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Agricultural Mechanization, Agricultural Power, Agricultural Machinery and Equipment, and
Allied Subjects
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. (1-4) A 1000 kg carabao traveling t v kph is pulling moldboard plow whose width of cut is w centimeter at a
depth of d inches. If the soil draft is s kg/sq. cm.,
a. 2, 000 b. 5.85 swd c. 5.59 swd d. 5.95 sw e. nota
____ 2. At the given velocity, how long will it take to plow rectangular field whose length is L meters and W meters
wide? (in hrs)
a. lw / 10 VW c. IW / 10 Vw e. nota
b. Lw / 10 vW d. LW / 10 vw
____ 3. If the weight of the carabao is increased to 1, 500 kg by how many percent is the total pull exerted by the
carabao increased?
a. 50 % b. 33.33% c. 30 % d. 53.33 % e. 0%
____ 4. If the succeeding pass overlaps the previous pass by 10%, by how much longer will it take to plow the same
field in no. 2?
a. LW / 90 vw c. Lw / 9 vW e. nota
b. LW / 9 vw d. Lw / 90 vW
____ 5. (5-6) A two-hectare rice field whose length is twice its width is to b harvested by stripper combine whose
verge spd will be 5 kph. Field sampling of the crop showed 0.60 kg paddy per sq. meter. If the combine was
able to finish the area in two hours.
How wide is the swath of the combine?
a. 2 m c. 6.6 ft. e. all of the above
b. 79 in. d. 2.2 yards
____ 6. Based on the field area sampling what will be the total yield of the 2-hectare field?
a. 12, 200 kg c. 12, 200 x 103gm e. all of the above
b. 423, 288 oz. d. 26, 840 lbs
____ 7. (7-10) A 6-nozzle boom, sprayer is mounted at the back of a four wheel-tractor. The nozzles are arranged 150
cm apart along the boom length. Each nozzle has a 60 degree spray angle. each nozzle delivers k li/min.
At what height must the boom be raised, relative to the ground level, so that the spray from each nozzle does
not overlap upon reaching the top of rice plant canopy which is 50 cm tall?
a. 108 cm b. 180 cm c. 93.3 cm d. 309.8 cm e. 136.6 cm
____ 8. What is the effective swat of the boom spryer under the condition in no. 7?
a. 150 cm b. 750 cm c. 75 cm d. 900 cm e. 90 cm
____ 9. If the tractor travels at 5 kph with 95% field efficiency, what will be the spraying capacity (in ha/h)under the
condition in no. 8?
a. 4.25 b. 4.52 c. 4.28 d. 4.70 e. 4.75
____ 10. If each nozzle delivers one liter per minute, how many will the boom sprayer deliver per hectare under the
conditions in no. 9?
a. 84.11 li/ha b. 84.71 li/h c. 79.65 li/ha d. 76.60 li/ha e. 75.79 li/ha
____ 11. It is an implement attached to the tractor through a horizontal or nearby hinge axis and is partially supported
by the tractor, at least during transport, but is never completely supported by the tractor.
a. trailed b. mounted c. semi-mounted d. self-propelled
____ 12. It is the movement of soil across a tool surface without sticking and fast enough to avoid soil build-ups.
a. sliding b. inversion c. shearing d. scouring
____ 13. It is a disk harrow that has one right hand gang and one left hand gang, operating in tandem.
a. tandem b. single-acting c. offset d. double acting
____ 14. It is the process of randomly dropping and covering of seeds in furrows to give definite rowa.
a. drill seeding b. hill dropping c. broadcasting d. row crop planter
____ 15. It is an atomizing device for spraying in which the liquid is broken up by a high velocity gas stream.
a. hydraulic c. centrifugal
b. gas d. low vwlocity jet breakup
____ 16. The plow normally turns the furrow slice on the right but this plow has three function to turn the furrow slice
both side
a. tandem plow b. 2-way plow c. middle breaker d. rotary plow
____ 17. This is the type of the moldboard plow bottom which has a long, low moldboard with a gradual twist (spiral)
that completely inverts the furrow slice with a minimum of a breakup, thus covering the vegetative matter
thoroughly.
a. sod bottom c. stubble moldboard
b. slat moldboard d. backland moldboard
____ 18. The total draft of a 4-bottom 41-cm moldboard plow when plowing 18 cm deep at 6 kph was 15 kN. Calculate
the specific draft.
a. 20.3 b. 1.27 c. 720 d. 5.08
____ 19. What is the actual power requirement for the above problem in kW?
a. 33.5 b. 25 c. 67 d. 50
____ 20. If the field capacity for the above problem (no.18) is 57%, what is the rate of work in ha/hr?
a. 1.3 b. 0.33 c. 0.19 d. 0.74
____ 21. What seed spacing is required when planting corn in rows 102 cm apart if the desired plant population is 6,
000 plants per hectare and an average emergence of 85% is expected.
a. 163 cm b. 72 cm c. 140 cm d. 82 cm
____ 22. A horizontal plate planter has plates with 72 cells on a 165 mm diameter circle. The effective radius of the
drive wheel (presswheel) is 195 mm. A 16 tooth sprocket on the presswheel drives an 18-tooth sprocket on
the feed shaft. A 12-tooth bevel gear on the feed shaft drives a 27-tooth gear on the plate shaft. Calculate the
seed spacing in the rowfor 100% cell fill.
a. 141 b. 72 c. 665 d. 326
____ 23. It is a harvesting machine that permits the removal of grain directly from the panicle without cutting or
uprooting of plants
a. reaper b. stripper c. combine d. windrower
____ 24. Determine the field capacity in ha/hr for a disc harrow having a diameter of 609.7 mm and there are 20 discs
in a gang. The total width of cut is 2,286mm. The harrowing speed is 3.5 kph. The field efficiency is 77%.
a. 0.62 b. 0.81 c. 3286 d. 4267
____ 25. assuming an 8-hr working day, how many days would the above machine finish a 100 hectare land?
a. 100 b. 20 c. 161 d. 26
____ 26. (26-29)A four stroke, four-cylinder diesel engine, in one-hour dynamometer test, yielded the following data:
Fuel used -------------------------------- 40.91 kg
RPM ------------------------------------ 1200 rpm
Dynamometer reading ---------------- 113.64 kg
Dynamometer arm -------------------- 61 cm
Specific gravity of fuel -------------- 0.8
Engine cylinder ----------- 15.24 cm bore x 20.32 cm stroke
Heating value of fuel ---------------- 41.77 MJ/kg
Compression ratio --------------------- 22
Estimate the following;
The brake power
a. 13.58 kW b. 85 kW c. 42.5 kW d. 1534 kW e. nota
____ 27. The specific fuel consumption in liters/kW-hr.
a. 0.845 b. 0.1327 c. 1.689 d. 0.6032 e. nota
____ 28. The brake mean effective pressure in kg/cm
2
a. 2.89 b. 5.85 c. .07 d. .634 e. nota
____ 29. The clearance volume in cc.
a. 22.12 b. 196.6 c. 44.25 d. 177 e. nota
____ 30. (30-31) Determine the air to fuel ratio by weight and by volume for the complete combustion of prone
(C3H8). Assume air is 79% Nitrogen and 21% Oxygen.
The air to fuel ratio by weight is (in kg air/kg fuel).
a. 3.6 b. 0.275 c. 15.6 d. 0.0064 e. nota
____ 31. The air to fuel ratio by volume is
a. 23.8 b. 5.0 c. 0.2 d. 0.0042 e. nota
____ 32. Estimate the horsepower required to lift a 4545 kg load by means of a cable wrapped around the drum of a
hoist. The diameter of the drum is 127 cm and it rotates 30 rpm. (Neglect the weight of the cable)
a. 18.9 b. 37.9 c. 238 d. 476 e. nota
____ 33. How long (in min) will it take a farmer to plow 60 hectares with five-disk plow pulled by a tractor at 6
kilometers per hour? The effective width of cut is 35.56 cm per disk and efficiency is 80%.
a. 5.85 b. 70.3 c. 1.2 d. 140.6 e. nota
____ 34. If the depth of cut of problem 8 above is 20.32 cm and the unit draft is 0.493 kg/cm 2, what is the required
draw-bar horsepower?
a. 7.8 b. 0.71 c. 784 d. 3920 e. nota
____ 35. Give the total number of possible firing orders in an eight cylinder engine.
a. 8 b. 16 c. 24 d. 40320 e. nota
____ 36. Estimate the actual power output in kW for reservoir located 30 meters above the power generating station.
The pipe used to generate power has a diameter of 2 meters and the velocity of water flowing through the duct
is 8 m/sec. The system efficiency is 70%.
a. 5174 b. 7391 c. 7.4 d. 5.2 e. nota
____ 37. A machine which was originally driven by 1.0 hp electric motor, will be run using horizontal axis two-
bladed windmill. If the wind speed in the area is 15 kph, what should b the diameter of the windmill in
meters? Use an overall systems efficiency of 27.5%, air density of 1.2 kg/ m3.
a. 15 b. 105 c. 47.7 d. 11.5 e. nota
____ 38. At what speed in kph will you double the output of the windmill designed above?(from the above problem)
a. 30 b. 19 c. 7.5 d. 142 e. not
____ 39. Determine the flow in liters/minute for piston pump having a cylinder with four-inch diameter. The full
length stroke of the piston pump is 76.2 cm and this can be covered in fifteen seconds.
a. 1500 b. 6.5 c. 24.7 d. 370 e. nota
____ 40. How much horsepower is ended to drive pump with 45.4 li/min capacity flowing t 141 kg/cm 2. The
efficiency of the system is 80%.
a. 14 b. 17.5 c. 13.0 d. 11.2 e. nota
____ 41. (41-43)Gears in mesh have the following characteristics: driven gear = 25 teeth; driver gear = 40 teeth and
running at 100 rpm. The driven gear is attached to 1-meter-diameter. There is 10% slip on the wheel. Answer
the following.
The linear speed of the driven gear.
a. 100 rpm b. 160 rpm c. 50 rpm d. 200 rpm e. nota
____ 42. The linear speed of the driven gear.
a. 160 m/s b. 17 m/s c. 17 ft/min d. 62.5 m/min e. 8.5 m/s
____ 43. The speed with slip
a. 144 m/s b. 15 m/s c. 15.3 ft/min d. 62.5 m/min e. 7.65 m/s
____ 44. (44-46)You are given the specifications for an engine:
4 cylinder- 4 cycle Dynamometer test
engine bore = 10.16 cm a. length of lever arm = 45.72 cm
piston stroke = 20.32 cm b. reading on scale = 40.91 kg
mep = 4.23 kg c. speed of pulley = 1000 rpm
RPM = 1000
Calculate the ihp
a. 15 hp b. 11 kW c. 22.7 kW d. 30.5 Btu/hr e. 60.92 hp
____ 45. Calculate the BHP
a. 12.8 hp b. 51.4 hp c. 9.59 kW d. 19.2 kW e. 25.7 Btu/hr
____ 46. Calculate the mechanical efficiency.
a. 15.6% b. 70.3% c. 31.2% d. 84% e. 60.4%
____ 47. What is the minimum theoretical viable wind power for the windmill with 10 m2 area, and a wind velocity
of 10m/sec? The air density is 1.225 kg/m3.
a. 612.5 wtts b. 8.2 hp c. 6125 kW d. 12.25 kW e. nota
____ 48. The minimum size for biogas digester handling the manure of 100 pigs with an average of 2.25 kg
manure/pig/day, 30 day retention time, and mixing ratio of 1:1. Wildly assume the density of manure equal to
that of water.
a. 6, 750 liters b. 13.5 m3 c. 6.75 liters d. 13.5 liters e. nota
____ 49. This is the energy from the sun, per unit time, received on a unit area of surface perpendicular to the direction
of propagation of the radiation, at the earth’s mean distance from the sun, outside of the atmosphere.
a. 690 W/m2 b. 1100 W/m2 c. 200 W/m2 d. 1353 W/m2 e. nota
____ 50. What comprised synthesis gas or producers gas?
a. CH4 nd H2 b. CO and H2 c. H2 and O2 d. CO2 and H2 e. nota
____ 51. It is a thermal process done in the absence of oxidant. It is also called destructive distillation.
a. destruction b. gasification c. combustion d. pyrolysis e. nota
____ 52. An example of gasifier.
a. Downdraft b. Indian Gobar c. Darrieus d. Chinese dome e. nota
____ 53. It is an instrument used to measure diffuse and direct solar radiation.
a. pyrnometer c. pyrheliometer e. nota
b. pyrometer d. Campbell Stokes
____ 54. What is the main combustible gas component of biogas?
a. H2 b. CO2 c. CH4 d. N2 e. nota
____ 55. It is the device that converts solar radiation directly into electrical energy.
a. soleil c. semiconductor e. nota
b. silicon d. photovoltaic cells
____ 56. If a two stroke 4-cylinder engine is running at 2000 rpm, the power stroke per minute of the engine is
________.
a. 4000 c. 2000
b. 8000 d. none of the above
____ 57. Conversion of solid fuel into combustible carbon monoxide through thermo-chemical reaction.
a. Digestion c. Gasification
b. Carbonization d. Pyrolysis
____ 58. One hundred liters per second of water is falling at a head of 10 meters. The turbine efficiency is 80%. What
is the hydraulic power of the hydro system.
a. 8.7 kw c. 7.8
b. 87 kw d. None of the above
____ 59. A substance that is added to the tractor for the purpose of changing traction ND stability.
a. Ballast c. Plow
b. Cage wheel d. Hydraulic lift
____ 60. Standard rpm of a tractor PTO drive.
a. 600 rpm c. 540 rpm
b. 200 rpm d. None of the above
____ 61. Tractor part that controls the direction of the travel of the machine.
a. Rear wheel c. Stirring wheel
b. Front wheel d. None of the above
____ 62. The lower PTO speed of standard four-wheel tractor is
a. 540 rpm b. 450 rpm c. 640 rpm d. none of the above
____ 63. It is the special arrangement of gears to permit driving member to rotate slower or faster than the other and
permit operation of driving wheels at different speed for easy turn.
a. Spur gear c. Differential gear
b. Planetary gear d. None of the above
____ 64. It is a gear reduction of the tractor located in the power train between the differential and the driving wheel
and transmits power of low speed and large tongue to the rear axles and wheels.
a. Differential b. Universal joint c. Final drive d. None of the above
____ 65. It is an indicator of the amount of fuel in a furnace that is converted into .
a. Burning efficiency c. Hear utilization efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency d. None of the above
____ 66. Which of the following is true in operating gasifier for internal combustion engine?
a. Only 50 to 70% of the diesel oil can be replaced by gas producer.
b. Gasoline and diesel can be fueled with gas producer.
c. The power output of gasoline engine t arbitrary rpm will decrease by 30 to 50% when
fueled with producer gas.
d. All of the above
____ 67. The primary gas produced during gasification.
a. Methane c. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon dioxide d. All of the above
____ 68. When biogas contains 40% methane and 60% carbon dioxide, _____.
a. the biogas can be used for cooking c. the biogass can run as refrigerator
b. the biogas can be used for lighting d. none of the above
____ 69. A digester for biogas is to be designed to accommodate 30 liters of dung per day. If the feed-material-to-water
ratio is 1:1 and the designed retention time is 80 days, what is the capacity of the digester?
a. 4800 liters c. 6100 liters
b. 5200 liters d. none of the above
____ 70. A solid biomass fuel burning device used for domestic cooking, water heating, smoking, roasting and
simmering.
a. Furnace b. Cook-stove c. Biomass oven d. None of the above
____ 71. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound water by one degree Fahrenheit.
a. kCal b. BTU c. Joule d. None of the above
____ 72. Open-fire stove has a thermal efficiency of _________.
a. 3-11% b. 11-20% c. 20-30% d. All of the above
____ 73. An engine running at a peed of 2000 rpm is classified as ______.
a. low speed engine c. high speed engine
b. medium speed engine d. none of the above
____ 74. A quality type of spark plug for gasoline engine.
a. Magnesium-type b. Platinum type c. Carbon type d. None of the above
____ 75. When operating light equipment, it is recommended to use _______
a. four stroke gasoline engine c. four stroke gasoline engine
b. two stroke gasoline engine d. all of the above
____ 76. The capacity required for a 12-volt solar panel system is 73.6 watt-hour. What is the ampere capacity of the
battery needed for the system?
a. 6.13 ampere-hour b. 4.05 ampere-hour c. 7.23 ampere-hour d. none of the above
____ 77. When strength is provided beyond what is needed as an extra margin of insurance against parts failure.
a. Factor ignorance b. Factor of safety c. Reliability d. none of the above
____ 78. Wind flows on a 2- diameter rotor at a rate of 2 m/s. suddenly, the wind flows at 4 m/s, what would be the
power output of thee windmill?
a. four times c. 8 times
b. 6 times d. None of the above
____ 79. It is a device used to generate high voltage current on small engine needed for spark plug in small engine.
a. Distributor c. Magneto
b. Contact point d. All of the above
____ 80. It is the utilization of hand tools, implements for draft animals, and mechanically-powered machines for
agricultural and development, production, harvesting and on-farm processing.
a. Agricultural development c. Agricultural mechanization
b. Agricultural machinery and equipment d. All of the above
____ 81. One pferde starke (ps) is equal to _______.
a. 0.986 hp c. 75 kgf-m/sec
b. 0.735 kw d. All of the above
____ 82. A rice husk stove boils 2 liters of water and subsequently evaporated 0.5 liter. The initial temperature of water
is 27ºC. The amount of fuel consumed in boiling and evaporated water is 1.5 kg. What is the thermal
efficiency of the stove/ Assume a heat of vaporization of water equal to 540 kCal/kg and heating value of fuel
equal to 3, 000 kCal per kg.
a. 5.2 % c. 12.5 %
b. 9.2 % d. None of the above
____ 83. It is a device used to measure the state of the battery charge of an engine.
a. Tachometer c. Ohmmeter
b. Hydrometer d. None of the above
____ 84. It is a measure of the area in cubic inches above the piston when it is at the top of its stroke, compared to the
area above the piston when it is at the bottom stroke.
a. Piston displacement c. Clearance volume
b. Compression Ration d. None of the above
____ 85. Recommended gap or clearance of the contact point of engine
a. 0.010 to 0.020 in. c. 0.035 to 0.045 in.
b. 0.020 too 0.035 in. d. None of the above
____ 86. Required water temperature in testing pump.
a. 10 ºC and below c. 40 ºC - 60 ºC
b. 10 ºC - 40 ºC d. None of the above
____ 87. Compute the volumetric efficiency of a sprayer pump having a diameter of 20 cm and a stroke of 20 cm. The
actual volume of water displaced per stroke is 0. 460 liter.
a. 85% c. 98%
b. 92% d. None of the above
____ 88. Power recommended by manufacturer for satisfactory operation under continuous duty condition with
specified speed range.
a. Rated brake power c. Engine brake horsepower
b. Continuous brake power d. None of the above
____ 89. Highest power develop by an engine.
a. Peak brake power c. rated brake power
b. maximum brake power d. None of the above
____ 90. It is the ratio of the weight of the shelled corn kernel collected at all outlet of the Sheller to the weight of the
corn kernel input of the Sheller expressed in percent.
a. shelling efficiency c. shelling index
b. shelling recovery d. none of the above
____ 91. Applicable key for assembly that hub is fastened on the key fixed on a shaft or assembly that the key is driven
between the combined shaft and hub.
a. parallel key b. woodruff key c. taper key d. all of the above
____ 92. The engine fuel tank was completely filled with gasoline fuel before testing. After 4 hours of continuous test
3.7 liters of fuel. Test has shown that the engine shaft power was 0 hp. What is the specific fuel consumption
of the engine?
a. 87.4 g/kW-hr b. 91.15 g/kW-hr c. 100.45 g/kW-hr d. none of the above
____ 93. A power tiller was tested on a 10 m wide plot. During the test, the machine made 22 rounds to complete the
flowing operation using two-0.3 m diameter disk plow. What is the average swath of the power tiller?
a. 0.23 m b. 0.32 m c. 0.41 m d. none of the above
____ 94. A pump which discharges 4 liters per second at a head of 6 meters is driven by electric motor. The input
current of the motor is 1.5 amp while the input voltage is 220 volt. What is the overall efficiency of the pump
if the motor power factor is 0.98?
a. 71.2% b. 72.7% c. 77.1% d. none of the above
____ 95. A pump was tested to measure the flow rate using a 90 degree triangular weir. Tests have shown that the head
of water into the weir averages to 13 cm. What is the average rate of flow of the pump?
a. 8.4 lps b. 22.2 lps c. 32.2 lps d. none of the above
____ 96. Cost that has occurred in the past and has no relevance to estimates of future costs and revenues related to an
alternative course of action is referred to as:
a. sunk cost b. opportunity cost c. overhead cost d. life-cycle cost
____ 97. At break-even point.
a. total revenue equals total costs
b. profit or loss is zero
c. increasing or decreasing output by 1 unit will result in either profit or loss
d. all of the above
____ 98. A contractor imports an equipment for 1.2 M pesos. Customs, installation and other costs initially incurred to
make the equipment serviceable amounted to P200, 000. At the end of 5 years, the equipment will have a
market value of P200, 000. If depreciated by the straight-line method, cumulative depreciation through the
end of the second year will be
a. P200, 000 b. P240, 000 c. P400, 000 d. P480, 000
____ 99. A company spent P420, 000 to acquire and install a new machine. t the end of 3 years, the company had no
further use for the machine and had it dismantled for P9, 000. the machine was sold for P60, 000. The salvage
value of the machine is
a. P60, 000 b. P69, 000 c. P51, 000 d. P360, 000
____ 100. A farmer is trying to decide whether to buy new machine now or wait and purchase similar one 4 years from
now. If purchased now, the machine would cost P250, 000, but 4 years from now, it is expected that the
manufacturers of the machine will sell it for P450, 000. If the interest rate is 15% per year.
a. the farmer should buy the machine now
b. the farmer should buy the machine 4 years from now
c. the farmer should not buy the machine
d. the farmer should buy a different machine
____101. A proposed project will require n initial investment of P50, 000 and is estimated to have year-end
revenues and costs as follows:
End-of-year Revenue Cost
1 P75, 000 P60, 000
2 90, 000 77, 500
3 100, 000 80, 000
4 95, 000 75, 000
2 60, 000 40, 000
An additional investment of P25, 000 will be required at the end of the second year. The project would
terminate at the end of the 5th year, and the assets are estimated to have a salvage value of P30, 000 at that
time.
The IRR for this project is closest to
a. 13% b. 15% c. 17% d. 19%
____ 102. An agricultural engineer estimated that the purchase of an automated tiller can save a farmer P150, 000 a year
in labor cost. The tiller has an expected life of 5 years and no salvage value. If the farmer must earn a 20%
annual return on such investment, he should spend no more than what amount to justify the purchase of the
tiller? (Choose closest amount)
a. P150,000 c. P450,000
b. P350,000 d. P500,000
____103. The barangay council of remote village was given some amount of money by the national
government to build a structure that will last 30 years. Estimates of the annual costs and revenues of
various structures are as follows:
Initial Cost Revenues less Costs
Recreation Hall P300, 000 69, 000 a year
Cooperative Store 400, 000 76, 000 a year
Clinic 200, 000 40, 000 a year
Nursery School 250, 000 55, 000 a year
A salvage value equal to 20% of the first cost is expected for each structure. If the interest rate is 12%, which
structure should the barangay council choose?
a. recreation hall b. cooperative hall c. clinic d. nursery school
____ 104. The term “ceteris paribus” means
a. Other things held constant c. Scarcity or limited
b. Absence of government intervention d. Closed economy
____ 105. Scarcity in economics refers basically to:
a. Monopolization of existing supplies of goods
b. Monopolization of resources to produce goods
c. Monopolization of outlets to sell goods
d. None of the above
____ 106. The economic problem “ What to produce?” refers to
a. The amounts and types of commodities produce in an economy
b. The beneficiaries from the choices made in a society
c. The tastes and preferences of economic agents
d. The way in which resources are combined in order to produce the commodities
____ 107. The economic problem “ How to produce?” refers to
a. The amounts and types of commodities produce in an economy
c. The testes and preferences of economic agents
d. The way in which resources afire combined in order to produce the commodities
____ 108. The economic problem “ For whom to produce?” refers to
a. The amounts and types of commodities produced in an economy
c. The testes and preferences of economic agents
d. The way which resources are combined in order to produce the commodities
____ 109. Distribution in economics refers to:
a. Retailing, wholesaling and transportation
b. What to Produce
c. How to produce
d. From whom to produce
____ 110. Which of the following best illustrate the nation of economic cost
a. In the production of corn on a farm, the farmer typically spends for the use of land, labor
and capital
b. To watch a movie in Rockwell, one has to spend even more for transport
c. In deciding to spend an evening with friends,one is giving up time that could have been
used for studies
d. In eating at the fast food chain, one typically spend anywhere from P60-P80
____ 111. Which of the following best describes the term “ opportunity cost”?
a. Price paid for goods and services
b. Cost of producing goods and services
c. Value of best foregone alternative
d. Benefits derived from a good or service
____ 112. Being on the production possibilities frontier means that:
a. It is possible to produce any more vegetables
b. It is possible to produce more rice
c. More vegetables can be produce only by doing without some rice
d. If the society becomes more productive in producing rice, then we can have more rice but
not more vegetables
____ 113. If the economy is operating inside the production possibilities frontier then
a. All the resources are use efficiently
b. The economy cannot produce more of one good without giving up more of the other good
c. The economy experienced technical change
d. The resources are not fully utilized in production
____ 114. The person responsible for helping the organization achieve its goals is called
a. Planner d. Leader
b. Organizer e. Developer
c. Manager
____ 115. The management process by which the managers think their through in advance and where the organizations
mission, vision, goals and objectives are made is called
a. Organizing d. Controlling
b. Staffing e. Directing
c. Planning
____ 116. It refers to the cultivation of land with or without the benefit of sound business, technical knowledge and
skills.
a. Farm management d. Agriculture
b. Farming e. Land management
c. Management
____ 117. A payment for the use of money, generally stated as the percentage of the amount or principal borrowed is
called
a. Duty d. Capital
b. Credit e. Non of the above
c. Dividend
____ 118. This is also known as the ad valorem tax.
a. Tax d. capital
b. Value added tax e. Duty
c. Interest
____ 119. The art of applying business and scientific principles to the organization and management of farm business
enterprises for the purpose of securing the greatest continuous profit is called
a. Management d. Farm management
b. Scientific method e. Non of the above
c. Farm economics
____ 120. A special science concerned chiefly with the description and analysis of production, distribution and
consumption.
a. Agriculture d. Management
b. Engineering e. Marketing
c. Economics
____ 121. The readiness by which an asset can be converted into cash is term as
a. Liquidity d. Assets
b. Solvency e. None of the above
c. cash flow
____ 122. Which of the following is not a classification of farm jobs?
a. Field work d. Outside work that can be delayed
b. calendar work e. All of the above
c. Work for rainy days
____ 123. That which include goods employed in production other than the land, labor, buildings and fences is called
a. Inventory d. resources
b. Assets e. All of the above
c. capital
____ 124. Among the following statements, which are considered to be methods/s of reducing risk in agriculture?
a. Insurance d. Flexibility
b. Diversification e. all of the above
c. Future contract
____ 125. What is the process by which a farm manager looks ahead to the future and contemplates alternative courses
of action for the farm
a. Budgeting d. Farm budget
b. farm economics e. Farm planning
c. Efficiency of production
____ 126. Which of the following statements is not a good labor management practice.
a. Planning labor calendar d. developing initiative, goodwill,
cooperation and respect
b. Providing social life and giving out e. Cut chore labor to a minimum. Also,
bonuses and profit sharing to enhance simplify and combine jobs whenever
productivity possible
c. Doing everything there is to do in order to
save the rainy days for resting
____ 127. Which among the following is/are not function of farm management
a. Keeping records and accounts d. Overseeing the entire production process
b. Controlling directing the various resources e. Non of the above
c. Managing labor, land and capital
____ 128. The classes of risks in agriculture results from
a. Human factors d. Statement b and c
b. Liquidity e. all of the above
c. Natural factors
____ 129. This involves planning the procurement and utilization of funds and controlling the financial operations to
insure effective utilization of funds.
a. Farm budget d. Farm planning
b. Marketing management e. None of the above
c. Financial management
____ 130. Which of the following is not a function of management?
a. Controlling and directing the various d. Farm records
resources
b. Management of labor e. Management of capital
c. Methods of reducing risk in agriculture
____ 131. In financial analysis, what is the ideal current ratio?
a. 1:1 d. 2:1
b. 3:1 e. All of the above
c. 2:2
____ 132. What is the depreciation factor per year of a hand tractor that is bought at P 150,000.00 if it has no more value
at the end of the fifth year?
a. 25,000.00 pesos/year d. 30,000.00 pesos/year
b. 60,000.00 pesos/year e. non of the above
c. 15,000.00 pesos/year
____ 133. Given: Total Current Assets =P200,000.00
Total Inventories =P 50,000.00
Total Fixed assets =P500,000.00
Total Current Liabilities =P125,000.00
Total long-Term Liabilities =P185,000.00
Total net worth =P100,000.00
What is the current ratio for the given data?
a. 1.0 d. 1.5
b. 2.0 e. 1.6
c. 1.4
____ 134. The __________variables consist of product, promotion and place.
a. marketing mix c. marketing system
b. marketing environment d. none of the above
____ 135. The term _____ refers to the provision of required information to the prospective customers so that they are
persuaded to buy.
a. price b. product c. promotion d. all of the above
____ 136. The total amount of money that the seller, considering his objects, requires in exchange for an article or
service he is selling is called
a. interest c. price
b. wage d. none of the above
____ 137. Thee setting of prices on the basis of costs is referred to as
a. buyer based approach c. competition based approach
b. cost based approach d. none of the above
____ 138. It establishes the price for a product based on the buyer’s perception of the value of the product or service.
a. Perceived value pricing c. Price lining pricing
b. Loss leader pricing d. none of the above
____ 139. It refers to n inter-organizational system made up of a set of interdependent institutions and agencies involved
in the task of moving products from their point of production to the point of consumption.
a. marketing channel c. marketing middleman
b. marketing function d. none of the above
____ 140. It is the difference between what the consumer pays and what the producer receives for his agricultural
produce.
a. Marketing cost c. Marketing charges
b. Marketing margin d. none of the above
____ 141. Margin expressed in terms of pesos and is constant over all quantity ranges is called
a. absolute constant margin c. percentage mark-up
b. percentage margin d. none of the above
____ 142. Marketing margin minus marketing costs equals
a. charges c. mark-up
b. profit d. none of the above
____ 143. Absolute margin divided by the buying price x 100 equals
a. percentage margin c. profit
b. percentage mark-up d. none of the above
____ 144. The equation PR = 1.5 + 1.1 PF means that for every P1.00 increase in the farm price (PF), there will be
a corresponding increase of ___________ in retail price(PR)
a. P1.10 c. P1.00
b. P1.50 d. P1.25
____ 145. In equation Y = a + bX, a is the _______ that is the value of Y when X = 0.
a. slope b. y-intercept
____ 146. In equation Y = a + bX, b is the ______ slope of the regression line, that is, the change in Y that results with a
one unit change in X.
a. slop b. y-intercept
____ 147. In the equation PR= 1.5 + 1.1 PF , it means that the price of the farm (PF) of the product is P20, the retail price
(PR) will be
a. P3.70 b. P1.50 c. P1.10
____ 148. It is equal to farm price plus the marketing margin of all middlemen.
a. Final retail price c. Both a and b
b. Consumer’s price d. none of the above
____ 149. For every peso paid by the consumer, the share of the ______ can be computed by dividing the from price by
the final retail price.
a. farmer c. both a and b
b. middlemen d. none of the above
____ 150. For every peso paid by the consumer, the share of the _______ can be computed by the dividing the absolute
margin of the middlemen by the final retail price.
a. farmer c. both a and b
b. middlemen d. none of the above
Agricultural Mechanization, Agricultural Power, Agricultural Machinery and
Equipment, and Allied Subjects
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
38. ANS: B 76. ANS: A 113. ANS: B
1. ANS: C 39. ANS: C 77. ANS: B 114. ANS: C
2. ANS: D 40. ANS: B 78. ANS: C 115. ANS: C
3. ANS: E 41. ANS: B 79. ANS: C 116. ANS: B
4. ANS: B 42. ANS: E 80. ANS: C 117. ANS: E
5. ANS: E 43. ANS: E 81. ANS: D 118. ANS: B
6. ANS: B 44. ANS: C 82. ANS: B 119. ANS: D
7. ANS: B 45. ANS: D 83. ANS: B 120. ANS: C
8. ANS: D 46. ANS: D 84. ANS: B 121. ANS: A
9. ANS: D 47. ANS: E 85. ANS: A 122. ANS: B
10. ANS: A 48. ANS: B 86. ANS: B 123. ANS: C
11. ANS: C 49. ANS: D 87. ANS: B 124. ANS: E
12. ANS: D 50. ANS: B 88. ANS: B 125. ANS: E
13. ANS: C 51. ANS: D 89. ANS: A 126. ANS: C
14. ANS: A 52. ANS: A 90. ANS: A 127. ANS: E
15. ANS: B 53. ANS: A 91. ANS: D 128. ANS: B
16. ANS: B 54. ANS: C 92. ANS: B 129. ANS: C
17. ANS: A 55. ANS: D 93. ANS: A 130. ANS: C
18. ANS: D 56. ANS: B 94. ANS: A 131. ANS: D
19. ANS: B 57. ANS: C 95. ANS: B 132. ANS: D
20. ANS: D 58. ANS: C 96. ANS: A 133. ANS: E
21. ANS: C 59. ANS: A 97. ANS: D 134. ANS: A
22. ANS: A 60. ANS: C 98. ANS: D 135. ANS: A
23. ANS: B 61. ANS: C 99. ANS: C 136. ANS: A
24. ANS: A 62. ANS: A 100. ANS: A 137. ANS: A
25. ANS: B 63. ANS: A 101. ANS: C 138. ANS: A
27. ANS: D 65. ANS: A 103. ANS: A 140. ANS: A
28. ANS: B 66. ANS: D 104. ANS: A 141. ANS: A
29. ANS: D 67. ANS: C 105. ANS: D 142. ANS: A
30. ANS: C 68. ANS: D 106. ANS: A 143. ANS: A
31. ANS: A 69. ANS: A 107. ANS: D 144. ANS: A
32. ANS: E 70. ANS: B 108. ANS: B 145. ANS: A
33. ANS: E 71. ANS: B 109. ANS: D 146. ANS: A
34. ANS: E 72. ANS: A 110. ANS: B 147. ANS: A
35. ANS: E 73. ANS: C 111. ANS: C 148. ANS: A
36. ANS: A 74. ANS: B 112. ANS: C 149. ANS: A
37. ANS: D 75. ANS: B 150. ANS: A
A. Agricultural Mechanization, Agricultural Power, Agricultural Machinery and Equipment and
Allied Subjects
Multiple Choice
____ 1. It is the factor which considers the physical condition, heart-beat ratio and the body weight of a person when
operating a machine.
a. Humanistic factor c. Agronomic factor
b. Mechanical operation factor d. all of the above
____ 2. It is part of seeder that eventually distributes seed in rows.
a. Metering device c. Seed hopper
b. Drive wheel d. none of the above
____ 3. The pivotal point of connection of hitch to the tractor or a center of the articulated connection between link
and the implement.
a. Link point b. Hitch pin c. Hitch point d. all of the above
____ 4. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel of the heated air mechanical dryer to the theoretical heat
available from the fuel.
a. Burner efficiency c. Combustion efficiency
b. Furnace efficiency d. none of the above
____ 5. In testing agricultural machines s prescribed in the PAES standard of test, it should be operated by ______.
a. farmers d. Accredited Testing Organization
b. traders/cooperatives e. None of the above
c. manufacturer (s) representative
____ 6. Warranty for the construction and durability of mechanical rice thresher according to PAE standard shall be
within ____ after the purchase of the machine.
a. 6 months c. 24 months
b. 12 months d. none of the above
____ 7. A type of pump with vanes or impellers rotating inside a close housing which draws water into the pump
through a central inlet the periphery of the housing.
a. Axial flow pump c. Mixed flow pump
b. Centrifugal pump d. none of the above
____ 8. AA thresher has a capacity of 30 cavans per hour. Three men are required to operate the thresher. The other
data are as follows:
Purchase price =P40, 000 including engine
Utilization =1, 500hours per year, 8
hours/day
Estimated life = 7 years
What is the depreciation cost using straight line method?
a. 6, 568.35/year c. 5, 142.86/year
b. 3, 784.65/year d. None of the above
____ 9. A device suitable for cutting stainless steel plate.
a. Shear-cutter c. Acetylene gas cutter
b. Plasma cutter d. All of the above
____ 10. A drive where shafts are operating in un-direction.
a. Gears c. Chain and sprocket
b. Cross-belt d. None of the above
____ 11. A belt transmission suitable for cross-drive system.
a. V-belt c. Flat belt
b. Timing v-belt d. None of the above
____ 12. When welding deposit is applied to strengthen peg-tooth of a rice thresher, this method of treating metal is
used.
a. Heat treatment c. Hard facing
b. Welding d. None of the above
____ 13. Commonly used v-belt for agricultural operation in the Philippines.
a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. all of the above
____ 14. The smallest gears that are meshing together.
a. Spur b. Bevel c. Pinion d. All of the above
____ 15. If roller chain number 40 is to be replaced by no. 60, the strength chain will ______.
a. decrease c. remain except the size
b. increase d. none of the above
____ 16. A pulley that is used to tighten belt in a drive system.
a. Flat pulley c. V-pulley
b. Idler pulley d. none of the above
____ 17. A material commonly used as axle of agricultural machines.
a. Cold rolled steel shaft c. Round cast iron
b. Malleable steel round bar d. none of the above
____ 18. If the driver pulley diameter is increased, the speed of driven pulley will _____
a. decrease c. rotate at the same speed
b. increase d. none of the above
____ 19. A gauge 20 metal sheet in 2-inch pile of sheet has ______.
a. 20 sheets c. 60 sheets
b. 40 sheets d. none of the above
____ 20. It is a welding process that uses an electrode.
a. Gas welding c. Arc welding
b. Resistance welding d. none of the above
____ 21. It is a process of making metal product by pouring melted into a mold and then allowed to cool.
a. Hot working process c. Powder metallurgy
b. Casting d. none of the above
____ 22. A screw with shield to fix material properly together.
a. Cap screw c. Self-tapping screw
b. Tex screw d. None of the above
____ 23. Ability of material to resist indention.
a. Brittleness c. Hardness
b. Toughness d. All of the above
____ 24. A material that is resistant to slat corrosion.
a. Mild steel c. Stainless steel
b. Cast iron d. All of the above
____ 25. Which of the following is used for acrylic paint.
a. Paint thinner c. Primer epoxy
b. Lacquer thinner d. None of the above
____ 26. A coating material to protect metal from rusting.
a. Primer epoxy c. Red lead
b. Red oxide d. All of the above
____ 27. It is used to prevent bolt and nut from loosening.
a. Washer c. Screw
b. Spring d. None of the above
____ 28. A element that is used to drive flat belt.
a. Pulley c. Shelve
b. Sprocket d. None of the above
____ 29. It is used to fasten two machine parts together with the use of nut.
a. Bolt c. Rivet
b. Screw d. None of the above
____ 30. A centrifugal blower shall be driven by a gas engine. The set up are as follows: Engine speed=2200 rpm;
Blower speed=1800 rpm; Diameter of Engine Pulley=25 cm. What should the diameter of the blower pulley
be?
a. 28 cm c. 61 cm
b. 31 cm d. none of the above
____ 31. A gear used for intersecting shafts usually at right angles.
a. Worm gear c. Spur gear
b. Bevel gear d. All of the above
____ 32. When ordering flat belt, the parameters need to bee specified includes ____________.
a. width and thickness c. thickness and ply
b. width and ply d. None of the above
____ 33. If two flat parallel pulleys is to be drive in opposite direction, what would you recommend for this drive?
a. Open belt drive c. Quarter turn drive
b. Crossed drive d. None of the above
____ 34. It is a constant volume combustion cycle.
a. Otto cycle c. Dual cycle
b. Diesel cycle d. None of the above
____ 35. A mechanical breaking up of fuel into spray droplets by high velocity of air passing through a jet.
a. Atomization c. Turbo charging
b. Carburetor d. None of the above
____ 36. A device that meter the fuel and air and mixes them into harmonious mixture before the mixture enters the
combustion chamber of an engine.
a. Governor c. Carburetor
b. Air injection d. All of the above
____ 37. Suppose a 4-cylinder engine has a bore of 3.5 in. and a stroke of 4.0 in., What is the engine displacement?
a. 154 in³ c. 225 in³
b. 175 in³ d. None of the above
____ 38. Number of explosion of piston on a single cylinder, four stroke cycle engine in 100 revolution of the
crankshaft.
a. 100 c. 25
b. 50 d. None of the above
____ 39. Number of times the exhaust valve opens in 2-stroke cycle engine running at 2000 rpm.
a. 1000 c. 1500
____ 40. A device which connects or disconnects engine crankshaft to the or from the transmission box or driven
machine.
a. Differential gear c. Actuator
b. Clutch d. None of the above
____ 41. Gear oil is used for _________.
a. engine c. hydraulic system
b. transmission box d. All of the above
____ 42. Mean effective pressure for turbo-charge engine.
a. 300 psi. c. 400 psi.
b. 200 psi. d. None of the above
____ 43. Ignition timing for diesel engine.
a. 5-12 deg. c. 20-26 deg.
b. 17-19 deg. d. None of the above
____ 44. A type of engine that completes power stroke in two revolution of the crankshaft.
a. For stroke cycle engine c. All of thee above
b. Two stroke cycle engine d. None of the above
____ 45. What is the brake horsepower of the engine in item above if the mechanical efficiency is 80 percent.
a. 8 hp c. 35 hp
b. 31 hp d. None of the above
____ 46. The indicated power of an engine is 69 horsepower. The brake horsepower is 54. What is the mechanical or
engine efficiency.
a. 69% c. 59%
____ 47. What is the thermal efficiency of an engine which uses 0.6-lb of fuel per horsepower-hr. The fuel contain
20,000 BTU/lb
a. 21.2% c. 46.8%
b. 34.5% d. None of the above
____ 48. What is the total stroke per minute of the piston in item above?
a. 2000 c. 500
____ 49. What is the power stroke of the engine per cylinder in item above?
a. 50 c. 100
____ 50. What is the total power stroke of the engine in item above?
a. 150 c. 75
A. Agricultural Mechanization, Agricultural Power, Agricultural Machinery and Equipment and
Allied Subjects
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
13. ANS: C 26. ANS: D 38. ANS: B
1. ANS: C 14. ANS: C 27. ANS: A 39. ANS: D
2. ANS: A 15. ANS: B 28. ANS: A 40. ANS: B
3. ANS: C 16. ANS: A 29. ANS: A 41. ANS: B
4. ANS: C 17. ANS: A 30. ANS: B 42. ANS: C
5. ANS: C 18. ANS: B 31. ANS: B 43. ANS: B
6. ANS: A 19. ANS: B 32. ANS: B 44. ANS: A
7. ANS: B 20. ANS: C 33. ANS: B 45. ANS: A
8. ANS: B 21. ANS: B 34. ANS: B 46. ANS: B
9. ANS: B 22. ANS: D 35. ANS: A 47. ANS: A
10. ANS: C 23. ANS: C 36. ANS: C 48. ANS: C
11. ANS: C 24. ANS: C 37. ANS: A 49. ANS: B
12. ANS: C 25. ANS: D 50. ANS: B
Soil and Water resources development and conservation, irrigation and drainage and allied
subjects
Multiple Choice
____ 1. A barrier place in stream tp constrict the flow of water and cause it fall over a crest usually used to measure
discharge.
a. flume b. weir c. gabion d. staff gage
____ 2. What is the effect of the presence of extensive vegetation in a watershed?
a. reduce peak runoff rates c. both a and b
b. increases infiltration capacity d. none of the above
____ 3. Type of rainfall caused by the upward lifting of the air mass due to a mountain.
a. Convective rainfall c. Orographic rainfall
b. Frontal rainfall d. Cyclonic rainfall
____ 4. What do you call the mountain side, with reference to the wind direction, in which the air mass passing
through it is cold and dry?
a. wayward b. windward c. Trade wind d. Leeward
____ 5. Graphical representation of instantaneous runoff against time
a. hydrograph c. log-probability graph
b. monograph d. hytograph
____ 6. The capacity of rainfall (precipitation) to effect the detachment and transport of soil particles.
a. erodibilty b. effectivity c. erosivity d. conductivity
____ 7. Removal of soil by water from small but well defined channels when there is concentration of overland flow
a. stream channel erosion c. gully erosion
b. rill erosion d. sheet erosion
____ 8. It is the time required for water to flow from the most remote point of the watershed to the outlet
a. time to peak c. lag time
b. recession time d. time of concentration
____ 9. When is the best/recommended time to sample sediment load in the stream?
a. Intermittent flow c. Base flow
b. Peak flow d. Perennial flow
____ 10. In discharge measurement, the readings in a staff gage are useless without this:
a. synthetic hydrograph c. rating curve
b. unit hydrograph d. matching curve
____ 11. In the Soil Conservation method (curve number method), if the Curve number is 100, this indicates that:
a. rainfall = runoff c. rainfall is less than runoff
b. runoff = 0 d. rainfall is highly erosive
____ 12. Determine the 10-year period peak runoff for 80-hectare watershed having a runoff coefficient of 0.4. The
maximum length of flow of water is 610 meters and the fall along this path is 6.0 meters. The rainfall
intensity for that return period is 101.25 mm/hr having a duration equal to the time of concentration.
a. 9.0 b. 16.5 c. 1.5 d. 16.3
____ 13. A supercritical floe is a flow condition where
a. Fr = 1 b. Fr>1 c. Fr<1 d. Fr>4000
____ 14. The rate of decrease of temperature with the increase in elevation is called
a. updraft b. convection rate c. lapse rate d. deflection rate
____ 15. The USLE is method of computing soil erosion. What type of soil erosion does it estimated?
a. sheet erosion only c. sheet and rill erosion only
b. sheet, rill and gully erosion d. all types of erosion
____ 16. Type of flow wherein the discharge or flow in a prismatic channel is constant with respect to time.
a. laminar flow b. uniform flow c. steady flow d. critical flow
____ 17. In frequency analysis, most hydraulic processes, more or less, follow this process. This process is governed
by chance and time dependent. What type of process is this?
a. Deterministic Process c. Stochastic Process
b. Probabilistic Process d. Hydrolistic Process
____ 18. Marikina watershed having a drainage area of 500 sq. km. has been characterized to have an average CN
value of 65 in 1970 where it experienced a storm depth of 100 mm. After 30 years, the same storm magnitude
was felt but this time, due primarily to a change in land use inside the watershed, the CN value now is 84.
What is the percentage change in depth of runoff?
a. 1.33% b. 80% c. 41% d. 29%
____ 19. A horizontal fully flowing 4-inch pipe is discharging water. The X-coordinate and Y-coordinate of the water
trajectory as measured from the end of the pipe are 1.5m and 0.8, respectively. Assuming that the coefficient
of discharge is .0, what is thee discharge of the pipe?
a. 10 lps b. 20 lps c. 30 lps d. 40 lps
____ 20. On a 20% hill slope, it is proposed to construct bench terraces with 1:1 batter slope. If the vertical interval is 2
meters, what is the width of the terrace?
a. 10 m b. 8 m c. 20 m d. 16 m
____ 21. Water in the stream:
a. runoff b. stream flow c. discharge d. all of the above
____ 22. Water absorption by the soil surface:
a. overland flow b. percolation c. infiltration d. inter flow
____ 23. Water movement into deep groundwater reservoirs:
a. percolation b. infiltration c. stream flow d. capillary rise
____ 24. . Main input of water to the earth’s surface:
a. precipitation b. virga c. clouds d. all of the above
____ 25. The ozonosphere which absorbs much ultraviolet light from the solar spectrum is a layer within the:
a. troposphere c. mesosphere
b. stratosphere d. thermosphere
____ 26. The earth’s albedo is about:
a. 0.10 b. 0.20 c. 0.30 d. 0.40
____ 27. The region of occurrence of most weather in the atmosphere:
a. troposphere c. mesosphere
b. stratosphere d. thermosphere
____ 28. With temperature inversion there is:
a. isothermal condition c. positive lapse rate
b. negative lapse rate d. neutral temperature condition
____ 29. Rising air motion results from:
a. cooling of isolated air parcel
b. horizontal air divergence
c. air passing over the leeside of mountain
d. none of the above
____ 30. On a weather map, the line representing places of the same air pressure is:
a. isohyet b. isotherm c. isobar d. isogon
____ 31. A portion of precipitation which the land cannot absorb or retain in the surface:
a. interception b. evaporation c. runoff d. infiltration
____ 32. A geologic formation which may contain large quantities of water but which does not permit
movement of water at rates sufficient to support large springs or justify the development of well:
a. aquifer b. aquiclude c. aquifuge d. dam
____ 33. A graph that plots the measured stream flow discharge vs. water surface elevation:
a. hygrograph b. hydrograph c. rating curve d. hyetograph
____ 34. An overflow or inundation from a river or other body of water:
a. runoff b. precipitation c. storm d. flood
____ 35. The process of determining the stage height, storage volume, and outflow from a reservoir or a
stream reach from a particular inflow hydrograph:
a. flood routing c. flooding
b. basin d. none of the above
____ 36. Precipitation type resulting from heating of the ground surface that causes warming of the air
and local strong vertical air motions:
a. cyclonic c. orographic
b. convective d. none of the above
____ 37. A technique used to check the consistency of rainfall records of a station:
a. normal ratio method c. double mass analysis
b. arithmetic mean method d. Thiessen method
____ 38. . In hydrograph analysis, the time from which the concentration curve begins until the direct
runoff reaches zero:
a. time base c. rainfall duration
b. time of concentration d. standard duration of rain
____ 39. The hydrograph of one unit of direct runoff from a storm of specified duration:
a. runoff hydrograph c. unit hydrograph
b. storm hydrograph d. any of the above
____ 40. The level to which groundwater rises:
a. water table c. zone of saturation
b. zone of aeration d. vadose zone
____ 41. Particle density is the ratio of mass of the dry soil to the
a. bulk volume c. Soil volume
b. pore volume d. Air-filled pore volume
____ 42. Given a soil profile at equilibrium with a water table at-50 cm depth and the reference level is chosen at the
water table level. Determine the total water potential at the soil surface.
a. 50 cm b. 0 cm c. -50 cm d. none of the above
____ 43. The matric potential is zero and Zo (the distance from the surface of the mercury reservoir to the tensiometer
installed at 10 cm soil depth) is 20 cm. Find the reading in the mercury manometer.
a. 0.0 cm b. 0.6 cm c. 1.0 cm d. 1.6 cm
____ 44. What is the theoretical flow velocity in an orifice where the free water surface is 120 cm above the center of
the orifice.
a. 48.5 m/s c. 2.15 m/s
b. 3.50 m/s d. 4.85 m/s
____ 45. The recommended pressure variation in the lateral between the first and the last sprinkler is
a. 5% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 20%
____ 46. The soil property which is not affected by tillage and soil management but is dependent on the soil
mineralogy and organic matter content.
a. Bulk density c. porosity
b. Particle density d. void ratio
____ 47. A hydrograph shows the relationship with time of
a. flow velocity c. flow discharge
b. flow depth d. none of the above
____ 48. The best hydraulic section of a canal is characterized by:
a. minimum area for a given discharge c. applicable only to non-erodible channel
b. least wetted perimeter for a given area d. all of the above
____ 49. The coefficient of discharge for a weir includes correction for the effects of
a. physical characteristics of the weir c. both a and b
b. acceleration due to gravity d. none of the above
____ 50. The removal of soil by water from small but well-defined channels or streamlets when there is a concentration
of the overland flow.
a. sheet erosion c. gully erosion
b. rill erosion d. streambank erosion
____ 51. A type of drainage system where laterals meet the main line at only one side.
a. random b. natural c. gridiron d. herringbone
____ 52. Determine the power rating of a pump required to pump water at 158 gpm to a storage tank. The elevation of
the inlet to the storage tank is 3 m above the pump outlet. The source of water is a stream 3 m below the
pump suction inlet. The total length of the suction pipe is 5 m. Assume that all pipes and total friction loss is
1.6 m. The pump efficiency is 50% and the drive efficiency is 50% and drive efficiency is 100%.
a. 1.0 HP b. 2.0 HP c. 3.0 HP d. 1.5 HP
____ 53. An irrigation canal has the following data.
bottom width 60 cm
depth of flowing water 50 cm
side slope 1:1
channel slope 0.02
Manning’s n 0.035
Compute the capacity of the channel.

a. 0.851 m3/s
o
b. 0.935 m3/s c. 1.123 m3/s d. 0.568 m3/s
____ 54. The International Soil Science Society describes sand as a soil particle with the diameter of
a. 0.02 to 2 mm b. 0.2 to 2mm c. 0.002 to 0.02 mm d. 0.002 to 0.2 mm
____ 55. subsurface drain system wherein laterals join the submain on both sides alternately.
a. gridiron c. parallel drain system
b. herringbone d. double main system
____ 56. The localized lowering of the static or piezometric water level due to pumping.
a. groundwater decline c. subsidence
b. draw down d. depression
____ 57. Its a geologic formation which transmits water at a rate insufficient to be economically developed for
pumping.
a. aquifer b. aquiclude c. aquifuge d. aquitard
____ 58. An artesian well is a
a. hand-pumped well c. well-tapping a confined aquifer
b. free-flowing well d. well tapping an unconfined water
____ 59. If the impeller speed of a centrifugal pump is increased from 1800 rpm to 2340 rpm, the resulting power will
be how many times the original?
a. 1.690 b. 2.197 c. 1.091 d. 1.140
____ 60. A sprinkler spacing of 12 x 18 m and an application rate of 10 mm/hr will require a sprinkler with a capacity
of
a. 0.6 liter per second c. 3.6 liters per second
b. 6 liters per second d. 36 liters per second
____ 61. evapo-transpiration in n 8 ha farm is 7 mm/day and percolation losses is 2 mm/day. What is the design
discharge of a canal to be able to deliver a 5-day requirement of the farm in 24 hours if irrigation efficiency is
75%?
a. 150 m3/hr b. 200m3/hr c. 175m3/hr d. 140m3/hr
____ 62. One thousand two hundred and fifty cubic meters of water was delivered to a 10 ha farm for the month of
June in which the consumptive use is estimated at 8 mm/day. The effective rainfall for the period was 150
mm. what is the irrigation efficiency?
a. 32% b. 87% c. 72% d. 52%
____ 63. Ten cubic meters per hour is equal to
a. 2.78 lps c. both a and b
b. 44.03 gpm d. neither a nor b
____ 64. determine the maximum total head t which a 5 hp centrifugal pump can extract water at a rte of 25 lps if pump
efficiency is 65%?
a. 25.32 ft. b. 32.48 ft. c. 33.39 ft. d. 35.12 ft.
____ 65. An aquifer with an effective porosity of 0.10 has an average hydraulic conductivity of 11.0m/day. at a certain
time, the observed piezometric contour value at an upgrading point is 164 m and that at a down gradient point
is 152 m. Determine the velocity of groundwater flow if the average distance between the contours is 18 km.
a. 7 mm/day towards the up-gradient point
b. 7 mm/day towards the down gradient point
c. 14 mm/day towards the up-gradient point
d. 14mm/day towards the down-gradient point
____ 66. Given a shallow tube-well with maximum discharge of 15 lps and a total dynamic head of 7 meters.
determine the power rating of the prime over for the pump if pump and prime over efficiencies are 60 and
55% respectively.
a. 4 hp b. 3.5 hp c. 4.5 hp d. 5 hp
____ 67. If a 60º triangular weir (coefficient = 2.0) is placed across the irrigation canal and water height is observed to
be 0.5 m above the weir crest, will this water be just enough to irrigate the farm? If not, determine the amount
of water deficit or excess.
a. water is just enough to meet requirement c. water is in excess of 0.045 m3/s
b. water is in excess of 0.038 m3/s d. water is of 0.022 m3/s deficit
____ 68. What is the discharge in each sprinkler nozzle to irrigate a rectangular piece of land 150 m x 180m if the
laterals are set parallel to the longer side of the field. sprinkler spacing is 6m x 6m, irrigation water
requirement is 150mm and irrigation period is 6 hours.
a. 0.250 lps b. 0.375 lps c. 0.500 lps d. 0.125 lps
____ 69. The rate of movement of water from a level of soil surface into the soil.
a. permeability rate c. intake depth
b. hydraulic rate d. infiltration rate
____ 70. Clay soil has a diameter range of
a. more than 2 mm c. .2 - .02 mm
b. more than 0.02 mm d. less than .002 mm
____ 71. The most accurate method of measuring soil moisture is the
a. tensiometer c. neutron scattering
b. electrical resistance meter d. gravimetric
____ 72. ________ is the artificial application of water into the soil.
a. Irrigation c. Rainfall
b. Drainage d. Runoff
____ 73. The amount of soil porosity in a medium-textured soil is
a. highest c. moderate
b. lowest d. between moderate and highest
____ 74. Water that moves freely and drains out of the soil is
a. hygroscopic water c. gravitational water
b. capillary water d. imbibitional water
____ 75. One method of erecting perpendicular line is by the use of
a. stadia c. 3-4-5 method
b. odometer d. chaining
____ 76. A definite point on an object, the elevation and location of which are known is
known as
a. backsight c. height of instrument
b. foresight d. benchmark
____ 77. A _____ of instrument is an intervening point between two benchmarks upon which foresight and
backsight readings are taken.
a. turning point c. foresight

b. backsight d. height
____ 78. The process of determining the elevations of points at short measured intervals is called
a. profile leveling c. topographic mapping
b. differential leveling d. land leveling
____ 79. The soil tensiometer is accurate near the
a. wilting point c. groundwater
b. field capacity d. soil surface
____ 80. H in Hooghoudt’s drain spacing equation is
a. 3 ft b. 6 ft c. 17 ft d. 5.5 ft
____ 81. A crop grown between orchard trees or on field between cropping season to protect the land from leaching
and erosion.
a. cover crop d. inter-tilled crop
b. cash crop e. relay crop
c. companion crop
____ 82. AA crop which is planted in shortly before the first crop is to be harvested
a. cover crop d. inter-tilled crop
b. cast crop e. relay crop
c. companion crop
____ 83. The scientific name of tobacco is.
a. Brassical oleracea d. Gossypium hirsutum
b. Nicotiana tabacum e. dechantium aristatum
c. Nicotiana tartarum
____ 84. A combination of anabolic and catabolic reactions occurring in the body with the liberation of energy. It
evolves all the chemical reactions perform\ed by the cells to use the basic units of the nutrients for their
specific functions.
a. nutrition d. excretion
b. metabolism e. respiration
c. digestion
____ 85. A technique wherein a young embryo is collected from a donor female parent and then implanted into the
uterus of a recipient female parent
a. artificial insemination d. mastication
b. random mating e. multiple ovulation
c. embryo transfer
____ 86. The crops used for industrial processing are
a. sugarcane b. tobacco c. castor bean d. all of the above
____ 87. Geotropism is response of the plants to gravity. This response is an effect of growth hormone called
a. auxin b. gibberellins c. cytokinins d. ethylene
____ 88. The appearance of a plant with respect a particular character.
a. Phenotype b. genotype c. ideotype d. prototype
____ 89. The soil tilled when it is saturated with water.
a. wet land or low land preparation c. Dry land or upland preparation
b. Primary tillage preparation d. Zero tillage preparation
____ 90. From the electromagnetic spectrum, the light quality best absorbed for photosynthesis is
a. green b. red c. blue d. yellow
____ 91. Meat that has not undergone any substantial change from the time of slaughters.
a. meat-by-product d. corned meat
b. hot meat e. fresh meat
c. hot bone meat
____ 92. Severe reaction that occurs in some individual following introduction of antigens into their bodies
a. agalactia d. immunization
b. allergy e. defecation
c. bulling
____ 93. The period during which the reproductive organs first become functional.
a. fertilization d. puberty
b. weaning e. ovulation
c. finishing
____ 94. The addition of salt with or without nitrate, and sugar for the purpose of lightening shelf life and/or enhancing
the development f odor, color and flavor
a. flaying d. farrowing
b. freezing e. gelding
c. curing
____ 95. The scientific name for pigeon.
a. Columbia livia d. Numida meleagris
b. Anser domesticus e. Coturnix coturnix
c. Gallus gallus
____ 96. The scientific name for sheep.
a. Capra hircus d. Ovies aries
b. Sus domesticus e. Camelus dromedaries
c. Bubalus bubalis
____ 97. The common name for Copra hircus
a. sheep d. horse
b. pig e. goat
c. mule
____ 98. An edaphologist studies the soil in relation to
a. its genesis
b. to plant growth
c. its capacity to support buildings and structure
d. all of the above
____ 99. The chemical element in dolomite that is not an important constituent of calcite is
a. Mg b. Ca c. P d. O
____ 100. If the oxygen content of the soil air is 155 carbon dioxide will be:
a. 6 c. 0.5
b. .03 d. none of the above
____ 101. Which is the seat of chemical activities in the soil?
a. sand b. silt c. colloid d. clay
____ 102. Which has the highest pH dependent negative charges?
a. OM b. illite c. montmorillonite d. kaolinite
____ 103. How much water is required to dilute 15 liters of a solution that is 12 % dye so that a 5 % solution is
obtained?
a. 1.1 li b. 1.9 li c. 12 li d. 21 li e. 64 li
____ 104. Two airplanes, traveling in opposite directions, leaves an airport at the same time. If one plane average 480
mph and the other average 520. how long will it take befor they are 2000 miles apart?
a. 1 hr b. 2 hr c. 3 hr d. 3.5 hr e. 2.5 hr
____ 105. What is the width of a strip that must be plowed around a rectangular field 100m long by 60 m wide so that
the field will be two-thirds plowed?
a. 64.5 m b. 20 m c. 15.5 m d. 8 m e. 18 m
____ 106. The graph of an equation relating the temperature reading in Celsus degrees and the temperature reading in
Fahrenheit degrees is a line Water freezes at 0 ºC and 32 ºF and water boils at 100 ºC and 212 ºF Given that v
degrees Fahrenheit corresponds to x degrees Celcius. which of the following is an equation involving x and y?
a. 5y+9x+32=0 b. 5y-9x-32=32 c. 5y=9x+60 d. y=32+32 e. y=32x
____ 107. A building is located at the end of a street that is inclined at an angle of 8.4 deg. with the horizontal at a point
P 210 km down the street from the building the angle subtended by the building is 15.6 deg how tall is the
building?
a. 61.8 km b. 58.4 km c. 28.2 km d. 14.4 km e. 20.5 km
____ 108. For a package to be accepted by a particular mailing service, the sum of the lenght and girth (the perimeter of
a cross-section) must not be greater than 100 in. If a package is to be in a shape of a rectangular box with a
square cross-section what are the dimensions of the package having the greatest possible volume that can be
mailed by the service?
a. 50/3 in. by 50/3 in. by 50/3 in. d. 50 in. by 50 in by 100 in
b. 50/3 in. by 50/3 in. by 100/3 in. e. 20/3 in. by 20/3 in by 20/3 in.
c. 10 m, 7m
____ 109. The point (1,3) is on a curve and at any point (x,y) on the curve the tangent line has a slope equal to 2x-3.
Find the equation of the curve
a. y=x²-3x b. y=x²-3x+1 c. y=x²-3x+2 d. y=x²-3x-1 e. y=x²-3x-2
½
____ 110. A hole of radius 2(3) in is bored through the center of a spherical shaped solid of radius 4 in. What is the
volume of the solid cut out?
a. (224/3) cu. units d.  cu. units
b. (214/3) cu. units e.  cu. units
c.  cu. units
____ 111. A through having trapezodal cross section is full of water. If the trapezodal is 3 ft. wide at the top, 2 ft wide at
the bottom, and 2 ft deep, Find the total force owing to water pressure on one end of the trough
a. 200 lb. b. 182 lb. c. 292 lb d. 625 lb e. 198 lb.
____ 112. The volume of a water tank is V cubic meters when the depth of the water is h meters If the rate of change of
V with respect to h is given by dvdh= ( 2h + 3)², find the volume of the water in the tank when the depth is
3 m.
a. 117  cu. meters c.  cu. meters e. 729  cu. meters
b. 36  cu. meters d. 27  cu. meters
____ 113. An electric generator produces a 30 cycle alternating current describe by the equation 1(t)= 40 sin 60t -
(7/72where 1(t) amperes is the current at 1 seconds. Find the smallest positive value of t for wchich the
current is 20 amperes.
a. 90 b. 1/60 c. 46 d. 1/90 e. 1/45
____ 114. The cable of suspension bridge hangs in the form of parabola when the load is uniformly distributed
horizontally. The distance between two towers is 150m, the points of support of the cable on the towers are
22m above the roadway, and the lowest point on the cable is 7 m above the roadway. What is the vertical
distance to the cable from a point in the roadway, 15 m from the foot of a tower?
a. 81 m b. 14 m c. 16.6 m d. 18 m e. 16 m
____ 115. What is the center and radius of the circle passing through (0,3),(-4,1) and (-6,5)?
a. (-3,4); b. (3,-4); c. (-3,4); 10 d. (4,-3); 10
____ 116. What is the equation of the circle with center at (-4,2) and passing through (0,5)?
a. (x-4)² + (y+2)² = 49 c. (x-2)² + (y+4)² = 81
b. (x+4)² + (y-2)² = 25 d. (x+4)² + (y-2)² = 81
____ 117. What is the equation of the directrix of the parabola x = y² - 2y + 7?
a. y = 23/4 b. y = 5/4 c. x = 23/4 d. x = 25/4
____ 118. What is the domain of x = -
a. (-,0) b. (-3,0) c. all real numbers d. (-3,0)
____ 119. What is the graph of 6x² + 9y² - 54 + 51 = 0?
a. ellipse b. point c. empty set d. circle
____ 120. What are the coordinates of a point that is units below the x-axis and 5 units to the left of the y-axis?
a. (5,-3) b. (-5,-3) c. (-5,3) d. (5,3)
____ 121. You jog 1 miles due south, then jog mile due west, and then return to your starting point via a straight
line path. How many miles have you run?
a. 4.1 miles b. 2.75 miles c. 3.5 miles d. 4.5 miles
____ 122. Find the area of the region bounded by the x-axis, above by the curve y=3x²+7, and on the sides by vertical
lines at 1 and 5.
a. 125 b. 160 c. 152 d. 210
____ 123. The slope of the curve that passes through (2,5) is given by 2x. Find the equation.
a. y=x²-1 b. y=x²+9 c. y=x²+1 d. y=x²-9
____ 124. Find the equation of the line tangent to the parabola at the point on the parabola at which y =
2..
a. x = 7y b. 2y - 7x = 0 c. 2x =7 y d. 7x = y
____ 125. The area of the certain square exceeds that one of another square by 55 sq. inches. The perimeter of the larger
square exceeds twice that of the smaller by 8 inches. Find the side of the smaller square.
a. 3 inches b. 5 inches c. 2 inches d. 17/3 inches
____ 126. Which of the following is true about the function f(x) = x ?
a. continuous everywhere c. differentiable at x=0
b. has a removable discontinuity at x=0 d. continuous but not differentiable at x=0
____ 127. Find the equation of the line that passes through (2, -3) and parallel to 3x + y = 8.
a. 3x + y = 3 b. 2x + y = 3 c. x - 3y = 11 d. 2y + x = 12
____ 128. Find the sum and the product of the roots of 4z² - wz - 3 = 0.
a. - 1 and -3/4 respectively c. 4 and -3 respectively
b. 1 and -3/4 respectively d. -4 and -3 respectively
____ 129. What is the coefficient of x y in the expansion (x + y )13?
8 5
a. 1287 b. 8712 c. 2187 d. 7812
____ 130. Find the greatest value of the function y =
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. infinity
____ 131. If 40 mg of a radioactive substance decays to 5 mg in 12 minutes, find the half-life, in minutes, of the
substance.
a. 2 mins. b. 4 mins. c. 6 mins. d. 8 mins.
____ 132. What is the width of a strip that must be plowed around a rectangular field 100m long by 60 m wide so that
the field will be two-thirds plowed?
a. 64.5 m b. 20m c. 15.5m d. 8 m e. 18 m
____ 133. The cable of a suspension bridge hangs in the form of a parabola when the load is uniformly distributed
horizontally. The distance between two towers is 150m, the points of support of the cable on the towers are
22m above the roadway, and lowest point on the cable is 7m above the roadway. What is the vertical distance
to the cable from a point in the roadway, 15m from the foot of a tower?
a. 81 m b. 14 m c. 16.6 m d. 18 m e. 16 m
____ 134. A building is located at the end of the street that is inclined at an angle of 8.4 deg. with the horizontal.At a
point P, 210 km down the street from the building angle subtended by the building is 15.6 deg. How tall is
the building?
a. 61.8 km b. 58.4 km c. 28.2 km d. 14.4 km e. 20.5km
____ 135. An electric generator produces a 30 cycle alternating current described by the equation 1(t) = 40sin60[t-
(7/72)], where l(t) amperes is the current at t seconds. Find the smallest positive value of t for which the
current is 20 amperes.
a. 90 b. 1/60 c. 46 d. 1/90 e. 1/45
____ 136. is
a.  c. 2/3
b.  d. 0
____ 137. is

a. - c. 0
b. + d. -5
____ 138. The graph of g has an inflection point at
a. x = 3 b. x = 2 c. x = 1 d. x = 0
____ 139. The main objective of statistical inference is to:
a. Give the descriptive measure of the parent population
b. Make interference about the population based on the whole set of population values
c. Give inferences about the population based on representative sample of population values.
d. Give the descriptive measure of the sample data.
____ 140. If X~N(12, 16), find Xo so that P(X>Xo) = 0.2483. Given that P(Z<0.68) = 0.7517
a. 22.88 c. 9.28
b. 14.72 d. 1.28
____ 141. A 95% CI for the average time used to process a new insurance policy is 11 to 13 days. This means that
a. Only 5% of all policies take less than 11 or more than 13 days to process
b. Only 5% of all policies take between 11 to 13 days to process
c. About 95% out of every 100 intervals constructed from sample of the same sample size
will contain the true mean processing time
d. The probability is 0.95 that all policies take between 11 to 13 days
____ 142. In random sample of 100 students, 45 said they opposed the UPLB Master Plan 2000. An unbiased estimate
of the proportion of students who support the UPLB Masdter Plan 2000 is
a. 45/100 c. 55/100
b. 45 d. 55
____ 143. For nos 143-145, consider the following problem
Suppose a farmer wishes to compare 4 brands of fertilizer. twenty equally sized plots were
considered and the brands of fertilizers were randomly assigned to each plot with each brand having
equal number of plots assigned to it. The yield per plot was recorded. Assuming the assumptions of
ANOVA are met, the partial ANOVA is given below.
SV df Sum of Squares
Between Fertilizers 660
Within Fertilizers
TOTAL 780
The error degrees of freedom is
a. 3 b. 16 c. 19 d. 4
____ 144. The estimate for the variability between fertilizer is
a. 660 b. 220 c. 165 d. 7.5
____ 145. The value of the F-test statistic is
a. 22 b. 0.0341 c. 29.3333 d. 5.5
____ 146. In constructing confidence intervals for the true mean, increasing the confidence level at fixed n will give
a. same confidence interval c. narrower confidence interval
b. wider confidence interval d. cannot be determined
____ 147. For nos. 6-8, consider the following problem
Bodyline would like to know the effectiveness of a newly formulated diet. The diet was administered to
15 persons. The weight before and after they were subjected to the diet were taken as response variables.
This study makes use of
a. independent samples c. self-paired samples
b. matched samples d. random samples
____ 148. For nos. 148-150, consider the following problem.
Suppose an estimate of the correlation coefficient between increase in weight (Y) and the amount of
softdrink intake (X) is 0.85. Given the following:
SSY=225 SSX=289 Mean = 22 Mean X = 15
If simple linear regression analysis will be performed an estimate of the regression coefficient is
a. 191.25 b. 225 c. 0.75 d. 1.3333
____ 149. And an estimate of the regression constant is
a. -2 b. -3353 c. 10.75 d. 2.0005
____ 150. Which of the following is/are true about p?
l. -1p
11. It is positive when the slope of the regression line is positive
a. 1 only c. Neither 1 or 11
b. 11 only d. Both l and11
Soil and Water resources development and conservation, irrigation and drainage and allied
subjects
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: B 339. ANS: C 76. ANS: D 114. ANS: C

2. ANS: C 40. ANS: A 77. ANS: A 115. ANS: A
3. ANS: C 41. ANS: C 78. ANS: A 116. ANS: C
4. ANS: D 42. ANS: B 79. ANS: B 117. ANS: C
5. ANS: A 43. ANS: D 80. ANS: A 118. ANS: D
6. ANS: C 44. ANS: D 81. ANS: A 119. ANS: A
7. ANS: C 45. ANS: D 82. ANS: E 120. ANS: C
8. ANS: A 46. ANS: B 83. ANS: C 121. ANS: A
10. ANS: C 48. ANS: B 85. ANS: E 123. ANS: A
11. ANS: A 49. ANS: A 86. ANS: D 124. ANS: C
12. ANS: A 50. ANS: B 87. ANS: D 125. ANS: A
13. ANS: B 51. ANS: C 88. ANS: A 126. ANS: D
14. ANS: C 52. ANS: B 89. ANS: A 127. ANS: A
15. ANS: C 53. ANS: B 90. ANS: B 128. ANS: A
16. ANS: C 54. ANS: A 91. ANS: E 129. ANS: A
18. ANS: A 56. ANS: B 93. ANS: D 131. ANS: A
19. ANS: C 57. ANS: B 94. ANS: C 132. ANS: B
20. ANS: B 58. ANS: B 95. ANS: A 133. ANS: C
21. ANS: D 59. ANS: B 96. ANS: D 134. ANS: A
22. ANS: C 60. ANS: A 97. ANS: E 135. ANS: A
23. ANS: A 61. ANS: B 98. ANS: B 136. ANS: D
24. ANS: A 62. ANS: C 99. ANS: A 137. ANS: A
25. ANS: B 63. ANS: C 100. ANS: A 138. ANS: B
26. ANS: C 64. ANS: B 101. ANS: C 139. ANS: C
27. ANS: A 65. ANS: B 102. ANS: A 140. ANS: B
28. ANS: B 66. ANS: C 103. ANS: D 141. ANS: C
30. ANS: C 68. ANS: A 105. ANS: C 143. ANS: B
31. ANS: A 69. ANS: D 106. ANS: C 144. ANS: A
32. ANS: B 70. ANS: D 107. ANS: A 145. ANS: C
33. ANS: C 71. ANS: C 108. ANS: B 146. ANS: B
34. ANS: D 72. ANS: A 109. ANS: C 147. ANS: C
35. ANS: A 73. ANS: C 110. ANS: A 148. ANS: C
36. ANS: B 74. ANS: C 111. ANS: C 149. ANS: C
37. ANS: C 75. ANS: C 112. ANS: A 150. ANS: D
38. ANS: A 113. ANS: D
Rural Electrification, Agricultural Processing, Agricultural structures, and Allied Subjects
Multiple Choice
____ 1. Materials that opposes the flow of electric current.

a. Rubber c. Semi-conductor
b. Conductor d. Insulators
____ 2. A 12 Ampere tan and blower with a power factor of 0.85 was connected to a 240 V. as source. The power in
the circuit.
a. 2880 W c. 2448 W
b. 4.982 W d. 2450 W
____ 3. Two automobile 12 headlights are connected in series to a 12 V battery each
having a resistance
2 of What is the ? current flow in each light? 
a. 1.5 A c. 3 A
b. 2 A d. 6 A
____ 4. Three resistors A, B and C are connected in series to d 120 V source. If R A = 64 ohms, VB = 40 volts when the
circuit current is 0.5 amp. What is the current flow on R B?
a. 300 ma c. 500 ma
b. 400 ma d. 1A
____ 5. At what speed will a 14 pole, 60 cycle induction motor operates if the slip is 0.09
a. 468 ppm c. 489 ppm
b. 515 ppm d. 450 ppm
____ 6. Two purely resistance loads are connected in parallel to a 120V, 60Hz source. If the current to the first is 5A
and 10A to the second load. What is the total current drawn from the source.
a. 5.8A c. 15A
b. 8A d. 20amp.
____ 7. Two impedance are connected in parallel across a 100 volts, 60 Hz source. The current and power to the first
are 5A and 100W and to the second 10A and 867W respectively. The total current is?
a. 10A c. 13.82 Amp.
b. 12A d. 15A
____ 8. H is the unit of inductance and it is equivalent to 1 volt - sec
_______
Amp
a. farod c. Henry
b. ohm d. a
____ 9. Electrical resistance of conductors is commonly proportional to the
a. resistively c. area
b. length d. temperature
____ 10. This type of wire consists of wires twisted to form a metallic string.
a. cable c. stranded wire
b. solid wire d. co-axial
____ 11. Voltage is 120 volts, current is 10 amp. and time is 6 hrs. Ret. the energy used.
a. 720 WH c. 7KWH
b. 7200WH d. 7.5KWH
____ 12. What is the efficiency if a 3/4 hp motor that requires an input of 1000w of electric power
a. 50% c. 60%
b. 56% d. 75%
____ 13. The property of an electric circuit that opposes a charge in current.
a. capacitance c. inductance
b. impedance d. none of the above
____ 14. Unity power factor loads are electrical loads that contains;
a. pure capacitance c. pure impedance
b. pure resistance d. none of the above
____ 15. It is a device used for transferring electrical energy from one circuit to another without a change in frequency.
a. diode b. transformer c. motor d. none of them
____ 16. This refers to the circuit that extend from the panel board to a group of outlets or to a single utilization
equipment.
a. distribution line c. small appliance outlet
b. branch circuit d. bus
____ 17. It is the device used to measure the energy consumed over a period of time.
a. watt-hour meter c. galvanometer
b. watt meter d. power factor meter
____ 18. This refers to all circuit conductors from the service equipment up to the final utilization outlets.
a. service wire b. feeder c. branch circuit d. distribution wire
____ 19. It is the short length of wire used to make a connection between a terminal or around a break in a circuit.
a. junction b. connector c. jumper d. junction box
____ 20. What is the slip at full load?
a. 2% b. 2.66% c. 3.2% d. 4.0%
____ 21. An Electric motor has a trade and label indicating 2hp, 240 V, 15A. The motor efficiency is 85%.
What is the power input to the motor?
a. 1550W b. 1650W c. 1755W d. 1800W
____ 22. A three-phase Y connected alternator delivers a unity power factor load @ 230 V. If the reactance voltage
drop is 60 volts per phase, calculate the generated voltage per phase.
a. 130.5 V b. 132.8 V c. 140 V d. 145.72 V
____ 23. It is the centroidal point of the electrical system.
a. pole b. indoor c. outdoor d. load center
____ 24. An electrical appliance has a nameplate indicating rated input voltage of 230 V. If operated at a time when the
voltage is 208V, what is its efficiency?
a. 78% b. 82% c. 90.43% d. 95%
____ 25. A 50 HP synchronuous motor has a fuel load efficiency of 91% and operates at a power factor of 0.8 loading.
the power input to the motor is:
a. 50kw b. 45kw c. 41kw d. 40kw
____ 26. What is that factor with which the VA must be multiplied in order to obtain the actual power.
a. power factor c. resistive factor
b. voltage regulation d. inductance
____ 27. What amount of current will cause a 15-ampere fuse in a 120-volt circuit to open (blow)?
a. 1450 micro-amperes
b. 120 milliuamperes
c. current exceeding 15A
d. All of the above
____ 28. When measuring a DC voltage and the meter pointer deflects to the left you should
a. increase the range of the meter
b. change the meter
c. interchange the test probe
d. stop thee measuring
____ 29. A direct current shunt motor has the following specifications and operating conditions. Line current = Motor
rating = 10HO; line voltage = 220V; Operating Speed = 1200 rpm.
From the above given, What is the efficiency of motor at full load.
a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 85%
d. 90%
____ 30. What is the torque in N-m at rated load.(data given at question no. 29)
a. 4
b. 59
c. 84
d. 60
____ 31. (31-38)A survey conducted by an electric Cooperative shows that a village would need 12, 000 KW to be
delivered at 50, 000 Volts, 60 cycles, over a distance of 40 km from the power plant with the power factor of
the load at 85%, lagging current. The cooperative decided to use a three- phase transmission line with No. 000
copper wire space 183 cm having resistance of 0.204 /km and a resistance of 0.464 /km. Neglecting
capacitance between conductors.
determine the resistance per conductor.

a. 0.204 b. 8.16 c. 20.4 d. 81.6
____ 32. What is the reactance per conductor
a. 0.464 b. 185.6 c. 4.64 d. 18.6
____ 33. Estimate the resistance drop per conductor.
a. 1330V b. 3026V c. 163A d. 54KV
____ 34. Calculate the reactance drop per conductor
a. 1330V b. 3026V c. 163A d. 54KV
____ 35. What is the input line voltage.
a. 55KW b. 50KV c. 12KV d. 3KV
____ 36. Determine the power loss in the line.
a. 650KW b. 55KW c. 3KW d. 1.3KW
____ 37. Calculate the transmission efficiency.
a. 855 b. 90% c. 95% d. 99%
____ 38. What is the line current.
a. 138.6 b. 192 c. 96 d. 163
____ 39. An 18 KW, 220V, 3Ø induction motor has the following specifications and operating conditions.
line current = 40 A; motor rating = 10 hp; line voltage = 220V; operating speed = 1200 rpm
The percentage slip of the motor is;
a. 96% c. 0.04%
b. 45 d. 3%
____ 40. The Philippine electrical code specifies that all wall switches be installed on the _______________ of the
door
a. left side c. latch side
b. hinge side d. front side
____ 41. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is
a. always negative d. sometimes positive
b. sometimes negative e. always positive
c. zero
____ 42. Select the material with the highest thermal conductivity.
a. air c. glass d. steel e. water
b. copper
____ 43. In an “ideal” situation, what is the COP of a refrigeration cycle that is operating between minus 40°C?
a. 0.5 b. 0.0 c. 3.0 d. 5.0 e. 7.0
____ 44. How much ice is needed to cool a gallon of punch from 20°C to 4°C. Assume specific heat of punch is 4.23
kJ/kg C, heat of fusion of ice is 335 kJ/kg and ice initially at freezing temperature.
a. 0.4 b. 0.7 c. 1.0 d. 2.5 e. 3.5
____ 45. Find the vapor pressure (partial pressure) of water in the air if the total pressure = 101.325 kPa, relative
humidity = 50%, saturation pressure at 30 kPa
a. 15.0 kPa b. 30.0 kPa c. 50.0 kPa d. 71.3 kPa e. 86.3 kPa
____ 46. Two just saturated air-vapor mixture are throughly mixed. The final stage of the mixture is
a. still saturated c. completely condensed out e. no way to tell
b. unsaturated d. partly condensed out
____ 47. Generally, palay can be stored safely up to 2 to 3 months at moisture content of
a. 28% b. 24% c. 18% d. 14% e. 10%
____ 48. The recommended temperature for long term storage of fresh food products is
a. ambient temperature d. just below freesing
b. just above freezing e. at low freezing temperature
c. at freezing point
____ 49. How much liter of kerosene is needed to dry 1 ton of palay from 30% to 14%? Assume latent heat
vaporization is 2500 kJ/kg; heating value of kerosene is 43 MJ/kj; specific gravity is 0.8 and efficiency of
80%.
a. 11 b. 13 c. 17 d. 21 e. 46
____ 50. The expression used to indicate the amount of bran removed in the milling process is called
a. bran recovery c. head rice recovery e. milling recovery
b. degree of milling d. milling percentage
____ 51. The amount of foreign materials or impurities from a sample of paddy which is usually expressed as
percentage is called
a. chaff c. immature grains e. scalper
b. dockage d. purity
____ 52. The average yield per hectare (tons/ha) of palay in the Philippines is about
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 3 d. 5 e. 15
____ 53. A type of dryer wherein the flow is transverse to the direction of flow of the product being dried is called
a. batch b. circulating c. concurrent d. counter-flow e. cross-flow
____ 54. A rice miller buys 1 ton dried clean palay at P12/kg. assuming that his cost of operation is P3/kg milled rice,
how much should he sell (P/kg) to break-even? Neglect by-products and assume milling recovery of 64%.
a. 14 b. 18 c. 20 d. 22 e. 24
____ 55. Equalization of moisture or temperature throughout the product, bringing to a desired moisture content or
temperature for processing is called
a. drying b. tempering c. curing d. aeration e. dehydration
____ 56. Kinetic energy is the energy of the body due to its
a. elevation c. motion
b. temperature d. pressure
____ 57. Power is work done as
a. 33,000 ft-lb c. 2450 kg
b. per unit time d. work times distance
____ 58. An inventor proposed to operate an engine between two layers of the ocean. One at 90 oF and the
other at 40oF. The maximum possible efficiency of the engine is nearest
a. 10.1 % c. 8.1%
b. 9.1 % d. . 7.!%
____ 59. Area under T-s diagram is defined as
a. work c. change in internal energy
b. heat d. none of the above
____ 60. A closed stationary system consists of 2 kg mass. During a certain process, 20 kJ of work is done on
the system and the internal energy increased by 40 kJ/kg.
a. System will gain 120 kJ of heat from surrounding
b. System will not gain heat
c. System will absorb 60 kJ of heat from the surrounding
d. System will transfer 60 kJ of heat to the surrounding
____ 61. Thermodynamics cycle used in thermal power plan

a. Erricson b. Brayton c. Rankine d. Carnot
____ 62. The state of a pure substance is defined completely if we define
a. pressure and temperature c. two intensive properties
b. two independent intensive properties d. any two properties
____ 63. Torque is a force that tend to produce
a. tension c. rotation
b. compression d. bending
____ 64. A mass of 5 kg of saturated vapor at 200 kPa is heated at constant pressure until the temperature
reaches 300oC. Calculate the work done by the steam during this process. At 200 kPa saturated v g=
0.8857 m3/kg, at 200 Kpa and 300oC v= 1316.2 L/kg
a. 430.5 kJ c. 504.3 kJ
b. 540.3 kJ d. 403.5 kJ
____ 65. A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work associated with the container. From the
first law of thermodynamics. You determine the heat added to be
a. equal to the work c. equal to zero
b. equal to the change in internal energy d. equal to unity
____ 66. If the temperature of the medium is 0oC, what will be the temperature if it is doubled?
a. 0oC c. 273oC
o
b. 524 R d. 460oF
____ 67. If a centrifugal pump tends to vibrate, it might be caused by:
a. misalignment c. clogged or damaged impeller
b. worn bearings d. Any of the above
____ 68. A pyrometer measures:
a. temperature c. volume
b. pressure d. mass
____ 69. The steam power cycle is modeled by ideal cycle known as the:
a. Otto Cycle c. Rankine Cycle
b. Brayton Cycle d. Diesel Cycle
____ 70. What is the power in kW produced by a 100 HP engine?
a. 74.6 c. 150
b. 80.5 d. 125
____ 71. Refers to the temperature at which molecular motion ceases, according to the kinetic theory of heat.
a. critical point c. absolute zero
b. triple point d. absolute temperature
____ 72. Combustion occurs as the piston is at the top of cylinder thus the process is isometric, if the
temperature increases from 127oC to1327oC during the combustion process. Determine the final
pressure in kPaa if the initial pressure is 200 kPaa.
a. 2000 c. 800
b. 1600 d. 1300
____ 73. A vapor compression refrigeration system has a 30-kW motor driving compressor with inlet
enthalpy of 345 kJ/kg and discharges with an enthalpy of 398 kJ/kg. Saturated liquid enters the
expansion valve at 238.5 kJ/kg enthalpy. Determine the capacity of the unit in Tons of refrigeration.
a. 14.7 b. 17.1 c. 11.7 d. 16.6
____ 74. A reversed carnot cycle uses R-12 as the working fluid. Refrigerant enters the condenser as saturated
vapor at 30oC and leaves as saturated liquid. The evaporator temperature is at constant -10oC.
Determine the COP
a. 6.75 b.
7.56 c. 6.57 d. 7.65
____ 75. The refrigeration system has a refrigerating capacity of 220 kJ/kg. The heat required to remove is
630 kJ/hr. Calculate the mass circulated per hr.
a. 3.18 kg/hr b. 10 kg/hr c. 8 kg/hr d. 2.8 kg/hr
o
____ 76. Heat is supplied to 20 lb m of ice at 32 F at the rate of 160 BTU/s. If the heat of fusion is 144 BTU/lb,
how long will it take to convert ice to water at 50oF (Cpw=1BTU/lboR).
a. 25.45s b. 20.25s c. 22.05s d. 25.20s
____ 77. What power is required to drive a refrigeration system with a COP of 5 to remove a heat equivalent
of 100 tons
a. 80 Hp c. 105.2 Hp
b. 94.4 Hp d. 30 Hp
____ 78. As heat is removed from a substance it gets colder. When no more heat can be removed and the
temperature cannot be lowered any further, we have reached
a. perfect zero c. double zero
b. absolute zero d. cold zero
____ 79. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on the pressure enthalpy diagram
represents
a. compression of refrigerant vapor c. condensation of refrigerant vapor
b. evaporation of liquid refrigerant d. metering of liquid refrigerant
____ 80. In which part of vapor compression system there is a change in pressure and temperature
a. Evaporator c. compressor
b. condenser d. dryer
____ 81. What refrigerant is most commonly used for air conditioning of passenger air craft
a. ammonia c. CO2
b. R-11 d. air
____ 82. Air at a 4m by 4m by 4m room has a relative humidity of 80%. The pressure in the room is 120kPa
and temperature of 35oC (Psat= 5.628kPa). What is the mass of vapor in air on the room?
(Rv=0.4615kJ/kg K)
a. 2.03kg c. 0.80kg
b. 1.50kg d. 4.80kg
____ 83. How much heat in calorie is produced in 5 min by an electric iron which draws 5 amp from a 220
volts line. There are approximately 2.239 cal/joule
a. 738870 c. 739000
b. 738880 d. 739880
____ 84. Determine the time in seconds will it take to raise temp of 136 kg of water from 30 to 80 oC by means
of a 3 kW immersion heater when the heat losses are 10%.
a. 10500s b. 10000s c. 10447s d. 10578s e. 11000s
____ 85. Consider 1.0 cm wall made of polyethylene board (k=0.026W/mK) which is exposed to still air
(h=9.37W/m2K) on the inside and the other surface exposed to 24km/hr wind (h=34W/m 2K).
Determine the overall coefficient of heat transfer in W/m2K.
a. 0.0075 c. 1.92
b. 0.052 d. 5.73
____ 86. The tank of an air compressor has a volume of 0.2 m3 and is filled with dry air (R=287J/kgK) at a
temperature of35oC. If the absolute pressure of the tank is 7.5 bars, what is the mass of air in the
tank?
a. 1.0 kg c. 1.5 kg
b. 1.7 kg d. 1.2 kg
____ 87. A refrigeration system on the reversed carnot cycle has a minimum and maximum temperature of
-25oC and 72oC respectively. If the heat rejected in the condenser is 6000 kJ/min. Determine the
required power.
a. 16.868kJ/min c. 1,686.8kJ/min
b. 168.68kJ/min d. 168,680kJ/min
____ 88. A continuous-flow type dryer in which the drying bin is a columnar type with louvers causing mixing to occur
as the grain flows through the system.
a. Mixing type c. Recirculating type
b. Non-mixing type d. None of the above
____ 89. Pressure build up in the plenum chamber to maintain uniform distribution of air flow through the grain mass.
a. Velocity pressure c. Dynamic pressure
b. Static pressure d. Two of the above
____ 90. It indicates the uniformity of grind in the resultant product.
a. Uniformity sex c. Fineness modulus
b. Particle size d. All of the above
____ 91. The percentage speed difference between rubber and rollers.
a. 15% c. 25%
____ 92. When a bucket elevator is to be fed at the downside section instead of the upside section of the elevator booth,
its power requirement will _____________.
a. Decrease c. The same
b. Increase d. None of the above
____ 93. A rice mill huller which produces high milling recovery.
a. Steel huller c. Stone disk
b. Rubber huller d. None of the above
____ 94. An example of moisture determination using primary method.
a. Resistance type meter c. Oven
b. Capacitance type meter d. All of the above
____ 95. In grain drying theory, drying will occur if __________
a. The vapor pressure of grains is higher than c. The vapor pressure of grains is equal with
the vapor pressure of air the vapor pressure of air
b. The vapor pressure of grain s is lower that d. None of the above
the vapor pressure of air
____ 96. It is the indicator of the quality of food which determines wether or not it is acceptable to the consumers.
a. Taste c. Palatability
b. Flavor d. None of the above
____ 97. A process used for many food products by giving aeration treatment to improve the color, flavor, aroma
retention, or reduce the volume of the product.
a. Degassing c. Exhausting
b. Blending d. All of the above
____ 98. Pre-drying temperature requirement for mushroom.
a. 80-90ºF c. 250-300ºF
b. 120-125ºF d. None of the above
____ 99. A pre-treatment procedure to keep the color and quality of vegetable before drying.
a. trimming c. Salting
b. Blanching d. None of the above
____ 100. Any tag, brand mark, pictorial, or other descriptive matter, written, printed, marked, embossed or impressed
on, or attached to a container of food.
a. Nutrition facts c. Trademark
b. Label d. None of the above
____ 101. Beam is a basic structural element that support a load perpendicular to
a. the x-axis c. the y-axis
b. its longitudinal axis d. its cross section
____ 102. A wood beam is checked for its strength and resistance against
a. shear, bending, deflection compression c. shear, moment, deflection compression
b. shear, bending, buckling compression d. shear, bending deflection, bearing
____ 103. Given: (for nos. 103-110)
Apitong
strength (MPa)
bending 16.30
compression
parallel to grain 9.65
perpendicular to grain 2.59
shear 1.10
Modulus of Elasticity (GPa) 11.00
Determine:
Maximum concentrated load in bending that can be supported by a 3 m long beam with a 20 cm width and a
30 cm depth when it is applied at the middle.
a. 24.5 KPa c. 65.2 KPa
b. 37.7 KPa d. 43.5 KPa
____ 104. Resistance per conductor
a. 81.6 ohms b. 16.8 ohms c. 8.16 ohms d. 1.68 ohms e. 6.18 ohms
____ 105. Reactance per conductor
a. 18.65 per conductor c. 16.65ohms e. 15.65 ohms
b. 18.56 ohms d. 16.85 ohms
____ 106. Resistance drop per conductor
a. 133 KV b. 13.3 K c. 1.33V d. 1.33 K e. 133 V
____ 107. Reactance drop pert conductor
a. 3.03 V b. 30.3 K c. 3.03 K d. 303V e. 303 K
____ 108. Input line voltage
a. 54.82V b. 54.82 K c. 5.84 KV d. 584 V e. 303KV
____ 109. Power loss in the line
a. 65.4 KW b. 64KW c. 654 W d. 656 KW e. 650 KW
____ 110. Line current
a. 61.3 A b. 163 A c. 1.63 A d. 613 A e. 16.3 A
____ 111. Mr. Morales bought two pieces of 2”x 4x 10” and three pieces of 3” x 6”x 12” lumber at a price of P
26.00/bd.ft If he planned only two sides of the first two lumber and all sides of the last three and sell it at an
additional price of 2.00 per bd.ft for S2S lumber and 5.00 per bd.bd for S4S lumber, what will be his profit?
(assuming no cost for planning the lumber)
a. P 266 c. P297 e. none of the above
b. P 300 d. P 196
____ 112. A straight carbon steel which contain 0.20 to 0.60% carbon is called
a. low carbon steel c. medium carbon steel e. nota
b. high carbon steel d. alloy steel
____ 113. A circular concrete post 4 m high with a diameter of 10 inches is resting on a square concrete footing whose
top side perimeter is equalto120 inches and a thickness of 10 inches.If a mixture ratio of1:2:4 is to be use,
find the quantity of cement, sand and gravel.
a. 2 bags 0.18 cu. m, 0.35 cu.m d. 3 bags 0.18 cu. m, 0.35cu.m
b. 2.8 bags 0.17 cu. m, 0.35 cu.m e. 3 bags 1.8 cu. m, 3.5 cu.m
c. 3 bags 6.36 cu. m, 12.36c u.m
____ 114. Deals with the relation between the externally applied loads and their internal effects on bodies
assumed not ideally rigid.
a. mechanics c. strength of materials
b. static d. kinetics
____ 115. Deals with the relation of forces acting on bodies in equilibrium.
a. mechanics c. Strength of materials
b. statics d. kinematics
____ 116. The deformation when the load is released after reaching the elastic limit of the material.
a. zero b. temporary c. permanent d. none
____ 117. The slope of the stress-strain diagram under proportional limit
a. ductility b. elasticity c. strain d. stress
____ 118. Beam having excess supports that requires additional equation to obtain the reactions.
a. statics c. statically determinate
b. statically indeterminate d. kinetics
____ 119. The ratio of ultimate stress and allowable stress.
a. tolerance b. allowance c. factor of safety d. ultimate ratio
____ 120. State that “within the range of elastic behavior, the elongation is proportional to the tensile force”
a. Newton’s law b. Hooke’s law c. strain d. poison’s ratio
____ 121. The deformation due to twisting of fiber.
a. angular b. axial c. flexural d. elongation
____ 122. The equivalent of 746 Hp in kW.
a. 556.52 b. 655.25 c. 565.52 d. 100
____ 123. Merely the graphical visualization of shear and moment.
a. equation b. diagram c. support d. graph
____ 124. Beam supported by hinge and a roller reaction, with either or both ends extending beyond the
supports.
a. simple b. cantilever c. overhanging d. rod
____ 125. Beam supported only at one end.
____ 126. (For nos. 126-130) Sign of bending moment if it produces bending of beam concave downward.
For the truss shown, if the cross sectional area of all the member is 800mm2.
8kN
4kN D 4kN
B F
2kN 3m
A H
3 3 3 3
C E G
a. none b. negative c. positive d. all
____ 127. The reaction in kN at A is
a. 7.75 b. 2 c. 8.49 d. 8.25
____ 128. The reaction in kN at H is
a. 7.75 b. 2 c. 8.49 d. 8.25
____ 129. The stress in member DF
a. 17.48 MPa b. 5.59 MPa c. 18.13 MPa d. 6.75 MPa
____ 130. The stress in member EG
____ 131. It is the process of removing heat from a substances or space at a lower temperature.
a. Sublimation c. Refrigeration
b. Heat of fusion d. All of the above
____ 132. The quantity of heat in the substance is describe in terms of _____________
a. BTU c. Pascal
b. Calories d. All of the above
____ 133. Ten BTU is equivalent to ______________
a. 2520 calories c. 2045 calories
b. 2250 calories d. None of the above
____ 134. It is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance one degree scale.
a. Sensible heat c. Latent heat
b. Specific heat d. None of the above
____ 135. It is the cooling coil of a refrigeration system
a. Condenser c. Compressor
b. Evaporator d. None of the above
____ 136. The introduction of fresh ambient air to an air-conditioned or refrigerated space.
a. Cooling c. Air filtration
b. Air changes d. None of the above
____ 137. Lowest temperature that is safe for storage of banana is _____________
a. Below 14ºC c. Below 0ºC
b. below 5ºC d. All of the above
____ 138. It is the process of exposing freshly harvested product and carefully prepared food to subzero temperatures
and holding them at 32 ºC during storage period to maintain the quality of the products.
a. Cold storage c. Sharp freezing
b. Quick freezing d. All of the above
____ 139. Most favorable cold storage temperature for eggs.
a. 29-30ºC c. 28ºF
b. 29-30ºF d. None of the above
____ 140. A freezer that operates at an air temperature of -30F and below and a velocity of 500 to 100 fpm.
a. Sharp freezer c. Contact plate freezer
b. Air blast freezer d. All of the above
____ 141. A 3 hp engine is to be replace with electric motor. Recommend for the size of the motor for the drive.
a. 1 hp c. 5 hp
b. 2 hp d. None of the above
____ 142. In order to minimized darkening of carcass of poultry meat, it is recommended that before cold storage
poultry meat should be ______________
a. Slowly be frozen and undergo scalding c. Undergo scalding process
process
b. Frozen rapidly d. None of the above
____ 143. Tenderness of poultry meat can be maintained during cold storage by ______________
a. Storing it in aluminum foil c. Storing it in unpacked
b. Storing it in plastic net d. All of the above
____ 144. It is the most popular refrigerant for air conditioning.
a. R-12 (Dichlordiflouromethane) c. R-502 ) Mixture of R-22 and R 115)
b. R-22 Monochlorodiflouromethane) d. All of the above
____ 145. Which of the following statement is true:
a. The motor and compressor of a c. The compressor and the motor of a
refrigeration system is separately installed. refrigeration system is non-hermitic type?
b. The motor and compressor of a d. None of the above
refrigeration system is housed in the same
compartment
____ 146. A newly discovered refrigerant that is not harmful for zone layer or referred to as “ zone friendly gas.”
a. R12 c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a)
b. Ammonia d. All of the above
____ 147. When heat is transmitted through molecular waves, it is transmitted by_____________
a. Convection c. Radiation
b. Conduction d. None of the above
____ 148. The unit of energy in SI system is ___________
a. Newton-meter c. W-sec.
b. Joules d. All of the above
____ 149. What is the total board foot of 5 pieces of 2 in x 6 in. X 14 feet wood?
a. 50 bd ft c. 70 bd ft
b. 60 bd ft d. None of the above
____ 150. it is considered a refractory material
a. Lime c. Silica
b. Alumna d. None of the above
Rural Electrification, Agricultural Processing, Agricultural structures, and Allied Subjects
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
38. ANS: D 76. ANS: B 113. ANS: C
2. ANS: C 40. ANS: C 78. ANS: B 115. ANS: B
3. ANS: A 41. ANS: E 79. ANS: B 116. ANS: C
4. ANS: C 42. ANS: B 80. ANS: C 117. ANS: B
5. ANS: A 43. ANS: C 81. ANS: D 118. ANS: B
6. ANS: C 44. ANS: B 82. ANS: A 119. ANS: C
8. ANS: A 46. ANS: D 84. ANS: C 121. ANS: A
9. ANS: C 47. ANS: D 85. ANS: C 122. ANS: A
11. ANS: B 49. ANS: C 87. ANS: C 124. ANS: C
12. ANS: B 50. ANS: B 88. ANS: A 125. ANS: B
13. ANS: B 51. ANS: B 89. ANS: B 126. ANS: B
14. ANS: A 52. ANS: C 90. ANS: C 127. ANS: A
15. ANS: B 53. ANS: E 91. ANS: C 128. ANS: C
16. ANS: B 54. ANS: A 92. ANS: B 129. ANS: A
19. ANS: C 57. ANS: B 95. ANS: B 132. ANS: D
20. ANS: B 58. ANS: B 96. ANS: C 133. ANS: A
21. ANS: C 59. ANS: B 97. ANS: A 134. ANS: B
22. ANS: D 60. ANS: C 98. ANS: A 135. ANS: B
23. ANS: D 61. ANS: A 99. ANS: B 136. ANS: B
24. ANS: B 62. ANS: B 100. ANS: B 137. ANS: A
25. ANS: A 63. ANS: C 101. ANS: C 138. ANS: B
26. ANS: A 64. ANS: A 102. ANS: B 139. ANS: B
28. ANS: C 66. ANS: C 104. ANS: C 141. ANS: B
29. ANS: C 67. ANS: D 105. ANS: B 142. ANS: B
30. ANS: B 68. ANS: A 106. ANS: D 143. ANS: A
32. ANS: D 70. ANS: A 108. ANS: B 145. ANS: B
33. ANS: A 71. ANS: C 109. ANS: E 146. ANS: C
35. ANS: A 73. ANS: B 111. ANS: C 148. ANS: D
36. ANS: A 74. ANS: C 112. ANS: C 149. ANS: C
37. ANS: C 75. ANS: D 150. ANS: C
Farm Management
Multiple Choice
____ 1. The person responsible for helping the organization achieve its goals is called
a. Planner d. Leader
b. Organizer e. Developer
c. Manager
____ 2. The management process by which the managers think their through in advance and where the organizations
mission, vision, goals and objectives are made is called
a. Organizing d. Controlling
b. Staffing e. Directing
c. Planning
____ 3. What is the ratio of output over input?
a. Planning d. Efficiency
b. effectiveness e. Organizing
c. Controlling
____ 4. It refers to the cultivation of land with or without the benefit of sound business, technical knowledge and
skills.
a. Farm management d. Agriculture
b. Farming e. Land management
c. Management
____ 5. The fund collected by the government to finance its activities.
a. Credit d. Devaluation
b. Enterprise e. Interest
c. Dividend
____ 6. What is the term used for the effective and efficient use of scare resources to achieve organizational goals?
a. Farm management d. Management
b. Organizing e. Agriculture
c. Agricultural economics
____ 7. It is the process of management where managers coordinate the human and material resources of the
organization.
a. Planning d. Directing
b. Organizing e. Controlling
c. Staffing
____ 8. It is the process of management where mangers coordinate the human and material resources of the
organization.
c. Staffing
____ 9. A payment for the use of money, generally stated as the percentage of the amount or principal borrowed is
called
a. Duty d. Capital
b. Credit e. Non of the above
c. Dividend
____ 10. This is also known as the ad valorem tax.
a. Tax d. capital
b. Value added tax e. Duty
c. Interest
____ 11. Which of the following is not a managerial role:
a. Mediator d. monitor
b. liaison e. All of the above
c. negotiator
____ 12. The ability to choose appropriate means of achieving a given objective is called
a. Effectiveness d. decision maker
b. Politician e. Non of the above
c. Mediator
____ 13. The art of applying business and scientific principles to the organization and management of farm business
enterprises for the purpose of securing the greatest continuous profit is called
b. Scientific method e. Non of the above
c. Farm economics
____ 14. The term used for the process of management where it is aim at getting members of the organization to move
in the direction that will achieve its objectives.
b. Organizing e. Leading
c. Staffing
____ 15. It is the income distributed to the shareholders of the enterprise.
a. Dividend d. Tax
b. Interest e. Credit
c. Capital
____ 16. The term used for growing more than one crop on the same area in a year.
a. Compact farming d. Multiple cropping
b. Extensive farming e. Cropping pattern
c. Intensive farming
____ 17. A special science concerned chiefly with the description and analysis of production, distribution and
consumption.
a. Agriculture d. Management
b. Engineering e. Marketing
c. Economics
____ 18. The readiness by which an asset can be converted into cash is term as
a. Liquidity d. Assets
b. Solvency e. None of the above
c. cash flow
____ 19. The management process of ensuring that actual activities conform to planned activities.
c. Staffing
____ 20. Which of the following is not a classification of farm jobs?
a. Field work d. Outside work that can be delayed
b. calendar work e. All of the above
c. Work for rainy days
____ 21. Which of the following are the classes of risk in agriculture
a. Liquidity d. Human factor
b. Market conditions e. Statements of b and d
c. insurance
____ 22. That which include goods employed in production other than the land, labor, buildings and fences is called
a. Inventory d. resources
b. Assets e. All of the above
c. capital
____ 23. Among the following statements, which are considered to be methods/s of reducing risk in agriculture?
a. Insurance d. Flexibility
b. Diversification e. all of the above
c. Future contract
____ 24. What is the prevailing ad valorem tax in the Philippines?
a. 5 percent d. 2 percent
b. 10 percent e. non of the above
c. 20 percent
____ 25. What is the process by which a farm manager looks ahead to the future and contemplates alternative courses
of action for the farm
a. Budgeting d. Farm budget
b. farm economics e. Farm planning
c. Efficiency of production
____ 26. These are the economic recourses owned by a business which are expected to benefit future operations.
a. Inventories d. Network
b. Assets e. capital
c. Liabilities
____ 27. Which of the following is not a good reason for using farm plans?
a. For review and analysis of objectives d. Serve as a yardstick for performance and
evaluation
b. Serve as a central facilitating aid e. Non of the above
c. Provide as a basis for evaluation and
improvement
____ 28. The following are all processes of proper management, except
a. Planning d. Organizing
b. Leading e. Controlling
c. Procrastinating
____ 29. Which of the following statements is not a good labor management practice.
a. Planning labor calendar d. developing initiative, goodwill,
cooperation and respect
b. Providing social life and giving out e. Cut chore labor to a minimum. Also,
bonuses and profit sharing to enhance simplify and combine jobs whenever
productivity possible
c. Doing everything there is to do in order to
save the rainy days for resting
____ 30. Which among the following is/are not function of farm management
a. Keeping records and accounts d. Overseeing the entire production process
b. Controlling directing the various resources e. Non of the above
c. Managing labor, land and capital
____ 31. The classes of risks in agriculture results from
a. Human factors d. Statement b and c
b. Liquidity e. all of the above
c. Natural factors
____ 32. This involves planning the procurement and utilization of funds and controlling the financial operations to
insure effective utilization of funds.
a. Farm budget d. Farm planning
b. Marketing management e. None of the above
c. Financial management
____ 33. Which of the following is not a function of management?
a. Controlling and directing the various d. Farm records
resources
b. Management of labor e. Management of capital
c. Methods of reducing risk in agriculture
____ 34. In financial analysis, what is the ideal current ratio?
a. 1:1 d. 2:1
b. 3:1 e. All of the above
c. 2:2
____ 35. A projection of a cash inflow and outflow of a farm to estimate the incremental net benefit over the life of the
project is called
a. Farm budget d. Solvency
b. Financial management e. Liquidity
c. Farm planning
____ 36. It is the cost outlay of the firm for the wear and tear of machines,buildings and implements.
a. Hedging d. Revenue
b. Credit e. Depreciation cost
c. Discount rate
____ 37. What is the term used for the amount of funds available for payment at any given time?
a. Current assets d. Capital
b. Net working capital e. Non of the above
c. Net worth
____ 38. Which of the following is not a method of valuation of inventory?
a. A tax levied on an import d. The exchange value of goods or service in
terms of money
b. The value of an asset after subtracting e. All of the above
depreciation
c. Also called as the ‘net benefit’
____ 39. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
a. A person must be efficient to be effective d. A person maybe efficient without being
effective
b. A person maybe effective without being e. Statement a and c
efficient
c. A person must be effective to be efficient
____ 40. Among the following statement, which demonstrates efficiency in operations?
a. reducing the number of workers while d. reducing the number of workers and
maintaining the same target yield reducing the target yield
b. Increasing the number of workers while e. statement a and c
maintaining the same target yield
c. Increasing the target yield and maintaining
the number of workers
____ 41. The study of the ways and means of organizing land, labor, and capital and the application of technical
knowledge and skill in order that the farm may be made to yield the maximum net returns is called
b. Economics e. Agricultural Economics
c. Scientific method
____ 42. A farmer’s success is dependent on several factors, or which are:
a. Proper selection of farm type and size d. Planning the best layout of the farm and
based on the available capital, labor and providing provisions of buildings,
other resources equipment, irrigation and other farm
requirements
b. Age, strength, maturity and his ability to e. Statement a, c, d
communicate well in English
c. Giving due importance to land and water
conservation and record keeping of all
transaction of the farm
____ 43. Arrange the following according to the process of management
a. Selecting the right employees for the right d. Coordinating the employees and material
position resources of the organization
b. Formulation of the mission, vision, goals, e. Orientation of personnel for the proper
objective. and activities of the achievement of goal
organization
c. Conducting of annual performance
evaluation of employees
a. a,b,c,d,e d. b,d,a,c,e
b. b,a,e,d,c, e. All of the above
c. b,d,a,e,c f. non of the above
____ 44. Given: Total Current Assets =P200,000.00

Total Inventories =P 50,000.00
Total Fixed assets =P500,000.00
Total Current Liabilities =P125,000.00
Total long-Term Liabilities =P185,000.00
Total net worth =P100,000.00
What is the current ratio for the given data?
a. 1.0 d. 1.5
b. 2.0 e. 1.6
c. 1.4
____ 45. What is the depreciation factor per year, of a hand tractor that is bought at 60,000.00 Pesos, if it has no more
value at the end of the fifth year?
a. 5000 pesos/ year d. 2,500 pesos/year
b. 10,000 pesos/year e. 12,000 pesos/year
c. 6000 pesos/year
____ 46. What is the hand tractor’s book value after 3 years?
a. 48,000 pesos d. 42,000 pesos
b. 12,000 pesos e. 24,000 pesos
c. 36,000 pesos
Farm Management
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: C 24. ANS: B

2. ANS: C 25. ANS: E
3. ANS: D 26. ANS: B
4. ANS: B 27. ANS: E
5. ANS: D 28. ANS: C
7. ANS: B 30. ANS: E
8. ANS: B 31. ANS: B
9. ANS: E 32. ANS: C
10. ANS: B 33. ANS: C
11. ANS: A 34. ANS: D
12. ANS: E 35. ANS: A
13. ANS: D 36. ANS: E
14. ANS: D 37. ANS: A
15. ANS: A 38. ANS: B
16. ANS: D 39. ANS: E
17. ANS: C 40. ANS: E
18. ANS: A 41. ANS: D
19. ANS: E 42. ANS: E
20. ANS: B 43. ANS: C
21. ANS: E 44. ANS: E
22. ANS: C 45. ANS: E
23. ANS: E 46. ANS: E
Irrigation Engineering & Drainage
Multiple Choice
____ 1. The recent Monsoon rains have posted a nearly uniform rainfall intensity of 30 mm/hr over a 1,500-hectare
watershed area in Central Luzon. If the runoff coefficient of 0.15. What is the runoff in m 3 / sec.
a. 18.75 b. 18.750 c. 1.87 d. 1.875
____ 2. Difference in moisture content of soil between field capacity and permanent wilting point.
a. available moisture c. irrigation water requirement
b. reality available moisture d. saturation capacity
____ 3. The sum total of water lost in a given area thru transpiration from plants, evaporation from soil and water
surface and for building tissues of plants.
a. Consumptive use c. runoff
b. Deep percolation d. seepage
____ 4. An artesian well has a diameter of 10 centimeters. Under steady state condition, what is he expected discharge
(lps) if the drawdown is 2.5 meters and the radius of influence is 120 meters? The aquifer’s hydraulic
conductivity and thickness are 75 m/day and 4 respectively.
a. 2630.03 m3/day b. 7.00 lps c. 70.07 lps d. 26.30. m3/day
____ 5. Water held by forces of surface tension and continuous film around soil particles is termed as.
a. hygroscopic water c. capillary water
b. gravitational water d. sea water
____ 6. Small Water Impounding Management (SWIM) Projects, In general, are those small scale water-impounding
dams which have structural heights of not more than
a. 45 m b. 50 m c. 30 m d. 100 m
____ 7. An irrigation engineer, in his study, was able to establish that the irrigation requirement of crop XYZ is 6.5
millimeter per day. If the rootzone depth was estimated at 2 inches on the average, what should be the design
discharge of a canal to be able to deliver the 5-day requirement of a 10-hectare farm in 24 hours?
a. 132.42 lps b. 0.03762 lps c. 37.62 m3/sec d. 37.62 lps
____ 8. It is the soil moisture allowable depletion of most crops.
a. 50% b. 20% c. 80% d. 100%
____ 9. The average soil moisture content of a corn field is 20% by weight prior to irrigation. Field capacity is
estimated at 28% by weight.(for nos. 16-20)
Determine the net application depth in centimeter if the apparent specific is 1.40 and the rooting depth id 0.80
m. Management allowable depletion is 0.50%.
a. 44.8 cm b. 4.48 cm c. 448 cm d. 4.48 cm
____ 10. If the application efficiency is 60%, what should be the gross application depth?
a. 7.47 cm b. 74.7 cm c. 747 cm d. 7.47 cm
____ 11. Calculate the minimum time of application, in hours, if the furrow intake rate is 8 mm/hr.
a. 10 hrs b. 93.4 hrs c. 9.34 hrs d. 560.4 min
____ 12. What should be the stream size, in liters per second, if the area to be irrigated is 3 ha.
a. 6.66 lps b. 666.5 lps c. 66.65 lps d. 6.65m3/sec
____ 13. When was the last irrigation applied if the consumption use of the corn crop has been 5 mm/day?
a. 14.94 days b. 1.5 days c. 8.96 days d. 89 days
____ 14. A concrete lined canal is to convey water over a distance of 250 m from the well to a tomato farm. Drop in
elevation is 0.50 m over the 250 m canal length and roughness coefficient. N is 0.018.
Estimate the bottom width of a rectangular canal with a depth of flowing water of 0.25 m, if the hydraulic
radius is equal to the area of flow.
a. b = 0.5 m b. b = 50 m c. b = 0.25 d. b = 25 m
____ 15. Th velocity of water canal is?
a. 0.62 m/sec b. 6.2 m/sec c. 62 m/sec d. 0.062 m/sec
____ 16. The volume of the soil sample during sampling was 85 cc and weight after drying in the area was 130 grams.
The volume weight of the soil is:
a. 1.5 g/cc b. 1.75 g/cc c. 1/25 g/cc d. 1.4 g/cc e. nota
____ 17. The percentage of moisture by weight if the weight of the sample before drying was 145 grams.
a. 12.5% b. 10.5% c. 9.5% d. 11.5% e. nota
____ 18. The amount of water in soil layer thickness of 10 cm is.
a. 1.5 cm b. 1.8 cm c. 2.2 cm d. 0.6 cm e. nota
____ 19. If the suction lift is 6 meters, the suited type of type of pump is?
a. Axial Flow c. Submersible e. nota
b. Centrifugal d. mixed flow
____ 20. The moisture content of the soil when the tension is 1.5 atmospheres.
a. wilting pint b. wilting coefficient c. Field capacity d. saturation point
____ 21. The discharge of first emitter in a dropper line is 12 lph. What is the allowable minimum discharge in the last
emitter?
a. 9.6 lph b. 10.8 lph c. 10.6 lph d. 9.8 lph e. 10.4 lph
____ 22. What is the depth of the flowing water in a trapezoidal canal with a slide slope of 1.1 and base of 1.0 m, if the
stream velocity is 1 mps and the discharge is 6 cu. m/sec.
a. 1.0 m b. 2.0 m c. 3.0 m d. 4.0 m e. nota
____ 23. The soil has field capacity and permanent wilting point in percentage by weight are 27% and 13%,
respectively. What is the readily available moisture in cm. of water per meter of soil in the bulk density is
1.25 g/cc?
a. 10.25 cm/m b. 17.5 cm/m c. 13.12 cm/m d. 14.0 cm/m e. nota
____ 24. A farmer wishes to make a trapezoidal irrigation canal of maximum cross section. The bottom and sides have
each be 24 in. the side shall have the same slopes. Find the top width of the canal?
a. 54 in b. 36 in c. 44 in d. 48 in e. nota
____ 25. What is term for capillary water in the smaller pore space of the soil?
a. Interception c. basin recharge
b. depression storage d. soil moisture
____ 26. What is the term for water that penetrates into the soil and flows laterally in the surface soil to a stream
channel?
a. run-off b. interflow c. percolation d. all of the above
____ 27. What is the term require to the rate of surface run off and the rate of rainfall to reach an equilibrium?
a. Run off coefficient c. overflow
b. infiltration rate d. time of concentration
____ 28. What is the line defined by the water level in a group of artesian wells?
a. water table c. specific yield
b. piezometric surface d. none of the above (nota)
____ 29. What is the term for capillary water in the smaller pore surfaces of the soil?
a. Interception c. basin recharge
b. depression storage d. soil moisture
____ 30. What is the term for water that penetrates into the soil and flows laterally in the surface soil to the stream
channel?
a. run-off c. percolatiom
b. interflow d. all of the above
____ 31. What is the term required to the rate of surface run off and the rate of rainfall to reach an equilibrium?
a. Run off coefficient c. overflow
b. infiltration rate d. time of concentration
____ 32. What is the line defined by the water level in a group of artesian wells?
a. water table c. specific yield
b. piezometric surface d. none of the above
____ 33. What is the maximum quantity of water that can be guaranteed during a critical period?
a. specific yield c. safe yield
b. reservoir yield d. secondary yield
____ 34. Which is the best method of irrigation for irregular topography?
a. flooding b. furrow c. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation
____ 35. Which is the best method of irrigation for row crops?
____ 36. Which method of irrigation has the best control of water supplied?
____ 37. The locus of the elevation to which water will rice in a piezometric tube?
a. hydraulic gradient c. friction gradient
b. energy gradient d. velocity gradient
____ 38. The hydraulic radius of a pipe with a diameter of 12 mm:
a. 3 mm b. 12 mm c. 6 mm d. 4 mm
____ 39. The volume of the soil sample during the sampling was 85 cc weights after drying is the area was 130 grams.
The volume of soil is (g/cc):
a. 1.5 b. 1.75 c. 1.25 d. 1.4
____ 40. The percentage of moisture by weight if the weight of the sample before drying was 145 grams(in%)
a. 12.5 b. 10.5 c. 11.5 d. 9.5
____ 41. The discharge of first emitter in a dripped line is 12 li/h. What is the allowable minimum discharge in the last
emitter in (li/h).
a. 9.6 b. 10.8 c. 10.6 d. 9.8
____ 42. Groundwater as a source of water for plant growth, thru capillary action, is effective only if the ground water
is?
a. Above the rootzone
b. Within the depth from which the major needs of the plants are extracted
c. Way below the rootzone
d. All of the above
____ 43. The best way of managing a farm with high water table to obtain optimum yield.
a. Frequent application of high irrigation thru sprinkler during the growth season
b. Application of heavy sprinkler irrigation during the rainy season
c. Application of large amount of irrigation water by s surface method during the growing
season
d. Non- application of water during the entire period of growing seaso
____ 44. The sum total of head above the vapor pressure of the liquid being pumped at a given pumping temperature
a. required net positive suction head c. pump static head
b. total dynamic head d. total static head
____ 45. The recommended variation in the lateral between the first and the last sprinkler.
a. 20% b. 50% c. 70% d. 100%
____ 46. The rate at which water percolates through the soil surface.
a. Irrigation c. soil permeability
b. Drainage coefficent d. infiltration rate
____ 47. The most simple form of open-channel flow computation is
a. unsteady uniform flow c. steady non-uniform flow
b. steady uniform flow d. unsteady non-uniform flow
____ 48. The part of the dam that release surplus of flush flood water which cannot be contained in the active storage
of the reservoir.
a. free board b. spill way c. gates d. weir
____ 49. The most efficient trapezoidal cross-section
a. width of the bottom=twice the depth c. width of the bottom=4x the depth
b. depth=twice the bottom d. width of the top= 2x sum of sides
____ 50. If the rectangular canal has a base of 0.65 m, what be the depth of flow when the hydraulic radius is equal to
the area of flow?
a. 0.418 b. 4.18 c. 0.17 d. 1.7
____ 51. A piece of land divided into strips by small earth bunds, usually sloping uniformly away from the farm
channel in the direction of water flow.
a. basin b. border c. contour d. furrow
____ 52. The average soil moisture content of a corn field is 20% by weight prior to irrigation. Field capacity is a
estimated at 28% by weight.(for nos 81-85)
Determine the net application depth in centimeters if the apparent specific gravity is 1.40 and the rooting
depth is 0.80 m. Management allowable depletion is 0.50%
a. 44.8 cm b. 4.48 cm c. 448 cm d. 4.48 cm
____ 53. If the application efficiency is 60%, what should be the gross application depth?
a. 7.47 cm b. 74.7 cm c. 747 cm d. 7.47 cm
____ 54. Calculate the minimum time of application. In hrs. if the furrow intake rate is 6 mm/hr.
a. 10 hrs b. 93.4 hrs c. 9.34 hrs d. 560.4 min
____ 55. What should be the steam size, in liters per second, if the area to be irrigated is 3 ha.
a. 6.66 lps b. 666.5 lps c. 66.65 lps d. 6.65 m3/sec
____ 56. When was the last irrigation applied if the consumptive use of the corn crop has been 5 mm/day?
a. 14.94 days b. 1.5 days c. 8.96 days d. 89 days
____ 57. A concrete lined canal is to convey water over a distance of 250 m from the well to a tomato farm. Drop in
elevation is 50 m. over the 250 m canal length and roughness coefficient, is 0.018.
Estimate the bottom width of a rectangular canal with a depth of flowing water of 0.25 m, if the hydraulic
radius is equal to the area of flow.
a. b = 0.5 m b. b = 50 m c. b = 0.25 m d. b = 25 m
____ 58. The velocity of water in the canal is?
a. 0.62 m/sec b. 6.2 m/sec c. 62 m/sec d. 0.062 m/sec
____ 59. A discharge of 20 L/s is equivalent to
a. 2 cu m/hr b. 20, 000 cu m/hr c. 0.02 l/hr d. 72 cu m/hr
____ 60. Free flow in artesian well occur when
a. the piezometric level is higher than the top of the well
b. The unconfined aquifer is beneath a confined aquifer
c. permeability is high
____ 61. Given an irrigation depth of 30 cm and 10 hrs of irrigation time, determine the discharge to irrigate a hectare
of land.
a. 300 cu m/hr b. 10 cu m/hr c. 30 cu m/hr d. 50 cu m/hr
____ 62. An undisturbed soil sample 100 cc was gathered from a field 2 days after heavy rains when the soil moisture
was expected to be at field capacity. The weight of the fresh sample was 176 g. but was reduced to 142 g.
after oven drying. A second soil sample with a fresh weight and oven dried weight of 130 and 116 grams
respectively was gathered 3 weeks later when the crop was observed to have permanently wilted.(for nos 94-
97)
Determine the bulk density
a. 1.42 g/cc b. 14.2 g/cc c. 1.76 g/cc d. 17.6 g/cc
____ 63. Determine the apparent specific gravity
a. 1.42 b. 14.2 c. 1.76 d. 17.7
____ 64. Determine the field capacity (dry basis)
a. 19.32% b. 1.93% c. 23.94% d. 2.39%
____ 65. Determine the wilting point (dry basis)
a. 1.2% b. 12% c. 10.77% d. 1.08
____ 66. In the identification of potential dam sites, which one is not part of the guidelines?
a. high density population to supply the needed labor
b. availability of potential service areas for irrigation, power, domestic and water supply, and
flood control
c. availability of a narrow gorge for minimum earthwork for dam for dam embankment
d. topographic condition providing a wide and deep reservoir upstream of the damsites
____ 67. A crop has a depth of 0.60 m, FC and WP are 16% and 8% respectively. Bulk density is 1.25 g/cc. The
desired allowable moisture deficit is 60% of the allowable moisture and the average c.u. is 6mm/day. (for nos.
99-102)
The depth of water to be stored in the rootzone per irrigation is
a. 3.6 m b. 0.036 mm c. 36 mm d. 36 cm
____ 68. The irrigation inteval is:
a. 6 days b. 5 days c. 7 days d. 8 days
____ 69. The artificial application of water to the soil for the purpose of crop production is
a. percolation b. infiltration c. irrigation d. drainage
____ 70. You are ask to determine the size of pimp to irrigate a 100 x 100 m cropland under the following condition:
(for nos 103-105)
Friction head loss along main and lateral (Hm) = 18.46 ft
Friction head loss along lateral (Hf) = 17.6 ft
Elevation between the pump and the junction of lateral and main (H j) = 0.75 m
Elevation between the pump and the water surface (Hs) = 4.2 m
Height of riser (Hr) = 25 cm = 0.82 ft
Average operating pressure = 40 psi
lateral is laid on level ground
Other data are given as follows:

ET = 8 mm/day
Percolation = 3 mm/day
Irrigation interval = 7 days
Irrigation period = 12 hrs
Pump efficiency = 80 %
Irrigation Efficiency = 75 %
The discharge Q is
a. 2376 m3/sec b. 2.38 m3/sec c. 0.02376 m3/sec d. 23.76 m3/sec
____ 71. A practice to minimize the effect of raindrop erosion.
a. mulching b. contour farming c. terracing d. corrugation
____ 72. Applying a small quantities of water through a network of tubing is otherwise known as.
a. drip irrigation b. trickle irrigation c. emitter irrigation d. any of the above
____ 73. Water that moves freely and drains out of the soil is.
a. hygroscopic water c. gravitational water
b. capillary water d. any of the above
____ 74. It is the most elaborate method of computing potential evapotranspiration.
a. Blaney-Criddle c. Hargreaves
b. Jenssen-Haise d. Penman
____ 75. If a soil is compacted:
a. its moisture content decrease c. its nutrient content diminishes
b. its porosity remains the same d. its bulk density increase
____ 76. The moisture content of the soil when the tension is 1/3 atmosphere.
a. field capacity c. wilting point
b. saturation point d. wilting coefficient
____ 77. It is the measure of the difference in ground level between two places in a field is referred to as a percentage.
It is the number of meters difference in elevation for each 100 m of horizontal distance.
a. velocity b. discharge c. land slope d. side slopes
____ 78. How many sprinklers with spacing of 7m x 7m are needed to irrigate a rectangular piece of land 150m x
200m if the laterals are set parallel to the larger side of the field.
a. 588 b. 609 c. 616 d. 638
____ 79. The theoretical flow of velocity in an orifice is 4.0 m/s. What is the height of water flowing above the center
of the orifice?
a. 0.80 m b. 8.00 m c. 0.90 m d. 9.00 m
____ 80. Given an irrigation depth of 30 cm and 8 hrs of irrigation time, determine the discharge needed to irrigate a
hectare of land
a. 375 cu m/hr b. 10 cu m/hr c. 30 cu m/hr d. 200 cu m/hr
____ 81. An irrigation engineer, in this study, was able to establish that the irrigation requirement is 8 millimeters per
day. If the root zone depth was estimated at 5 inches on the average, what should be the design discharge of a
canal to be deliver the 5 – day requirement of a 15 hectare farm in 24 hours?
a. 69.44 m3/sec b. 0.039 lps c. 6.9 m3/sec d. 69.44 lps
____ 82. Groundwater as a source of water for plant growth, thru capillary action, is effective only the ground water is.
a. above the root zone
b. way below the root zone
c. within the depth from which the major needs of the plants are extracted
d. all of the above
____ 83. The best way of managing a farm with high water table to obtain optimum yield
a. frequent application of light irrigation through sprinklers during the growing season
b. application of heavy sprinkler irrigation during the rainy season
c. application of large amount of irrigation water by a surface method during the growing
season
d. non-application of water during the entire period growing season
____ 84. The recommended variation in the lateral between the first and the last sprinkler.
a. 20% b. 50% c. 70% d. 100%
____ 85. The operating pressure of the sprinkler heads in a sprinkler irrigation system is 12.52 kg/cm 2. What is the
allowable pressure (kg/cm2) variation between the first sprinkler and the last sprinkler of a lateral?
a. 2.504 b. 5.240 c. 25.04 d. 4.520
____ 86. If the speed of an irrigation centrifugal pump is increased by 30%, the power requirement is increased by:
a. 2.197 b. 1.297 c. 2.917 d. 1.917
____ 87. The quotient of the weight of a volume of dry soil including air space and weight of an equal volume of water
is:
a. Apparent specific gravity c. porosity
b. real specific gravity d. none of the above
____ 88. Moisture content present in the soil gravitational water has been removed is called:
a. Wilting point c. unavailable moisture
b. field capacity d. none of the above
____ 89. 75% of available moisture is called
a. readily available moisture c. permanent wilting point
b. hygrospic water d. none of the above
3
____ 90. Discharge is_____ m /s:
a. 0.027 b. 0.207 c. 0.702 d. 0.072
____ 91. The lateral movement of water in the soil:
a. seepage b. drainage c. irrigation d. flooding
____ 92. The discharge through a 90° V notch weir may be computed by:
a. Q = O.184 LH3/2 c. Q = 0.0186LH3/2
b. Q = 0.0184 (L-0.2H)3/2 d. Q = 0.0138 LH5/2
____ 93. The mass per unit volume of the particles is:
a. specific gravity b. porosity c. soil density d. void ratio
____ 94. The quantity expressing the ratio of the volume of pores to the volume of solid is:
a. Void ratio b. porosity c. specific gravity d. soil density
____ 95. Water held tightly to the surface of soil particle by adsorption forces is:
a. capillary water c. soil water
b. hygroscopic water d. gravitational water
____ 96. A conveyance structure used to turn conduits of varying sizes and shapes:
a. cut off b. transition c. weir d. chute
____ 97. A surface irrigation method where a much smaller are is enclosed by levees:
a. trickle irrigation b. drip irrigation c. basin flooding d. flood routing
____ 98. It also refers to consumptive use by the crops:
a. evapotranspiration c. saturation vapor pressure
b. water circulation d. osmosis
____ 99. A concept used to evaluate the losses of water during irrigation from the time leaves that source to the point
of use:
a. irrigation efficiency c. discharge flow rated
b. drainage efficiency d. none of the above
____ 100. Ground water as source of water for plant growth through capillary action……, is effective only if ground
water is:
a. Above the rootzone
b. within the depth from which the major needs of the plants are extracted
c. Way below the rootzone
____ 101. The most simple form of open channel flow computation is:
a. unsteady uniform flow c. steady uniform flow
b. steady uniform flow d. unsteady non-uniform flow
____ 102. It is the soil moisture allowable deletion of the most crops:
a. 50% b. 20% c. 80% d. 100%
____ 103. The speed at which water flows in channel is
a. Velocity b. Discharge c. run-off d. volumetric flow
____ 104. It is equal to the cross-sectional area times the velocity of flow.
a. velocity b. discharge c. run-off d. volumetric flow
____ 105. The water content of the soil between field capacity and willing point is
a. available moisture c. allowable deficit
b. plasticity index d. hygroscopic water
____ 106. The time needed for water to infiltrate into the soil, depending on the depth of water and the soil type is called
a. infiltration rate c. capillary
b. irrigation rate d. surface tension
____ 107. The soil characteristic determining the maximum rate at which water can enter the soil under specific
conditions, including the presence of excess water is:
a. infiltration b. infiltration rate c. capillary d. surface tension
____ 108. A discharge of 20 L/s is equivalent to
a. 2 cu m/hr b. 20, 000 cu m/hr c. 0.02 cu m/hr d. 72 cu m/hr
____ 109. Rate of the bulk density to the density of water
a. oven dry weight c. soil volume
b. App.specific gravity d. porosity
____ 110. In open channel, the term A/P is know as
a. hydraulic gradient c. hydraulic conductivity
b. hydraulic radius d. hydraulics
____ 111. You are asked to determine the size of a pump to irrigate a 5 ha Riceland. The source of water is a trim with
pumping head of 2.0m. Other data are given as follows:
Evaporation = 8 mm/day
Percolation = 2 mm/day
Irrigation interval = 5 days
Irrigation period = 10 hours
Friction loss = 0
Pump efficiency = 80%
Irrigation efficiency = 80%
a. 2.129 Hp b. 2.85 Hp c. 5 Hp d. 1.5 Hp

____ 112. A farmer proposes to use sprinkler on a rectangular piece of land 160 m x 120 m with lateral line parallel to
the shorter side. The land is adjacent to the river from which he pumps water. In his studies he found out that
he would need maximum application depth of 60 mm every 10 days. The maximum intake rate of the soil is
8.5mm/hr and the application efficiency is 80%. Assume that the sprinkler spacing is 5m x 5m.
What is the desired discharge per sprinkler in lps?

a. 1.91 x 10-4lps b. 0.19125 lps c. 0.6885 lps d. 688.5 lps
____ 113. How many sprinklers are there in a lateral?
a. 13 b. 18 c. 14 d. 17
____ 114. Number of lateral positions
a. 13 b. 18 c. 14 d. 17
____ 115. How many hours will it take him to apply the water requirement in one lateral position?
a. 7.06 hrs b. 10 days c. 2 hrs d. 8.82 hrs
3
____ 116. Water flows in a cylindrical tank at a rate of 20 m /sec. If the radius of the tank is 2m, find how fast is the
tank rising.
a. 1.59 m/sec b. 1.99 m/sec c. 1.49 m/sec d. none
____ 117. Given the soil sampler with a diameter of 5.2 cm and a length of 4.7 cm, what is the bulk volume of soil it
could gather?
a. 100 cc b. 95 cc c. 120 cc d. 24.4 cc
____ 118. What is the crop evapotranspiration (etc) of corn during its growing period if the crop coefficient is 2.5 and
the reference crop evapotranspiration is 6 mm/day?
a. 2.44 mm/day b. 0.42 mm/day c. 8.5 mm/day d. 15 mm/day
____ 119. A closed conduit usually circular, square or rectangular in cross section, used for conveying water across and
under an elevated roadway, embankment of dikes?
a. gate b. culvert c. canal d. drop
____ 120. A device used to control the flow of water to, from or in a pipeline.
a. inlet b. gate c. weir d. flume
____ 121. An appurtenance to the pipeline which permits the passage of air to or from the pipeline.
a. surge b. water hammer c. vent d. gate
____ 122. Barrier constructed to hold water back and raise its level.
a. channel b. dam c. well d. weir
____ 123. It is the combined process of evaporation from the soil and transpiration from the plants
a. evaporation b. transpiration c. evapo-transpiration d. condensation
____ 124. The volume of water flowing each second, measured in cubic meters per second is:
a. stream c. velocity
b. sischarge d. cross sectional area
____ 125. For the most efficient trapezoidal cross-section
width of the bottom = 1.5 of depth
width of the top = sum of sides
width of the bottom = twice the depth
width of the top = ½ sum of sides
Delivery of 360 cfs to an 80 acre filed is continyed for 4 hours. Tail water flow is estimated at 10 cfs. Soil
probing after the irrigation indicates that one (1) foot of water has been stored in the rootzone. Compute the
application efficiency.
a. 60% b. 62% c. 92% d. 67%
____ 126. The frequent, slow application of water to the specific roootzone of the plant is called;
a. Sub-irrigation c. drip irrigation
b. sprinkler irrigation d. flooding
____ 127. Refers to the number of days between irrigation during periods without rainfall.
a. irrigation method c. irrigation frequency
b. irrigation period d. irrigation efficiency
____ 128. A properly associated with surface tension of liquid & manifested in the rice and fall of liquids in small
diameter tubes.
a. conduction b. cavitation c. capillary d. condensation
____ 129. Amount of rainfall retained in the rootzone.
a. consumptive use b. percolation c. seepage d. effective rainfall
____ 130. It is used to divide & distribute the flow of water at desired direction usually placed or built with main form
ditch to divert H2O to supplementary farm ditches.
a. spill wail b. turn out c. flumes d. division box
____ 131. A notch of regular form through which the irrigation stream is made to flow & flow built as either portable or
stationary structures is called.
a. Orifice b. Parshall flume c. weir d. dam
____ 132. For the most efficient circular section, semi-circle, the hydraulic radius is equal to:
¼ its radius.
a. 1/4 its radius b. its radius c. 1/2 its radius d. 1/4 its radius
____ 133. The soil characteristic determining the max. rate @ which water enters the soil under specific condition
including the presence of excess water is:
a. capillary b. surface tension c. infiltration d. infiltration rate
____ 134. The mass per unit volume of the soil particle is
a. porosity b. void ratio c. soil density d. specific gravity
____ 135. The amount of H2O used in producing crop is:
a. H2O holding capacity c. rooting characteristics
b. Critical growth storage d. percolation
____ 136. H2O that moves freely and drains out of the soil is
a. gravitational b. capillary c. S.I.A. d. hygroscopic
____ 137. The direct attraction of similar molecules/ molecular attraction between similar molecules:
a. collision b. attraction c. repulsion d. cohesion
Irrigation Engineering & Drainage
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
35. ANS: B 70. ANS: C 104. ANS: B
2. ANS: A 37. ANS: A 72. ANS: D 106. ANS: A
3. ANS: A 38. ANS: A 73. ANS: C 107. ANS: B
4. ANS: B 39. ANS: A 74. ANS: D 108. ANS: D
5. ANS: C 40. ANS: C 75. ANS: D 109. ANS: B
7. ANS: D 42. ANS: B 77. ANS: C 111. ANS: B
8. ANS: A 43. ANS: D 78. ANS: B 112. ANS: A
9. ANS: B 44. ANS: B 79. ANS: A 113. ANS: A
10. ANS: A 45. ANS: A 80. ANS: A 114. ANS: D
11. ANS: C 46. ANS: D 81. ANS: D 115. ANS: D
12. ANS: C 47. ANS: B 82. ANS: C 116. ANS: D
13. ANS: C 48. ANS: B 83. ANS: D 117. ANS: A
15. ANS: A 50. ANS: C 85. ANS: A 119. ANS: B
16. ANS: A 51. ANS: C 86. ANS: A 120. ANS: B
17. ANS: D 52. ANS: A 87. ANS: A 121. ANS: C
18. ANS: B 53. ANS: A 88. ANS: B 122. ANS: B
19. ANS: B 54. ANS: A 89. ANS: A 123. ANS: C
20. ANS: D 55. ANS: C 90. ANS: B 124. ANS: B
21. ANS: A 56. ANS: C 91. ANS: A 125. ANS: D
22. ANS: B 57. ANS: A 92. ANS: D 126. ANS: C
23. ANS: C 58. ANS: A 93. ANS: C 127. ANS: A
24. ANS: A 59. ANS: D 94. ANS: A 128. ANS: C
25. ANS: D 60. ANS: A 95. ANS: B 129. ANS: D
26. ANS: B 61. ANS: A 96. ANS: B 130. ANS: D
28. ANS: A 63. ANS: A 98. ANS: A 132. ANS: C
29. ANS: D 64. ANS: C 99. ANS: A 133. ANS: D
34. ANS: C 69. ANS: C
Refrigeration Engineering
Multiple Choice
a. 14.7 b. 17.1 c. 11.7 d. 16.6
o
____ 2.R-12 enters the evaporator at 3 C (hg=352.76kJ/kg ; hf=202.78kJ/kg). Determine the amount of flash
vapor that may be formed in kg/s if the refrigeration load is 400 kW and condensing temperature is
37oC (hf=235.503 kJ/kg).
a. 0.734 c. 0.477
b. 0.744 d. 0.374
Determine the COP
a. 6.75 b.
7.56 c. 6.57 d. 7.65
____ 5. If the wet bulb and dry bulb reading of air temperature are identical
a. the thermometers are in error c. the relative humidity is zero
b. the air is saturated d. the relative humidity is zero
o
a. 25.45s b. 20.25s c. 22.05s d. 25.20s
____ 7. On a cold night the temperature was reported to be same in Fahrenheit and Celsius reading at
(no answer)
a. 33oC c. -33oC
o
b. -40 C d. 40oC
____ 8. Consider an air-water vapor mixture similar to the atmosphere. If the dry bulb temperature equals the
dew point temperature, the relative humidity is
a. 0% c. 75%
b. 0% d. 100%
____ 9. Sensible heat
a. can be measured with a thermometer c. increases with cold
b. Cannot be measured d. depends on the volume
of 100 tons
a. 80 Hp c. 105.2 Hp
b. 94.4 Hp d. 30 Hp
____ 11. Atmospheric pressure air enters to a cooling unit at 27oC (Psat=3.5kPa) and has a specific humidity of
0.009 kg of vapor per kg of dry air. Determine the relative humidity.
a. 40.6% b. 43.1% c. 41.3% d. 46%
____ 13. In an ideal refrigeration cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that the
enthalpy of the liquid is equal to the enthalpy of the resulting saturated mixture. This type of
expansion is known as:
a. throttling process c. adiabatic process d. isochoric
b. isothermal process
represents
____ 15. 10 kg of ice at 0 C are added to 100 kg of liquid at 40oC with specific heat of 4 kJ/kg K. Calculate
o
the temperature of the liquid just as the ice melts. The heat of fusion of ice is320 kJ/kg
a. 26oC b. 28oC c. 30oC d. 32oC
a. ammonia c. CO2
b. R-11 d. air
____ 18. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one unit weight of substance into one
degree unit of temperature
a. specific heat c. latent heat
b. sensible heat d. None of the above
(Rv=0.4615kJ/kg K)
a. 2.03kg c. 0.80kg
b. 1.50kg d. 4.80kg
____ 20. What is the heat transfer in the glass surface area of 0.7 m 2 having an inside temperature of 25oC and
13oC outside temperature. The thickness of the glass is 0.007m and its thermal conductivity is1.8
W/m K
a. 5.6kW b. 3.6kW c. 6.2kW d. 2.16kW
____ 21. When air is saturated the wet bulb depression is
a. zero c. 50
b. unity d. 100
____ 22. The power of a carnot refrigeration system in maintaining a low temperature region at 238.9 K is 1.1
kW per ton.
The coefficient of performance is

a. 3.0 b. 3.2 c. 4.2 d. 3.5 e. 4.5
____ 23. The heat rejected is
a. 5.26kW b. 4.62kW c. 4.62kW d. 5.62kW e. 5.52kW
____ 24. The temperature of heat rejection is
a. 314.6 K b. 312.6 K c. 331.6 K d. 313.6 K e. 300 K
____ 25. The amount of heat absorbed by one ton of H 2O as it changes from solid to liquid state at 32 oF is
equivalent to
a. 288000BTU c. 488000BTU
b. 388000BTU d. 188000BTU
a. 738870 c. 739000
b. 738880 d. 739880
____ 27. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:
a. -28oC c. 28oF
b. 28oC d. -28oF
a. 10500s b. 10000s c. 10447s d. 10578s e. 11000s
____ 29. A refrigeration system has a volumetric flow rate of 7 L/s at the suction of compressor. If the
volumetric efficiency of the compressor efficiency is 0.8, estimate the volume displacement rate in
L/s
a. 5.6 b. 6.0 c. 6.5 d. 8.75
____ 30. How much air in kg/s is needed to evaporate 100 kg of moisture in 6 hr if the drying air temperature
is 43oC and the ambient temperature is 30oC. Assume the latent heat of vaporization of H2O is
2500kJ/kg and the specific heat of air is 1 kJ/kg.
a. 0.89 c. 7.69
b. 1.28 d. 192.3
a. 0.0075 c. 1.92
b. 0.052 d. 5.73
tank?
a. 1.0 kg c. 1.5 kg
b. 1.7 kg d. 1.2 kg
____ 33. The vertical line of refrigeration cycle plotted in the pressure enthalpy diagram represents
b. evaporation of liquid refrigerant d. metering/expansion of liquid
refrigerant
required power.
a. 16.868kJ/min c. 1,686.8kJ/min
b. 168.68kJ/min d. 168,680kJ/min
____ 35. A house hold refrigerator with COP of 1.8 removes heat from refrigerated space at a rate of
90kJ/min. Determine the power consumed by the refrigerator
a. 0.96 kW b. 0.83 kW c. 1.5 kW d. 0.56 kW
____ 36. An air conditioner removes heat steadily from a house at a rate of 50 kJ/min, while drawing electric
power at a rate of 6 kW. Determine the rate of heat discharge to the outside air.
a. 410 kJ/min b. 220 kJ/min c. 510 kJ/min d. 120 kJ/min
o
____ 37. A carnot refrigerator operates in a room with temperature of 25 C. The refrigerator consumes 500 W
of power and had a COP of 4.5. Determine the temperature of the refrigerated space.
a. -29.2oC c. -19.2oC
o
b. -39.2 C d. -9.2oC
____ 38. A refrigerator receives 6000 kJ/min of heat when operating between temperature limits of minus
15oC and 38oC. If the coefficient of performance is 60% of a carnot refrigerator operating at the
same temperature limits, find the required power input of the refrigerator.
a. 30.5 kW b. 34.2 kW c. 3.52 kW d. 35.2 kW
Refrigeration Engineering
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
20. ANS: D
1. ANS: B 21. ANS: A
2. ANS: B 22. ANS: B
3. ANS: C 23. ANS: B
4. ANS: D 24. ANS: D
7. ANS: A 27. ANS: D
9. ANS: A 29. ANS: D
10. ANS: B 30. ANS: A
11. ANS: C 31. ANS: C
12. ANS: B 32. ANS: B
13. ANS: A 33. ANS: D
14. ANS: B 34. ANS: C
15. ANS: D 35. ANS: B
16. ANS: C 36. ANS: A
17. ANS: D 37. ANS: A
18. ANS: A 38. ANS: B
19. ANS: A
Rural Electrification
Multiple Choice
____ 1. Materials that opposes the flow of electric current.

a. Rubber c. Semi-conductor
b. Conductor d. Insulators
____ 2. This type of wire consists of wires twisted to form a metallic string.
a. cable c. stranded wire
b. solid wire d. co-axial
____ 3. A wire with a diameter of 1/8 inches is used in wiring. Its the area in circular mils. (cm) is;
a. 625 cm c. 15656 cm
b. 12625 cm d. 15625 cm
____ 4. A 12 Ampere tan and blower with a power factor of 0.85 was connected to a 240 V. as source. The power in
the circuit.
a. 2880 W c. 2448 W
b. 4.982 W d. 2450 W
____ 5. An electric motor has a nameplate rating of 2 hp., 240V and 15 Amp. What is the power factor of the motor
assuming efficiency of 85%.
a. 0.48 c. 0.7
b. 0.6 d. 0.85
____ 6. Two automobile 12 headlights are connected in series to a 12 V battery each
having a resistance
2 of What is the ? current flow in each light? 
a. 1.5 A c. 3 A
b. 2 A d. 6 A
____ 7. How much energy in kwh is used by a 1200w heater in 4 hour of continuous operation?
a. 3 kurt c. 4.8 kwh
b. 4.2 kwh d. 48 kwh
____ 8. What is the increase in of a single phase to the three phase system in terms of power capacity.
a. 60% c. 50%
b. 75% d. 73%
____ 9. (For nos. 9-11)Three resistors A, B and C are connected in series to d 120 V source. If R A = 64 ohms, VB = 40
volts when the circuit current is 0.5 amp. What is the current flow on R B?
a. 300 ma c. 500 ma
b. 400 ma d. 1A
____ 10. What is the voltage a cross RA ?
a. 16V c. 48V
b. 32V d. 50V
____ 11. The voltage across RC is;
a. 30V c. 48V
b. 36V d. 60V
____ 12. A feeder line with a resistance of 0.25supplies electricity to an electric motor rated 10 kw. 250V. what
voltage should be supplied by a generator at the for end to deliver this requirement?
a. 255V c. 265V
b. 260V d. 270V
____ 13. A coil of annealed copper wire has 820 turns. The average length of which is 9 inches. If the diameter of the
wire is 32 mils., what is its area in cm?
a. 924 c. 802
b. 1024 d. 1200
____ 14. What is the total length of wire used?
a. 7380 ft c. 8200 ft
b. 7450 ft d. none of the above
____ 15. What is the total resistance of the wire?
a. 0.01 c. 
b. 3.24 d. None of the above
____ 16. What are the resistance which offer high resistance to the flow of current?
a. conductor c. capacitor
b. resistor d. insulator
____ 17. What is the full load horsepower rating of a motor that drives a 150 kw generator whose efficiency is 90%?
a. 215 c. 210
b. 223 d. 220
____ 18. A series Ac circuit consisting of 80 ohm resistor and a 0.3 Henry inductor is connected to a 120V ac, 60H fare
source. What is the impedance of the circuit?
a. 130 c. 
b. 135 d. 140
____ 19. What is the power factor of the circuit?
a. 0.45 c. 0.58
b. 0.54 d. 0.5
____ 20. What is the power taken by the circuit?
a. 40 c. 60.5
b. 50.5 d. 80 watts
____ 21. At what speed will a 14 pole, 60 cycle induction motor operates if the slip is 0.09
a. 468 ppm c. 489 ppm
b. 515 ppm d. 450 ppm
____ 22. A 3 ohm resistor and a 6 ohm resistor are connected in series across a DC power supply./ If the voltage across
the 3 ohm is 4 volts. what is the voltage of the supply?
a. 6V c. 18V
b. 8V d. 20V
____ 23. A battery having a total emf of 7.5 volts and an internal resistance of 1.25 ohms. What external load
resistance will send a current of 2A?
a. 1.5 c. 3.5
b. 2.5 d. 5.0
____ 24. The extra wire running along the top of transmission and distribution posts are called ______________.
a. neutral wire c. shield wire
b. service drop d. none of the above
____ 25. An unknown resistance R passing a 20 mA current is in parallel with a 5k resistor and their combination is in
series with a 10k resistor. The whole circuit is supplied by a 500 volt source. What is the volume of R?
a. 500 c. 
b.  d. 
____ 26. Three resistor A, B, and C are connected in series to a 120 volt source. What is ohmic value of A, B, and C if
they have all the same resistance when the circuit current is 500 ma.
a. 40 c. 80
b. 50 d. 100
____ 27. A 33 ohm resistor is in series with a 35.3MF capacitor across a constant source of 100V. What frequency of
the source will give a current of 2A.
a. 50Hz c. 120Hz
b. 60Hz d. 240Hz
____ 28. What is the reactive power of the motor?
a. 1560 VAR c. 1760 VAR
b. 1660 VAR d. 1850 VAR
____ 29. What is the power output taken by the motor?
a. 2137 W c. 2400W
b. 2200W d. 2500W
____ 30. This facty or is multiplied by the volt-amp product to obtain the actual power taken by cu\circuit and
machines.
a. efficiency c. load
b. power factor d. utility factor
____ 31. This electricity flows in one direction, from negative to positive.
a. AC c. AC and DC
b. DC d. none of the above
____ 32. This wire is a group of smaller wires twisted to from a metallic string.
a. solid c. coaxial
b. cable d. stranded
____ 33. The resistance of conductor is proportional to the ________________ of the material.
a. cross section c. length
b. resistively d. length and resistively
____ 34. The opposition to the flow of alternating current.
a. resistance c. impedance
b. admittance d. conductance
____ 35. What is the equivalent size in square mills of a cable 250 mcm?
a. 133,50 c. 205,000
b. 196,350 d. 625,000
____ 36. Voltage is 120 volts, current is 10 amp. and time is 6 hrs. Ret. the energy used.
a. 720 WH c. 7KWH
b. 7200WH d. 7.5KWH
____ 37. What is the efficiency if a 3/4 hp motor that requires an input of 1000w of electric power
a. 50% c. 60%
b. 56% d. 75%
____ 38. A 1/3 hp motor is used in driving a propeller. The average power taken by the motor from the sources is;
a. 300W c. 600W
b. 400W d. 800W
____ 39. Two purely resistance loads are connected in parallel to a 120V, 60Hz source. If the current to the first is 5A
and 10A to the second load. What is the total current drawn from the source.
a. 5.8A c. 15A
b. 8A d. 20amp.
____ 40. A 10hom resistor is connected in series with parallel combination of two resistors, one of which has an ohmic
value of 48 ohms and the other unknown. What is the value of this resistor if the power taken by the 16 ohm
resistor is equal to that of the parallel branch?
a. 12 ohms c. 24 ohms
b. 16 ohms d. 30 ohms
____ 41. Two impedance are connected in parallel across a 100 volts, 60 Hz source. The current and power to the first
are 5A and 100W and to the second 10A and 867W respectively. The total current is?
a. 10A c. 13.82 Amp.
b. 12A d. 15A
____ 42. The power factor of the combination is;
a. 0.5 c. 0.70
b. 0.60 d. 0.8
____ 43. H is the unit of inductance and it is equivalent to 1 volt - sec
_______
Amp
a. farod c. Henry
b. ohm d. a
____ 44. An electric motor has a trade and label indicating 2 hp, 240V, 15A. What is the power factor of this motor if
efficiency is 85%
a. 0.4875 c. 0.7
b. 0.65 d. 0.85
____ 45. This device is simple static machine consisting of a magnetic core which supplies different voltages.
a. inductance c. transformer
b. conductance d. resistors
____ 46. Electrical resistance of conductors is commonly proportional to the
a. resistively c. area
b. length d. temperature
____ 47. The property of an electric circuit that opposes a charge in current.
a. capacitance c. inductance
b. impedance d. none of the above
____ 48. Unity power factor loads are electrical loads that contains;
a. pure capacitance c. pure impedance
b. pure resistance d. none of the above
____ 49. Ohms law states that voltage and current are _________________.
a. inversely proportional c. unrelated
b. proportional d. none of the above
____ 50. H is the ratio of the maximum power demand of any system to the total connected load of the system.
a. demand c. power factor
b. load factor d. demand factor
____ 51. The safe current carrying capacity of electric conductors.
a. load current c. ampacity
b. line current d. none of the above
____ 52. In the operation of AC generator, this variable is dependent on the speed of rotation of the motor and the
number of poles.
a. slip c. frequency
b. synchronous speed d. voltage regulation
____ 53. A three phase Y - connected alternation has a terminal voltage of 450 volts. It delivers a full load current of
300A at a power factor of if 80%. The phase voltage is
a. 260V c. 318.2
b. 778.5 d. 287.1 volts
____ 54. The output power available at the terminal is;
a. 135 KVA c. 186.84 KW
b. 62.4 KW d. 108 KVA
____ 55. The apparent power of the alternator is;
a. 108KVA c. 78KVA
b. 135KVA d. 233KVA
____ 56. The no load voltage of an alternator is 250 Volts. If operated at full load. the voltage drops to 220 volts. What
is the voltage regulation.
a. 13.6% c. 6%
b. 12% d. 8%
____ 57. The Philippine electrical code specifies that all wall switches be installed on the _______________ of the
door
a. left side c. latch side
b. hinge side d. front side
____ 58. This information provides the equipment manufacturer with a means of conveying to costumers the rated
electrical values and output capacities of equipment.
a. literature c. code
b. nametag d. nameplate
____ 59. The resistance of 1000 ft of no 14 AWG copper wire with a diameter of 0.0025 m is;
a. 1.78 c. 17.8
b. 3.75 d. none of the above
____ 60. A poultry house is located 300 ft from the generator whose input voltage is 230V. If the total load for the
building is 6000W. What size if wire in cm is if the allowable voltage drop is 3%
a. 20,000 cm c. 25,000 cm
b. 22,500 cm d. 32,500 cm
____ 61. A direct current shunt. motor has the following conditions:
line current = 20 A; motor rating = 10 hp; line voltage = 230 V; field substance is 125 ohms.
the field current is;
a. 18.4 c. 1.84
____ 62. The motor current is;
a. 18.2 A c. 32.4 A
b. 21.84 A d. 30 A
____ 63. A 25 hp, 3 , 4 pole, 230V, 60Hz motor operates at 90% efficiency, 85 % power factor and 2.5%
slip.
The current at which the motor is running at full load.
a. 60 Amp c. 62
b. 61.2A d. 65 Amp
____ 64. The speed at which the motor is running is at full load
a. 1755 c. 3600
____ 65. A squirrel cage induction motor with the nameplate data of 125, 3Ø, 460V, 6 pole and 0.85 PF was subjected
to performance test. The result were the following;
full load current = 250 A: full load torque = 720 ft-lb
The motor efficiency
a. 72 % c. 68%
b. 82% d. 70%
____ 66. The synchronous speed is;
a. 1800 ppm c. 1200 ppm
b. 1100 ppm d. 1720 ppm
____ 67. A generator is self excited when the shunt field is supplied by its own armature.
a. separately excited c. self
b. directly excited d. none of the above
____ 68. This generator is excited by a field winding that is connected to the full line voltage.
a. series c. short compound
b. long compound d. shunt
____ 69. A 5 KW, 120V compound generator has an armature resistance of 0.23 ohm, a series field resistance of 0.04
ohm and a shunt field resistance of 57.50 ohm. Assuming long shunt connection. Call the generated voltage at
full load.
a. 133.8 c. 128 V
____ 70. The efficiency of the motor is;
a. 85% c. 90%
b. 88% d. 92.1%
____ 71. A welding transformer has 6 volts on the secondary under no load condition. The secondary has 2 turns. If the
primary voltage is 220 volts, the total number of turns in the primary is;
a. 120 c. 73
b. 85 d. 75
____ 72. How large a transformer would be required to supply a 230V. 40A load at 70% PF.
a. 10KVA c. 15KVA
b. 11.2 KW d. 20 KVA
____ 73. In the parallel operation of two or more transformers, both transformers should have the same
when operating of full load.
a. voltage drop c. impedance drop
b. resistance drop d. none of the above
____ 74. A generator supplied 150 Amperes at 230V.
How much power is produced by the generator
a. 34.5 KW c. 34.5KVA
b. 35,000KVA d. none of the above
____ 75. The input horsepower to the generator.
a. 150 hp c. 121 hp
b. 134.5 hp d. none of the above
____ 76. A machine that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is;
a. dynamo c. generator
b. motor d. stator
____ 77. Shunt motor has an armature resistance of 0.25 ohm and a field resistance of 150 ohms. The motor is
connected across 120V source. If the motor generates a counter emf. of 115V.
The armature current is;
a. 10A c. 20A
b. 15A d. 22A
____ 78. The total current supplied to the motor is;
a. 15.8 A c. 20.8 A
b. 18.8 A d. 22.8 Amp
____ 79. The electrical load system that is adopted in buildings where the loads exceed 50KVA such as motors and
machineries;
a. single phase c. three phase
b. dual phase d. All of the above
____ 80. The national electrical code (NEC) provides that the ampacity of the connected load shall not exceed
______________ of the current rating of the conductor.
a. 60% c. 80%
b. 70% d. 90%
____ 81. The voltage generated by an AC generator is;
a. square wave c. simsoidal
b. sawtooth d. none of the above
____ 82. An electric motor is being tested for its energy consumption. The KWH meter disk revolutions are counted
for 6 minutes. The disk makes 20 rev and the kn factor is 2.5 What is the power input to the motor?
a. 200W c. 400W
b. 300W d. 500W
____ 83. Calculate the motor input power assuming efficiency of 85%
a. 1650 W c. 1755 W
b. 1800 W d. none of the above
____ 84. The power factors of the motor is;
a. 0.4875 c. 0.75
b. 0.65 d. 0.80
____ 85. (for Nos. 85-89)An 18 KW, 220V, 3Ø induction motor has the following specifications and operating
conditions.
line current = 40 A; motor rating = 10 hp; line voltage = 220V; operating speed = 1200 rpm
The percentage slip of the motor is;
a. 96% c. 0.04%
b. 45 d. 3%
____ 86. The number of poles in the motor;
a. 2 c. 6
b. 4 d. 8
____ 87. What is the power factor of the motor?
a. 0.80 c. 0.85
b. 0.82 d. 0.95
____ 88. What is the motor efficiency?
a. 85% c. 95%
b. 90% d. 99%
____ 89. The power factor of the motor is;
a. 85% c. 95%
b. 90% d. 98%
____ 90. The primary and secondary voltage of a transformer is, 1500 = 300 volts. If the primary current is 3A, what is
it secondary current?
a. 10 A c. 15 A
b. 12 A d. 18 A
____ 91. A DC motor is used to
a. generate power c. convert electrical power to mechanical
power
b. charge mechanical energy to electrical d. increase energy output
____ 92. If a 4 - pole induction motor has a synchronous speed of 1550 rpm, the supply frequency is;
a. 50 Hz c. 60 Hz
b. 25Hz d. none of the above
____ 93. The power input of a 3/4 hp electric motor is about;
a. 500W c. 900W
b. 750W d. 1000W
____ 94. A synchronous motor is a machine that operates at constant...
a. voltage c. current
b. speed d. load current
____ 95. Determine the amount of grain in power of a three phase supply from that of a single phase system, assuming
a power factor of 0.95 with voltage of 220V and current of 10 Amperes.
a. 1320W c. 1530W
b. 1430W d. 1630W
____ 96. A 100 KW generator in problem 48 has a power factor of 0.8. What is the apparent power supplied to the
motor.
a. 110 KVA c. 120 KVA
b. 115 KVA d. 125 KVA
____ 97. In designing the number of convenience outlets for the residence, the low specifies that one outlet be installed
for every ______________ of floor perimeter.
a. 10 ft c. 3 m
b. 20 ft d. 5 m
____ 98. If the generator in problem 48 has a power factor of 0.8. What is the apparent power supplied to the motor?
a. 110 KVA c. 120KVA
b. 115KVA d. 125KVA
____ 99. What is that factor with which the VA must be multiplied in order to obtain the actual power.
____ 100. It is the ratio of resistance to total impedance
____ 101. It is the change in voltage magnitude of the receiving end from no load to full load. The sending end
remaining constant during the change. It is actually expressed as % of the full load receiving and voltage.
b. Voltage regulation d. inductance
____ 102. A system there is more than one voltage source combined through the use of different connections such as Y
and delta.
a. multi-voltage b. variable emf c. polyphase d. generator
____ 103. Given a wire 1/8 inch in diameter. find the area in circular mils.
a. 125 cmil b. 12230cmil c. 15000 cmil d. 15600 cmil
____ 104. The total resistance RT of two resistors in parallel is given by the equation.
a. (R1 + R2)/R1R2
b. R1 /2 + R2 /2
c. R1 R2/R1+R2
d. R1 R2+1/2 R1+ 1/2R11/2 +R2
____ 105. What is the phenomenon when the resistance is zero?
a. short b. ground c. high impedance d. open circuit
____ 106. What is the condition when the resistance is the resistance of the earth?
a. short
b. ground
c. high impedance
d. open circuit
____ 107. That property of an electric circuit whereby it opposes a change in current flowing in it.
a. inductance
b. capacitance
c. resistance
d. impedance
____ 108. The unit of luminux flux.
a. decibel
b. fluorescence
c. lumen
d. watts
____ 109. What is the protective fuse rating of a 40-hp wound rotor electric motor
a. 150
b. 100
c. 50
d. 200
____ 110. What is the protective fuse rating of a 20-hp squirrel cage synchronous motor?
a. 50
b. 80
c. 100
d. 200
____ 111. A capacitance of 20uF and resistance of 100 are connected in series across a 120-V, 60- cycle
mains.Determine thee following:
What is the impedance of the circuit?

a. 166
b. 83
c. 232
d. 42
____ 112. What is the voltage across resistance?
a. 18
b. 36.1
c. 72.2
d. 144
____ 113. What is the angle between the voltage and current?
a. 25
b. -25
c. 53
d. 53
____ 114. What is the power factor?
a. 0.50
b. 0.60
c. 0.70
d. 0.80
____ 115. Why is AC adopted for transmitting power over long distance over DC?
a. power factor
b. low current
c. voltage
d. resistance
____ 116. The continuous load supplied by a branch circuit shall not exceed how many percent of the branch circuit
current?
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. 90%
____ 117. The ground conductor of a branch circuit shall be identified by what continuous color?
a. black
b. red
c. white
d. yellow
____ 118. What do you provide a circuit so that it will open the circuit if the current reaches a value that will causes
excessive or dangerous temperature in conductors of conductor insulator?
a. over current protection
b. switch
c. thermostat
d. temperature gauge
____ 119. Notes: Problems 13-1 are medium level questions.
Additional Easy Questions
Electric shocks are usually fatal if shock current exceeds

a. 0.02 amperes
b. 0.02 milliamperes
c. 0.2 amperes
d. 0.2 milliamperes
____ 120. What amount of current will cause a 15-ampere fuse in a 120-volt circuit to open (blow)?
a. 1450 micro-amperes
b. 120 milliuamperes
c. current exceeding 15A
d. All of the above
____ 121. When measuring a DC voltage and the meter pointer deflects to the left you should
a. increase the range of the meter
b. change the meter
c. interchange the test probe
d. stop thee measuring
____ 122. When measuring an unknown voltage or current in a circuit, always start with
a. the highest range of the meter
b. the lowest range of the meter
c. the mid-range of the meter
d. any of the above
____ 123. A wattmeter is actually a combination of two instruments
a. ammeter, and ohmmeter
b. ohmmeter and volmeter
c. ammeter and voltmeter
d. volt meter and current transformer
____ 124. A direct current shunt motor has the following specifications and operating conditions. Line current = Motor
rating = 10HO; line voltage = 220V; Operating Speed = 1200 rpm.
From the above given, What is the efficiency of motor at full load.
a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 85%
d. 90%
____ 125. What is the torque in N-m at rated load.
a. 4
b. 59
c. 84
d. 60
____ 126. An 18 KW, 220 V,3 -  induction motor runs at 1150 rpm at full load and at 1200 rpm at no load. Motor
efficiency is 90% and the line current is 60 amp. Power is supplied from a 60 Hetz 3 -  line.
determine the percentage slip at full load.

a. 96%
b. 4%
c. .04%
d. 0%
____ 127. Are there how many number of poles in the motor.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
____ 128. What is the speed, in rpm, of the rotor field with respect to the rotor
a. 1200 b. 1150 c. 1035 d. 1080
____ 129. What is the shaft torque, in Newton-meter at full load.
a. 110 b. 150 c. 15.3 d. 11
____ 130. What is the power factor at the stator terminals.
a. 0.80 b. 0.87 c. 0.95 d. 1.0
____ 131. A test run 0f 2.24 Kw (3HP)), 3 - , 230 Volts, Hertz, 6 pole induction motor yields the following data:
LINE VOLTAGE LINE CURRENT POWER SPEED SHAFT TORQUE
(VOLTS) (AMPS) ( WATTS) (RPM) (N-m)
230 4.1 210 1195 0.00
230 8.2 2600 1100 19.39
Calculate the power output and efficiency of the motor at 19.39 N-m torque
a. 2600W & 90% b. 2.233W & 9% c. 2.600W & 6% d. 2233W & 86%
____ 132. Compute the power factor of the motor at 19.39 N-m load
a. 0.80 b. 0.85 c. 0.90 d. 0.95
____ 133. Compute the power factor of the motor at no load.
a. 0.20 b. 0.10 c. 0.05 d. 0.13
____ 134. A 30 hp, 3-, 4-pole230 V, 60 Hz squirrel induction motor operating at 90% efficiency, 90% efficiency, 85%
power factor and 2.5% slip drives a water pump of a reservoir.
Determine the current at which the motor is running.

a. 60 b. 95 c. 73 d. 81
____ 135. Determine the speed which the motor is running
a. 1800 b. 1755 c. 3600 d. 3510
____ 136. Determine the discharge rate in lps if the total head against which the pump is working is 200 ft. assume the
pump efficiency is 80%
a. 6190 b. 47 c. 4952 d. 36.6
____ 137. A squirrel cage induction motor with nameplate data of 150 hp, 3-, 460 V, 6-pole, and 0.85 P.F. was
subjected to certain performance test. result readings were as follows: Full load current = 202 A; and full load
torque = 676.9 ft-lb.
Determine the motor efficiency.

a. 82% b. 87% c. 97% d. 92%
____ 138. Determine the percent slip at full load.
a. 97% b. 3% c. 82% d. 18%
____ 139. A 3- induction motor draws a running line current of 22 A, 7450 W at 230 V line to line. The motor in turn
provides mechanical power equivalent to 6, 705 W
What is the motor efficiency

a. 85% b. 90% c. 95% d. 99%
____ 140. Determine the power factor of the motor
a. 0.85 b. 0.90 c. 0.95 d. 0.99
____ 141. What is the effective hp of the motor.
a. 10 b. 9 c. 8 d. 6
____ 142. A survey conducted by an electric Cooperative shows that a village would need 12, 000 KW to be delivered at
50, 000 Volts, 60 cycles, over a distance of 40 km from the power plant with the power factor of the load at
85%, lagging current. The cooperative decided to use a three- phase transmission line with No. 000 copper
wire space 183 cm having resistance of 0.204 /km and a resistance of 0.464 /km. Neglecting capacitance
between conductors.
determine the resistance per conductor.

a. 0.204 b. 8.16 c. 20.4 d. 81.6
____ 143. What is the reactance per conductor
a. 0.464 b. 185.6 c. 4.64 d. 18.6
____ 144. Estimate the resistance drop per conductor.
a. 1330V b. 3026V c. 163A d. 54KV
____ 145. Calculate the reactance drop per conductor
a. 1330V b. 3026V c. 163A d. 54KV
____ 146. What is the input line voltage.
a. 55KW b. 50KV c. 12KV d. 3KV
____ 147. Determine the power loss in the line.
a. 650KW b. 55KW c. 3KW d. 1.3KW
____ 148. Calculate the transmission efficiency.
a. 855 b. 90% c. 95% d. 99%
____ 149. What is the line current.
a. 138.6 b. 192 c. 96 d. 163
Rural Electrification
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: D 39. ANS: C 76. ANS: B 114. ANS: B

3. ANS: D 41. ANS: C 78. ANS: C 116. ANS: C
4. ANS: C 42. ANS: C 79. ANS: B 117. ANS: C
5. ANS: A 43. ANS: A 80. ANS: C 118. ANS: A
6. ANS: A 44. ANS: A 81. ANS: C 119. ANS: A
7. ANS: A 45. ANS: C 82. ANS: D 120. ANS: C
8. ANS: D 46. ANS: C 83. ANS: B 121. ANS: C
9. ANS: C 47. ANS: B 84. ANS: A 122. ANS: A
10. ANS: B 48. ANS: A 85. ANS: B 123. ANS: C
11. ANS: C 49. ANS: B 86. ANS: B 124. ANS: C
12. ANS: B 50. ANS: D 87. ANS: C 125. ANS: B
13. ANS: B 51. ANS: C 88. ANS: B 126. ANS: B
14. ANS: A 52. ANS: C 89. ANS: A 127. ANS: C
15. ANS: A 53. ANS: A 90. ANS: B 128. ANS: A
16. ANS: D 54. ANS: D 91. ANS: C 129. ANS: B
17. ANS: B 55. ANS: D 92. ANS: A 130. ANS: B
18. ANS: C 56. ANS: B 93. ANS: B 131. ANS: D
19. ANS: C 57. ANS: C 94. ANS: B 132. ANS: A
20. ANS: C 58. ANS: D 95. ANS: C 133. ANS: A
21. ANS: A 59. ANS: C 96. ANS: D 134. ANS: C
22. ANS: B 60. ANS: C 97. ANS: B 135. ANS: B
23. ANS: B 61. ANS: C 98. ANS: D 136. ANS: B
26. ANS: C 64. ANS: A 101. ANS: B 139. ANS: B
27. ANS: C 65. ANS: C 102. ANS: C 140. ANS: A
28. ANS: A 66. ANS: C 103. ANS: D 141. ANS: B
30. ANS: B 68. ANS: D 105. ANS: A 143. ANS: D
32. ANS: D 70. ANS: D 107. ANS: A 145. ANS: B
33. ANS: D 71. ANS: C 108. ANS: C 146. ANS: A
36. ANS: B 74. ANS: C 111. ANS: A 149. ANS: D
37. ANS: B 75. ANS: D 112. ANS: C
38. ANS: A 113. ANS: D
Soil and Water
Multiple Choice
____ 1. An 8mm rainfall was measured by a USWB standard rain gauge (8 inches in diameter). Determine the height
of water in the inner cylinder, whose area is one tenth of the catch area.
a. 0.8 cm b. 259.0 mm c. 80.0 mm d. 80.0 cm
____ 2. When the water level in the pipe drops below the upper edge of the pipe and the conduit controls, the flow
becomes:
a. weir flow c. open channel flow
b. oroice flow d. pipe flow
____ 3. The rate of vertical water movement through the soil at saturated condition is
a. infiltration rate c. percolation rate
b. depletion rate d. soil permeability
____ 4. A barrier place in stream tp constrict the flow of water and cause it fall over a crest usually used to measure
discharge.
a. flume b. weir c. gabion d. staff gage
____ 5. A hydraulic jum is a classic example of this type of flow.
a. Unsteady flow c. Rapidly Varied flow
b. Uniform Flow d. Critical flow
____ 6. The soil property which describes the ability of the soil to transmit water.
a. hydraulic conductivity c. percolation rate
b. matric potential d. infiltration rate
____ 7. What is the effect of the presence of extensive vegetation in a watershed?
a. reduce peak runoff rates c. both a and b
b. increases infiltration capacity d. none of the above
____ 8. Type of rainfall caused by the upward lifting of the air mass due to a mountain.
a. Convective rainfall c. Orographic rainfall
b. Frontal rainfall d. Cyclonic rainfall
____ 9. What do you call the mountain side, with reference to the wind direction, in which the air mass passing
through it is cold and dry?
a. wayward b. windward c. Trade wind d. Leeward
____ 10. It is the natural or synthetic hydrograph for one unit of direct runoff from the catchment in a specified unit of
time.
a. basic hydrograph c. design hydrograph
b. unit hydrograph d. runoff hydrograph
____ 11. Graphical representation of instantaneous runoff against time
a. hydrograph c. log-probability graph
b. monograph d. hytograph
____ 12. The capacity of rainfall (precipitation) to effect the detachment and transport of soil particles.
a. erodibilty b. effectivity c. erosivity d. conductivity
____ 13. Removal of soil by water from small but well defined channels when there is concentration of overland flow
a. stream channel erosion c. gully erosion
b. rill erosion d. sheet erosion
____ 14. Structured device designed to hold a pool of water to cushion the impact and retard the flow of falling water
as from an overflow weir, chute or drop.
a. sill b. apron c. stilling basin d. pond
____ 15. Uniform removal of soil in thin layers from the sloping land resulting from the overland flow.
a. rill erosion b. sheet erosion c. coastal erosion d. splash erosion
____ 16. What law prevails in air masses in the atmosphere that for every drop (increase) of pressure there is a
corresponding decrease (increase) of temperature resulting to the cooling of such air masses inducing
precipitation.
a. Law of Conservation of Mass c. Law of Conservation of Energy
b. Avogardo’s Law d. Ideal Gas Law
____ 17. It is the time required for water to flow from the most remote point of the watershed to the outlet
a. time to peak c. lag time
b. recession time d. time of concentration
____ 18. When is the best/recommended time to sample sediment load in the stream?
a. Intermittent flow c. Base flow
b. Peak flow d. Perennial flow
____ 19. The equation used in current meters is V = a + bN. What does b signifies?
a. proportionality constant c. bed slope
b. starting constant d. number of revolutions
____ 20. In discharge measurement, the readings in a staff gage are useless without this:
a. synthetic hydrograph c. rating curve
b. unit hydrograph d. matching curve
____ 21. A 30-minute duration rainfall (mm) from a recording raingauge wa plotted versus time (min) and an equation
was obtained in the form, R = 0.1 + 0.333* t(R2 = 0.999). determine the rainfall intensity in mm/hr.
a. 20 b. 15 c. 100 d. 10
____ 22. In thee previous problem 9321), estimate the magnitude of the rainfall in mm.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 30
____ 23. In the Soil Conservation method (curve number method), if the Curve number is 100, this indicates that:
a. rainfall = runoff c. rainfall is less than runoff
b. runoff = 0 d. rainfall is highly erosive
____ 24. Determine the 10-year period peak runoff for 80-hectare watershed having a runoff coefficient of 0.4. The
maximum length of flow of water is 610 meters and the fall along this path is 6.0 meters. The rainfall
intensity for that return period is 101.25 mm/hr having a duration equal to the time of concentration.
a. 9.0 b. 16.5 c. 1.5 d. 16.3
____ 25. A supercritical floe is a flow condition where
a. Fr = 1 b. Fr>1 c. Fr<1 d. Fr>4000
____ 26. The rate of decrease of temperature with the increase in elevation is called
a. updraft b. convection rate c. lapse rate d. deflection rate
____ 27. A parshall flume of throat width equal to 2.0 ft. will be used to measure peak discharge. The expected peak
stage at thee flume well is 2.5 ft.What is the peak discharge.
a. 33.1 cfs b. 34.1 cfs c. 35.1 cfs d. 36.1 cfs
____ 28. The approximate threshold for soil loss in the Philippines is around 12 metric T/ha/yr. Assuming a soil bulk
density of 1.2 metric T/m3 , what is thee soil erosion in mm/yr?
a. 0.1 mm/yr b. 10 mm/yr c. 1.0 mm/yr d. 100 mm/yr
____ 29. A type of cropping system wherein different crops are planted in an area one after the other each season.
a. strip cropping b. mixed cropping c. cropping pattern d. relay cropping
____ 30. A farmer asked you, an engineer, “what is the erosion rate in my 10-hectare farm with an average slope of
3%? The following were determined during you visit: slope-length factor is 1.0; soil type is loam with a factor
0.25;cropping management factor of 0.6 for overgrazed; conservation practice is conventional factor 1.0; and
from your assessment the rainfall factor is 178. What will you answer to the farmer?
a. 267.0 mm/yr b. 26.7 mm/yr c. 2.67 mm/yr d. 80.1 mm/yr
____ 31. Using the float method in determining the velocity of water in a channel, the float velocity in relation to the
average water velocity is
a. equal to the avg. water velocity c. greater than the avg. water velocity
b. less than the avg. water velocity d. no relation at all
____ 32. The USLE is method of computing soil erosion. What type of soil erosion does it estimated?
a. sheet erosion only c. sheet and rill erosion only
b. sheet, rill and gully erosion d. all types of erosion
3
____ 33. A flood flow of 560 m /s was determined to have a 20% probability occurrence. What is its a return period?
a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 20 years d. 50 years
____ 34. For the watershed of 360 hectares, the peak run--off rate for 0.5 cm/hr rain intensity (at the time of
concentration) was observed as 2.5 m3/s. What is the runoff coefficient?
a. 0.5 b. 5.0 c. 0.005 d. 0.05
____ 35. A type of terrace usually used for 9-24% slope characterized by breaking the slope at certain intervals by a
ridge and a flat portion to trap run-off.
a. Bench terrace c. Broad-based terrace
b. Zingg terrace d. Manning’s terrace
____ 36. A storm occurred in two similar watersheds, Glads and Karl, both has. 700 in a area. Glads watershed is long
and slender while Karl watershed is short but wide. Which watershed will experience the earliest and the
highest peak flow assuming that the rainfall over the watershed is evenly distributed?
a. Karl c. Glads
b. The same d. Neither Karl nor Glads
____ 37. Type of flow wherein the discharge or flow in a prismatic channel is constant with respect to time.
a. laminar flow b. uniform flow c. steady flow d. critical flow
____ 38. Type of sediment load along the stream characterized as sediments that are sometimes stationary or
sometimes carried by the water along the stream.
a. Saltating load b. Bed load c. Temporary load d. Suspended load
____ 39. In frequency analysis, most hydraulic processes, more or less, follow this process. This process is governed
by chance and time dependent. What type of process is this?
a. Deterministic Process c. Stochastic Process
b. Probabilistic Process d. Hydrolistic Process
____ 40. Determine the average monthly rainfall in a 500 ha watershed based on the rainfall data for September of %
rainfall gain stations. The area of the corresponding. Thiessen polygons are also indicated.
Station Rainfall Total (September) Thiessen Polygon Area, ha.
mm
A 2190 22
B 1731 106
C 2040 75
D 1560 203
E 1974 94
a. 1747 mm c. 17470 mm
b. 1774 mm d. 17740 mm
____ 41. The theoretical flow velocity in an orifice is 4 m/s. What is the height of water flowing above the center of the
orifice?
a. 20.4 cm b. 361.2 cm c. 81.6 cm d. 90.3 cm
____ 42. RAEG is measuring the flow in one of the tribunary of the Bicol River Basin using the a Price meter. Luckily
they were able to find the trapezoidal section in the stream with side slope z = 2 and bed width of 1.3 m. After
several trials,the average reading of 0.8d is 30 rev/min and at 0.2d is 33 rev/min. The depth of flow (d) is 2.2
m and the instruments a and b are 0.019 and 0.7 respectively. What is the discharge of the said tributary?
a. 1.11 m3 /s b. 276.75 m3 /s c. 4.85 m3 /s d. 289.91 m3 /s
____ 43. Determine the crest length for a structure for a chute spillway for a design flow of 1.4 cms., and a maximum
water level at the inlet is 0.5 m. The coefficient of discharge is 1.66.
a. 0.54 m b. 4.38 m c. 2.38 m d. 3.28 m
____ 44. A rectangular water tank, 2 meters high, is filled with water. Due to rust, a circular hole was made on lowest
portion of one side of thee tank. Considering that the tank is maintained full, what is the velocity of the water
right after its take-off from the hole?
a. 6.26 m/s b. 39.22 m/s c. 4.43 m/s d. 19.63 m/s
____ 45. Marikina watershed having a drainage area of 500 sq. km. has been characterized to have an average CN
value of 65 in 1970 where it experienced a storm depth of 100 mm. After 30 years, the same storm magnitude
was felt but this time, due primarily to a change in land use inside the watershed, the CN value now is 84.
What is the percentage change in depth of runoff?
a. 1.33% b. 80% c. 41% d. 29%
____ 46. What is the water depth in a 24-inch diameter culvert which flows at 500 gpm and 2 ft/sec velocity?
a. 24.0 inches b. 1.4 inches c. 12.0 inches d. 7.2 inches
____ 47. A horizontal fully flowing 4-inch pipe is discharging water. The X-coordinate and Y-coordinate of the water
trajectory as measured from the end of the pipe are 1.5m and 0.8, respectively. Assuming that the coefficient
of discharge is .0, what is thee discharge of the pipe?
a. 10 lps b. 20 lps c. 30 lps d. 40 lps
____ 48. What should be the minimum weirs height for measuring a flow of 1000 gpm with a 90 degree V notch weir,
if the flow is now moving at 5 ft/sec in a 2 ft. wide rectangular channel?
a. 1.5 ft. b. 1.4 ft. c. 1.3 ft. d. 1.2 ft.
____ 49. A 10 inch diameter pipe is flowing 1/3 full. What is the velocity of the water if the volume flow is 135 gpm?
a. 7.2 m/sec b. 10.6 ft/sec c. 2.0 ft/sec d. 0.01 m/sec
____ 50. On a 20% hill slope, it is proposed to construct bench terraces with 1:1 batter slope. If the vertical interval is 2
meters, what is the width of the terrace?
a. 10 m b. 8 m c. 20 m d. 16 m
____ 51. It is the ratio of the peak runoff rate to the rainfall intensity.
a. Drainage coefficient c. Runoff coefficient
b. Discharge coefficient d. Recharge coefficient
____ 52. Particle density is the ratio of mass of the dry soil to the
a. bulk volume c. Soil volume
b. pore volume d. Air-filled pore volume
____ 53. The difference between field capacity and permanent wilting point
a. available moisture c. both a and b
b. capillary water d. none of the above
____ 54. Given a soil profile at equilebrium with a water table at-50 cm depth and the reference level is chosen at the
water table level. Determine the total water potential at the soil surface.
a. 50 cm b. 0 cm c. -50 cm d. none of the above
____ 55. The matric potential is zero and Zo (the distance from the surface of the mercury reservoir to the tensiometer
installed at 10 cm soil depth) is 20 cm. Find the reading in the mercury manometer.
a. 0.0 cm b. 0.6 cm c. 1.0 cm d. 1.6 cm
____ 56. When the water level in an orifice drops below the upper edge of the orifice, the flow becomes,
a. weir flow c. orifice flow
b. open channel flow d. pipe flow
____ 57. What is the theoretical flow velocity in an orifice where the free water surface is 120 cm above the center of
the orifice.
a. 48.5 m/s c. 2.15 m/s
b. 3.50 m/s d. 4.85 m/s
____ 58. The recommended pressure variation in the lateral between the first and the last sprinkler is
a. 5% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 20%
____ 59. The rate of which water moves through the soil profile is called
a. soil hydraulic conductivity c. percolation rate
b. infiltration rate d. soil permeability
____ 60. The soil property which describes the abolity of the soil to transmit water
a. soil hydraulic conductivity c. percolation rate
b. soil matric potential d. hydraulic gradient
____ 61. The soil property which is not affected by tillage and soil management but is dependent on the soil
mineralogy and organic matter content.
a. Bulk density c. porosity
b. Particle density d. void ratio
____ 62. Water flows from a region with higher moisture content to a region with lower moisture content. This
statement is
a. Always true c. False, if the soil is homogenous
b. Always false d. none of the above
____ 63. An aquifer in which the groundwater has a free water surface open to the atmosphere.
a. unconfined c. confined
b. semi-confined d. none of the above
____ 64. A hydrograph shows the relationship with time of
a. flow velocity c. flow discharge
b. flow depth d. none of the above
____ 65. The best hydraulic section of a canal is characterized by:
a. minimum area for a given discharge c. applicable only to non-erodible channel
b. least wetted perimeter for a given area d. all of the above
____ 66. The coefficient of discharge for a weir includes correction for the effects of
a. physical characteristics of the weir c. both a and b
b. acceleration due to gravity d. none of the above
____ 67. It is the total suction head at the suction nozzle minus the vapour pressure at the pumping temperature.
a. net positive suction head c. static head
b. total dynamic head d. pressure head
____ 68. The removal of soil by water from small but well-defined channels or streamlets when there is a concentration
of the overland flow.
a. sheet erosion c. gully erosion
b. rill erosion d. streambank erosion
____ 69. If the slope of a watershed is 9% and the L factor in the Universal Soil Loss Equation is 10 (l = 2200 m), what
is the topography factor LS?
a. 1.0 b. 10.0 c. 5.0 d. 15.0
____ 70. A type of drainage system where laterals meet the main line at only one side.
a. random b. natural c. gridiron d. herringbone
____ 71. In water flow through culverts, if the inlet is not submerged and the inlet controls the flow, the flow is
a. pipe flow c. open channel flow
b. orifice flow d. weir flow
____ 72. When the water must be conveyed under the natural or artificial drainage channel, the structure used is
a. chute b. siphon c. inverted siphon d. drop
____ 73. Determine the power rating of a pump required to pump water at 158 gpm to a storage tank. The elevation of
the inlet to the storage tank is 3 m above the pump outlet. The source of water is a stream 3 m below the
pump suction inlet. The total length of the suction pipe is 5 m. Assume that all pipes and total friction loss is
1.6 m. The pump efficiency is 50% and the drive efficiency is 50% and drive efficiency is 100%.
a. 1.0 HP b. 2.0 HP c. 3.0 HP d. 1.5 HP
____ 74. A farmer wishes to apply 12 ha-cm of water to his 3 ha plantation using a centrifugal pump with a capacity of
2000 liters per minute at 1600 rpm and pumping head of 5 m. If the irrigation efficiency is 60%, how long
will it take him to apply the water?
a. 10.0 hrs b. 16.7 hrs c. 20.0 hrs d. 33.3 hrs
____ 75. If the farmer in problem No. 24 want to reduce his time by 25%, using the same pump and the same amount
of water application, estimate the required speed of the pump.
a. 2100 rpm b. 2130 rpm c. 2120 rpm d. 2140 rpm
____ 76. In the same problem 24, if the water level in the water source reduced by 1 m, what is the new speed of the
pump to deliver the same flow rate as in problem 24?
a. 1700 rpm b. 1750 rpm c. 1800 rpm d. 1900 rpm
____ 77. An irrigation canal has the following data.
bottom width 60 cm
depth of flowing water 50 cm
side slope 1:1
channel slope 0.02
Manning’s n 0.035
Compute the capacity of the channel.

a. 0.851 m3/s b. 0.935 m3/s c. 1.123 m3/s d. 0.568 m3/s
____ 78. In problem 27, is the channel dimension the best hydraulic cross section.
a. yes b. No c. Not suffecient data
____ 79. A soil sample was taken which has a wet water mass of 220 kg. The mass water content of the soil was 0.18.
Find the dry mass of the soil.
a. 268 kg c. 186 kg
b. 168 kg d. 1222 kg
____ 80. A soil has an initial volumetric water content of 0.10, 0.20 and 0.25 at the 0-20 cm, 20-40 cm, and 40-60 cm,
depth, respectively. The moisture content at field capacity is 0.30. How deep will a 5 cm rain penetrate?
a. 20 cm c. 40 cm
b. 30 cm d. 50 cm
Soil and Water
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
41. ANS: C
1. ANS: B 42. ANS: C
2. ANS: C 43. ANS: C
3. ANS: C 44. ANS: A
5. ANS: C 46. ANS: D
6. ANS: A 47. ANS: C
7. ANS: C 48. ANS: D
8. ANS: C 49. ANS: C
9. ANS: D 50. ANS: B
10. ANS: B 51. ANS: C
11. ANS: A 52. ANS: C
12. ANS: C 53. ANS: C
13. ANS: C 54. ANS: B
14. ANS: C 55. ANS: D
15. ANS: C 56. ANS: A
16. ANS: D 57. ANS: D
17. ANS: A 58. ANS: D
18. ANS: B 59. ANS: C
19. ANS: B 60. ANS: A
20. ANS: C 61. ANS: B
21. ANS: A 62. ANS: D
22. ANS: A 63. ANS: A
23. ANS: A 64. ANS: C
24. ANS: A 65. ANS: B
25. ANS: B 66. ANS: A
26. ANS: C 67. ANS: A
27. ANS: A 68. ANS: B
28. ANS: C 69. ANS: B
29. ANS: D 70. ANS: C
30. ANS: B 71. ANS: D
31. ANS: C 72. ANS: C
32. ANS: C 73. ANS: B
33. ANS: B 74. ANS: B
34. ANS: D 75. ANS: B
35. ANS: B 76. ANS: B
36. ANS: A 77. ANS: B
37. ANS: C 78. ANS: B
38. ANS: A 79. ANS: C
39. ANS: C 80. ANS: B
40. ANS: B
Soil Science
Multiple Choice
____ 1. The original source of most organic matter in soil is

a. plant residues c. soil inhabiting microorganism
b. bodies of dead animals and insects d. rocks
____ 2. The most abundant gas in the soil atmosphere is:
a. CO2 b. O2 c. N2 d. A
____ 3. A soil horizon is defined as:
a. the depth of finely divided soil mineral matter over bed rock
b. soil layer that differs in recognizable properties from other layers immediately above or
below
c. thee slope of the soil surface relative to the horizontal
d. any of the above
____ 4. An example of physical weathering process is
a. exfoliation b. solution c. hydration d. oxidation
____ 5. A civil engineer is a :
a. edaphologists c. none of the above
b. pedologists d. anthropologist
____ 6. The study of rock is:
a. minerology b. rockology c. petrology d. hydrology
____ 7. The molten mass from where igneous rocks solidify from is:
a. core b. magma c. mantle d. soil
____ 8. Metamorphism is caused by:
a. high pressure and temperature c. erosion
b. floods d. earthquake
____ 9. The parent material correspond to horizon:
a. AB b. C c. D d. ABCD
____ 10. The true soil correspond to horizon:
a. C b. AB c. ABC d. ABCD
____ 11. A lowland paddy soil possesses
a. ABC horizons c. horizon
b. oxidized and reduced layers d. OABC
____ 12. An organic soil is most likely having % OM of
a. 1 b. 5 c. 25 d. 0
____ 13. The mineral supplying P is:
a. feldspar b. apatite c. talc d. pyrite
____ 14. Toumline supplies the element
a. Mn b. B c. Ca d. N
____ 15. The resistance of a mineral to abrasion is a
a. luster b. specific gravity c. hardness d. cleavage
____ 16. The softest mineral is
a. diamond b. talc c. quartz d. apatite
____ 17. The hardest mineral is
a. diamond b. talc c. quartz d. apatite
____ 18. This mineral is hardly soluble in water as
a. Talc b. quartz c. gypsum d. fluorite
____ 19. This is not an element of climate
a. relief b. precipitation c. temperature d. sunshine
____ 20. An edaphologist studies the soil in relation to
a. its genesis
b. to plant growth
c. its capacity to support buildings and structure
d. all of the above
____ 21. Parent material deposited in lakes in a
a. alluvium b. lacustrine c. marine d. tuff
____ 22. The most abundant elements in the earth’s crust are
a. Fe, Al, Mn, N, P c. N, P, K, Ca, Mg
b. O, Si, Al, Fe, Ca d. C, H, O, N, P
____ 23. The soil profile is found in the
a. core b. mantle c. crust d. none of the above
____ 24. Secondary mineral include
a. Mont b. quartz c. feldspar d. diamond
____ 25. This is not a soil forming factor
a. climate b. organism c. soil color d. time
____ 26. The basic elements lost in weathering are
a. Fe, Al b. Ca, Mg c. Zn, Mn d. C, H
____ 27. The main objective of physical weathering is:
a. increase total surface area for chemical weathering
b. weaken rock by removal of bases
c. produce clay
d. leach bases
____ 28. The soil forming factors that normally show the greatest variation from one geographic region to another are:
a. topography and parent material c. climate and vegetation
b. topography d. time and relief
____ 29. Parent material that has formed by weathering of bedrock in place is
a. transported b. residual c. colluvial d. alluvial
____ 30. One of the most variable soil components is:
a. mineral matter b. organic matter c. soil water d. sand
____ 31. Structurally, feldspars are:
a. layered minerals c. chain minerals
b. framework minerals d. none of the above
____ 32. Of the following minerals, the one that expands on wetting is:
a. muscovite b. illite c. montmorillonite d. kaolinite
____ 33. Feldspar minerals that are more easily weathered,by chemical means tend to be high in the element:
a. K b. Na c. Ca d. P
____ 34. The dark color of igneous rocks usually caused by:
a. quartz c. calcite
b. feldspar d. ferrogmagnesian minerals
____ 35. The chemical element in dolomite that is not an important constituent of calcite is
a. Mg b. Ca c. P d. O
____ 36. Basalt weathers more easily than granite, this difference being explain most readily by difference in:
a. mineralogy b. texture c. both a & b d. color
____ 37. The dark color of igneous rocks is usually cause by:
a. quarts b. feldspar c. calcite d. feronagnesian
minerals
____ 38. Soil textural classes are define in terms of ranges in variation in:
a. structure c. texture
b. weathering d. drainage
____ 39. The mass per unit volume of whole soil is:
a. particle density c. bulk density
b. true density d. all of the above
____ 40. The physical state of the soil as relates to plant growth is known as soil
a. texture b. consistency c. tilt d. structure
____ 41. the sedimentary rock that contains clay mineral;s as one of its more important constituents is:
a. shale b. limestone c. sandstone d. slate
____ 42. The percent moisture of a moist soil sample that weights 12.5g originally and 10g after oven drying is:
a. 12.5 b. 10 c. 25 d. 22.5
____ 43. The force that determines the height to which water will rise in a vertical capillary tube:
a. surface tension c. infiltration
b. capillarity d. capillary fringe
____ 44. The entry of surface applied water into soil is known as:
a. infiltration c. seepage
b. percolation d. erosion
____ 45. The zone of saturated soil where water is held under suction immediately above the water table is known as:
a. water table c. capillary fringe
b. spring d. capillarity
____ 46. If the oxygen content of the soil air is 155 carbon dioxide will be:
a. 6 c. 0.5
b. .03 d. none of the above
____ 47. The principal mechanism of a gas transfer in soil is;
a. diffusion c. adsorption
b. inhibition d. none of the above
____ 48. The mechanism responsible for most of the heat transfer in soils:
a. convection c. adsorption
b. conduction d. none of the above
____ 49. The acidity of rain water is largely due to the gas:
a. CO2 c. SO3
b. NO3 d. H
____ 50. Which does not relate to CEC?
a. amount of clay c. kind of clay
b. amount of OM d. bulk density
____ 51. This ion is adsorbed with the least force to soil particles:
a. Na c. H
b. Ca d. Al
____ 52. The soil depth from which plants obtain the major part of the water absorbed is turned:
a. effective-rooting depth of plant c. profile
b. solumn d. rizhophere
____ 53. The consumptive use of water is defined as that quantity of water in the production of a crop by thee process
of:
a. transpiration c. evapotranspiration
b. evaporation d. WUE
____ 54. The term clay:
a. identifies as a soil separate c. identifies both a soil separate and a soil
textural class
b. identifies a soil textural class d. all of the above
____ 55. Porosity, which is the total pore-space volume of soils:
a. is highest in fine textured soils c. varies little with differences in texture
b. is highest in coarse-textured soils d. is same for all the soil
____ 56. Single-grained is a term that identifies:
a. non structural state in soils c. soil in puddled condition
b. a granular-structural state in soils d. all of the above
____ 57. On the average, the bulk density of soils:
a. varies directly with porosity c. bears no relationship with porosity
b. varies inversely with porosity d. all of the above
____ 58. In a soil plastic state:
a. adhesive forces are more strongly c. adhesive and cohesive forces are about
expressed than are cohesive forces equally expressed
b. cohesive forces are more strongly d. all of the above
expressed than are adhesive forces
____ 59. The hydraulic pressure of water held in the soil by capillary forces of attraction is
a. zero c. negative
b. positive d. 10,000
____ 60. Soil suction in a saturated zone beneath a water table is
a. greater than zero c. less than zero
b. zero d. 10,000
____ 61. In magnitude in algebraic sign, the matric potential of soil water is equal to:
a. negative hydrulic pressure c. soil water tension
b. soilsuction d. positive hydraulic pressure
____ 62. If plant roots where to remove water from the soil water films without absorbing any of the ions of this water,
the osmotic potential of the soil water would:
a. become more negative c. not change
b. become more positive d. soil is at fluid capacity
____ 63. Plant wilting commences when:
a. water flow into roots stops c. water starts flowing from roots back into
the soil
b. water flow into roots drops below d. soil is at field capacity
transperational loss
____ 64. More open than not, poor aeration in soils is associated with:
a. excessive biological consumption of c. partial pressure gradient for oxygen
oxygen from soil air
b. low conductivity of soil pores for gases d. all of the above
____ 65. On the average, in the interchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen between the soil and outer atmosphere
a. the volume rate of flow for oxygen is c. the volume rate of flow both gases is
greater than for carbon dioxide essentially the same
b. the volume rate of flow for carbon dioxide d. none of the above
is greater than for oxygen
____ 66. Where a complete cloud cover is present, the component of solar radiation that is of maximum intensity at
ground level is:
a. light b. infrared c. ultraviolet d. far red
____ 67. The exchange of energy is radiant from between the soil and the atmosphere goes on:
a. only during day light hours c. continuously
b. only during night d. only during cloudy day
____ 68. Maximum daily variation in temperature at the surface of the ground normally occurs where;
a. both the soil and sir above are dry c. the soil is dry but that air above is most
b. both the soil and air above are moist d. soil is wet
____ 69. In addition to hydrogen, the caution that normally tends to increase in exchangeable form with increasing
form with increasing soil acidity is
a. aluminum b. calcium c. ammonium d. Mg
____ 70. The caution exchange capacity of a soil is a measure of;
a. the force of bonding between the soil and exchangeable cautions
b. negative charge of the soil neutralized by easily replaceable cautions
c. the speed with which ions added to the soil solution become absorbed on soil particles
surfaces
d. acidity
____ 71. Of the following, the material with the highest caution-exchange capacity is:
a. vermiculite c. organic matter
b. montmorillonite d. kaolinite
____ 72. A soil has a caution exchange capacity of 10me per 100g, and the following complement of exchangeable
cautions, the amounts being expressed in mill equivalents per 100g of soil: H, 3.0 Ca, 2.0 Al, 3.0 Mg, 1.0 Na,
0.25 and K, 0.75. The percent base saturation of this soil is
a. 10 b. 40 c. 70 d. 50
____ 73. In slightly acids soil, such as in those with pH between 6.0 and 7.0 the two most abundant cautions will
probably be:
a. calcium and magnesium c. potassium and sodium
b. hydrogen and aluminum d. iron and manganese
____ 74. An illuvial horizon in a soil is designated by the symbol:
a. Al b. A2 c. B2 d. O2
____ 75. A parent material that often has the same origin as losses but is separated from the losses by the action of
wind is:
a. colluvium b. volcanic ash c. dune sand d. lahar
____ 76. Of the three groups below, thee one in which all symbols are for horizons that can have the presence of
organic matter as an identifying feature is:
a. O2, Al, B2 b. Al, A2, B2 c. Al, A3, C d. none of the above
____ 77. If an improvement in environmental conditions increases the productivity of a crop, the water-use efficiency
of the crop probably will
a. increase c. remain relatively unchanged
b. decrease d. none of the above
____ 78. An improvement in soil drainage is usually achieved by
a. reducing the distance of saturated flow through the soil
b. improving the structural conditions of the subsoil
c. growing crops that develop deep root systems
d. all of the above
____ 79. The removal of the excess water from the waterlogged soil depends on
a. a difference in soil suction c. atmospheric pressure
b. the force of gravity d. temperature
____ 80. CEC is 20 m.e./100g. If it has 8 m.e. H and thee remaining cautions are bases, what is the % BS?
a. 80 b. 40 c. 60 d. 50
____ 81. During the dry season plant roots are naturally supplied with water through
a. infiltration b. capillarity c. percolation d. leaching
____ 82. Which soil property is not influenced by OM?
a. bulk density b. texture c. structure d. color
____ 83. Which is the seat of chemical activities in the soil?
a. sand b. silt c. colloid d. clay
____ 84. Which has the highest pH dependent negative charges?
a. OM b. illite c. montmorillonite d. kaolinite
____ 85. Ten m.e. of Ca (40) can replace how many m.e. of H in the change complex?
a. 0.2 b. 1 c. 20 d. 10
____ 86. The soil contains 10 m.e. Ca/100 g. This is equivalent to how many tons Ca per HFS?
a. 4 b. 10 c. 10 d. 200
____ 87. One m.e. ca/100g soil is equivalent to how many ppm Ca? At.Wt. Ca = 40
a. 400 b. 40 c. 200 d. 80
____ 88. The predominant charge of the soil is
a. negative b. positive c. neutral d. none of the above
____ 89. A loam soil has
a. macropores>micropores c. micropores=macropores
b. macropores<micropores d. zero pore spaces
____ 90. The dominant basic caution in agricultural soil is
a. Na b. K c. Mg d. Ca
____ 91. A submerged soil has
a. all pores filled with water c. macropores filled with air
b. macropores filled with water d. micropores filled with air
____ 92. Under conditions of high rainfall and humidity the least leached caution is
a. Al b. Ca c. Mg d. Na
____ 93. Which is not related to CEC?
a. kind of clay c. amount of OM
b. amount of clay d. none of the above
____ 94. At the same level of OM which will have the highest water holding capacity?
a. loamy sand b. clay loam c. clay d. sandy loam
____ 95. The capability of the soil being molded by hands
a. stickness b. plasticity c. tilth d. cracking
____ 96. If a ring without crack is formed in the roll method of determining texture thee texture is most likely:
a. loamy sand b. clay loam c. clay d. sandy loam
____ 97. The hydrometer and pipette method of mechanical analysis obey the
a. Dick’s Law b. Freundlick’s Law c. Ohm’s Law d. Stokes Law
____ 98. This is used in determining the soil color:
a. color wheel c. Munsell color chart
b. LCC d. none of the above
____ 99. The hardest mineral is
a. quartz b. diamond c. talc d. topaz
____ 100. Which among these minerals does not contributes any soil nutrient:
a. quartz b. talc c. apatite d. clacite
Soil Science
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: A 35. ANS: A 68. ANS: A

2. ANS: C 36. ANS: C 69. ANS: A
3. ANS: B 37. ANS: D 70. ANS: B
4. ANS: A 38. ANS: C 71. ANS: C
5. ANS: B 39. ANS: C 72. ANS: B
6. ANS: C 40. ANS: C 73. ANS: A
7. ANS: B 41. ANS: A 74. ANS: C
8. ANS: A 42. ANS: A 75. ANS: C
9. ANS: C 43. ANS: A 76. ANS: A
10. ANS: B 44. ANS: A 77. ANS: A
11. ANS: B 45. ANS: C 78. ANS: A
12. ANS: C 46. ANS: A 79. ANS: B
13. ANS: B 47. ANS: A 80. ANS: C
14. ANS: B 48. ANS: B 81. ANS: B
15. ANS: C 49. ANS: A 82. ANS: B
16. ANS: B 50. ANS: D 83. ANS: C
17. ANS: A 51. ANS: A 84. ANS: A
18. ANS: B 52. ANS: A 85. ANS: D
19. ANS: A 53. ANS: C 86. ANS: A
20. ANS: B 54. ANS: C 87. ANS: C
21. ANS: B 55. ANS: A 88. ANS: A
22. ANS: B 56. ANS: A 89. ANS: C
23. ANS: C 57. ANS: B 90. ANS: D
24. ANS: A 58. ANS: B 91. ANS: A
25. ANS: C 59. ANS: C 92. ANS: A
26. ANS: B 60. ANS: B 93. ANS: D
27. ANS: A 61. ANS: A 94. ANS: C
28. ANS: B 62. ANS: A 95. ANS: B
29. ANS: B 63. ANS: B 96. ANS: C
30. ANS: C 64. ANS: B 97. ANS: D
31. ANS: C 65. ANS: C 98. ANS: C
32. ANS: C 66. ANS: C 99. ANS: B
33. ANS: C 67. ANS: C 100. ANS: A
34. ANS: D
Stength of Materials,Thermodynamics, Refrigeration Engineering,
Multiple Choice
____ 3. A type of stress which always act normal to the stress surface.
a. Bearing c. normal
b. shear d. flexural
____ 4. Known as force per unit area.
a. force b. acceleration c. stress d. volume
____ 5. A contact pressure between separate bodies.
a. shear stress b. axial stress c. bearing stress d. torsional stress
____ 6. The greatest unit stress a material can withstand without rupture.
a. yeild b. allowable c. ultimate d. shear
____ 7. Constitute changes in shape or deformation that accompany an application of load.
a. force b. stress c. strain d. elasticity
____ 8. A type of stress caused by the internal forces induced by the expansion or contraction of a material
as an effect of changes in temperature.
a. thermal b. bending c. heat d. tensile
____ 9. Stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape.
a. allowable b. yeild c. ultimate d. compressive
____ 12. Type of beam, where the reactions of supports can be determined directly by equations of static
equilibrium.
____ 13. A type of load that tends to slide two adjoining surfaces passes one another.
a. tensile b. shear c. compressive d. torsional
____ 15. Load that act s over a small distance that it can be assumed to act at a point
a. concentrated b. distributed c. increasing d. decreasing
____ 17. Point in the beam where it changes its shape from concave up to concave down and correspond to
section of zero bending moment.
a. application b. inflection c. shear d. stress
a. ultimate b. yeild c. rupture d. shear
____ 19. Load that act over a considerable length of the beam.
____ 21. Sign of bending moment if it produces bending of beam concave upward.
____ 22. Stress beyond, in which the material will not return to its original shape.
a. shear b. ultimate c. yeild d. bending
____ 24. Also known as twisting moment or moment of rotation.
a. force b. moment c. torque d. bending
a. 556.52 b. 655.25 c. 565.52 d. 100
supports.
____ 28. Beam supported by hinged and roller reactions at its ends.
____ 29. Stress that varies directly with the shear.
a. torsional stress b. tensile stress c. bending stress d. shear stress
____ 31. Stress that varies directly with the bending moment.
a. torsional b. flexural c. shear d. compressive
____ 32. Sign of bending moment if it produces bending of beam concave downward.
8kN
4kN D 4kN
B F
2kN 3m
A H
3 3 3 3
C E G
a. 7.75 b. 2 c. 8.49 d. 8.25
a. 7.75 b. 2 c. 8.49 d. 8.25
____ 37. The stress in member EFThe stress in member EF
A solid circular steel bar enclosed in a cylindrical bronze sleeve is secured between two rigid walls.
The load on the steel and bronze is zero at 25 0C. If the temperature rises to 1000C. and for steel, E =
200GPa, a = 11.7mm/m0C; for bronze, E = 83 GPa, a = 19 mm/m0C;

____ 38. What will be the stress on the steel bar?
____ 39. What will be the stress on the bronze bar
____ 40. A uniform concrete slab of mass M is to be attached as shown in the figure, to two rods whose lower
ends are initially at the same level. Determine the ratio (AA/AS)of the areas of the rods so that the
slab will remain level after it is attached to the rods.
ALUMINUM
E = 70 GPa
L = 6m
STEEL
E = 200 GPa
L = 3m
5m 1m
M
a. 7.45 b. 8.57 c. 5.68 d. 6.85
____ 41. For the beam loaded as shown, with its given cross-section
4 KN/m Cross-section of beam
45cm
m
6m 6m 50cm 90cm
15cm
41. Determine the maximum moment. m
a. 56 kN-m b. 50.6 kN-m c. 60.5 kN-m d. 65 kN-m
____ 42. What is the moment of inertia for the beams cross-section?
a. 0.025775 m4 b. 2577500 m4 c. 25775 m4 d. 257.75 m4
____ 43. The maximum flexural stress is
a. 10.56 kPa b. 1056.26 kPa c. 105.62 kPa d. 105626 kPa
____ 44. A hollow steel tube (outside diameter D, and inside diameter d) is to be used as torque
dynamometer. It is desired to attain an angle of twist of 1 degree per foot of length, per 100 in-lb of
torque without exceeding an allowable shear stress of 6000 psi.
The required value of D is
a. 0.688 in b. 0.638 in c. 0.788 in d. 0.538 in
____ 45. the required value of d is
a. 0.688 in b. 0.638 in c. 0.788 in d. 0.538 in
____ 46. Determine the required diameter of a solid steel shaft to be used for a 500 hp, 250-rpm application if
the allowable torsional deflection is 1o, allowable stress of 10,000 Psi, and modulus of rigidity of 13
x 106 Psi.
46. Based on torsional deflection where L=20D
a. 4.004 in b. 2.05 in c. 4.84 in d. 5.48 in
____ 47. Based on torsional stress
a. 4.004 in b. 2.05 in c. 4.84 in d. 5.48 in
a. 74.6 c. 150
b. 80.5 d. 125
____ 50. In a two phase system, 30% moisture means
a. 70% liquid and 30% vapor c. 100% vapor and 30% liquid
b. 70% vapor and 30% liquid d. 100% liquid and 30% vapor
a. 33,000 ft-lb c. 2450 kg
b. per unit time d. work times distance
____ 53. To create the Kelvin and Rankine absolute temperature scales, two states were assigned selected
temperature. The two states were
a. ice point and steam point at absolute zero pressure
b. ice point and steam point at absolute zero pressure
c. saturated liquid point and saturated vapor point at atmospheric pressure
d. Ice point and critical point at atmospheric pressure
a. 2000 c. 800
b. 1600 d. 1300
____ 55. Water is flowing with a flow rate of 0.002 m 3/s. What is the average velocity at an outlet where the
area is 4 cm2.
a. 50 m/s c. 10 m/s
b. 20 m/s d. 5 m/s
a. 10.1 % c. 8.1%
b. 9.1 % d. . 7.!%

____ 61. An isentropic process is used to approximate an actual process. For such a process
a. the temperature change must not be large

b. both work and heat transfer is zero
c. no work must occur
d. the heat transfer is zero
____ 62. A gas turbine works on the principle of
a. Carnot Cycle c. Rankine Cycle
b. Bell-Coleman Cycle d. Brayton Cycle
____ 63. What is the theoretical lift of a pump handling water at atmospheric pressure?
a. 33.9 ft c. 24 ft
b. 40 ft d. 26.9 ft
____ 64. The absolute zero temperature in Celsius scale.
a. 100 c. -273
b. 0 d. -273
a. 430.5 kJ c. 504.3 kJ
b. 540.3 kJ d. 403.5 kJ
____ 67. The process that has no heat transfer
a. Isothermal c. Isentropic
b. Isometric d. Adiabatic
____ 68. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 100 oC. If the pressure on the open
container is decreased such as going up to the top of a mountain, the boiling point will be
a. increased c. the same
b. decreased d. none of the above
____ 70. A steam turbine exhausts at 6.9 kPa into a condenser. 10,000 kg/hr of steam is delivered on inlet at
1.38 MPa and 220oC. The turbine delivers 746 kW. Neglecting heat loss, calculate the quality of
steam entering the condenser. Steam properties; at 1.38 MPa and 220 oC h=2058 kJ/kg; at 6.9 kPa
saturated hf= 162.2 kJ/kg, hfg= 2410 kJ/kg
a. 67.5% c. 80.6%
b. 70.5% d. 99.6%
____ 71. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system
a. humidifier c. evaporator
b. trap d. dehydrator
____ 72. A steam throttling calorimeter receives steam at 830 kPa and discharges it at 124 kPa. If its
thermometer reads 116oC, what is the moisture content of the entering steam. Steam properties; at
0.83 MPa hf= 726.6 kJ/kg, hfg= 2041.6 kJ/kg; at 124 kPa and 116oC h= 2704.7 kJ/kg
a. 1.4% c. 0.4%
b. 3.1% d. 2.5%
____ 73. An idiabatic process is characterized by which of the following?
a. temperature change is zero c. work is zero
b. heat transfer is zero d. absolute zero temperature
____ 75. A 100% efficient pump can draw a suction of.
a. 34 ft H2O c. 29.92 in Hg
b. 14.7 Psi d. all (a-c)
o
____ 76. If the temperature of the medium is 0 C, what will be the temperature if it is doubled?
a. 0oC c. 273oC
b. 524oR d. 460oF
____ 77. A closed system experiences a reversible process where heat rejection is the only energy transferred.
The entropy change must be
a. zero c. negative
b. positive d. equal to heat transferred
____ 79. A manometer measures:
a. temperature c. mass
b. pressure d. volume
____ 80. A pump is used to increase the pressure of the water entering the boiler of steam power cycle. Which
statement is true concerning the pump?
a. The pump produces work
b. The pump has no effect on the cycle
c. The enthalpy of water leaving the pump is lower than the enthalpy of water
entering
d. The enthalpy of water leaving the pump is higher than the enthalpy of water
entering

b. pressure d. mass
____ 83. An open system first law should be utilized for all except:
a. turbine
b. pump
c. piston cylinder with no intake/exhaust valve
d. boiler
____ 84. An inventor claims to have built an engine which will revolutionize the automotive industry. Which
of the following should be the best test to determine if the inventors claim is true?
a. Conservation of mass c. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics d. Second law of thermodynamics
____ 85. In an ideal cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that the enthalpy of
the liquid is equal to the enthalpy of the resulting saturated mixture. This type of expansion is known
as:
a. throttling process c. adiabatic process
b. isothermal process d. isochoric
____ 86. A type of process where the pressure remains constant
a. Isothermal c. Isobaric
b. Isochoric d. Adiabatic
a. 14.7 b. 17.1 c. 11.7 d. 16.6
o
____ 88. R-12 enters the evaporator at 3 C (hg=352.76kJ/kg ; hf=202.78kJ/kg). Determine the amount of
flash vapor that may be formed in kg/s if the refrigeration load is 400 kW and condensing
temperature is 37oC (hf=235.503 kJ/kg).
a. 0.734 c. 0.477
b. 0.744 d. 0.374
Determine the COP
a. 6.75 b.
7.56 c. 6.57 d. 7.65
____ 91. If the wet bulb and dry bulb reading of air temperature are identical
a. the thermometers are in error c. the relative humidity is zero
b. the air is saturated d. the relative humidity is zero
o
a. 25.45s b. 20.25s c. 22.05s d. 25.20s
____ 93. On a cold night the temperature was reported to be same in Fahrenheit and Celsius reading at
(no answer)
a. 33oC c. -33oC
o
b. -40 C d. 40oC
____ 94. Consider an air-water vapor mixture similar to the atmosphere. If the dry bulb temperature equals the
dew point temperature, the relative humidity is
a. 0% c. 75%
b. 0% d. 100%
____ 95. Sensible heat
a. can be measured with a thermometer c. increases with cold
b. Cannot be measured d. depends on the volume
of 100 tons
a. 80 Hp c. 105.2 Hp
b. 94.4 Hp d. 30 Hp
____ 97. Atmospheric pressure air enters to a cooling unit at 27oC (Psat=3.5kPa) and has a specific humidity of
0.009 kg of vapor per kg of dry air. Determine the relative humidity.
a. 40.6% b. 43.1% c. 41.3% d. 46%
____ 99. In an ideal refrigeration cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that the
enthalpy of the liquid is equal to the enthalpy of the resulting saturated mixture. This type of
expansion is known as:
a. throttling process c. adiabatic process d. isochoric
b. isothermal process
represents
____ 101. 10 kg of ice at 0 C are added to 100 kg of liquid at 40oC with specific heat of 4 kJ/kg K. Calculate
o
the temperature of the liquid just as the ice melts. The heat of fusion of ice is320 kJ/kg
a. 26oC b. 28oC c. 30oC d. 32oC
a. ammonia c. CO2
b. R-11 d. air
____ 104. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one unit weight of substance into one
degree unit of temperature
a. specific heat c. latent heat
b. sensible heat d. None of the above
(Rv=0.4615kJ/kg K)
a. 2.03kg c. 0.80kg
b. 1.50kg d. 4.80kg
____ 106. What is the heat transfer in the glass surface area of 0.7 m 2 having an inside temperature of 25oC and
13oC outside temperature. The thickness of the glass is 0.007m and its thermal conductivity is1.8
W/m K
a. 5.6kW b. 3.6kW c. 6.2kW d. 2.16kW
____ 107. When air is saturated the wet bulb depression is
a. zero c. 50
b. unity d.100
____ 108. The power of a carnot refrigeration system in maintaining a low temperature region at 238.9 K is 1.1
kW per ton.
The coefficient of performance is

a. 3.0 b. 3.2 c. 4.2 d. 3.5 e. 4.5
____ 109. The heat rejected is
a. 5.26kW b. 4.62kW c. 4.62kW d. 5.62kW e. 5.52kW
____ 110. The temperature of heat rejection is
a. 314.6 K b. 312.6 K c. 331.6 K d. 313.6 K e. 300 K
____ 111. The amount of heat absorbed by one ton of H 2O as it changes from solid to liquid state at 32 oF is
equivalent to
a. 288000BTU c. 488000BTU
b. 388000BTU d. 188000BTU
a. 738870 c. 739000
b. 738880 d. 739880
____ 113. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:
a. -28oC c. 28oF
b. 28oC d. -28oF
a. 10500s b. 10000s c. 10447s d. 10578s e. 11000s
____ 115. A refrigeration system has a volumetric flow rate of 7 L/s at the suction of compressor. If the
volumetric efficiency of the compressor efficiency is 0.8, estimate the volume displacement rate in
L/s
a. 5.6 b. 6.0 c. 6.5 d. 8.75
____ 116. How much air in kg/s is needed to evaporate 100 kg of moisture in 6 hr if the drying air temperature
is 43oC and the ambient temperature is 30oC. Assume the latent heat of vaporization of H2O is
2500kJ/kg and the specific heat of air is 1 kJ/kg.
a. 0.89 c. 7.69
b. 1.28 d. 192.3
a. 0.0075 c. 1.92
b. 0.052 d. 5.73
tank?
a. 1.0 kg c. 1.5 kg
b. 1.7 kg d. 1.2 kg
____ 119. The vertical line of refrigeration cycle plotted in the pressure enthalpy diagram represents
b. evaporation of liquid refrigerant d. metering/expansion of liquid
refrigerant
required power.
a. 16.868kJ/min c. 1,686.8kJ/min
b. 168.68kJ/min d. 168,680kJ/min
____ 121. A house hold refrigerator with COP of 1.8 removes heat from refrigerated space at a rate of
90kJ/min. Determine the power consumed by the refrigerator
a. 0.96 kW b. 0.83 kW c. 1.5 kW d. 0.56 kW
____ 122. An air conditioner removes heat steadily from a house at a rate of 50 kJ/min, while drawing electric
power at a rate of 6 kW. Determine the rate of heat discharge to the outside air.
a. 410 kJ/min b. 220 kJ/min c. 510 kJ/min d. 120 kJ/min
o
____ 123. A carnot refrigerator operates in a room with temperature of 25 C. The refrigerator consumes 500 W
of power and had a COP of 4.5. Determine the temperature of the refrigerated space.
a. -29.2oC c. -19.2oC
o
b. -39.2 C d. -9.2oC
____ 124. A refrigerator receives 6000 kJ/min of heat when operating between temperature limits of minus
15oC and 38oC. If the coefficient of performance is 60% of a carnot refrigerator operating at the
same temperature limits, find the required power input of the refrigerator.
a. 30.5 kW b. 34.2 kW c. 3.52 kW d. 35.2 kW
Stength of Materials,Thermodynamics, Refrigeration Engineering,
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: C 32. ANS: B 63. ANS: A 94. ANS: D

2. ANS: B 33. ANS: A 64. ANS: C 95. ANS: A
3. ANS: C 34. ANS: C 65. ANS: C 96. ANS: B
4. ANS: C 35. ANS: A 66. ANS: A 97. ANS: C
5. ANS: C 36. ANS: C 67. ANS: D 98. ANS: B
8. ANS: A 39. ANS: C 70. ANS: A 101. ANS: D
9. ANS: B 40. ANS: B 71. ANS: D 102. ANS: C
10. ANS: C 41. ANS: C 72. ANS: B 103. ANS: D
11. ANS: B 42. ANS: A 73. ANS: B 104. ANS: A
13. ANS: B 44. ANS: A 75. ANS: D 106. ANS: D
14. ANS: B 45. ANS: B 76. ANS: C 107. ANS: A
16. ANS: C 47. ANS: A 78. ANS: D 109. ANS: B
17. ANS: B 48. ANS: A 79. ANS: B 110. ANS: D
18. ANS: A 49. ANS: C 80. ANS: D 111. ANS: A
19. ANS: B 50. ANS: B 81. ANS: A 112. ANS: A
20. ANS: B 51. ANS: C 82. ANS: C 113. ANS: D
21. ANS: C 52. ANS: B 83. ANS: B 114. ANS: C
22. ANS: C 53. ANS: A 84. ANS: D 115. ANS: D
24. ANS: C 55. ANS: D 86. ANS: C 117. ANS: C
25. ANS: A 56. ANS: B 87. ANS: B 118. ANS: B
26. ANS: B 57. ANS: B 88. ANS: B 119. ANS: D
28. ANS: A 59. ANS: A 90. ANS: D 121. ANS: B
29. ANS: D 60. ANS: B 91. ANS: B 122. ANS: A
30. ANS: B 61. ANS: D 92. ANS: B 123. ANS: A
31. ANS: B 62. ANS: D 93. ANS: A 124. ANS: B
Thermodynamics
Multiple Choice

a. 74.6 c. 150
b. 80.5 d. 125
____ 3. In a two phase system, 30% moisture means
a. 70% liquid and 30% vapor c. 100% vapor and 30% liquid
b. 70% vapor and 30% liquid d. 100% liquid and 30% vapor
a. 33,000 ft-lb c.2450 kg
b. per unit time d.work times distance
____ 6. To create the Kelvin and Rankine absolute temperature scales, two states were assigned selected
temperature. The two states were
a. ice point and steam point at absolute zero pressure
b. ice point and steam point at absolute zero pressure
c. saturated liquid point and saturated vapor point at atmospheric pressure
d. Ice point and critical point at atmospheric pressure
a. 2000 c. 800
b. 1600 d. 1300
____ 8. Water is flowing with a flow rate of 0.002 m 3/s. What is the average velocity at an outlet where the
area is 4 cm2.
a. 50 m/s c. 10 m/s
b. 20 m/s d. 5 m/s
a. 10.1 % c. 8.1%
b. 9.1 % d. . 7.!%

____ 14. An isentropic process is used to approximate an actual process. For such a process
a. the temperature change must not be large

b. both work and heat transfer is zero
c. no work must occur
d. the heat transfer is zero
____ 15. A gas turbine works on the principle of
a. Carnot Cycle c. Rankine Cycle
b. Bell-Coleman Cycle d. Brayton Cycle
____ 16. What is the theoretical lift of a pump handling water at atmospheric pressure?
a. 33.9 ft c. 24 ft
b. 40 ft d. 26.9 ft
____ 17. The absolute zero temperature in Celsius scale.
a. 100 c. -273
b. 0 d. -273
a. 430.5 kJ c. 504.3 kJ
b. 540.3 kJ d. 403.5 kJ
____ 20. The process that has no heat transfer
a. Isothermal c. Isentropic
b. Isometric d. Adiabatic
____ 21. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 100 oC. If the pressure on the open
container is decreased such as going up to the top of a mountain, the boiling point will be
a. increased c. the same
b. decreased d. none of the above
____ 23. A steam turbine exhausts at 6.9 kPa into a condenser. 10,000 kg/hr of steam is delivered on inlet at
1.38 MPa and 220oC. The turbine delivers 746 kW. Neglecting heat loss, calculate the quality of
steam entering the condenser. Steam properties; at 1.38 MPa and 220 oC h=2058 kJ/kg; at 6.9 kPa
saturated hf= 162.2 kJ/kg, hfg= 2410 kJ/kg
a. 67.5% c. 80.6%
b. 70.5% d. 99.6%
____ 24. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system
a. humidifier c. evaporator
b. trap d. dehydrator
____ 25. A steam throttling calorimeter receives steam at 830 kPa and discharges it at 124 kPa. If its
thermometer reads 116oC, what is the moisture content of the entering steam. Steam properties; at
0.83 MPa hf= 726.6 kJ/kg, hfg= 2041.6 kJ/kg; at 124 kPa and 116oC h= 2704.7 kJ/kg
a. 1.4% c. 0.4%
b. 3.1% d. 2.5%
____ 26. An idiabatic process is characterized by which of the following?
a. temperature change is zero c. work is zero
b. heat transfer is zero d. absolute zero temperature
____ 28. A 100% efficient pump can draw a suction of.
a. 34 ft H2O c. 29.92 in Hg
b. 14.7 Psi d. all (a-c)
o
____ 29. If the temperature of the medium is 0 C, what will be the temperature if it is doubled?
a. 0oC c. 273oC
o
b. 524 R d. 460oF
____ 30. A closed system experiences a reversible process where heat rejection is the only energy transferred.
The entropy change must be
a. zero c. negative
b. positive d. equal to heat transferred
____ 32. A manometer measures:
a. temperature c. mass
b. pressure d. volume
____ 33. A pump is used to increase the pressure of the water entering the boiler of steam power cycle. Which
statement is true concerning the pump?
a. The pump produces work
b. The pump has no effect on the cycle
c. The enthalpy of water leaving the pump is lower than the enthalpy of water
entering
d. The enthalpy of water leaving the pump is higher than the enthalpy of water
entering

b. pressure d. mass
____ 36. An open system first law should be utilized for all except:
a. turbine
b. pump
c. piston cylinder with no intake/exhaust valve
d. boiler
____ 37. An inventor claims to have built an engine which will revolutionize the automotive industry. Which
of the following should be the best test to determine if the inventors claim is true?
a. Conservation of mass c. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics d. Second law of thermodynamics
____ 38. In an ideal cycle, liquid leaves the condenser and is expanded in such a manner that the enthalpy of
the liquid is equal to the enthalpy of the resulting saturated mixture. This type of expansion is known
as:
a. throttling process c. adiabatic process
b. isothermal process d. isochoric
____ 39. A type of process where the pressure remains constant
a. Isothermal c. Isobaric
b. Isochoric d. Adiabatic
Thermodynamics
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1
. ANS: A 11. ANS: C 21. ANS: B 31. ANS: D
3. ANS: B 13. ANS: B 23. ANS: A 33. ANS: D
4. ANS: C 14. ANS: D 24. ANS: D 34. ANS: A
5. ANS: B 15. ANS: D 25. ANS: B 35. ANS: C
6. ANS: A 16. ANS: A 26. ANS: B 36. ANS: B
7. ANS: C 17. ANS: C 27. ANS: B 37. ANS: D
8. ANS: D 18. ANS: C 28. ANS: D 38. ANS: A
9. ANS: B 19. ANS: A 29. ANS: C 39. ANS: C
10. ANS: B 20. ANS: D 30. ANS: C
Strength of Materials
Multiple Choice
____ 3. A type of stress which always act normal to the stress surface.
a. Bearing c. normal
b. shear d. flexural
____ 4. Known as force per unit area.
a. force b. acceleration c. stress d. volume
____ 5. A contact pressure between separate bodies.
a. shear stress b. axial stress c. bearing stress d. torsional stress
a. yeild b. allowable c. ultimate d. shear
____ 7. Constitute changes in shape or deformation that accompany an application of load.
a. force b. stress c. strain d. elasticity
____ 8. A type of stress caused by the internal forces induced by the expansion or contraction of a material
as an effect of changes in temperature.
a. thermal b. bending c. heat d. tensile
____ 9. Stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape.
a. allowable b. yeild c. ultimate d. compressive
____ 12. Type of beam, where the reactions of supports can be determined directly by equations of static
equilibrium.
____ 13. A type of load that tends to slide two adjoining surfaces passes one another.
a. tensile b. shear c. compressive d. torsional
____ 15. Load that act s over a small distance that it can be assumed to act at a point
____ 17. Point in the beam where it changes its shape from concave up to concave down and correspond to
section of zero bending moment.
a. application b. inflection c. shear d. stress
a. ultimate b. yeild c. rupture d. shear
____ 19. Load that act over a considerable length of the beam.
____ 21. Sign of bending moment if it produces bending of beam concave upward.
____ 22. Stress beyond, in which the material will not return to its original shape.
a. shear b. ultimate c. yeild d. bending
____ 24. Also known as twisting moment or moment of rotation.
a. force b. moment c. torque d. bending
a. 556.52 b. 655.25 c. 565.52 d. 100
supports.
____ 28. Beam supported by hinged and roller reactions at its ends.
____ 29. Stress that varies directly with the shear.
a. torsional stress b. tensile stress c. bending stress d. shear stress
____ 31. Stress that varies directly with the bending moment.
a. torsional b. flexural c. shear d. compressive
____ 32. Sign of bending moment if it produces bending of beam concave downward.
8kN
4kN D 4kN
B F
2kN 3m
A H
3 3 3 3
C E G
a. 7.75 b. 2 c. 8.49 d. 8.25
a. 7.75 b. 2 c. 8.49 d. 8.25
____ 37. The stress in member EFThe stress in member EF
A solid circular steel bar enclosed in a cylindrical bronze sleeve is secured between two rigid walls.
The load on the steel and bronze is zero at 25 0C. If the temperature rises to 1000C. and for steel, E =
200GPa, a = 11.7mm/m0C; for bronze, E = 83 GPa, a = 19 mm/m0C;

____ 38. What will be the stress on the steel bar?
____ 39. What will be the stress on the bronze bar
____ 40. A uniform concrete slab of mass M is to be attached as shown in the figure, to two rods whose lower
ends are initially at the same level. Determine the ratio (AA/AS)of the areas of the rods so that the
slab will remain level after it is attached to the rods.
ALUMINUM
E = 70 GPa
L = 6m
STEEL
E = 200 GPa
L = 3m
5m 1m
M
a. 7.45 b. 8.57 c. 5.68 d. 6.85
____ 41. For the beam loaded as shown, with its given cross-section
4 KN/m
Cross-section of beam
45cm
m
6m 6m 50cm 90cm
15cm
m
41. Determine the
maximum moment.
a. 56 kN-m b. 50.6 kN-m c. 60.5 kN-m d. 65 kN-m
____ 42. What is the moment of inertia for the beams cross-section?
a. 0.025775 m4 b. 2577500 m4 c. 25775 m4 d. 257.75 m4
____ 43. The maximum flexural stress is
a. 10.56 kPa b. 1056.26 kPa c. 105.62 kPa d. 105626 kPa
____ 44. A hollow steel tube (outside diameter D, and inside diameter d) is to be used as torque
dynamometer. It is desired to attain an angle of twist of 1 degree per foot of length, per 100 in-lb of
torque without exceeding an allowable shear stress of 6000 psi.
The required value of D is
a. 0.688 in b. 0.638 in c. 0.788 in d. 0.538 in
____ 45. the required value of d is
a. 0.688 in b. 0.638 in c. 0.788 in d. 0.538 in
____ 46. Determine the required diameter of a solid steel shaft to be used for a 500 hp, 250-rpm application if
the allowable torsional deflection is 1o, allowable stress of 10,000 Psi, and modulus of rigidity of 13
x 106 Psi.
46. Based on torsional deflection where L=20D
a. 4.004 in b. 2.05 in c. 4.84 in d. 5.48 in
____ 47. Based on torsional stress
a. 4.004 in b. 2.05 in c. 4.84 in d. 5.48 in
Strength of Materials
3. ANS: C 15. ANS: A 27. ANS: C 39. ANS: C
4. ANS: C 16. ANS: C 28. ANS: A 40. ANS: B
5. ANS: C 17. ANS: B 29. ANS: D 41. ANS: C
6. ANS: C 18. ANS: A 30. ANS: B 42. ANS: A
8. ANS: A 20. ANS: B 32. ANS: B 44. ANS: A
9. ANS: B 21. ANS: C 33. ANS: A 45. ANS: B
11. ANS: B 23. ANS: A 35. ANS: A 47. ANS: A
12. ANS: C 24. ANS: C 36. ANS: C

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Agricultural Mechanization, Agricultural Power, Agricultural Machinery and Equipment, and

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