alligator spreads").
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necessarily mean that he will be responsible for receiving or delivering large
inventories of physical commodities, instead, buyers and sellers in the futures
market primarily enter into futures contracts to hedge risk or speculate rather
than to exchange physical goods (which is the primary activity of the cash/spot
market). That is why futures are used as financial instruments by not only
producers and consumers but also speculators.
3.9.FUTURESCHARA CHARACTERISTICS
Margins
In the futures market, margin has a definition distinct from its definition
in the stock market, where margin is the use of borrowed money to purchase
securities. In the futures market, margin refers to the initial deposit of "good
faith" made into an account in order to enter into a futures contract. This margin
is referred to as good faith because it is this money that is used to debit any day-
to-day losses.
When one opens a futures contract, the futures exchange will state a
minimum amount of money that one must deposit into ones account which is
called the initial margin. When the contract is liquidated, the initial margin plus
or minus any gains or losses that occur over the span of the futures contract will
be refunded. The minimum-level margin is determined by the futures exchange
and is usually 5% to 10% of the futures contract. These predetermined initial
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margin amounts are continuously under review: at times of high market
volatility, initial margin requirements can be raised.
The initial margin is the minimum amount required to enter into a new
futures contract, but the maintenance margin is the lowest amount an account
can reach before needing to be replenished. For example, if your margin account
drops to a certain level because of a series of daily losses, brokers are required
to make a margin call and request that you make an additional deposit into your
account to bring the margin back up to the initial amount.
Leverage:
In the futures market, leverage refers to having control over large cash
amounts of commodities with comparatively small levels of capital. In other
words, with a relatively small amount of cash, you can enter into a futures
contract that is worth much more than you initially have to pay (deposit into
your margin account). It is said that in the futures market, more than any other
form of investment, price changes are highly leveraged, meaning a small change
in a futures price can translate into a huge gain or loss.
Futures positions are highly leveraged because the initial margins that
are set by the exchanges are relatively small compared to the cash value of the
contracts in question (which is part of the reason why the futures market is
useful but also very risky). The smaller the margin in relation to the cash value
of the futures contract, the higher the leverage.
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As a result of leverage, if the price of the futures contract moves up even
slightly, the profit gain will be large in comparison to the initial margin.
However, if the price just inches downwards, that same high leverage will yield
huge losses in comparison to the initial margin deposit.
Futures prices have a price change limit that determines the prices
between which the contracts can trade on a daily basis. The price change limit is
added to and subtracted from the previous day's close and the results remain the
upper and lower price boundary for the day.
The exchange can revise this price limit if it feels it's necessary. It's not
uncommon for the exchange to abolish daily price limits in the month that the
contract expires (delivery or “spot” month). This is because trading is often
volatile during this month, as sellers and buyers try to obtain the best price
possible before the expiration of the contract.
An index future is a future on the index i.e. the underlying is the index
itself and no underlying security or a stock, which is to be delivered to fulfill the
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obligations. Index futures are cash settled. As other derivatives, the contract
derives its value from the underlying index. The underlying indices in this case
will be the various eligible indices and as permitted by the Regulator from time
to time.
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The Futures Options Contracts on an index can be issued only if 80% of
the index constituents are individually eligible for derivatives trading. However,
no single ineligible stock in the index shall have a weight age of more than 5%
in the index. The index on which Futures and Options contracts are introduced
shall be required to comply with the eligibility criteria on a monthly basis.
If the index fails to meet the above eligibility criteria for three months
consecutively, then no fresh month contract shall be issued on that Index.
However, the existing unexpired contracts shall be permitted to trade till expiry
and new strike prices will continue to be introduced in the existing contracts.
The other important use of stock index futures is for hedging. Mutual
funds and other institutional investors are the main beneficiaries. Hedging is a
technique by which such institutions can protect their portfolios from market
risks. There are three different views in the literature on the nature and purpose
of hedging:
* Risk minimisation.
* Profit maximisation.
A SECURITY FUTURES
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different contract months available for trading at any one time, and the number
of contract months may vary from exchange to exchange.
Offsetting Transactions
Prior to expiration, one can realize the current gains or losses by
executing an offsetting sale or purchase in the same contract (i.e., an equal and
opposite transaction to the one that opened the position).
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When a brokerage firm lends one part of the funds needed to purchase a
security, such as common stock, the term "margin" refers to the amount of cash,
or down payment, the customer is required to deposit. By contrast, a security
futures contract is an obligation not an asset and has no value as collateral for a
loan. When one enters into a security futures contract, he is required to make a
payment referred to as a "margin payment" or "performance bond" to cover
potential losses.
Unlike stocks, gains and losses in security futures accounts are posted to
the account every day, which are determined by the settlement price set by the
exchange. If due to losses one’s account falls below maintenance margin
requirements, he will be required to place additional funds in the account to
cover those losses.
Tax Implications
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term capital gains rate, depending on how long they are held. For dealers,
however, security future contracts are taxed like other futures contracts at a
blend of 60% long-term and 40% short-term capital gains rates. Depending on
the type of trading strategy that is used, there can be additional or different tax
consequences too.
At this time, security futures traded on one exchange are not "fungible"
with security futures traded on another exchange. This means one will only be
able to offset a position on the exchange where the original trade took place -
even though a better price may be available for a comparable futures contract on
the same underlying security or index on another exchange.
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CONTRACT SPECIFICATIONS FOR SINGLE STOCK FUTURES
162
18 GESCO FUTURES GESHFUT
19 GMR INFRASTRUCTURE FUTURES GMRFUT
20 GNFC FUTURES GNFCFUT
21 GRASIM FUTURES GRSFUT
22 HCLTECH FUTURES HCLTFUT
23 HDFC BANK FUTURES HDBKFUT
24 HDFC FUTURES HDFFUT
25 HEROHONDA FUTURES HEROFUT
26 HINDALCO FUTURES HNDFUT
27 HLL FUTURES HLLFUT
28 HPCL FUTURES HPCFUT
29 ICICI BANK FUTURES ICICFUT
30 IDBI FUTURES IDBIFUT
31 IDFC FUTURES IDFCFUT
32 IFLEX FUTURES IFLXFUT
33 INDIA CEMENT FUTURES INCMFUT
34 INDUSIND BANK FUTURES INBKFUT
35 INFOSYS FUTURES INFFUT
36 IOCL FUTURES IOCLFUT
37 IPCL FUTURES IPCLFUT
38 ITC FUTURES ITCFUT
39 JET AIRWAYS FUTURES JETFUT
40 JHPL FUTURES JHPFUT
41 JINDAL STEEL & POWER FUTURES JNSTFUT
42 LIC HOUSING FINANCE FUTURES LICHFUT
43 LNT FUTURES LNTFUT
44 MAHINDRA & MAHINDRA FUTURES MNMFUT
45 MARUTI UDYOG FUTURES MULFUT
46 MTNL FUTURES MTNFUT
47 NALCO FUTURES NALCFUT
48 NICHOLAS PIRAMAL FUTURES NCPRFUT
49 NTPC FUTURES NTPCFUT
50 OBC FUTURES OBCFUT
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51 ONGC FUTURES ONGCFUT
52 ORCHID CHEMICALS FUTURES ORCHFUT
53 PNB FUTURES PNBFUT
54 POLARIS FUTURES POLAFUT
55 PUNJ LLYOD FUTURES PNJFUT
56 RANBAXY FUTURES RBXFUT
57 RELENRG FUTURES RENFUT
58 RELIANCE CAPITAL FUTURES RCAPFUT
59 RELIANCE COMMUNICATION Ltd
FUTURES
RCOMFUT
60 RIL FUTURES RILFUT
61 RPL FUTURES RPLFUT
62 SAIL FUTURES SAILFUT
63 SATYAM FUTURES SATFUT
64 SBI FUTURES SBIFUT
65 SCI FUTURES SCIFUT
66 SIEMENS FUTURES SIEMFUT
67 STERLITE INDS FUTURES STERFUT
68 SUNTV FUTURES SNTVFUT
69 SUZLON FUTURES SUZFUT
70 TATA CHEMICALS FUTURES TCHMFUT
71 TATA MOTORS FUTURES TELFUT
72 TATA POWER FUTURES TPWFUT
73 TATA TEA FUTURES TTEFUT
74 TCS FUTURES TCSFUT
75 TISCO FUTURES TISFUT
76 UBI FUTURES UBIFUT
77 UTI BANK FUTURES UTIBFUT
78 VSNL FUTURES VSNLFUT
79 WIPRO FUTURES WIPRFUT
80 ZEE TELEFILMS LTD ZEEFUT
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ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR INTRODUCING FUTURES OPTION
CONTRACTS ON STOCKS.
o The stocks would be chosen from amongst the top 500 stocks in
terms of average daily market capitalization and average daily
traded value in the previous six-month on a rolling basis.
o For a stock to be eligible, the median quarter-sigma order size
over the last six months should not be less than Rs. 1 lac. For this
purpose, a stock's quarter sigma order size shall mean the order
size (in value terms) required to cause a change in the stock price
equal to one-quarter of a standard deviation.
o The market wide position limit in the stock should not be less
than Rs. 50 crores. Since, the market wide position limit in terms
of number of shares is computed at the end of the every month,
the Exchange shall ensure that the stocks comply with this
criterion before the introduction of new contracts. The market
wide position limit in terms of number of shares shall be valued
taking the closing prices of the stocks in the underlying cash
market on the date of expiry of contract in the month.
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o The pre restructured company had a market capitalization of at
least Rs. 1000 crores prior to restructuring.
o The post restructure company would be treated like a new stock
and if it is, in the opinion of the exchange, likely to be at least
one third of the size of the pre structuring company in terms of
revenues or assets or analyst valuations, and
o In the opinion of the exchange, the scheme of restructuring does
not suggest that the post restructured company would have any
characteristic that would render the company ineligible for
derivatives trading.
o If the post restructured company comes out with an Initial Public
Offering (IPO), then the same prescribed criteria as currently
applicable for introduction of derivatives on a company coming
out with an IPO is applied for introduction of derivatives on
stocks of the post restructured company from its first day of
listing.
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However, in both the above instances, the existing unexpired contracts
shall continue to be available for trading till they expire on the last Thursdays of
the respective months and new strike prices will continue to be introduced in the
existing contracts.
TRADING SYSTEM
3.17.1.The Players
The players in the futures market fall into two categories: hedgers and
speculators.
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Hedgers
Farmers, manufacturers, importers and exporters can all be hedgers. A
hedger buys or sells in the futures market to secure the future price of a
commodity intended to be sold at a later date in the cash market. This helps
protect against price risks.
The holders of the long position in futures contracts (the buyers of the
commodity), are trying to secure as low a price as possible. The short holders of
the contract (the sellers of the commodity) will want to secure as high a price as
possible. The futures contract, however, provides a definite price certainty for
both parties, which reduces the risks associated with price volatility. Hedging by
means of futures contracts can also be used as a means to lock in an acceptable
price margin between the cost of the raw material and the retail cost of the final
product sold.
Speculators
Unlike the hedger, the speculator does not actually seek to own the
commodity in question. Rather, he or she will enter the market seeking profits
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by offsetting rising and declining prices through the buying and selling of
contracts.
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Order Matching will take place after order acceptance wherein the
system searches for an opposite matching order. If a match is found, a trade will
be generated. The order against which the trade has been generated will be
removed from the system. In case the order is not exhausted further matching
orders will be searched for and trades generated till the order gets exhausted or
no more match-able orders are found. If the order is not entirely exhausted, the
system will retain the order in the pending order book. Matching of the orders
will be in the priority of price and timestamp. A unique trade-id will be
generated for each trade and the entire information of the trade is sent to the
members involved.
Order Conditions
The derivatives market is order driven i.e. the traders can place only
Orders in the system. Following are the Order types allowed for the derivative
products. These order types have characteristics similar to ones in the cash
market.
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o Stop Loss: An order that becomes a limit order only when the
market trades at a specified price.
o All orders shall have the following attributes:
o Order Type (Limit / Market PF/Market PC/ Stop Loss)
o The Asset Code, Product Type, Maturity, Call/Put and Strike
Price.
o Buy/Sell Indicator
o Order Quantity
o Price
o Client Type (Own / Institutional / Normal)
o Client Code
o Order Retention Type (GFD / GTD / GTC)
Good For Day (GFD) - The lifetime of the order is that trading
session.
o Good Till Date (GTD) - The life of the order is till the number of
days as specified by the Order Retention Period.
Good Till Cancelled (GTC) - The order if not traded will remain
in the system till it is cancelled or the series expires, whichever is
earlier.
o Order Retention Period (in calendar days) This field is enabled
only if the value of the previous attribute is GTD. It specifies the
number of days the order is to be retained.
o Protection Points This is a field relevant in Market Orders and
Stop Loss orders. The value enterable will be in absolute
underlying points and specifies the band from the touchline price
or the trigger price within which the market order or the stop loss
order respectively can be traded.
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o Risk Reducing Orders (Y/N): When the member's collateral falls
below 50 lacs then he will be allowed to put only risk reducing
orders and he will not be allowed to take any fresh positions. It is
not essentially a type of order but a mode into which the member
is put into when he violates his collateral limit. A member who
has entered the risk-reducing mode will be allowed to put only
one risk reducing order at a time.
Session Timings
Price Bands
There are no maximum and minimum price ranges for Futures and
Options Contracts. However, to avoid erroneous order entry, dummy price
bands have been introduced in the Derivatives Segment. Further, no price bands
are prescribed in the Cash Segment for stocks on which Futures & Options
contracts are available for trading. Also, for those stocks which do not have
Futures & Options Contracts available on them but are forming part of the index
on which Futures & Options contracts are available, no price bands are attracted
provided the daily average trading on such indices in the F & O Segment is not
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less than 20 contracts and traded on not less than 10 days in the preceding
month.
173
Requirements for becoming a LTM
Going Long
174
When an investor goes long - that is, enters a contract by agreeing to buy
and receive delivery of the underlying at a set price - it means that he or she is
trying to profit from an anticipated future price increase.
Going Short
A speculator who goes short - that is, enters into a futures contract by
agreeing to sell and deliver the underlying at a set price - is looking to make a
profit from declining price levels. By selling high now, the contract can be
repurchased in the future at a lower price, thus generating a profit for the
speculator.
Spreads
Calendar Spread - This involves the simultaneous purchase and sale of two
futures of the same type, having the same price, but different delivery dates.
Intermarket Spread - Here the investor, with contracts of the same month,
goes long in one market and short in another market. For example, the investor
may take Short June Wheat and Long June Pork Bellies.
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created in different futures exchanges. For example, the investor may create a
position in the Chicago Board of Trade (CBOT) and the London International
Financial Futures and Options Exchange (LIFFE).
To illustrate the coverage of risk, assume that you expect a future cash
inflow of Rs.50,000 a month hence, which you wish to invest in equities. But
the market is bullish and prices are expected to rise. Then you buy an index
future contract to are the expected rise in price. You can also seli short if the
market is expected to fall in prices. Suppose, you have the securities in your
portfolio and expect the market to fall then you can sell the futures, instead of
the securities. If the actual fall lore than the expected price, you will receive
the difference in cash. A bullish expectation makes you buy the futures
contract and a bearish expectation makes you the futures contract. If your
expectations are correctly realised, you can make they on the deals without
actually buying and selling the underlying securities. s will enable you to trade
on a smaller investment as the margins you have to p for trading in Futures is
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generally 6 to 10%, and the loss of interest money is expensive then the loss of
interest on a bigger outlay involved in buying and mg for deliveries of
underlying securities or shares or bonds.
Credit risk
Liquidity risk
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Liquidity in any market refers to the possibility for traders to enter and
exit positions with relative ease in relation to volume and size of transactions.
Highly liquid markets also reduce the impact costs of transactions which result
from fluctuations in prices when large transactions are pushed through in a less
liquid market. (The difference between the market price before the sale offer and
the price at which the bonds are sold constitutes the impact cost for the seller).
The market for government securities and short term money markets are
very liquid where the impact costs are almost negligible, but, the returns offered
by these assets are much lower than the relatively illiquid corporate bonds.
Price risks
Corporate bonds will always be rated by a reputed rating agency for their
creditworthiness which may be changed to reflect the changes in the economy,
industry or the company in question. These rate changes can affect the market
prices of the bonds. This exposes the fund investing in such bonds to a price
risk.
Market prices of all fixed income securities are largely dependent on the
prevailing interest rate in the economy. If interest rates are expected to come
down in future, bonds issued in the past would become more attractive and vice
verse.
Like equity funds, fixed income funds can also hedge their price risks by
entering into derivative transactions. However, fixed income derivatives are not
easily understood and they are not traded in an open market like stock futures.
Two common derivatives used by fixed income funds are:
Interest rates are of two types, fixed interest rates and floating rates
which vary according to changes in a standard benchmark interest rate. An
investor holding a security which pays a floating interest rate is exposed to
interest rate risk. The investor can manage this risk by entering into an interest
rate swap.
For example, take the case of a mutual fund which has invested Rs.50
crore in a floating interest bond of one year maturity. The interest payable by the
issuer of the bond is not fixed and will vary with the changes in the benchmark
interest rate specified.
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The mutual fund can enter into an interest rate swap agreement with a
counter party who will guarantee to pay interest at a fixed rate, say 10 per cent,
on the notional amount of Rs.50 crore for a period of one year. In return, the
fund will guarantee to pay the counter party interest at the benchmark rate on
Rs.50 crore for one year. In other words, the fund will pass on the interest
received on its investment in floating rate bond to the counter party and receive
a fixed interest in return.
In practice, at the end of the contract period the total interest payable by
each party is calculated and the net amount is settled in cash. If the benchmark
rate, compounded daily for one year as it fluctuates on a daily basis, is lower
than 10 per cent the mutual fund will receive the difference from the counter
party. If it is the other way round the fund will pay the difference to the counter
party. Either way, the fund is assured of an interest rate of 10 per cent whatever
happens to the benchmark rate.
The above equation means that the present price of futures, will equal
present price of Index plus the "cost of carry”, which equals (Rf - D), namely,
the interest obtainable on risk-free asset (Rf) minus dividend on Index Shares
(D). The cost of purchasing the Index Shares is substantially higher than the
cost of buying the futures contract for the same index. The money used to buy
the futures will involve interest cost and by not buying the shares, dividends
are lost. Assume that the money used to purchase the index shares is invested
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in Treasury bills to give risk free return (Rf). If Rf is less than the dividends
lost, the futures price will be below the Index price (that is Fa < I.) and (RF<D).
While stock index future provide low cost and efficient method of
insuring inst systematic risk of the portfolio, futures on bonds and Treasury
bills provide risk coverage to interest rate risk, which is the largest source of
systematic risk lading fixed income securities.
Treasury Note futures are more popular and easy to understand and
operate. These contracts are available for delivery dates in March, June, Sept.
and Dec. for delivery dates of upto two years from the current date. Yields are
basic unit on which prices are determined.
Deliverable grade is also set out in the terms of the contract as for
example 8%coupon Bill with a maturity period of 6.5 years to 10 years. There
are some futures on long-term honds, like Mortgage Bonds, U.S. Gulf honds,
Municipal Bonds etc. The hond that is cheapest to deliver is used for delivery
by traders.
Bonds sell in the cash market at varying prices, some above and some-
low the converted price of the futures contracts futures prices x conversion
factor). The conversion factors are equal to the ratio of the actual price of the
deliverable bond, to the delivery price of the futures contract; the bond that is
cheapest to deliver is used for delivery by traders and that is decided by the
bond, for which the difference between the invoice price and market price is the
most positive.
Futures price = cash price + carrying costs
Duration Effect
Using the above futures on fixed income securities, the duration of the
portfolio can be changed. Instead of buying in the cash market, it is cheaper
to hedge in futures. If interest rates are likely to increase, the investor should
shorten. to duration of the portfolio and vice versa. He then uses in technique
of buying or selling the futures to lengthen or shorte9 the duration,
respectively. This effect on portfolio is caused duration effect of futures.
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Portfolio can have reduced duration by selling short in futures and
increased duration by buying futures. If cash is expected and interest rates are
likely to futures pushing up the prices of bonds, then investor can go tong in
futures and when funds come in, the futures can be converted into cash
purchase of bonds or the underlying security. The opposite stand can be taken
(if an) outflow of cash is expected at a I specific time period in future.
Hedging Effect:
The above bond’s risk is substantial when the cross hedging is one.
Cross hedging is hedging in a bland futures, which is not identical with the
bland to be hedged and held in the portfolio. A hedged position thus creates a
b3Sis risk which can be reduced or eliminated by taking extreme caution and
use of expertise in anticipation of the proper time and bond to be hedged.
The futures on fixed income security, say a bond, can be used to improve
yields also. What hedging has done is to reduce the risk on the portfolio by
holding a long term bond for a short maturity. As the price of the futures is
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fixed, the risk is nil on this period of the futures say 3 months, and the ten year
bond of 10 years, purch3Sed will have greater risk than a riskless bond of 3
months in futures plus a 9 year 9 month bond in the portfolio. The holding of a
riskless bond for short period.. of time in the futures, reduces the risk. This
process may, or may not increase the yield however .
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Under some market conditions, the prices of security futures may
not maintain their customary or anticipated relationships to the
prices of the underlying security or index. This can occur, for
example, when the market for the security futures contract is illiquid
and lacks trading interest, when the primary market for the
underlying security is closed, or when the reporting of transactions in
the underlying security has been delayed. For index products, this
could also occur when trading is delayed or halted in some or all of
the securities that make up the index.
May experience losses due to computer systems failures. As with
any financial transaction, one may experience losses if the orders
cannot be executed normally due to systems failures on a regulated
exchange or at the firm carrying the position and the losses may be
greater if the brokerage firm does not have adequate back-up systems
or procedures.
Placing contingent orders, if permitted, such as " stop-loss" or
" stop-limit" orders, will not necessarily limit your losses to the
intended amount. Market conditions may make it impossible to
execute the order or to get the stop price.
Day trading strategies involving security futures pose special
risks. As with any financial product, seeking to profit from intra-day
price movements poses a number of risks, including increased
trading costs, greater exposure to leverage, and heightened
competition with professional traders.
187
contract; (3) that obligates each party to the contract to fulfill it at the specified
price; (4) that is used to assume or shift risk; and (5) that may be satisfied by
delivery or offset.
Narrow-based security index - In general, an index that has any one of the
following four characteristics: (1) it has nine or fewer component securities; (2)
any one of its component securities make up more than 30% of its weighting; (3)
the five highest weighted component securities together make up more than 60%
of its weighting; or (4) the lowest weighted component securities making up, in
the aggregate, 25% of the index's weighting have an aggregate dollar value of
average daily trading volume of less than $50 million (or in the case of an index
with 15 or more component securities, $30 million).
Nominal value - The face value of the futures contract, obtained by multiplying
the contract price by the number of shares or units per contract. If XYZ stock
index futures are trading at $.50.25 and the contract is for 100 shares of XYZ
stock, the nominal value of the futures contract would be $5,025.
Settlement price - 1) The daily price that the clearing organization uses to mark
open positions to market for determining profit and loss and margin calls and for
invoicing deliveries in physical delivery contracts, 2) The price at which open
cash settlement contracts are settled on the last trading day and open physical
delivery contracts are invoiced for delivery.
Spread - 1) Holding a long position in one futures contract and a short position
in a related futures contract or contract month in order to profit from an
anticipated change in the price relationship between the two, 2) The price
difference between two contracts or contract months.
188
2.28. REFERENCES:
10. Hull, J.: Options: Futures and other Derivatives, Prentice Hall, New Delhi.
12. Kolb, Robert W: Understanding Futures Markets, Prentice Hall Inc., New
Delhi.
13. www.bseindia.com
189
UNIT - IV
TECHNICAL ANALYSIS
Basic assumption
1. The market and / or an individual stock act like a barometer rather than a
thermometer. Events are usually discounted in advance with movements as the
likely result of informed buyers and sellers at work.
190
accumulation or distribution within net natural price patterns will be, therefore, a
most essential pre-requisite.
3. The third assumption is an observation that deals with the scope and
extends of market movements in relation to each other. In most cases, a small
phase of stock price consolidation – which is really phase of backing and filling
– will be followed by a relative short-term movement, up or down, in the stocks
price. On the other hand a larger consolidation phase can lead to a greater
potential stock price move.
Technical analysts, while defining their own theory about stock price
behavior and criticizing the fundamental school, do feel that there is some merit
in the fundamental analysis also. But according to them, the method is very
191
tedious and it takes a rather long time for the common man to evaluate stocks
through this method. They consider their own techniques and charts as superior
to fundamental analysis. Some of their theories, techniques and methods of
stock prices are given below:
Support and Resistance levels: Chartists assume that it is difficult for the price
of a share to rise above a certain level called the resistance level and fall below a
certain level called a support level. Why? The explanation for the first claim
goes as follows. If investors find that prices fall after their purchases, they
continue to hang on to their shares in the hope of a recovery. And when the price
rebounds to the level of their purchase price, they tend to sell and heave sigh of
relief as they break even. Such a behavioral tendency on the part of investors
stimulates considerable supply when the price rebounds to the level at which
192
substantial purchases were made by the investors. As a result, the share is not
likely to rise above this level, the resistance level.
Dow Theory is the oldest and best known theory of technical analysis. In
the words of Charles Dow, “The market is always considered as having three
movements, all going at the same time. The first is the narrow movement from
day to day. The second is the short swing, running from two weeks to a month
or more; the third is the main movement, covering at least four years in its
duration.”
Proponents of the Wow theory refer to the three movements as: (a) daily
fluctuations that are random day-to-day wiggles; (b) secondary movements or
corrections that may last for a few weeks to some months; and (c) primary
trends representing bull and bear phases of the market.
193
high point of each rally is lower than the high point of the preceding rally and
the low point of each decline is lower than the low point of the preceding
decline.
Fig. 1
Bar and Line Charts
The bar chart, one of the simplest and most commonly used tools of
technical analysis, depicts the daily price range along with the closing price. In
addition, it may show the daily volume of transactions. Figure 2 shows an
illustrative bar chart. The upper end of each bar represents the day’s highest
price and the lower end the day’s lowest price. The small cross across the bar
marks the day’s closing price.
A line chart, a simplification over the bar chart, shows the line
connecting successive closing prices. Figure 3 shows the line chart.
Fig.2 Fig. 3
194
Technical analysts believe that certain formations or patterns observed on
the bar chart or line chart have predictive value. The more important formations
and their indications are described below.
Head and Shoulders Top (HST) formation has a left shoulder, a head, and a
right shoulder. The HST formation represents a bearish development. If the
price falls below the neckline (the line drawn tangentially to the left and right
shoulders), a price decline is expected. Hence, it is a signal to sell.
Inverse Head and Shoulders Top (IHST) formation is the inverse of the HST
formation. Hence, it reflects a bullish development. If the price rises above the
neckline, a price rise is expected. Hence, it is signaling to buy.
Flags and Pennants Formation typically signifies a pause after which the
previous price trend is likely to continue.
The point and figure charts are represented by Xs and Os. These are
more difficult to calculate the stock prices than the line charts and bar charts.
These are drawn by the technical analysts to make a forecast of prices and also
195
to find out the trend in prices. It is usually the reversal in trend which can be
found out by sub-charts. The price forecasts made by the point and figure charts
are called price targets.
Fig. 5
Technical indicators
The Short Interest Ratio Theory: The short interest ratio is derived by
dividing the reported short interest or the number of shares sold short, by the
average volume for about 30 days. When short sales increase relative to total
volume, the indicator rises. A ratio above 150per cent is considered bullish, and
a ratio below 100 per cent is considered bearish.
The logic behind this ratio is that speculators and other investors sell
stocks at high prices in anticipation of buying them back at lower prices. Thus,
increasing short selling is viewed as a sign of general market weakness, and
short covering (as evidenced by decreasing short positions) as a sign of strength.
An existing large short interest is considered a sign of strength, since the covers
(buyers) are yet to come; whereas an established slight short interest is
considered a sign of weakness (more short sales are to come).
196
relatively more of the higher grade securities, this is taken as an indication that
confidence is low, and is reflected in a low ratio.
Spreads: Large spreads between yields indicate low confidence and are bearish;
the market appears to require a large compensation for business, financial and
inflation risks. Small spreads indicate high confidence and are bullish. In short,
the larger the spreads, the lower the ratio and the less the confidence. The
smaller the spreads, the greater the ratio, indicating greater confidence.
Market Breadth Index is a variant of the advance decline ratio. To compute it,
we take the net difference between the number of stocks rising and the number
of stocks falling added (or subtracted) to the previous. For example, if in a given
week 600 shares advanced, 200 shares declined, and 200 were unchanged, the
breadth would be 2[(600-200)/200]. The figure of each week is added to
previous weeks. These data are than plotted to establish the pattern of movement
of advances and declines.
197
lot ratio is sometimes referred to as a yardstick of uniformed sentiment or an
index of contrary opinion because the odd- lot theory assumes that small buyers
or sellers are not very bright especially at tops and bottoms when they nee to be
brightest. The odd-lot short ratio theory assumes that the odd-lot short sellers are
even more likely to be wrong than odd-lotters in general. This indicator relates
odd-lot sales to purchases.
198
Advocates of moving averages in stock selection believe that changes in
slope of the line are important. A stock twenty-day moving average line has been
trending up might become a candidate for sale if the line turns downward.
Conclusion:
200
Review Questions
1. Explain in detail the Dow Theory and how is it used to determine the
direction of stock market?
2. How are odd lot and short sales index used to determine the direction of the
market?
3. ‘Chart patterns are helpful in predicting the stock price movement’.
Comment.
4. Discuss the relationship between fundamental analysis and efficient market
hypotheses.
5. Technical analysis is based on Dow Jones Theory. Elucidate?
6. What are charts? How are they interpreted in technical analysis?
201
EFFICIENT MARKET THEORY
202
The requirements for a securities market to be efficient market are; (1)
Prices must be efficient so that new inventions and better products will cause a
firm’s securities prices to rise and motivate investors to supply capital to the
firm (i.e., buy its stock); (2) Information must be discussed freely and quickly
across the nations so all investors can react to new information; (3)
Transactions costs such as sales commissions on securities are ignored; (4)
Taxes are assumed to have no noticeable effect on investment policy; (5) Every
investor is allowed to borrow or lend at the same rate; and, finally, (6) Investors
must be rational and able to recognize efficient assets and that they will want to
invest money where it is needed most (i.e., in the assets with relatively high
returns).
The week form of market holds that present stock market prices reflect
all known information with respect to past stock prices, trends, and volumes.
This form of theory is just the opposite of the technical analysis because
according to it, the sequence of prices occurring historically does not have any
value for predicting the future stocks prices. The technical analysts rely
completely on charts and past behavior of prices of stocks.
203
In the week form of the market no investor can use any information of
the past to earn a return of portfolio which is in excess of the portfolio’s risk.
This means that the investor who develops the strategy based on past prices and
chooses his portfolio on that basis cannot continuously out perform another
investor who ‘buys and holds’ his investments over a long term period.
The question which has rapidly been studied is whether “security prices
follow a random walk.” A random walk when it is applied to security prices
means that all price changes which have occurred today are completely
independent of the prices prior to this day in all respects. The weak form of the
efficient market theory takes into consideration only the average change of
today’s prices and states that they are independent of all prior prices. The
evidence supporting the random walk behavior also supports the efficient market
hypothesis and states that the large price changes are followed by larger price
changes, but they do not change in any direction which can be predicated. This
observation in a way violates the random walk behavior that it does not violate
the weak form of the market efficiency. Researches have studied that the
evidence which supports the efficient market behavior is based on the random
walk behavior of security prices but there is evidence which contradicts the
random walk hypothesis. This does not mean that it contradicts the efficient
market hypothesis also.
204
correlations. Is the price change in one period correlated with the price change in
some other period? If such auto-correlations are negligible, the price changes are
considered to be serially independent. Numerous serial correlation studies,
employing different stocks, different time-lags, and different time-periods, have
been conducted to detect serial correlations. In general, these studies have failed
to discover any significant serial correlations.
Moore measured correlation of the price change of one week with the
price change of the next week with the price change of the next week. His
research showed average serial correlation of -0.06 which indicated a very low
tendency of security price to reverse dates. This means that a price rise did not
show the tendency to follow the price fall or vice versa. Fama also tested the
serial correlation of daily price changes in 1965. He studied the correlation for
30 firms which composed of the Dow Jones Industrial Averages for five years
before 1962. His study showed an average correlation of -0.03. This correlation
was also weak because it was not very far away from zero.
Run Test: Ren Test was also made by Fama to find out it price changes were
likely to be followed by further price changes of the same sign. Run Test
ignored the absolute values of numbers in the series and took into the research
only the positive and negative signs. Given a series of stock price changes, each
price (+) id it represents an increase or a minus (-) if it represents a decrease. A
run occurs when there is not difference between the sign of two changes. When
the sign of change differs, the run ends and a new run begin. To test a series of
price changes for independence, the number of runs in that series is compared to
see whether it is statistically different from the number of runs in a purely
random series of the same size. Many studies have been carried out, employing
the runs test of independence. They did not detect any significant relationship
205
between the returns of security in one period and the returns in prior periods and
made a conclusion that the security prices followed a random walk.
Filter Rules Test: The use of charts is essentially a technique for filtering out
the important information from the unimportant. Alexander and Fama and
Blume took the idea that price and volume data are supposed to tell the entire
story we need to know to identify the important action in stock prices. They
applied filter rules to see how well price changes pick up both trends and
reverses – which chartists claim their charts do. If a stock moves up X per cent,
buy it and hold it long; if it then reverses itself by the same percentage, sell it
and take a short position in it. When the stock reverses itself again by X per
cent cover the short position and buy the stock long.
The size of the filter varied from 0.5 to 50 percent. The results showed
that the larger filter did not work well. The smaller ones worked better, since
they were more sensitive to market swings. However, when trading costs are
included in the analysis, no filter worked well. In fact, substantial losses would
have been incurred using these filter rules.
In essence the result of using the filter technique turn out to be that stock
prices do not have momentum from which one can make returns in excess of
those warranted by the level of risk assumed. In fact, because of trading costs,
we would have been substantially better off buying a random set of stocks and
holding them during the same trading period.
The semi strong form of the efficient market hypothesis centers on how
rapidly and efficiently market prices adjust to new publicly available
information. In this state, the market reflects even those forms of information
206
which may be concerning the announcement of a firm’s most recent earnings
forecast and adjustments which will have taken place in the prices of security.
The investor in the semi-strong form of the market will find it impossible to earn
a return on the portfolio which is based on the publicly available information in
excess of the return which may be said to be commensurate with the portfolio
risk. Many empirical studies have been made on the semi-strong form of the
efficient market hypothesis to study the reaction of security prices to various
types of information around the announcement time of the information.
Event Study examines the market reactions to and the excess market returns
around a specific information event like acquisition announcement or stock split.
The key steps involved in an event study are as follows:
1. Identify the event to be studied and pinpoint the date on which the
event was announced.
2. Collect returns data around the announcement date. In this context two
issues have to be resolved: What should be the period for calculating
returns – weekly, daily, or some other interval? For how many periods
should returns be calculated before and after the announcement date?
3. Calculate the excess returns, by period, around the announcement date
for each firm in the sample. The excess return is calculated by making
adjustment for market performance and risk.
4. Compute the average and the standard error of excess returns across all
firms
5. Assess whether the excess returns around the announcement date are
different from zero. To determine whether the excess returns around
207
the announcement date are different from zero, estimate the T statistic
for each day.
The results of event studies are mixed. Most event studies support the
semi-strong from efficient market hypothesis. Several event studies, however,
have cast their shadow over the validity of the semi strong form efficient
markets theory.
208
average excess returns differ across these portfolios. Some of these
tests are parametric and some nonparametric.
Many portfolio studies suggest that it is not possible to earn superior risk-
adjusted returns by trading on some observable characteristics. However,
several portfolio studies have documented inefficiencies and anomalies.
Strong-Form of EMH
209
Low Price-to Book value Ratio: Stocks whose stock prices are less that their
respective book values
Stocks with High Relative Strength: Stocks whose prices have risen faster
relative to the overall market
Several studies have found that stock returns over longer time horizons
(in excess of one year) display significant negative serial correlation. This
means that high returns in one time period tend to be followed by low returns in
the next period, and vice versa.
Market overreaction may offer the best explanation for several of the
anomalies. For example, low price-to-earnings ratio (P/E) stocks may be
analogous to the losers we described above, or they may be the current investor
favorites, or winners. As the market demonstrates almost daily, today’s favorite
stocks can fall from grace and reverse direction very quickly.
211
There are many studies, done by both academics and practitioners that
suggest that buying stocks with low price-to-sales rations, low price-to-book
ratios, or low P/E ratios produced returns that were higher, on average, than
those from the overall market, even after adjusting for higher transactions costs.
These findings support the notion that contrarian/value investing may indeed
work.
For another caveat, remember that very good economic reason may drive
some reversals. Reversing prices may be responding to new information and
correcting an overreaction. Also, a poor performer may continue to perform
poorly as the company continues to slide downhill. The fact that a company had
a lousy year this year does not mean it will automatically have a good one next
year. Further, the timing of a reversal can be very difficult to predict. Investors
have shunned some individual stocks and groups of stocks for long periods of
time, whereas other stocks have revered direction quickly.
212
Remember, apparent past success of value investing is no guarantee that it will
work in the future.
Calendar-Based Anomalies: Are there better times to own stocks than others?
Should you avoid stocks on certain days? The evidence seems to suggest that
several calendar-based anomalies exist. The two best known, and widely
documented, are the weekend effect and the January effect.
Weekend Effect: Studies of daily returns began with the goal of testing
whether the markets operate on calendar time or trading time. In other words,
are returns for Mondays (i.e., returns over Friday-to-Monday periods) different
from the other day of the week returns? The answer to the question turned out to
be yes, the trend was called the weekend effect. Monday returns were
substantially lower than other daily returns. One study found that Mondays
produced a mean return of almost-35 percent. By contrast, the mean annualized
returns on Wednesdays was more than +25 per cent.
The January Effect: Stock returns appear to exhibit seasonal return patterns as
well. In other words, returns are systematically higher in some months than in
others. Initial studies found that returns were higher in January for all stocks
(thus this anomaly was dubbed the January effect) whereas later studies found
the January effect was more pronounced for small stocks than for large ones.
One widely accepted explanation for the January effect is tax-loss selling
by the investors at the end of December. Because this selling pressure depresses
prices at the end of the year, it would be reasonable to expect a bounce-back in
prices during January. Small stocks, the argument goes, are more susceptible to
the January effect because their prices are more volatile, and institutional
213
investors (many of whom are tax-exempt) are less likely to invest in shares of
small companies.
Two explanations for the small-firm effect seem plausible to us. The first
is that analysts have applied the wrong risk measures to evaluate returns from
small stocks. Small stocks may well be riskier than these traditional risk
measures indicate. If proper risk measures were used, the argument goes, the
214
small-firm effect might disappear, and Small-firm stocks may not generate larger
risk-adjusted returns than large stocks. Although the risk of small stocks may not
be adequately captured by standard risk measures, it is hard to believe that better
measures of risk would eliminate the entire small-firm effect.
Conclusion
Review Questions
1. What are the empirical evidences of the weak form of market efficiency?
2. Discuss the results of the studies that support the semi-strong form of EMH.
3. Explain the strong form of market efficiency with empirical evidences.
4. How does efficient market hypothesis differ from the technical analysis?
5 What is Random Walk theory? What does it project in its weak form, semi-
strong form and strong form?
6. Discuss the empirical tests conducted on the different forms of the random
walk.
7. The random walk hypothesis resembles the fundamental school of
thought but is contrary to the technical analysis. Discuss?
8. Define the various forms of the market efficiency. What do they have in
common?
9. “Indian stock market is efficient”. Do you agree? Discuss.
216
PORTFOLIO ANALYSIS
Returns
217
Table-1B combines the information in a different manner. The portfolio’s
expected holding-period value-relative is simply a weighted average of the
expected value-relative of its component securities, using current market values
as weights.Table-1C provides holding-period returns. It is simply 100 times the
value obtained by subtracting one from the holding period value- relative. Thus
a weighted average of the former will have the same characteristics as a
weighted average of the former will have the same characteristics as a weighted
average of the latter.
TABLE 1
(a) Security and Portfolio Values
Expected End- Expected End-
No. of Current
Current of- of-
Security Price
Shares Value Period Share Period Share
Per Share
Price Value
1 2 3 4 5 6
A 100 Rs.15.00 1,500 Rs.18.00 Rs.1,800
B 150 20.00 3,000 22.00 3,300
C 200 40.00 8,000 45.00 9,000
D 250 25.00 6,250 30.00 7,500
E 100 12.50 1,250 15.00 1,500
Rs.20,000 Rs.23,100
218
Security and Portfolio Values-Relatives
Contributio
Proportio Expecte Expecte n to
Sec n of Current d d Portfolio
urit Current Current Price End-of- Holding Expected
y Value value Per Period -Period Holding-
of Share Share value- Period
Properties Price Relative Value-
Relative
3=2
1 2 4 5 6=5/4 7=3x6
Rs.20,000
A 1,500 .0750 Rs.15.00 Rs.18.00 1.200 0.090000
B 3,000 .1500 20.00 22.00 1.100 0.165000
C 8,000 .4000 40.00 45.00 1.125 0.450000
D 6,250 .3125 25.00 30.00 1.200 0.375000
E 1,250 .0625 12.50 15.00 1.200 0.075000
Rs.20,000 1.0000 1.155000
219
security: the one which is considered to have the greatest expected return. Very
few investors do this, and very view investment advisers would counsel such an
extreme policy. Instead, investors should diversify, meaning that their portfolio
should include more than one security. This is because diversification can
reduce risk.
Risk
The probability of loss is the essence of risk. A useful measure of risk
takes into account both the probability of various possible “bad” outcomes and
their associated magnitudes. Instead of measuring the probability of a number of
different possible outcomes, the measure of risk should somehow estimate the
extent to which the actual outcome is likely to diverge from the expected.
Two measures used for this purpose are the mean absolute deviation and
the standard deviation. Table 2A shows how the average absolute deviation can
be calculated. First the expected return is determined; In this case it is 10.00 per
cent. Next, each possible outcome is analyzed to determine the amount by which
the value deviated from the expected amount. These figures shown in Column
(5) of the table include both positive and negative values. As shown in Column
(6), a weighted average, using probabilities as weights, will equal zero. This is a
mathematical necessity, given the way expected value is calculated. To assess
the risk the signs of deviations can simply be ignored. As shown in column (7),
the weighted average of the absolute values of the deviations, using the
probabilities as weights, is 10 per cent. This constitutes the first measure of
“likely” deviation.
220
TABLE 2
A. Calculating the Mean Absolute Deviation
Probabilit
Probabilit Probability
Even Probabilit Return Deviati y
y X Absolute
t y % on X
X Return Deviation
Deviation
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
a .20 -10 -2.0 -25.0 -5.0 5.0
b .40 25 10.0 10.0 4.0 4.0
c .30 20 6.0 5.0 1.5 1.5
d .10 10 -1.0 -5.0 -0.5 0.5
Expected Return = 15.0 0 Average =
10.0
Absolute
Deviation
221
Although the two measures are often interchangeable in this manner, the
standard deviation is generally preferred for investment analysis. The reason is
simple. The standard deviation of a portfolio’s return can be determined from
(among other things) the standard deviations of the returns of its components
securities, no matter what the distributions. No relationship of comparable
simplicity exists for the average absolute deviations.
When an analyst predicts that a security will return 15% next year, he or
she is presumably stating something comparable to an expected value. If asked
to express the uncertainty about the outcome, he or she might reply that the odds
are 2 out of 3 that the actual return will be within 10% of the estimate (i.e. 5%
and 25%). The standard deviation is a formal measure of uncertainty, or risk,
expressed in this manner, just as the expected value is a formal measure of a
“best guess” estimate. Most analysts make such predictions directly, without
explicitly assessing probabilities and making the requisite computations.
Portfolio Risk
222
proportionate values as weights (17.0% = 6 x 15% + 4 x 20%). However, this is
not true for either the variance or the standard deviation of return for the
portfolio smaller than the corresponding values for either of the component
securities. This rather surprising result has a simple explanation. The risk of a
portfolio depends not only on the risk of its securities, considered in isolation,
but also on the extent to which they are affected similarly by underlying events.
To illustrate this, two extreme cases are shown in Table 4. In the first case both
TABLE 3
Portfolio and Security Risks
A. RETURN
Even Return on Return on
Probability Return on Portfolio
t Security X Security Y
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) = 6 x (3) + 4 x (4)
a .20 -10% 5.0% -4.0%
b .40 25 30.0 27.0
c .30 20 20.0 20.0
d .10 10 10.0 10.0
B. SUMMARY MEASURES
Security X Security Y Portfolio
Expected Return 15.0 20.0 17.0
Variance of Return 175.0 95.0 135.8
Standard deviation of 13.2287 9.7468 11.65
Return
223
C. COVARIANCE AND CORRELATIONS
Deviation
Deviation
of Return Probability
Even Probabilit of Return Product of
for Times Product
t y for Security Deviation
Security Y of Deviation
X
(5) = (3) x
(1) (2) (3) (4) (6) = (2) x (5)
(4)
a .20 -25.0% -15.0% 375 75.00
b .40 10.0 10.0 100 40.00
c .30 5.0 0 0 0
d .10 -5.0 -10.0 50 5.00
Covariance = 120
120.00
Correlation co-efficient = = 0.9307
13.2287 x 9.7468
The variance and the standard deviation of the portfolio are the same as
the corresponding values for the securities. Then diversification has no effect
at all on risk. In the second case the situation is very different. Here the
security’s returns offset one another in such a manner that the particular
combination that makes up this portfolio has no risk at all. Diversification has
completely eliminated risk. The difference between these two cases concerns the
extent to which the security’s returns are correlated i.e., tend to “to-together”.
Either of two measures can be used to state the degree of such a relationship: the
covariance or the correlation co-efficient.
224
TABLE 4
Risk and Return for a Two-Security Portfolio
A. TWO SECURITIES WITH EQUAL RETURNS
Even Return on Return on Return on
t Probability
Security X % Security Y % Portfolio
(5) = 6 x (3) + 4 x
(1) (2) (3) (4) (4)
A .20 -10.0 -10.0 -10.0
B .40 25.0 25.0 25.0
C .30 20.0 20.0 20.0
D .10 10.0 10.0 10.0
Expected Return 15.0 15.0 15.0
Variance of Return 175.0 175.0 175.0
Standard deviation of 13.2287 13.2287 13.2287
Return
The computations required to obtain the covariance for the two securities
are presented in Tab le 3C. The deviation of each security’s return from its
expected value is determined and the product of the two obtained (column 5).
The variance is simply a weighted average of such products, using the
probabilities of the events as weights. A positive value for the covariance
225
indicates that the securities returns tend to go together – for example, a better-
that-expected return for one is likely to occur along with a better-than-expected
return for the other. A small or zero value for the covariance indicates that there
is little or no relationship between the two returns. The correlation coefficient is
obtained by dividing the covariance by the product of the two security’s
standard deviation. As shown in Table – 3C, in this case the value is 0.9307.
226
CXY = the covariance between the return on security X and the return
On security Y.
WX = the proportion of the portfolio’s value invested in security X.
WY = the proportion of the portfolio’s value invested in security Y.
For the case shown in Table-3
WX = 0.6; WY = .4
VX = 175.0 VY = 95.0 CXY = 120.00
Inserting these values in formula (3), we get the variance of the portfolio as a
whole:
VP = (0.6)2 x 175.0 + 2 x .6 x .4 x 120 + (0.4) 2 x 95.0
= 63.00 + 57.60 + 15.20
= 135.80
The relationship that gives the variance for a portfolio with more than
two securities is similar in nature but more extensive. Both the risks of the
securities and all their correlations have to be taken into account. The formula
is:
N N
VP = WX WY CXY (4)
x=1 y=1
N N
= WX WY rXY X Y
x=1 y=1
where
:
VP = the variance of return for the portfolio.
WX = the proportion of the portfolio’s value invested in security X. WY
= the proportion of the portfolio’s value invested in security Y. CXY =
the covariance between the return on security X and the return
On security Y.
N = the number of securities.
227
The two summation signs mean that every possible combination must be
included in the total, with a value between 1 and N substituted where x appears
and a value between 1 and N substituted where y appears. In those cases in
which the values are the same, the relevant covariance is that between a
security’s return and itself.
The returns from two securities are perfectly positively correlated when a
cross-plot gives points lying precisely on a upward-sloping straight line, as
shown in Figure – 1A. Each point indicates the return on security A (horizontal
axis) and the return on security B (vertical axis) corresponding to one event. The
example shown in Table – 4A confirms to this pattern.
What is the effect on risk when two securities of this type are combined?
The general formula is:
VP = W2XVX + 2WXWYCXY + W2YVY
The covariance term can, of course, be replaced, using formula (1):
CXY = RXY SX SY
For this combination the parenthesized term in formula (6) will be:
S Y WY
WX SX - WY SY = SX - WY SY = 0
SX
If this term is zero, of course, the portfolio’s standard deviation of return
must be zero as well. When two securities returns are perfectly negatively
correlated, it is possible to combine them in a manner that will eliminate all risk.
Figure – 1b shows the returns from two securities perfectly negatively
correlated, a cross-plot gives points lying precisely on a downward-sloping
straight line. The example shown in Table – 4b confirms to this pattern. This
principle motivates all hedging strategies. This object is to take position that
229
will offset each other with regard to certain kinds of risk, reducing or completely
eliminating such sources of uncertainty.
Uncorrelated Returns
Thus:
Diversification has helped as the risk of the portfolio is less that the risk
of either of its component securities. The result will remain same irrespective of
the number of securities. However, when all returns are uncorrelated the
complete formula becomes:
230
S2P = W21 S21 + W22 S2 +2 ………. + W2N S2N
where:
SP …… = The standard deviation of the return on portfolio.
W1, W2..= The proportions invested in securities 1,2, etc.
S1, S2 .. = The standard deviation of the returns for securities 1,2,etc.
N = The number of securities included.
Simplifying:
S2P = N/N2 202 = 202 /N
SP = 20/N
231
included, the overall risk of the portfolio will be almost (but not quite) zero. This
is why insurance companies attempt to write many individual policies and
spread their coverage so as to minimize overall risk.
Figure 1
What happens to risk when a risk less security is combined with a risky
security (or portfolio). If security A return is certain, while that of security B is
uncertain, SA = 0, as does CAB; and the relationship becomes :
SP = W2A 0 + 2WA WB 0 + W2B S2B
Thus: SP = WB SB when SA = 0
In other words, when a risky security or portfolio is combined with a risk
less one, the risk of the combination is proportional to the amount in vested in
the risky component. An obvious case of this sort arises when an investor splits
his funds between an equity portfolio and a savings account. Table – 5 shows
some representative values, case C and D involve splitting funds between the
risky alternative B and the risk less one A. Investing in a risk less security is
equivalent to lending money.
TABLE 5
Combining A Risk less And A Risky Investment
Security Security
A B
(Savings Combinati Combin Combin
(Equity
on C ation D ation E
Portfolio
Account) )
Proportion in A(WA) 1.0 0 .7 .3 -.2
Proportion in B(WB) 0 1.0 .3 .7 1.2
Expected return 8% 23% 12% 18% 26%
Standard deviation of 0% 25% 6% 14% 30.0%
return
232
Along with the original alternatives A and B, Figure –2 portrays the
combinations C and D. Each alternative shows the expected return and risk of an
alternative combination. Since both risk and return will be proportion al to the
investment proportions in C case of this sort, both point C and point D lie on the
straight line connecting points A and B. All these alternatives have positive
individual proportions except E. As shown in Table – 5 and Figure – 2,
combination E and point E have WA equal - .20 and WB equal + 1.20.
233
Expected Return B Plus
Borrowing
B Plus
Lending
TABLE 6
Effect of Leverage
A. With a Favourable Outcome:
Investment return 23%
Return on total
.23 x 12,000 = 2,760
investment
Interest rate on loan 8%
Amount of interest .08 x Rs.2000 = 160
Net Proceeds = 2,600
Return on
investor’s
2,600
capital =
= 26%
10,000
234
B. With an Unfavorable Outcome:
Investment return 5%
Return on total
investment .05 x Rs.12,000 = Rs.600
Interest rate on loan 8%
Amount of interest .08 x Rs.2000 = 160
Net Proceeds = 440
Return on
investor’s
Rs.440
capital =
= 4.40%
10,000
Review Questions
1. How is a portfolio managed? How is it revised?
2. What is an efficient frontier? How does it establish an optimum portfolio?
3. How can an individual make an analysis of different curves to get the most
beneficial portfolio?
4. How can we arrive at the optimum portfolio?
5. What is meant by levered portfolio/ how is it constructed?
6. How would you calculate the systematic, unsystematic risk of a security and
the portfolio risk?
236
MARKOWITZ THEORY
Traditional theory was based on the fact that risk could be measured on
each individual security through the process of finding out the standard
deviation and that security should be chosen where the deviation was the lowest.
Greater variability and higher deviations showed more risk than those securities
which had lower variation. The modern theory is of the view that by
diversification, risk can be reduced. Diversification can be made by the investor
either by having a large number of shares of companies in different regions, in
different industries or those producing different types of product lines.
Diversification is important but the modern theory states that there cannot be
only diversification to achieve the maximum return. The securities have to be
evaluated and thus diversified to some limited extent within which the
maximum achievement can be sought by the investor. The theory of
diversification was based on the research work of Harry Markowitz. He is of
the view that a portfolio should be analyzed depending upon (a) the attitude of
the investor towards risk and return, and (b) the quantification of risk.
Thus, traditional theory and modern theory are both framed under the
constraints of risk and return, the former analyzing individual securities and the
latter believing in the perspective of combination of securities.
237
He considered the variance in the expected returns from investments and their
relationship to each other in constructing portfolios. Markowitz’s model is a
theoretical framework for the analysis of risk return choices. Decisions are based
on the concept of efficient portfolios. According to this theory, the effects of one
security purchase over the effects of the other security purchase are taken into
consideration and then the results are evaluated.
Assumptions
238
(g) The investor assumes that greater or larger the return that he
achieves on his investments, the higher the risk factor that
surrounds him. On the contrary, when risks are low, the return can
also be expected to be low.
(h) The investor can reduce his risk if he adds investments to his
portfolio.
It is believed that holding two securities is less risky than having only
one investment in a person’s portfolio. When two stocks are taken on a portfolio
and if they have negative correlation, then risk can be completely reduced,
because the gain on one can offset the loss on the other. The effect of two
securities can also be studied when one security is more risky when compared to
the other security. The following example shows a return of 13%. A combination
of A and E will produce superior results to an investor rather than if he was to
purchase only Stock-A. If an investor constructs his portfolio in such a way that
two-thirds of his stock consists of Stock-A and one-third of stock consists of
Stock-B, the average return of the portfolio is the weighted average return of
each security in the portfolio.
Example 1
Simple situation
239
The return on the portfolio on combining the two securities will be
RP = R1 X 1 + R2 X 2
RP = 0.10 (0.25) + 0.20 (0.75)
= 17.5%
Example 2
portfolio analysis
Thus, by putting some part of the amount in stock which is riskier stock,
i.e. ‘B’, the risk can be reduced rather than if the investor was to purchase only
Stock ‘A’. If an investor was to purchase only Stock ‘A’, his return would be
according to his expectation an average of 7.2%, which becomes as low a 7% in
depression periods and rises to 11% in boom periods. The standard deviation of
this stock is as low 2%. The investor will make a return of higher than 7.2% by
combining two-thirds of Stock ‘A’ and one-third of Stock ‘B’. Thus, the investor
is able to achieve a return of 9% and bring the risk to the minimum level. Thus,
the effect of holding two securities in a portfolio does reduce risk but research
studies have shown that it is important to know what proportion of the stock
should be brought by the investor in order to get a minimum risk, the portfolio
returns can be achieved at the higher point by setting of one variation against
another. The investor should be able to find out two investments in such a way
that one investment is giving a higher return whereas the other investment is not
performing well even though one of the securities in more risky, and it will lead
to a good combination. This is a difficult task because the investor will have to
continue to find out two securities which are related to each other inversely like
the example given for Stocks ‘A’ and ‘B’. But securities should also be
correlated to each other in such a way that maximum returns can be achieved.
Expected Return
Range of Return Deviations
of Portfolio
Stock ‘A’ 7 9.0 - .2
Stock ‘B’ 13 9.0 +4
Stock ‘A’ 11 9.0 +2
Stock ‘B’ 5 9.0 -4
Coefficient of Correlation
Example 4
Cov. XY
XY =
X Y
XY = coefficient of correlation of x and y.
Cov. XY = covariance between x and y.
X = standard deviation of x.
Y = standard deviation of y.
In the above example, coefficient of correlation =
If X = 2 Y = 4
V XY = -8/[(2)(4)] = -1
Example 5
(a) Calculate risk from the coefficient of correlation given below with
proportion of .50 and .50 for XY
246
(b) What would be the least risky combination if the correlation of the
returns of the two securities is
(i) – 1.0, (ii) 0, (iii) 0.8 (iv) 1.0
Security Nos. Expected Return. Expected.
1 5 2
2 15 8
5(.50) + 15(.50)
2.50 + 7.50 = 10.00 returns
When r = -1
èp = (0.5)2(2)2 + (0.5)2 (8)2 + (2) (0.5) (0.5) + 0(2) (8)
= (.25)(4) + (2.5)(64) x (2) (2.5)
= 1.0 + 16.0 + 0
= 17
èp = 3
When r = 0
èp = (0.5)2(2)2 + (0.5)2 (8)2 + (2) (0.5) (0.5) + (.8) (2) (8)
= (6.4)(4) + (0.4)(4) x (.32) - 16
= .17+ 6.4
= 23.4
èp = 4.2
When r = 0.8
èp = (0.5)2(2)(2)2 + (0.5) (8)2 + (2) (0.5) + (1.0) (2) (8)
= 17 + 8
= 25
= 4.7
247
When r = 1.0
èp = (0.8)2 (2)2 + (0.2)2 (8)2 + 2(.8) (.2) - 1(2) (8)
= 17 + 8
= 25
èp = 5
The least risky portfolio combination is when correlation is –1.
(b) 80% X
( c) 20% Y
èp = (0.8)2(2)2 + (.02)2 (8)2 + 2 (.8) (.2) - 1(2) (8)
= (64)(4) + (.04)(4) + .32 - 16
= 2.56 + 2.56 + 5.12
= 5.12 – 5.12
èp = 0
The least risky combination is when standard deviation is 0.
To find out proportion:
(a) Weight of Xx = èy / èx + èy
= 8/2 + 8
= 8/10
X = 80%
Y = 20%
Example 7
248
(a) What is Expected Return on a portfolio made up of 40% R and 60% S?
(b) What is the standard deviation of each stock? (c) What is the co-
variance? of R and S? (d) Determine coefficient of correlation of Stocks R
and S. (e) What is the portfolio risk made up of 40% R and 60% S?.
(a) To find out Expected Return:
10 + 16 12 + 18
40/100 + 60/10
2 2
= 14.2
16 +3 9 18 +3 9
26 18 30 18
26
x = = 13
2
x2 18
= = 9 = 3
n 2
R=3
30
x = = 15
2
18
= = 9
2
=3
S=3
249
(c) Covariance
Return Expected Difference Product
Return
Stock R 10 14.2 -4.2 9.24
(d) Correlation
rxy = +8.04/(3)(3)
= 8.04/9 = 8.93
(e) Correlation co-efficient is positive to a high degree. The risk in such a
portfolio is very high.
Example 8
Stock-X Stock-Y Portfolio Standard Deviation
100 0 2.0
80 20 0.8
66 34 0.0
20 80 2.8
0 100 4.0
When two securities are combined and one is in 50% proportion and the
other in 50%, proportion and the co-efficient of correlation is positive, then the
risk of the two securities which is the weighted sum of the individual standard
deviations as shown below will be the same as the standard deviation of
securities when calculated independently. Also, the smaller the correlation, the
greater or better the results of diversifying two securities. Standard deviation of
securities but correlation co-efficient should be less than the ratio of the smaller
standard deviation compared by the larger standard deviation.
251
In situation 1
èa
rxy < ---
èb
for example
2
- 1.00 < --
4
- 1.00 < + .50
In situation
2 rxy = + .80
2
+ .80 > --
4
+ .80 > + .50
There is no portfolio effect.
è2
2
è p = portfolio variance (expected) --- = portfolio standard deviation
p
252
Xi = proportion of portfolio which is invested in security i
Xj = proportion of portfolio which is invested in security j
rij = co-efficient of correlation between i and j
i = standard deviation of i, N = Total number of securities
j = standard deviation of j
Example 9
(b) What would be the expected return if the proportion of each security in
the portfolio were 25, 25, 50% respectively?
(a) R = R1 X1 + R2 X2 + R3 X3
= 10(.20) + 15(.20) = 20(.60)
= 2.00 + 3.00 + 12.00
= 17%
(b) R = R1 X1 + R2 X2 + R3 X3
= 10(.25) + 15(.25) = 20(.50)
= 2.50 + 3.75 + 10.00
= 16.25%
253
Example 10
Graph 1
254
(ii) Securities at BOX provide better return than ACX when correlation
is 0.
(iii) A and B are positively correlated and one cannot be offset against
another to get minimum risk and maximum return.
Graph 2
The reason for this is that the correlation coefficient lies between zero
and one. Only those assets which are perfectly positively correlated will
generate an efficient frontier which is represented by means of a straight line. It
is difficult to find negatively correlated assets. Therefore, the efficient frontier
will very rarely occur in a curve over the vertical over the vertical axis.
All portfolios will not lie on the efficient frontier which is represented by
a straight line. Some portfolios will dominate other portfolios. Selected through,
the Markowitz diversification pattern, it will be planned and scientifically
oriented. This will lie in a manner that they dominate port folios which are
simply diversified. Markowitz model is useful but difficult to use as it requires a
lot of information.
Conclusion
256
Review Questions
257
PORTFOLIO SELECTION
All investors prefer those securities which have a high return but at the
same time the risk attached to it is low. At the time of combining the securities
and constructing a portfolio of different combinations of securities, an investor
is faced with the same question of risk and return. There are three kinds of
investors. An investor who wishes to take more return and least risk, more return
with comparatively higher risk and high return with a high risk. These are
depicted as desirable conditions for an investor through the use of utility curves
called indifferent curves. Indifference curves are usually parallel and linear.
When it is drawn on a graph, it shows that the higher the investor goes on the
growth, the greater is his satisfaction. In Illustration 1, these utility graphs are
drawn. These are positively sloped for a hypothetical investor ‘X’ and the
indifference curves are from 1 to 6. The investor ‘X’ is faced with the problem of
finding out the indifference curves or portfolio tangent which will give him the
highest return. In Illustration 2, it shows that there is a combination of securities
on the indifferent curves and the efficient frontier at point ‘A’ is the best
portfolio in terms of efficiency and (b) that it represents a tangent to the
indifferent line.
The investors are happy when they get a high return even though they
have to take some additional risk with it. All indifferent curves which are given
higher satisfaction and higher return will show positively sloped lines.
Illustration 3 depicts (a) the positive sloping curves for a risk fearing investor
‘Y’. The higher the curve, the greater the satisfaction of investor ‘X’(positively
sloped), higher return for greater risk . (a) ‘A’ portfolio is efficient b) The
efficient frontier is tangent to the indifference curve (Line).
258
The investor ‘Y’ has positive sloping curves from U.1 to U.6 and his
satisfaction shows that slopes are positive and the higher he goes, the greater the
satisfaction. Illustration 4 depicts the indifferent curves of a risk lover investor
‘K’. An investor of this type will have negative sloping curves with lines convex
to the origin. Curves from U.1 to U.4 show the investment preference of a risk
lover. Investor ‘Z’ in Illustration 5 is showing that he is less risk fearing and U.1
to U.5 show his indifferent curves and his investment preferences. An investor
who is a risk averter is happy when his èp is low in his portfolio but an investor
who enjoys taking a risk is happier when the èp is higher. The slope of the
growth, that is the degree with which the indifferent curves are associated, show
the kind of risk that an investor has in mind. Illustration 16.6 shows that there
are different curves of three different kinds of slopes. There are three graphs—
curve ‘A’ shows that the investor is a risk neutral and he has constant marginal
utility is increasing. Curve ‘B’ shows that the investor is a risk neutral and he
has constant marginal utility. Curve ‘C’ represents an average investor who
would not like to take much risk and at the same time be able to get a return for
his satisfaction. Most of the investors are categorized in Curve ‘C’.
Curve A = Increasing marginal utility – Risk Lover.
Curve B = Constant marginal utility – Risk Neutral.
Curve C = Decreasing marginal utility – Risk Averse.
Illustration 1
Illustration 2
Illustration 3
Illustration 4
Illustration 5
Illustration 6
259
Optimal Portfolio
Shape has identified the best portfolio ors the optimal portfolio through
his research study and has called it the single index model. According to him,
the ‘beta ratios’ is the most important in a person’s portfolio. The optimal
portfolio is said to relate directly to the beta. it is the excessive return to beta
ratio.
Ri – RF
i
Where Ri = expected return on stocks ‘i’,
RF = return received from risk-less.
Bj = rate of return in expected change on stock ‘i’ with 1 % change
market return rate. The cut-off rate consists of various subjects which have been
constructed. The following subjects help in finding out the cut-off rate:
(a) finding out stocks of different return risk ratios.
(b) Ranking securities from higher excess return to to less
return to .
(c) Selecting to high rank securities above the cut-off rate.
(d) making a comparison of (Ri – RF) i with ‘C’ and investor in
all stocks in which (Ri – RF) i achieve the cut-off point ‘C’
(e) find cut-off rate ‘C’ A portfolio of ‘i’ stocks Ci is calculated
by:
(Rj – RF)i
èm j = 1
è2
èe2j
Ci =
2i
1 + è m j = 1
2
è ef
260
(f) after finding out the securities difference included in optimal
portfolio, calculated according to the following formula:
Zi
N
Xi = Zj
i =1
When
i Ri - R f
Zi = ‘C’
2
è ei i
The first equation gives the rate of each security on adding the total sum
should be equal to ‘1’ to ensure full investment. The second equation gives the
relative investment in each security.
261
securities and finding out the excess to beta ratios above the cut-off rate would
haves to be chosen to find out the optimum portfolio.
Portfolio betas are used to measure risk in a portfolio but with proper
diversification and elimination of unsystematic risk, the portfolio can become
efficient. Betas on a portfolio are, therefore, the weighted average of the betas of
each of the securities on the portfolio. Beta can be used to move systematic risk
above or below and since beta is measure by the market movements, therefore,
betas then the investor can be expected to be aggressive as this indicates an
aggressive portfolio. When the market price rises and moves up the corner,
portfolio ‘9’ also shows a rise. But the value of the portfolio falls whenever the
market prices fall.
Beta is a measure which has been used for reducing risk or determining
the risk and return for stocks and portfolios. A number of research studies have
been made to give indications of beta coefficient for selection of stock. When
beta is used significantly for stock selection it is to be compared with the
market. The investor can construct his portfolio by drawing the relationship of
beta coefficient with the prices prevailing in the market. When there is buoyancy
in the market, then beta coefficient which are large can be selected. These betas
would also carry with them a high risk but during the boom period, high risk is
expected. These betas would also carry with them a high risk but during the
boom period, high risk is expected to give a maximum of return. If the market is
bear market and the prices are falling, then it is possible to sell “short” stocks
263
which have high positive beta coefficient. The stocks which have a negative beta
would withstand the tag in the prices in the market. For example, when the beta
is + 1.0, the volatility which is relative to the market would indicate an average
stock. But when the beta changes to +2.0, it is excluding the value which is
provided by alpha, the stock would be estimated to show a return of 20% when
the market return is forecasted at 10%. This is in the case of a rising market. But
when the prices show a decline and the future is expected to provide a decline of
10%, then a beta which shows + 2.0 would show that it is providing a negative
return of 20% if the stock is held by the investor for very long. But if the
investor sells ‘short’ stock, then he can plan to gain 20%. But if the beta is
negatives 1.0, then there would be a gain of a positives 10%, i.e., (-1.0 x .10 )
Although betas help in selecting stock, care should be taken to select the
stock with the beta approach because selection of portfolio with beta is followed
only when the following assumptions are considered:
(a) The market movement in positives and negatives directions haves to be
carefully analyzed and
(b) The past historical considerations of beta must be analyzed for future
prediction of beta.
264
Beta has been found useful by Smith Barney research work and by a
study conducted by Barr Rosenberg and also another study by Levy. All the
three research studies have shown that beta can be used for prediction but it has
to be analyzed very carefully. Levy’s research study showed that beta was not
good when securities were to be selected individually. They were partially
useful in the selection of small portfolios but portfolio selection through beta
was very useful in the case of large portfolios which were kept by the investor
for a greater length of time. Smith Barney found that beta gives an indication for
selection of stock but it must be predicted with care. They made a study of fifty-
six stocks and found out the difference of movement of stocks during two-time
periods. This proved that when portfolios of long-time and stable securities wee
analyzed, then beta was found useful. Betas have also been found to change and
the change is related to certain factors. One of the most important factors which
have found to change or move betas are the economic factors in a country. The
information has been found to be one of the factors which have caused changes
in the beta. to find a result by predicting beta is found to be useful when beta is
quantified and the changes of the returns of individual securities and the market
have been related to the expected rate of inflation. It can be safely said that the
relationship between market and security returns are an indicator for finding out
the beta changes because return, as already studied, is related to risk and both
these factors are linked with the market behaviour of stock. The relationship
between the returns of security and changes in the economic activity of the
country are related by finding out ‘fundamental betas’.
265
(a) the sensitivity of the security to inflation;
(b) economics events as Market Index causes systematic change and
(c) Risk and return with portfolio.
266
and optimum portfolio. According to him, risks are not only systematic and
unsystematic but the latter one can be also sub-divided as “specific risk and
extra market co-variance “Specific risk which is a unique risk, is independent to
particular firm. It comprises the risk and uncertainty of only one particular firm
in isolation. The extra market co-variance is independent of the market and it
shows a tendency of the stock to move together. It also shows the co-variance of
a homogenous group of the finance group. It is in-between the systematic and
specific risk. The specific risk covers about 50% of the total risk and the co-
variance and systematic risk together comprise the other half of 50%. While
systematic risk covers all the firms, the extra market co-variance is in-between
and covers one group classification of industries. A portfolio which is properly
selected and is well diversified usually consists of 80-90% of the systematic risk
out of the total risk involved in those securities.
Review Questions
1. Discuss the significance of beta in the portfolio.
2. What is an efficient frontier? How does it establish an optimum portfolio?
3. Why are indifference curves of typical investors assumed to slope upward to
the right?
4. Explain why an indifference curves cannot intersect.
5. What is beta? Is it a better measure of risk than the standard deviation?
267
References:
268
269
UNIT – V
PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT
Syllabus
CONTENTS DESIGN:
Introduction.
Efficient Market Hypothesis
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
Portfolio Management in India
Evaluation of Portfolio management
Investment Components
Self Evaluation Questions
References.
270
INTRODUCTION
271
which by definition is an impossibility according to the EMH. Detractors of the
EMH also point to events such as the 1987 stock market crash (when the DJIA
fell by over 20% in a single day) as evidence that stock prices can seriously
deviate from their fair values.
In the weak form, no relationship exists between prior and future stock
prices. The informational value of historical data is already included in current
prices. Hence, studying previous stock prices is of no value.
In the strong form, stock prices reflect all information-public and private
(insider). A perfect market exists. No group has access to information that would
enable it to earn superior risk-adjusted returns.
Assumptions
272
Note that it is not required that the agents are rational (which is different
from rational expectations; rational agents act coldly and achieve what they set
out to do). EMH allows that when faced with new information, some investors
may overreact and some may under react. All that is required by the EMH is that
investors' reactions be random enough that the net effect on market prices cannot
be reliably exploited to make an abnormal profit. Thus, anyone person can be
wrong about the market--indeed, everyone can be--but the market as a whole is
always right.
There are three common forms in which the efficient market hypothesis
is commonly stated — weak form efficiency, semi-strong form efficiency and
strong form efficiency, each of which have different implications for how
markets work.
Weak-Form Efficiency
273
Semi-Strong Form Efficiency
Share prices adjust within an arbitrarily small but finite amount of time
and in an unbiased fashion to publicly available new information, so that
no excess returns can be earned by trading on that information.
Semi-strong-form efficiency implies that Fundamental analysis
techniques will not be able to reliably produce excess returns.
To test for semi-strong-form efficiency, the adjustments to previously
unknown news must be of a reasonable size and must be instantaneous.
To test for this, consistent upward or downward adjustments after the
initial change must be looked for. If there are any such adjustments it
would suggest that investors had interpreted the information in a biased
fashion and hence in an inefficient manner.
Strong-Form Efficiency
Share prices reflect all information and no one can earn excess returns.
If there are legal barriers to private information becoming public, as with
insider trading laws, strong-form efficiency is impossible, except in the
case where the laws are universally ignored.
To test for strong form efficiency, a market needs to exist where
investors cannot consistently earn excess returns over a long period of
time. Even though many fund managers have consistently beaten the
market, this does not necessarily invalidate strong-form efficiency. We
need to find out how many managers in fact do beat the market, how
many match it, and how many under perform it. The results imply that
performance relative to the market is more or less normally distributed,
so that a certain percentage of managers can be expected to beat the
market. Given that there are tens of thousand of fund managers
274
worldwide, then having a few dozen star performers is perfectly
consistent with statistical expectations.
Some observers dispute the notion that markets behave consistently with
the efficient market hypothesis, especially in its stronger forms. Some
economists, mathematicians and market practitioners cannot believe that man-
made markets are strong-form efficient when there are prima facie reasons for
inefficiency including the slow diffusion of information, the relatively great
power of some market participants (e.g. financial institutions), and the existence
of apparently sophisticated professional investors. The way that markets react to
news surprises is perhaps the most visible flaw in the efficient market
hypothesis. For example, news events such as surprise interest rate changes from
central banks are not instantaneously taken account of in stock prices, but rather
cause sustained movement of prices over periods from hours to months.
275
enough to prevent bubbles and crashes developing. It may be inferred that many
rational participants are aware of the irrationality of the market at extremes and
are willing to allow irrational participants to drive the market as far as they will,
and only take advantage of the prices when they have more than merely
fundamental reasons that the market will return towards fair value. Behavioural
finance explains that when entering positions market participants are not driven
primarily by whether prices are cheap or expensive, but by whether they expect
them to rise or fall. To ignore this can be hazardous: Alan Greenspan warned of
"irrational exuberance" in the markets in 1996, but some traders who sold short
new economy stocks that seemed to be greatly overpriced around this time had
to accept serious losses as prices reached even more extraordinary levels. As
John Maynard Keynes succinctly commented, "Markets can remain irrational
longer than you can remain solvent."
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Formula
The market reward-to-risk ratio is effectively the market risk premium and by
rearranging the above equation and solving for E(Ri), the Capital Asset Pricing
Model (CAPM) is obtained.
Where:
277
(the beta coefficient) the sensitivity of the asset returns to
Asset pricing
Once the expected return, E(Ri)-, is calculated using CAPM, the future
cash flows of the asset can be discounted to their present value using this rate
(E(Ri)-), to establish the correct price for the asset.
The risk of a portfolio comprises systematic risk and specific risk. Systematic
risk refers to the risk common to all securities - i.e. market risk. Specific risk is
the risk associated with individual assets. Specific risk can be diversified away
(specific risks "average out"); systematic risk (within one market) cannot.
Depending on the market, a portfolio of approximately 15 (or more) well
selected shares might be sufficiently diversified to leave the portfolio exposed to
systematic risk only.
279
achieve the above (assuming that any asset is infinitely divisible). All such
optimal portfolios, i.e., one for each level of return, comprise the efficient
(Markowitz) frontier.
280
For a given level of return, however, only one of these portfolios will be optimal
(in the sense of lowest risk). Since the risk free asset is, by definition,
uncorrelated with any other asset, option 2) will generally have the lower
variance and hence be the more efficient of the two.
This relationship also holds for portfolios along the efficient frontier: a
higher return portfolio plus cash is more efficient than a lower return portfolio
alone for that lower level of return. For a given risk free rate, there is only one
optimal portfolio which can be combined with cash to achieve the lowest level
of risk for any possible return. This is the market portfolio.
The model assumes that asset returns are normally distributed random
variables. It is however frequently observed that returns in equity and other
markets are not normally distributed. As a result, large swings (3 to 6 standard
281
deviations from the mean) occur in the market more frequently than the normal
distribution assumption would expect.
The model does not appear to adequately explain the variation in stock
returns. Empirical studies show that low beta stocks may offer higher returns
than the model would predict.
The model assumes that given a certain expected return investors will
prefer lower risk (lower variance) to higher risk and conversely given a certain
level of risk will prefer higher returns to lower ones. It does not allow for
investors who will accept lower returns for higher risk. Casino gamblers clearly
pay for risk, and it is possible that some stock traders will pay for risk as well.
The model assumes that all investors have access to the same
information and agree about the risk and expected return of all assets.
(Homogeneous expectations assumption)
The model assumes that there are no taxes or transaction costs, although
this assumption may be relaxed with more complicated versions of the model.
The market portfolio consists of all assets in all markets, where each
asset is weighted by its market capitalization. This assumes no preference
between markets and assets for individual investors, and that investors choose
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assets solely as a function of their risk-return profile. It also assumes that all
assets are infinitely divisible as to the amount which may be held or transacted.
The market portfolio should in theory include all types of assets that are
held by anyone as an investment (including works of art, real estate, human
capital...) In practice, such a market portfolio is unobservable and people usually
substitute a stock index as a proxy for the true market portfolio. Unfortunately, it
has been shown that this substitution is not innocuous and can lead to false
inferences as to the validity of the CAPM, and it has been said that due to the
inoperability of the true market portfolio, the CAPM might not be empirically
testable
1[1]
This derivation draw on the derivation given in Copeland and Weston [1988, pages 194-
198].
283
All assets are perfectly divisible and priced in a perfectly competitive
marked. Implication: e.g. human capital is non-existing (it is not divisible and
it can’t be owned as an asset).
Asset markets are frictionless and information is costless and simultaneously
available to all investors. Implication: the borrowing rate equals the lending
rate.
There are no market imperfections such as taxes, regulations, or restrictions
on short selling.
Step 1. The derivation of the CAP-model starts by assuming that all assets
are stochastic and follow a normal distribution. This distribution is described
completely by its two parameters: mean value () and variance (2). The mean
value is a measure of location among many such as median and mode. Likewise,
the variance value is a measure of dispersion among many such as range, semi
inter-quartile range, semi variance, mean absolute deviation.In the hypothetical
world of the CAPM theory all that the investor bothers about is the values of the
normal distribution. In the real world asset return are not normally distributed
and investors do find other measures of location and dispersion relevant.
However, the assumption may be seen as a reasonable approximation and it is
needed in order to simplify matters.
As a result the mean and the variance of an asset X is defined as:
N
µX EX pi Xi
(1)
i=1
N
VARX COV X,X E X E X p X
2 2
ó
E[X] 2
X i i i
i=1 (2)
and the covariance and the correlation coefficient between two assets X and Y
are:
284
N
COV X,Y E Xi
EXYi EY
piXiE[X]YiE[Y]
i=1
COV[X,Y] COV[X,Y]
rxy VAR[X] VAR[Y]
ó X óY
They are both normally distributed. The return on this portfolio (using property
1 and 2) is:
p = E[kp] = E[X + (1- )Y] =
E[X] + E[(1- )Y] = E[X] + (1- )E[Y] (3)
and the variance on this portfolio is:
2p = VAR[Rp] = E[(kp - E[kp])2] = E[({X + (1- )Y} - E[X + (1- )Y])2]
(using property 2)
= E[({X + (1- )Y} - {E[X] + (1- )E[Y]})2]
= E[({X - E[X]} + {(1- )Y - (1- )E[Y]})2]
= E[({X - E[X]} + (1- ){Y - E[Y]})2]
= E[2(X - E[X])2 + (1- )2(Y - E[Y])2 + 2(1- )(X - E[X])(Y - E[Y])] (using
property 2)
285
= 2E[(X - E[X])2]+ (1- )2 E[(Y - E[Y])2]+ 2(1- )E[(X - E[X])(Y - E[Y])]
(using property 4)
= 2VAR[X]+ (1- )2VAR[Y]+ 2(1- )COV[X,Y]
= 2VAR[X]+ (1- )2VAR[Y]+ 2(1- ) rxy xy (4)
Step 2. The next assumption is that investors are risk averse and
maximize expected utility.
286
They perceive variance as a bad and mean as a good.
This is also illustrated in figure I where tree risk-averse indifference
curves are drawn. Now, the first conclusion is.
Figure I:
Optimal portfolio choice for a risk averse investor in a world with risky assets
p* p
Step 3. Assume now that there in addition to the many risky assets exist
a risk free asset and that investors may borrow or lend unlimited amounts of this
asset at a constant rate: the risk free rate (k f). Furthermore, capital markets are
assumed to be frictionless.
287
Figure II: Optimal portfolio choice for a risk averse investor in a world with many risky assets and one risk free asset
Rf
High risk aversion
m p
The reason for this dramatic change is simple. With the existence of the
risk free asset the mean and the variance for a portfolio consisting of the risk
free asset and the portfolio M (see figure) will be:
p = E[km] + (1 - )kf (5)
2 = 2VAR[k ]+ (1- )2VAR[k ]+ 2(1- )COV[k ,k ] using property 3
p m f mf
288
Therefore the slope of the line is:
p/ /p/ = (E[km] - kf)/m (7) and since the intercept with the mean axle
is
(,) = (0,kf) the equation for the minimum variance portfolio is
p = kf + [(E[km] - kf)/m] = Rf + (E[km] - kf)/ m (8)
This equation has come to be known as the capital market line (CML). It
is the fat line in figure II. This formula is referred to as the capital portfolio
pricing model (CPPM), because it prices efficient portfolios. The following
explains why.
Step 4. Assume that all investors have homogeneous beliefs about the
expected distribution of returns offered by all assets. Also, capital markets are
frictionless and information is costless and simultaneously available to all
investors. Furthermore, there are no market imperfections. Taken together this
implies that all investors calculate the same equation for the market capital line
and that the borrowing rate equals the lending rate.
Within broad degrees of risk aversion each investor will maximize their
utility by holding some combination of the risk free asset and the portfolio M.
This property is known as the two-fund separation principle. It is illustrated in
figure II by the tangency of the indifference curves on the CML for different
degrees of risk.
Step 5. Assume further that all assets are perfectly divisible and priced in
a perfectly competitive marked. Furthermore, there is a definite number of assets
and their quantities are fixed within the one period world. Then the portfolio M
turns out to be the market portfolio of all risky assets. The reason is that
equilibrium requires all prices to be adjusted so that the excess demand for any
289
asset is zero. That is, each asset is equally attractive to investors. Theoretically
the reduction of variance from diversification increases as the number of risky
assets included in the portfolio M rise. Therefore, all assets will be hold in the
portfolio M in accordance to their market value weight: wi = Vi/Vi, where Vi is
the market value of asset i and Vi is the market value of all assets. Proposition
2 may now be stated:
Proposition 2: With all the above assumptions in mind (step 1-5) the capital
market line (8) shows the relation between mean and variance of portfolios
(consisting of the risk free asset and the market portfolio) that are efficiently
priced and perfectly diversified.
The capital market line equation could rightly be called the capital
portfolio pricing model (CPPM) since it prices efficient portfolios. What is more
interesting is to develop an equation for pricing of individual assets. This is
exactly what the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) does. The CAP-model
does not requires any new assumptions only new algebraic manipulations within
the framework of the CPP-model
The basic insight that the Nobel laureate William Sharpe [the farther of the
CAP-model,
1963, 1964] provided, was that he noted that in the CPP-model-equilibrium the
market portfolio M already contains the risky asset I. If the risky asset I is added
to the market portfolio M in any positive quantities it creates an excess demand
for asset I by I. Therefore, equations (11) and (12) must be evaluated at = 0
for the equations to describe an equilibrium portfolio. This is done below:
E[kP]/|=0 = E[k] - E[km] (11)
Rp/|=0 = 0,5(VAR[km])-0,5*(- 2VAR[km] + 2COV[k,km])
<=>
Rp/|=0 = (COV[k,km] - VAR[km])/(VAR[km])0,5
<=>
Rp/|=0 = (COV[k,km] - VAR[km])/m (13)
Now, the slope of an equilibrium portfolio evaluated at point M ( = 0)
becomes:
E[kP]//Rp/|=0 = (E[k] - E[km])/[(COV[k,km] - VAR[km])/m] (14)
The final insight is to note that this slope must be equal to the slope (7)
of the CPP-model since the capital market line is tangent to the market portfolio
M and the slope (14) is evaluated at M identical to M in the CPP-model and
under the same assumptions. Therefore:
291
(E[km] - kf)/m = (E[k] - E[km])/[(COV[k,km] - VAR[km])/m]
<=>
(E[km] - kf)/VAR[km] = (E[k] - E[km])/(COV[k,km] - VAR[km])
<=>
(E[km] - kf)/ VAR[km]*(COV[k,km] - VAR[km]) = E[k] - E[km]
<=>
E[k] = E[km] + (E[km] - kf)/ VAR[km]*(COV[k,km] - VAR[km])
<=>
E[k] = E[km] + (E[km] - kf)*(COV[k,km]/VAR[km]) - (E[km] - kf)
<=>
E[k] = (E[km] - kf)*(COV[k,km]/VAR[km]) + kf
<=>
E k
k E k k , where
COV k, km
VARk m
f m f m
m
Equation (15) is the CAP-model. It is also known as the security market line.
292
See figure III below.
Security
M market
E
R
High
risk COV k , k m
m
VAR k m
Comparing the CAP-model (15) by the CPP-model (8) reveals that they
are almost identical. They are both linear and they have the same measure for
the price of risk (E[km] - kf), but they measure the quantity of risk differently.
Where the CAPM measures the quantity of risk by its normalised covariance (m
= COV[k,km]/VAR[km]) the CPPM measures the quantity of risk by its
normalised standard deviation (/m VAR[k]/VAR[km]). The reason to this
difference is that investors only want to pay (E[km] - kf) for undiversifiable risk.
The CPPM prices portfolios that are perfectly diversified. Therefore, the
appropriate measure for risk is the variance of that portfolio. Contrary, the
CAPM prices an individual asset that will be diversified. Therefore, only the
part of the variance that co-varies with a perfect diversified portfolio is relevant
to pay for. The following argument helps making this clearer.
293
The variance of an equally weighted portfolio of N risky assets (weight:
wi =1/N, for all i[1,N]) is
VARk
N N
11 ij
NN
j=1
i=1
<=>
2NN
1
VARk
N
ij
i=1 j=1
<=>
2N
1 1
2
N N\ j=i
VARk ii
N
ij
i=1 N
i=1 j=1
294
asset in accordance with its covariance with a perfect diversified portfolio M.
The same could be said about the CPP-model. However, this model is pricing
assets (portfolios) that are already perfectly diversified and they will by
definition have the same characteristics as the market portfolio M. This implies
that the covariance is equal to the variance: 2m = VAR[km] = COV[km,km] ad
notam (2). In other words, the CPP-model is a special case of the more general
CAP-model.
In India until 1987 , except some banks and UTI, there was practically
no portfolio activities carried out substantially. After the setting up of public
sector mutual Funds backed by competent research staff and also the success of
mutual Funds in Portfolio Management, a number of brokers and Investment
Consultants some of whom are also professionally qualified have became
Portfolio Managers. The SEBI has now imposed stricter rules, which include:
registration, code of conduct and minimum infrastructure, experience and
expertise etc., marking Portfolio Management a respectable and responsible
professional service to be rendered by experts only.
All investments bear risk with of course some risk free investments like
bank deposits etc. Risk varies in direct proportion with return - higher the risk
taken the higher will be the return and vice versa. Risk has two components -
systematic market or related risk and unsystematic risk or company specific
295
risk. The former cannot be eliminated but can be managed with the help of Beta
(â), where
Types of Risk
Unsystematic Risk Systematic Risk
Company related risks due to higher Market related risk due to demand
costs mismanagement defective sales problems,Interest rates, inflation, raw
or inventory, strategy., insolvency, fall materials, import and export policy,
in demand and company specific Tax, Policy etc., Business Risk, Market
recession, labour problems etc. – Risk Financial Risk, Interest
Rate Risk , inflation – Risk etc.
PERFORMANCE EVALUATION
Ø Jenson Model
Ø Fama Model
296
The Treynor Measure
All risk-averse investors would like to maximize this value. While a high
and positive Treynor's Index shows a superior risk-adjusted performance of a
fund, a low and negative Treynor's Index is an indication of unfavorable
performance.
297
Where, Si is standard deviation of the fund.
Sharpe and Treynor measures are similar in a way, since they both divide
the risk premium by a numerical risk measure. The total risk is appropriate when
we are evaluating the risk return relationship for well-diversified portfolios. On
the other hand, the systematic risk is the relevant measure of risk when we are
evaluating less than fully diversified portfolios or individual stocks. For a well-
diversified portfolio the total risk is equal to systematic risk. Rankings based on
total risk (Sharpe measure) and systematic risk (Treynor measure) should be
identical for a well-diversified portfolio, as the total risk is reduced to systematic
risk. Therefore, a poorly diversified fund that ranks higher on Treynor measure,
compared with another fund that is highly diversified, will rank lower on Sharpe
Measure.
Jenson Model
298
Ri = Rf + Bi (Rm - Rf)
Higher alpha represents superior performance of the fund and vice versa.
Limitation of this model is that it considers only systematic risk not the entire
risk associated with the fund and an ordinary investor can not mitigate
unsystematic risk, as his knowledge of market is primitive.
Fama Model
The net selectivity represents the stock selection skill of the fund
manager, as it is the excess return over and above the return required to
compensate for the total risk taken by the fund manager. Higher value of which
indicates that fund manager has earned returns well above the return
commensurate with the level of risk taken by him.
299
Among the above performance measures, two models namely, Treynor
measure and Jenson model use systematic risk based on the premise that the
unsystematic risk is diversifiable. These models are suitable for large investors
like institutional investors with high risk taking capacities as they do not face
paucity of funds and can invest in a number of options to dilute some risks. For
them, a portfolio can be spread across a number of stocks and sectors. However,
Sharpe measure and Fama model that consider the entire risk associated with
fund are suitable for small investors, as the ordinary investor lacks the necessary
skill and resources to diversified. Moreover, the selection of the fund on the
basis of superior stock selection ability of the fund manager will also help in
safeguarding the money invested to a great extent. The investment in funds that
have generated big returns at higher levels of risks leaves the money all the more
prone to risks of all kinds that may exceed the individual investors' risk appetite.
INVESTMENT COMPONENT
1. Stock Selection
Various methods have been developed to decompose total portfolio
returns and attribute it to each component. Eugene Fama has provided a frame
work for performance attribution. This is illustrated in Figure 14.1.
300
Fig.Decomposition of performance [Source : Engene : ZF . Fame
components of Investment performance” Journal of Finance (June 1972), pp.
551 – 567.]
The vertical axis refers to return, the horizontal axis shows risk in terms
of beta The diagonal line is the Security Market Line (SML). The Security
Market Line links the risk-free rate of 2 percent and a market return of 9 per
cent. It provides the benchmark for assessing whether the realised return is
commensurate with the risk incurred. Fund A had a realised return of 8 percent
and a market risk of 0.67. The Fund would have been expected to earn 6.7
percent at the market risk level of f3A. But it actually earned 8% (point A).
Hence the excess return of 1.3 per cent ( r A -râA ) is the incremental return to
selectivity. Thus total excess return = selectivity + risk
2. Risk Taking
i.e. 2 % + ( 9 % -2 % ) 15 %/21 % = 7
301
The difference between this normal return of 7% and 6.7% that was
expected pen only considering market risk is 1- 6.7 = 0.3
= 1.3 % - 0.3 % = 1%
Any funds overall performance can be thus decomposed into (1) due to
selectivity and (ii) due to risk taking.
3. Market Timing
302
Fig (a,b) : Fund return vs, market return for (a) superior stock selection and (b)
superior market timing [Source J.L.Treynor and K. Mazuy “Can Mutual Funds
otuguse the Market” Harvard Business Review (July August 1966) pp. 131.
136.]
The above figures give the excess return of the fund of the Y axis and
the excess return of the market index on the X axis. Both figures reveal positive
ex-post alphas. The scatter diagram shows that all the point cluster close to the
regression line indicating that the relationship between portfolio excess return
and market excess return is linear. The average beta of the portfolio is fairly
constant or the beta of the portfolio was roughly the same at all times. Since
alpha is positive, it appears that the excess return is due to his stock selection
abilities
In the second figure, the points in the middle lie below the regression
line and those at the ends lie above the regression line, which suggests that the
portfolio consisted of high beta securities when market return was high and low
beta securities when the market return was low
To describe this relationship, one can fit a curve to the points plotted by
adding a quadratic term to the simple linear relationship
The figure indicates that the curve becomes steeper as one move to the
right of the diagram. The Fund movements are amplified on the upside and vice
versa. This implies that the Fund Manager was anticipating market changes
303
correctly and that the superior performance of the Fund can be attributed to skill
in timing
James Farrel covered market prices in both rising and falling markets
(1957 -1975) and came to the conclusion that Funds as a group do not make
substantial shifts in asset positioning to take advantage of market timing
1. Discuss fully the Sharpe, Treynor and the Jensen measures of portfolio
returns
304
REFERENCES
Michael Murphy , “why No One Can Tell Who's Winning Financial Analysts
Journal, May -June 1980
305