Test Series: Test - 13: Physics
Test Series: Test - 13: Physics
Test Series: Test - 13: Physics
A
CODE
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PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut as 3. A line passing through places having zero value of
shown in figure then magnetic moment of part B is magnetic dip is called
(1) Isoclinic line (2) Agonic line
(3) Isogonic line (4) Aclinic line
A B 4. Magnetic susceptibility is negative for
D C
(1) Paramagnetic substance
M 2M
(1) (2) (2) Diamagnetic substance
4 3
(3) Ferromagnetic substance
M 3M
(3) (4) (4) All of these
8 4
2. A permanent magnet 5. If an electric cable is carrying current from west to
east, then
(1) Attracts all substances
(1) One null point can be obtained above the cable
(2) Attracts only magnetic substances
(2) One null point can be obtained below the cable
(3) Attracts magnetic substances and repels all
(3) Infinite null points can be obtained above the
non-magnetic substances
cable
(4) Attracts non magnetic substances and repels
(4) Infinite null points can be obtained below the
magnetic substances
cable
(1)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
6. The distance between two identical bar magnet 12. Three identical bar magnet each of magnetic moment
becomes tripled then magnetic force between bar M are placed in the form of equilateral triangle as
magnet shown in figure then net magnetic moment is
(1) Decreases by 81 times
N
N
(2) Increases by 81 times
(3) Increases by 27 times
(4) Decreases by 27 times
S
N S
7. A magnetic needle of negligible breadth compared to
its length oscillates in a horizontal plane with period (1) Zero (2) 2 M
T. Now bar magnet cut into two identical parts and (3) M 3 (4) M 2
both parts kept symmetrically and oscillate in same
13. Two wires of same length are shaped into a circle
plane, then time period of the combination will be
and a square, carry same current then ratio of
T T magnetic moment is
(1) (2)
2 4 (1) : 2
(2) 2 :
T T
(3) (4) (3) : 4
2 2 2
(4) 4 :
8. If current flowing in the coil placed in tangent
14. For a ferromagnetic material, correct graph between
galvanometer is increased to 3 times then what magnetic susceptibility (m ) and magnetizing field (H)
will be new angle of deflection if initial angle is 45°? is
(1) 30° (2) 60°
m m
(3) tan–1 3 (4) 45°
9. Which of the following is a paramagnetic
substances? (1) (2)
(1) H2O (2) O2
H H
(3) N2 (4) H2
10. Two short identical bar magnet placed at two vertex m m
of an equilateral triangle of side L such that the axis
of both bar magnet makes an angle 60° and centre
point of magnet is at vertex. N pole of both bar (3) (4)
magnet toward the other vertex, then magnetic field
at other vertex is H H
0 3M
(1) . 15. If B1 and B2 be the magnetic field due to a bar
4 L3 magnet at axial and equatorial position respectively,
0 2 3M then
(2) .
4 L3 (1) B1.B2 0
0 2M
(3) . (2) B1.B2 0
4 L3
0 3 2M (3) B1 B2 0
(4) .
4 L3 (4) Both (2) & (3)
11. Permanent magnet should have 16. What will be angular position of point at which
(1) Low retentivity, low coercivity resulting magnetic field becomes perpendicular to
magnetic dipole moment?
(2) Low retentivity, high coercivity
(1) 90° (2) tan1 2
(3) High retentivity, low coercivity
(3) tan–12 (4) cot 1 2
(4) High retentivity, high coercivity
(2)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
17. A magnetic dip needle shows reading 1 and 2 in 21. Due to earth magnetic field, charged cosmic ray
the plane of geographic meridian and in the plane particles
perpendicular to it respectively. The value of angle of (1) Require greater kinetic energy to reach the
declination at that place is equator than pole
(1) cot–1(tan21 + tan22) (2) Require less kinetic energy to reach the equator
(2) tan–1(tan21 + tan22) than pole
(3) Can never reach the equator
1 ⎛ tan 1 ⎞
(3) cot ⎜ ⎟ (4) Can never reach the pole
⎝ tan 2 ⎠
22. A square loop of side l is rotating about a axis
passing through centre of square and in same plane
1 ⎛ cot 1 ⎞
(4) cot ⎜ ⎟ in a uniform magnetic field B with angular speed
⎝ cot 2 ⎠
having 5 turns. Find the induced emf.
18. An electron is moving vertically downward. In which y
direction will it deflect due to horizontal component
of earth’s magnetic field?
(1) Towards north (2) Towards east
(3) Towards west (4) Vertically upward
19. Two identical short bar magnet placed as shown in
figure. A magnetic needle at point P makes some
d1 y
angle with the horizontal line then d is
2 (1) BI2 cos(t) (2) BI2 sin(t)
(4)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
(1) If ring is rotated about axis of ring 42. A conducting circular loop having a radius of 0.5 m
is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field 2T. It is
(2) If ring is rotated about its diameter
removed from the field in 0.1 s. The average emf
(3) If magnet is moved towards the ring produced in the loop during this time will be
(4) Both (2) & (3) are correct (1) 2 V (2) 20 V
40. A circular loop of radius R is placed in a region of (3) 5 V (4) 100 V
magnetic field B such that the plane of loop makes 43. An inductor carriers a steady-state current of 10 A
when connected across an ideal battery of emf 50 V.
an angle with the direction of B . In which of the If its inductance is 20 H. The time constant of the
given conditions there is no induced emf in the loop? circuit is
(1) B is non-uniform in region (1) 4 s (2) 0.2 s
(3) 10 s (4) 0.5 s
(2) B is changing with time
44. A magnet is moved towards a coil in 1st case
(3) Radius is changing with time quickly and in 2nd case slowly, then induced charge
is
(4) is changing with time
(1) Larger in case 1st (2) Smaller in case 2nd
41. The electromagnetic damping experienced by a
metallic object oscillating between poles of magnet (3) Smaller in case 1st (4) Equal in both cases
is due to 45. Which of the following factor is not responsible for
(1) Meisner effect deciding the mutual inductance of two coils?
(1) Separation between two coils
(2) Eddy currents
(2) Orientation of coils
(3) Magnus effect
(3) Current through coils
(4) Copper loss
(4) The number of turns of each coil
CHEMISTRY
46. The ferric ion is detected by the formation of a 50. Which one of the following has a magnetic moment
prussian blue precipitate on addition of potassium of 1.75 BM?
ferrocyanide solution. The formula of the Prussian (1) Ti+3 (2) V+3
blue compound is
(3) Cr+3 (4) Fe+3
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4
51. In solid state PCl5 is a
(3) KFe[Fe(CN)6] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)4]
(1) Covalent solid
47. Which of the following species is expected to be
colourless? (2) Trigonal planar structure
(1) [Ti(H2O)6]+3 (2) [Ti(NO3)6]–3 (3) Ionic solid with [PCl6]+ octahedral and [PCl4]–
tetrahedral
(3) [Cr(NH3)2]+ (4) [Fe(CN)6]–4
(4) Ionic solid with [PCl4]+ tetrahedral and [PCl6]–
48. Colour of coordination compounds depends on the octahedral
crystal field splitting. What will be the correct order
of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible 52. Which of the following statement regarding sulphur
region? dioxide is not correct?
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ (1) SO2 is an angular molecule
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (2) SO2 is an anhydride of sulphuric acid
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3– (3) SO2 is an acidic oxide
(4) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) The S-O bond length is smaller than the
expected value
49. Which is not a -bonded complex?
53. Which of the following order is correct?
(1) Zeise salt
(1) H2S < H2Se < H2O (Enthalpy of vaporisation)
(2) Ferrocene
(2) H2O < H2S < H2Te (Acidic nature)
(3) Bis(benzene) chromium
(3) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (Oxidising power)
(4) Tetraethyllead
(4) All of these
(5)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
54. The oxidation state of central atom in the anion of 62. Poling process is used for the removal of
Na2HPO3 will be
(1) Al2O3 from Al (2) Cu2O from Cu
(1) +3 (2) +5
(3) Fe2O3 from Fe (4) All of these
(3) +1 (4) –3 63. To obtain chromium from chromic oxide (Cr2O3), the
55. NH3 O2 A H2O
Pt method used is
(2) NO, NO2 and HNO3(aq) 64. The maximum temperature of around 1800°C is
obtained in the _________ region of the blast furnace
(3) NO2, NO and HNO3(aq) used in the extraction of iron.
(4) N2O, NO and HNO3(aq) (1) Combustion (2) Reduction
56. Which of the following statements is correct for (3) Slag formation (4) Fusion
CsBr3?
65. Number of electron transferred in each case when
(1) It is a covalent compound KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent to give MnO2,
(2) It contains Cs+3 and Br– ions Mn+2, Mn(OH)3, K2MnO4.
(3) It contains Cs+ and Br3 ions (1) 3, 5, 4 and 1 (2) 4, 3, 1 and 5
(3) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (4) 5, 4, 3 and 1
(4) It contains Cs+, Br– ions
57. Electronic configuration of a transition element X in +3 66. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO 4 in alkaline
oxidation state is [Ar]3d 5 . What is its atomic medium is
number?
(1) IO 3 (2) I2
(1) 25 (2) 26
(3) IO– (4) IO 4
(3) 27 (4) 24
67. In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine
58. Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluoride is
+ 4 (MnF4) but highest oxidation state in oxides is (1) Oxidation of Cl– to chlorine gas occurs.
+ 7 (Mn2O7) because (2) Reduction of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs
(1) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen (3) For overall reaction G° has negative value
(2) Fluorine does not posses d-orbitals (4) A displacement reaction takes place
(3) Fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state 68. Which of the following ligands are bidentate or
(4) In covalent compounds fluorine can form single tridentate ligands, capable of forming chelate rings?
bond only while oxygen forms double bond (i) NH2CH2CH2NH2
59. Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by (ii) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(1) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate (iii) NH2CH2CH2NHCH2COO–
(2) Disproportionation of N2O4
(3) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite (iv) NH2 CH2 CH2 NH3
(4) Interaction of hydroxylamine and nitric acid (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
60. Which of the following is an acidic oxide? (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(1) Mn2O7 (2) Mn3O4 69. Which ion would you expect to have the largest
splitting of d-orbitals?
(3) MnO (4) Mn2O3
(1) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (2) [Fe(CN)6]–3
61. Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by
froth floatation process. Which of the following (3) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 (4) [Fe(H2O)6]+3
sulphide ores offer an exception and is concentrated 70. Which one of the following combines with Fe+2 ion
by chemical leaching? to form a brown ring complex?
(1) Galena (2) Copper pyrite (1) N2O (2) NO
(3) Sphalerite (4) Argentite (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
(6)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
71. The most acidic hydride of nitrogen is pH X
81. Cr2O72
2
CrO4
(1) NH3 (2) N2H4 pH Y
(3) Ar (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
76. The secondary valency of metal CoCl3·4NH3 if its (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
solution reacted with one mole of AgNO3 only, is (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) 6 (2) 4 83. Which of the following complex is homoleptic?
(3) 1 (4) 5
(1) Li[AlH4]
77. Which of the following is not true about [Fe(CO)5]?
(2) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
(1) Oxidation state of ‘Fe’ is zero
(3) [Co(en)(NH3)2(H2O2)]Cl2
(2) The hybridization of central atom is dsp3
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) It is a diamagnetic complex
84. Which of the following is/are correct statements?
(4) It is a paramagnetic complex
(1) K 2 Cr2 O 7 has orange colour due to charge
78. Low spin complex of d5-cation in an octahedral field transfer
will have the following energy
(2) Zn, Cd and Hg are not considered as transition
(0 = CFSE, P = Electron pairing energy)
metals
(1) –20 +P (2) –20 +2P
(3) Tungsten has a very high melting point
2 (4) All of these
(3) 0 2P (4) –20 +3P
5 85. Which of the following is/are the examples of square
79. In Ellingham diagrams of fG (oxide formation) planar complex?
versus temperature (T), which of the following graphs (1) [NiCl4]2– (2) [PtCl4]2–
has negative slope?
(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) All of these
4 2
(1) Al O2 Al2O3 (2) 2Mg + O2 2MgO 86. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
3 3
(1) t = 4/9 0
(3) 2CO + O2 2CO2 (4) 2C + O2 2CO
(2) Ligands are Lewis bases
80. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
when a mixture of NaCl and K2 Cr2 O7 is gently (3) Cis-platin is used in the treatment of cancer
warmed with conc. H2SO4? (4) All of these
(1) A deep red vapour is evolved 87. Which of the following is known as Wilkinson’s
(2) Chromyl chloride is formed catalyst?
(3) Chlorine gas is evolved (1) [(Ph3P)3RhCl] (2) [(C6H6)2Cr]
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) [(C5H5)2Fe] (4) TiCl4 & AlCl3
(7)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
88. Which of the following complex has maximum (3) CO acts as -donor and -acceptor
stability?
(4) All of these
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]3 (2) [Cr(en) (NH3)4]3
90. The primary and secondary valences of the central
(3) [CrF6]3– (4) [Cr(en)3]3
atom of a schematic representation of given complex
are respectively.
Cl
M C O OH2
89.
H2O OH2
Co Cl
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for
above schematic diagram of metal carbonyl? H2O
OH2
(1) It shows synergic bonding interactions in a Cl
carbonyl complex OH2
(2) The (M–C) bond is formed by the donation of
a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital of metal (1) 6 & 6 (2) 3 & 6
into the vacant antibonding * orbital of carbon
(3) 6 & 3 (4) 3 & 3
monoxide
BOTANY
91. Sugarcane breeding Institute is credited for c. Screening germplasm for disease resistance
sources.
(1) Transfer of traits from north Indian cane to
Saccharum barberi d. Testing and release of new varieties.
(2) Transfer of trait from noble cane to Indian cane Arrange the above given steps in sequential order
94. The conventional breeding method for disease (1) Jassid in wheat leaf
resistance involves following steps. (2) Leaf beetle in wheat
a. Hybridisation of selected parents. (3) Stem saw fly in wheat
b. Selection and evaluation of the hybrids. (4) Stem borers in maize
(8)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
98. The objective of biofortification is the improving of (1) Somatic hybrid (2) Sexual hybrid
(1) Oil content and quality (3) Cybrid (4) Explant
(2) Protein content only 104. Haploid raising is helpful in
(3) Vitamins content and quality (a) Producing gametophytic generation.
(4) Micronutrient and mineral quality
(b) Production of homozygous individuals.
99. Ever growing human population has increased burden
on land mass. More than 25% of human population (c) Identification of deleterious genes.
is still malnourished. Meeting human requirement (d) Selection of useful recessive character if any
without putting excessive burden on land can be present.
(a) Through growing high yielding crop varieties. How many of the above are correct statement?
(b) Supplementing food with meat based diet. (1) b, c & d (2) a & b
(c) Through use of microbes.
(3) a only (4) a & d
(d) Supplementing with milk based food items.
105. Totipotency property of plant cell is first illucidated by
(1) a & b (2) a, b, c & d
(1) Hanstein (2) Haberlandt
(3) a & c (4) a, c & d
(3) Henking (4) Karlson
100. Biofortification can be achieved through
106. Atlas-66 is rich in
(1) SCP
(1) Mineral (2) Lysine and Tryptophan
(2) Breeding practices
(3) Iron (4) Protein
(3) Diseases resistant varieties 107. Microbial biomass production is not concerned with
(4) All of these (1) An alternative source of protein for animal and
101. Identify the incorrect match human nutrition
Column A Column B (2) A food supplement
(Natural Insecticide) (Source) (3) Enhancement of nutritional content of crops
(1) Rotenone Derris elliptica (4) The utilisation of waste matter in culture process
(2) Nicotine Nicotiana 108. The sum total of all the alleles for all the genes
present in a crop and its related species is called
(3) Pyrethrum Cinchona
(1) Gene pool (2) Germplasm
(4) Azadirachtin Margosa
(3) Genotype (4) Genome
102. Fill in the blanks correctly
109. 250 g of micro-organism like Methylophilus
(a) In 2000, maize hybrids are produced rich in methylotrophus produce 25 tonnes of protein per
(i) . day. This is because of
(ii) (1) High quality of protein present in them
(b) IARI develops spinach rich in .
(2) High rate of biomass production
(c) (iii) could be regenerated into new (3) Culturing bacteria in specialised nutrient media
plants. (4) High rate of protein synthesis
(d) Bomato is the product of (iv) . 110. Which one of the following is not the function of
mycorrhizae?
(1) (i) Certain amino acids
(1) Enrich soil with phosphorus
(iv) Genetic engineering
(2) Provide tolerance to salinity
(2) (ii) Vitamin A and C
(3) Increase plant growth and development
(iii) Explant
(4) Enriches soil with nitrogen fixation
(3) (i) Lysine and arginine
111. Which of the following is not used in SCP?
(ii) Vitamin A
(1) Chlamydomonas
(4) (ii) Calcium
(2) Chlorella
(iii) Embryo
(3) Spirullina
103. Which one of the following cases involves cytoplasm (4) Mushroom
from two sources and nucleus from only one?
(9)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
112. Scientists have succeeded in culturing meristems of 120. Commercial and industrial production of citric acid is
banana, sugarcane etc. The objective is to from
(1) Produce somatic hybrids (1) Acetobacter (2) Aspergillus
(2) Transfer disease resistant traits (3) Azospirillum (4) Anabaena
(3) Develop pathogen free plants 121. Statin functions by/as
(4) Produce somaclones (1) Competitive inhibitor of streptokinase
113. The enzyme, used in detergent formulations and also (2) Bursting blood clot
helpful in removing oily stains is (3) Removing oil stains from the laundry
(1) Streptokinase (2) Protease (4) Checking synthesis of cholesterol
(3) Lipase (4) Amylase 122. Which one of the following is correctly match?
114. Unorganised and undifferentiated actively dividing Beverages Type
cells in tissue culture are
(1) Beer Distilled
(1) Explant (2) Callus
(2) Brandy Distilled
(3) Somaclones (4) Embryoid
(3) Whisky Non-distilled
115. Green crop plants are ploughed back to soil, thus
(4) Rum Non-distilled
serve as _____ and are mainly_____.
123. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced.
(1) Cropyard manure; Cereals
Identify the treatment process and organisms
(2) Manure; Millets involved
(3) Biofertiliser; Legumes (1) Primary treatment ; Pathogenic microbes
(4) Green manure; Legumes (2) Secondary treatment; Methanogens
116. Superiority of F1 hybrid over either of its parents is (3) Secondary treatment; Aerobic heterotrophs
(1) Heterosis (4) Tertiary treatment; KMnO4
(2) Hybrid vigour 124. Physicochemical process in STP help to get rid of
(3) Inbreeding depression (1) Floating debris
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Pathogens
117. Which of the following are the result of fungal (3) Pebbles
activity? (4) Flocs and organic matter
a. Swiss cheese b. Roquefort cheese 125. First bioherbicide was obtained from _______ and is
c. Curd d. Toddy effective against _______
(1) a, b & d (2) b, c & e (3) Fungi; a plant (4) Bacteria; an insect
(3) b, d & e (4) a, b & c 126. Baculoviruses are used as biopesticides and are
characterized by traits like
118. The puffed up appearance of dough in idli is due to
the production of CO2 gas. The microbes responsible (1) These are predator of insects etc.
are mainly (2) These are narrow spectrum herbicidal
applications
(1) Fungi (2) Yeast
(3) These have no effect on target insects
(3) Bacteria (4) LAB
(4) These are pathogenic to certain arthropods.
119. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t antibiotics.
127. Biological farming approach includes all of these,
(1) A broad spectrum antibiotic can kill or destroy
except
number of pathogens
(1) Use of biological control agents against pests
(2) Penicillin was widely used in world war II to treat
Indian soldiers (2) Eradication of flora and fauna pathogenic to crop
plants completely
(3) Alexander Fleming discovered first antibiotic from
a fungal source (3) No use of chemical fertilizers
(4) Waksman discovered his first antibiotic from a (4) To maintain more variety of organisms in a crop
bacterial source field
(10)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
128. Trichoderma is known 132. Which of the following cannot be the effect of
a. To have no adverse effect on crop plants. chemical fertilizers?
b. To be a broad spectrum pesticide. (1) Contamination of ground water
c. As free living fungi in symbiotic association with (2) Increases productivity
roots. (3) Hazards to human health
d. To be applied as spray on Brassica leaves. (4) Increases fertility of soil in long run
Select the correct statement. 133. Glomus is
(1) a, b & d (2) a, b & c (1) Ectomycorrhiza (2) Endomycorrhiza
(3) a & b (4) a & c (3) Lichen (4) SCP source
129. Biofertilizer in paddy field can include all of these, 134. IPM stands for
except
(1) International plant crop management
(1) Azotobacter (2) Certain BGA
(2) Indian pest management
(3) Azolla (4) Anabaena
(3) Integrated pest management
130. Major component of biogas is
(4) Indian production of microbes
(1) CO2 (2) H2
135. Primary treatment of sewage in STP involves
(3) H2S (4) CH4
(1) Biological treatment
131. Which of the following variety does not have ‘Dee
geo woo gen’ gene? (2) Physical treatment
(1) Jaya and Ratna (2) Taichung Native-1 (3) Physiochemical treatment
(3) IR-8 (4) Sonalika (4) Sedimentation only
ZOOLOGY
136. Mammals evolved from 140. The type of premating isolation in which breeding
(1) Sauropsids (2) Thecodonts period of mating individuals is different for different
species is
(3) Therapsids (4) Tuataras
(1) Mechanical isolation
137. Which of the following is not a proposition in the
Lamarck’s theory of evolution? (2) Temporal isolation
(3) Limited food and space 141. The type of natural selection which favours average
sized individuals while number of individuals with
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters extremes of the trait (small and large sized) remains
138. Different breeds of domestic pigeon have been small is
developed from the wild rock pigeon. It is an example (1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection
of
(3) Progressive selection (4) Disruptive selection
(1) Natural selection
142. Phrase “Survival of the fittest” was given by
(2) Artificial selection
(1) August Weismann (2) Ernst Mayr
(3) Mutation theory
(3) T. Dobzhansky (4) Herbert Spencer
(4) Genetic drift
143. When two species are morphologically almost
139. In founder effect, the change in the allele frequency identical but do not normally interbreed, such
is so different in the new sample of population that species are called
they become a different species. It is best
exemplified by (1) Polytypic species (2) Sibling species
(12)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
160. The Bryophytes evolved from 168. When the migrating individuals breed within the new
(1) Chlorophyte ancestors population, the immigrants will add new alleles to the
local gene pool of the host population. This is called
(2) Tracheophyte ancestors
(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene migration
(3) Rhynia-type plants
(3) Bottle neck effect (4) Random mating
(4) Psilophyton
169. The type of speciation in which formation of new
161. Find the incorrect statement species occurs within a single population without
(1) Seed ferns, that is the first gymnosperms geographical isolation and due to reproductive
originated in carboniferous period isolation is
(2) All plants have originated from chlorophyte (1) Allopatric speciation
ancestors (2) Sympatric speciation
(3) First organisms that invaded land were animals (3) Fusion species
(4) About 350 mya, fish with stout and strong fins (4) Phyletic speciation
could move on land and go back to water 170. The post-mating isolation in which the offspring of
162. Pelycosaurs are the ancestors of hybrids are inviable or infertile is
(1) Dinosaurs (2) Thecodonts (1) Mechanical isolation (2) Hybrid inviability
(3) Sauropsids (4) Therapsids (3) Hybrid sterility (4) Hybrid breakdown
163. Find the correct statement 171. Production of cabbage, cauliflower, kohlrabi from a
wild mustard ancestor is an example of
(1) Conifers evolved from progymnosperms
(1) Artificial selection (2) Natural selection
(2) Triceratops had a long neck and a long tail
(3) Stabilising selection (4) Balancing selection
(3) The largest flesh eating dinosaur was
Brachiosaurus 172. The type of selection which favours both small-sized
and large-sized individuals and eliminates most of
(4) Birds and crocodiles have common ancestry members with mean expression is known as
164. Which of the following is not the feature of Darwin’s (1) Directional selection
Theory of Natural Selection?
(2) Disruptive selection
(1) Struggle for existence
(3) Diversifying selection
(2) Appearance of variations
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Use and disuse of organs
173. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
(4) Inheritance of useful variations industrial melanism?
165. Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired (1) The peppered moth exists in two strains, light
characters was disproved by the theory of coloured and black
(1) Wallace (2) Weismann (2) Before industrialisation, the bark of trees was
(3) Malthus (4) Erasmus Darwin covered by greyish lichens, so light grey moths
escaped unnoticed from predatory birds
166. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(3) After industrialisation barks got covered by soot,
(1) In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened so the light grey moths were selectively picked
to be a coelocanth which was thought to be up by birds
extinct
(4) The black moth developed due to deposition of
(2) Reptiles lay thick-shelled eggs which do not dry smoke on the body of white moths
up in sun unlike those of amphibians
174. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus existed about
(3) Giant ferns (pteridophytes) fell to form coal
deposits (1) 25 MYA (2) 15 MYA
(3) 50 MYA (4) 1.5 MYA
(4) The first mammals were like rabbits
175. Homo habilis, had brain capacities of _______ and
167. Darwin’s finches are an example of
probably ______
A. Allopatric speciation B. Geographical isolation
(1) 900 cm3, ate meat
C. Founder effect D. Macroevolution
(2) 650-800 cm3, did not eat meat
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C
(3) 1400 cm3, ate fruits
(3) B, C, D (4) A, C, D (4) 350-450 cm3, ate meat
(13)
Test-13 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
176. Find the incorrect statement (1) Homo habilis – 650 - 800 cc
(1) Few fossils of man-like bones have been (2) Homo erectus – 900 cc
discovered in – Ethiopia and Tanzania (3) Homo sapiens – 1650 cc
(2) About 3-4 MYA, man-like primates walked in neanderthalensis
eastern Africa (4) Australopithecus – 500 cc
(3) About 2 MYA, Australopithecines probably lived 179. Which of the following statement is wrong?
in east African grasslands (1) Homo habilis made number of stone tools
(4) Evidences show that Australopithecines hunted (2) Homo erectus probably ate meat
with stone weapons and essentially ate meat
(3) The Neanderthal man lived in near east and
177. The first human like being or the earliest hominid central Asia between 1,00,000 - 40,000 years
was back
(1) Homo habilis (4) Australopithecines were insectivorous
(2) Homo erectus erectus 180. Lucy was
(3) Homo erectus heidelbergiensis (1) Australopithecus africanus
(4) Homo erectus pekinensis (2) Australopithecus afarensis
178. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. human ancestor and (3) Proconsul africanus
its cranial capacity (4) Homo neanderthalensis
(14)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-13 (Code A)
28/06/2015
A
CODE
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 13 Time : 3 Hrs.
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (3) 73. (4) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146. (2)
3. (4) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (3) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (4) 152. (4)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (2) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (1) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (2) 93. (1) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (4) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (1) 96. (4) 132. (4) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (4) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (2) 98. (1) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (1) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (4) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (1) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (4) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (2)
(15)
28/06/2016
A
CODE
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
1. Answer (3) 3M M
2. Answer (2)
M2 M1
3. Answer (4)
4. Answer (2)
5. Answer (3) 90°
M
6. Answer (1)
7. Answer (1) M ( 3M )2 M 2
8. Answer (2) M = 2 M
i tan 13. Answer (4)
Let x is length of wire
i1 tan 45
⎛x⎞
2
3i1 tan ⎜ ⎟
Mcircle L2 4 4
2 ⎝ ⎠ 2
tan 3 Msquare r ⎛ x ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
tan1( 3) 60º
14. Answer (4)
9. Answer (2)
15. Answer (4)
10. Answer (2)
16. Answer (2)
B
∵ + = 90°
B2 60° B1
So, = 90 –
P
1
∵ tan tan
L L 2
1
tan(90 ) tan
N N 2
S S
tan1( 2)
∵ B1 = B2 17. Answer (4)
So, B 3B1 tan 1
tan
0 2M tan 2
= 3 .
4 L3
cot 1
11. Answer (4) or cot
cot 2
12. Answer (2)
(1)
18. Answer (3)
B
19. Answer (3) eind vl
2
B2 = B1tan
31. Answer (2)
0 M 2M
. 0. tan
4 d 2 3 4 d13 ∵ N = L × i
d13 d1
2 tan N 100 2 103
13
2 tan ⇒
d23 d2 L 0.2 H
i 1
20. Answer (3)
32. Answer (1)
M1 n22 n12 [eind]diameter = 0
∵
M2 n22 n12
33. Answer (3)
21. Answer (1) 34. Answer (4)
22. Answer (3) 35. Answer (4)
∵ e = NBA sin (t)
∵ M k L1L2
23. Answer (1)
1
∵ K M=3H
2
eind = 5 V
e0 43. Answer (1)
T/2 3T/4 50
O t ∵ R 5
T/4 10
–e0 L
L 4s
R
Mn2O7
61. Answer (4)
G0f 4 2
62. Answer (2) Al O 2 Al 2O3
gO 3 3
2M
63. Answer (3) + O2
2Mg
64. Answer (1)
Temperature
Combustion
80. Answer (4)
65. Answer (1)
81. Answer (1)
3, 5, 4 and 1
82. Answer (1)
66. Answer (1)
83. Answer (1)
IO3 is formed 84. Answer (4)
67. Answer (1) 85. Answer (2)
68. Answer (1) [NiCl4]2 & [Ni(CO)4] are the example of tetrahedral
Which have two or three donor site. complex.
Strong field ligand and high charge density. 87. Answer (1)
(5)