St.

Paul University Philippines

Tuguegarao City, Cagayan 3500

SCHOOL OF NURSING AND ALLIED HEALTH SCIENCES

Bachelor of Science in Nursing II
2nd Semester AY. 2019 – 2020

NCM 106 – PHARMACOLOGY

DIRECTIONS: Read each item carefully, choose the best answer and provide rationale why you choose
that answer. Answers without rationale are not considered. Answer sheets are to be sent to your respective
tutors in their email on or before 12:00 noon of June 4, 2020. This part is COMPUTERIZED. Please work
INDEPENDENTLY...

1. The name selected by the original manufacturer based on the chemical structure of the drug is the:
A. Chemical name
B. Drug name
C. Generic name
D. Trade name

Rationale: Generic name is the identification of the drug as named by the manufacturer basing from
the chemical structure of the drug, while chemical name is for the chemical structure of the
compound. And lastly the trade name comes from the company who produces the drug.

2. The interaction of one drug increased by the presence of a second drug is known as:
A. Potentiation
B.Addictive effects
C.Antagonist
D. Synergism

Rationale: One of the drug to drug interactions is the potentiation, this is answer is to be considered
among the rest because by definition, one drug potentiates the other, in other words the effectiveness
of one drug is being increased once combined with another.

3. When two drugs given together have an effect equal to the sum of their respective effects, the
interaction is known as:
A. Potentiated
B. Antagonized
C. Agonist
D. Additive

Rationale: From the root word itself, “Add”, by definition once two drug is being administered the
effectiveness is the sum of their respective effects.

4. When a drug is 50% protein bound, it means that:

A. 50% of the drug destroys protein
B. 50% of the dose is at work
C. 50% of the drug is excreted in the kidneys
D. Protein must be restricted in the diet

Rationale: There are many metabolic activities within the body that uses protein as a resource of a
process, however answers A,C, and D does not represent any of these actions done by a 50% protein
bound drug. What it does mean is that 50% is of the dose is at work.

5. Safety of a drug is determined by the degree between:

A. Therapeutic and toxic doses
B. Potency and efficacy
C. Subtherapeutic and toxic levels
D. Side and adverse effects

Rationale: Among the rest of the choices what mostly speaks about the safety of the drug is
therapeutic and toxic doses, potency and efficicacy do not speaks about safety same with side and
adverse effects which are part of the drug’s responses in the body. .

6. When a drug binds to a receptor to produce a pharmacologic effect, the drug may be called a(n):
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Blocker
D. Accelerator
 Rationale: The action of a drug that binds or connect itself in a receptor to stimulate a biological
response is called Agonist.

7. Distribution is affected by:

A. Biotransformation
B. Excretion
C. Protein binding
D. Lipid binding

Rationale: The answer is protein binding because it is the way or manner how drug is being
distributed in the body, while the other two processes, biotransformation and excretion do not affect
drug distribution.

8. An unexpected effect of the drug is known as a(n):

A. Side effect
B. Adverse effect
C. Toxic reaction
D. Allergic reaction

Rationale: Side effects are known reaction of the drugs while adverse effects are undesirable and
unpredictable reactions of a drug.

9. When performing an assessment about medication, the drug history should include:
A. Complete vital signs
B. Client’s goal of therapy
C. Reason for medication
D. Administration of OTC medications

Rationale: Choice D is the most accurate because it is needed in the assessment to inform the client
if she is currently under OTC medications that their effects are going to be minimized.

10. The volume of SC medication must be no more than:

A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.0 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 3.0 mL

Rationale: Drug consideration, no amount higher than 0.1mL is to be injected at the SC.

11. Which of the following muscles is a possible site for IM injections?

A. Outer aspect of the hip
B. Shoulder
C. Vastus gluteus
D. Vastus lateralis

Rationale: Aside from the deltoid muscle located in the upper outer shoulder, Vastus lateralis is also
a desirable site for IM injections.

12. When deciding on what time of day to give medications, the nurse pays closest attention to the
client’s habits regarding:
A. Eating
B. Sleeping
C. Elimination
D. Activity

Rationale: This consideration is important for this affects the drug’s efficacy and administration.
Knowing the clients eating habits or diet will allow the nurse to do necessary inteventions with
regards to drug administration.

13. The client’s ability to take oral medications will be hindered by:
A. Age
B. Dental caries
C. Dysphagia
D. Lifestyle

Rationale: One of the common routes of administration is oral route, this can be hindered by the
condition called dysphagia which is a medial term for difficulty in swallowing.
14. Which of the following will determine nursing interventions for a client on medication?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnoses
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
E. Rationale: The chosen answer is the second stage to nursing process which identifies the
condition of the patient based from the gathered data from assessment, this stage outlines the
needed objectives and actions in the planning stage which will be carried out as interventions.

15. When performing an assessment to determine which medications can be used, which of the
following elements is most important?
A. Physical examination
B. Allergies
C. Presence of illness
D. Weight

Rationale: Allergies are crucial determinants to patient’s compatibility with a drug, since reactions
done by this condition can cause harmful and life threatening effect to the patient.

16. Central venous access devices are beneficial in pediatric therapy because:
A. They are difficult to see.
B. They cannot be dislodged.
C. Use of the arms is not restricted.
D. They don’t frighten children.

Rationale: The answer represents the appropriateness of site to the age of the client since arms are
not restricted and children moves their body particularly the extremities, this promotes comfort in
normal activities and functions.

17. When considering the pharmacotherapeutic effects of drugs administered to clients, the nurse
considers which property of most importance:
A. Efficacy
B. Interaction with other drugs
C. Potency
D. Toxicity

Rationale: This is to be considered the most important aspect of the drugs administered to patients
because it speaks about how effective the drug is in responding in the condition of the patient.

18. While preparing for a medication, the nurse realizes that this is her first time of encounter with
the medicine. What is the best action of the nurse for this situation?
A. Administer the drug immediately
B. Review the drug action, indication, effects and adverse effects of the drug
C. Ask another nurse what is the drug for
D. Do not give the medication

Rationale: It is within the nurse’s responsibility to be knowledgeable of the drugs being

administered to their respective client. A review of the drug’s action, indication, effects and
adverse effects will make the nurse confident and feel at ease about the drug she is
administering.

19. The nurse prepares to administer medication by the buccal route. The nurse is correct if she will
administer the drug:
A. Under the tongue
B. On the client’s skin
C. In the client’s conjunctival sac
D. Between the client’s cheek and gum

Rationale: Buccal is medical that directs the location between the cheek and gum.

20. This drug can be safely taken if instructions are followed, no necessary prescription is required?
A. Over the counter drug
B. Prescription drug
C. Prohibited drugs
D. Allowed drugs
 Rationale: OTC are drugs that can be bought over the counter, these don’t need further prescription
from a physician.

21. It is the drug’s registered trademark and indicates that its commercial use is restricted to the
owner of the patent for the drug?
A. Generic name
B. Chemical name
C. Trade name
D. Substances

Rationale: the trade name or trademark name is a standard name for the drugs registration in
company, it is the brand name given by the manufacturer itself.

22. Drugs movements in the body involves in four stages namely absorption, distribution,
metabolism and?
A. Resorption
B. Excretion
C. Action
D. Displacement

Rationale: the last stage in the four stages of pharmacokinetics and which goes by the E in the
ADME process is Excretion.

23. Drugs maximum effectiveness is also called?

A. Drug effectiveness
B. Drug efficacy
C. Drug efficiency
D. Drug effect

Rationale: It is through Drug efficacy that we will know the maximum or highest state of
effectiveness a drug can be.

24. The administration of a medication just under the skin is called:

A. Subcutaneous
B. Intradermal
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous

Rationale: The skin has three layers, namely the epidermis, dermis and the deepest layer
hypodermis, when we say just under the skin it means just into the first two layers of the skin, or the
dermis.

25. When local medication is applied to the skin or the mucous membranes, the nurse charts that it
has been given:
A. Topically
B. Parenterally
C. Intramuscularly
D. Intrdermally
E. subcutaneously.

Rationale: the route of administration which is topical, means that medication like ointment is put
on the superficial of the skin.

26. A secondary, or unintended, effect of a drug on the body is called a:

A. cumulative effect.
B. Side effect
C. Toxic Effects
D. None of the above

Rationale: the unpredictable response we also call. And these are normal reactions in response to
the drug taking effect. An example to this is when we take immunizations, one of the side effects is
fever.

27. The nurse is aware that many drugs can be administered by more than one route. Which of the
following route of administration provides the most rapid response in patient.
 A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Buccal
D. IM

Rationale: The most efficient route of administration is through intramuscular because it is

introduce directed in blood circulation which will provide rapid response.

28. A client is being discharged on Coumadin after hospitalization for a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse
recognizes that which food would be restricted while the client’s is on this medication?
A. Lettuce
B. Apples
C. Potatoes
D. Macaroni

29. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn shortly after birth for which of the following reasons?
A. To stop hemorrhage
B. To treat infection
C. To replace electrolytes
D. To facilitate clotting

30. The client has an order for FeSO4 liquid. Which method of administration would be best?
A. Administer the medication with milk
B. Administer the medication with a meal
C. Administer the medication with orange juice
D. Administer the medication undiluted

31. Medications used to treat bacterial infections

A. Antibiotics
B. Anticholinergics
C. Anti inflammatory
D. Analgesic
Rationale: from the prefixes itself it says “Anti” which means against and “biotics” for living
organisms, These are mediations used to threat or go against bacterial infections.

32. Block the undesirable effects of prostaglandins, which cause headaches. It relieves pain:
A. Antibiotics
B. Anticholinergics
C. Anti inflammatory
D. Analgesic

Rationale: The primary function of this classification of drug is that it reduces physiologic pain and
relieves the client.

33. It is a non-specific, localized immune reaction of the organism, which tries to localize the
pathogen agent. Many consider the syndrome a self-defense mechanism.
A. Infection
B. Inflammation
C. Allergy
D. None of the above

Rationale: Inflammation is an immune response to our body being expose to injuries or

immunologic conditions or diseases.

34. Drugs used to inhibit or kill proliferating cancer cells:

A. Antibiotics
B. Anticholinergics
C. Anti inflammatory
D. Neoplastic drugs

35. Happens when the food you eat affects the ingredients in a medicine you are taking so the
medicine cannot work the way it should.
 A. Interaction
B. Absorption
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

36. Its mode of interaction inhibits metabolism and potentiates sedative effect of the drug
A. Analgesics
B. Anti inflammatory
C. Antihistamine
D. Antibiotics

37. Drugs that can be taken on an empty stomach unless it upsets your stomach, then take with food.
A. Antibacterials
B. . Analgesics
C. Anti inflammatory
D. Antibiotics

38. Which of the following will determine nursing interventions for a client on medication?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnoses
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

39. When performing an assessment to determine which medications can be used, which of the
following elements is most important?
A. Physical examination
B. Allergies
C. Presence of illness
D. Weight

40. After a patient receives a suppository, the nurse should instruct the patient to remain lying on the
side for:
A. 15-20 mins
B. 1-2 hrs
C. 30 mins-1 hr
D. 2-3 hrs

41. Are small, cylindrical gelatin containers that hold dry powder or liquid medicinal agents:
A. Tablet
B. Capsule
C. Suppository
D. Syrup

42. A patient with headache took acetaminophen 400 mg P.O. How many grams of acetaminophen
did the patient receive?
A. .0004 g
B. .04 g
C. 0.4 g
D. 4 gm

Solution:
400mg x 1gm = 0.4 gm
1 1000mg

43. If an infant weighs 2,500 g. How many kgs does he weigh?

A. .025 kg
B. .25 kg
C. 2.5 kg
D. 25 kg

Solution:
2,500g x 1kg = 2.5 kg
1 1000g
44. When you weigh an infant’s wet diapers, you note the total weight is 75 kg. What is the weight of
the diaper in grams?
A. 750 g
B. 7,500 g
C. 75,000 g
D. 750,000 g

Solution:
75kg x 1000g = 75,000g
1 1kg

45. A patient drinks 250 ml juice. This is equivalent to how many cubic centimeters of juice?
A. 2.5 cc
B. 25 cc
C. 250 cc
D. 2,500 cc

Solution:
250ml x 1cc = 250 cc
1 1ml

46. If a patient is ordered 500 cc of bowel preparation prior to a study, and the preparation container
is measured in milliliters, how many milliliters should the patient receive?
A. 0.5 ml
B. 5 ml
C. 50 ml
D. 500 ml

Solution:
500cc x 1ml = 500 ml
1 1cc

47. An infant in the pediatric intensive care unit weighs 4500g. This is equivalent to how many
kilograms?
A. 0.045 kg
B. 0.45 kg
C. 4.5 kg
D. 45 kg

Solution:
4500g x 1kg = 4.5 kg
1 1000g

48. A doctor ordered 75mcg of thyroid hormone replacement P.O. daily for a patient with
hypothyroidism. How many milligrams of thyroid hormone replacement will the patient receive?
A. 0.075 mg
B. 0.75 mg
C. 7.5 mg
D. 750 mg

Solution:
75 mcg x 1mg = 0.075mg
1 1000mcg

49. How many 30mg tablets of Codeine should be given for a dose of Codeine 45 mg?
A. 1 tablet 30 mg
B. ¾ tablet
C. 2 tablets
D. 1 ½ tablets

Solution:
45 mg x 1 tab = 1.5 tabs

50. Clinoril 0.1g is ordered; available tablets contain 200mg. how many tablets will you administer?
A. ½ tablet
B. 3 tablets
 C. 1 tablet
D. 2 tablets

Solution:
0.1 g x 1000mg = 100 mg
1 1g

100 mg x 1 tab = 0.5 tabs

200 mg

51. Celecoxib is what class of drug?

A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
B. Muscle relaxant
C. Narcotic
D. Corticosteroid

Rationale:

52. Which of the following is an antidote to opioid overdose?

A. Glucagon
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. N-acetylcysteine

53. Which of the following analgesic medications should be used with caution in patients with
hepatic disease?
A. Naproxen
B. Ketorolac
C. Ibuprofen
D. Meloxicam
E. Acetaminophen

54. You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is started on a two-week course of oral prednisone.
Which of the following is a known side effect of oral steroids?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypotension
C. Insomnia
D. Decreased appetite
E. Hyperkalemia

55. Which of the following analgesic medications produces dilated pupils?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Hydromorphone
C. Morphine
D. Oxycodone
E. Meperidine

56. You are the nurse taking care of a patient who is hospitalized for severe lower back pain. The
patient also has a medical history significant for multiple gastrointestinal bleeds and peptic ulcer
disease. Which of the following medications should be used with extreme caution in this patient
given his medical history?
A. Oxycodone
B. NSAIDs
C. Morphine
D. Acetaminophen
E. Hydromorphone

57. Aspirin, NSAIDs and acetaminophen act by

A. Inhibiting impulses to brain.
B. Releasing endorphin
C. Competitively blocking the neuronal terminal
D. Inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins.

58. A commonly used NSAID, Ibuprofen belongs to the subclass of

A. Propionic acid derivatives
B. Salicylates
 C. Oxicam derivatives
D. Pyrazolone derivatives

59. The enzyme involved in the therapeutic action of NSAIDs is

A. Cytochrome
B. Monoamine oxidase
C. Cyclo-oxygenase
D. Lipocortin-1

60. Salicylate intoxication (salicylism) is characterized by the following symptoms, except

A. Hypoventilation
B. Fluid and electrolyte deficiencies
C. Nausea, vomiting, fever
D. Tinnitus, decreased hearing, visual changes

61. Which of the following statements about Aspirin is TRUE?

A. Aspirin has no ototoxic characteristics
B. enteric-coated Aspirin (Ecospirin) should be chewed or crushed before swallowing.
C. Aspirin should generally be avoided for 1 to 2 weeks before and after surgery
D. Aspirin is least likely to cause gastric irritation.

62. Penicillamine is administered as an antidote for poisoning with:

A. antimuscarinic drugs
B. carbon monoxide
C. opioids
D. copper, gold, lead and mercury

63. Drug-induced movement disorders may be treated with:

A. calcium gluconate
B. benzatropine
C. acetylcysteine
D. atropine

64. Idiosyncrasy refers to:

A. a fever associated with administration of a medication.
B. an unexpected reaction to a drug that occurs the first time it is given.
C. the ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when taken by pregnant women.
D. the ability of a substance to cause cancer.

65. A therapeutic agent which is sometimes called the universal antidote:

A. Physostigmine
B. Activated charcoal
C. Glucose
D. Protamine sulphate

66. Overdose of Benzodiazepines is treated wtih:

A. N-Acetylcysteine
B. Flumazenil
C. Physostigmine
D. Protamine

67. Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:

A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Iron
D. Digoxin

68. Severe lead poisoning is treated with:

A. Succimer
B. Pyridoxine
C. Naloxone
D. Atropine

69. The drug used as an antidote of anticholinergic poisoning is:

 A. Pyridoxine
B. Atropine
C. Physostigmine
D. Deferoxamine

70. Digibind is used as an antidote for poisoning due to:

A. Cholinergics
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Digoxin
D. Atropine

71. Vitamin K1 is administerd as an antidote for poisoning with:

A. Diphenoxalate
B. Heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Aminocaproic acid

72. The drug used in acetaminophen overdose is:

A. Physostigmine
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Acetyl salicylic acid
D. Flumazenil

73. Isoniazid (INH) toxicity is treated with:

A. Pyridoxine
B. Aminocaproic acid
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Atropine

74. Protamine sulfate is administerd in overdose of:

A. Insulin
B. Anticholinergica
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin

75. While beta-lactam antibiotics remain one of the most commonly prescribed types of antibiotics,
they have side effects that can range from mild to life-threatening in nature. What type of side effect
is most commonly observed?
A. allergic reaction
B. anaphylactoid reaction
C. aplastic anemia
D. hearing loss
E. hemolytic anemia
F. yellowing of teeth
76. Which of the following statements about morphine is correct? 

A. Morphine is most effective by parenteral administration.

B. Morphine quickly enters all body tissues.
C. Morphine’s withdrawal symptoms cannot be relieved by methadone.
D. Morphine is contraindicated in pain relief caused by head injury.

77. Early signs and symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity include ALL BUT ONE of the following.
A. Perioral numbness
B. Tinnitus
C. Dizziness
D. Hypertension
78. The half-life of morphine is: 

A. 2 to 4 hours
B. 4 to 6 hours
C. 6 to 8 hours
D. 30 minutes to 1 hour
79. When administering codeine, the nurse should be aware that: 

A. Codeine produces more sedation than other opiates.

B. Codeine is very constipating.
C. Codeine is an antitussive in high doses.
D. Codeine causes diarrhea, so the client must take an additional drug to prevent this.

80. In addition to analgesia, narcotic effects include: 

A. Euphoria, miosis, nausea and vomiting

B. Euphoria, diarrhea, increased respirations
C. Respiratory depression, increased blood pressure
D. Dependence, seizures, muscle spasms
E. Anesthesia must be discontinued.
81. All narcotics, regardless of their origin, reduce pain by: 

A. Promoting the release of excitatory transmitters

B. Blocking the mu receptors
C. Stimulating opiate receptors
D. Releasing large quantities of endorphin

82. Examples of antihistamine includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Claritin
B. Cetirizine
C. Benadryl
D. Betahistine

83. Antihistamine side effects include all BUT ONE:

A. Dizziness
B. Fever
C. Changes in vision
D. Dry mouth, nose or throat
E. Upset stomach

84. Chemotherapeutic drugs are those that are used to stop the growth of cancer cells, either by
killing the cells or by stopping them from dividing. Examples of which are ( Select all that apply):
A. Methotrexate
B. Clofarabine
C. Fluorouracil
D. Tegafur
E. Betamethasone
F. Mitoxantrone
G. Dobutamine
H. Loratidine

85. Teratogens are agents which are if taken by a pregnant woman can cause malformation of the
embryo. Most common malformations are craniofacial dysmorphisms, cleft palate, hare lip, thymic
aplasia and neural tube defects. The most famous and notorious teratogen is:
A. Thalidomide
B. Isotretinoin
C. Tetracycline
D. Cocaine

86. Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)?
A. Increased pulse
B. Urinary retention
C. Constipation
D. Mydriasis

87. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)?
A. Rash
B. Angioedema
C. Cough
D. Congestion
88. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)?
A. Nausea
B. Flush appearance
C. Vertigo
D. Sexual dysfunction

89. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?
A. Hypertension
B. Difficulty breathing
C. Dry oral cavity
D. Lethargic behavior

90. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Dieuretics (Loop dieuretics)?
A. Alkalosis
B. Nausea
C. Hypotension
D. Potassium deficits

91. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Midazolam)?

A. Amnesia
B. Decreased respiratory function
C. Anesthetic
D. Dizziness

92. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Clozapine)?

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Antipsychotic
C. Used for Schizophrenia
D. Increased appetite

93. Which of the following is not treated with (Epinephrine)?

A. Renal disease
B. Asthma
C. Hypotension
D. Glaucoma

94. Which of the following are not treated with opoid analgesics like?
A. Pulmonary Edema
B. Cough suppression
C. Sedation
D. Pain

95. Which of the following are not treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?

A. CHF
B. HTN
C. Nephritis
D. Hypercalciuria

96. Which of the following are not treated with Nifedipine?

A. Angina
B. Arrhythmias
C. Htn
D. Fluid retention

97. Which of the following are not treated with Methotrexate?

A. Sarcomas
B. Leukemias
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Rheumatic fever

98. Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone?

A. Cushing’s disease
B. Testicular cancer
C. Lympthomas
 D. Chronic leukemias

99. Which of the following are not treated with Dexamethasone?

A. Inflammation
B. Asthma
C. Addison’s disease
D. Wilson’s disease

100. Which of the following are not treated with Lansoprazole?

A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B. Gastritis
C. Hypertension
D. Reflux

101. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin?
A. Protamine
B. Methylene blue
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Glucagon

102. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Copper?
A. Glucagon
B. Aminocaproic acid
C. Atropine
D. Penicillamine

103. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?
A. Flumazenil
B. Methylene blue
C. Deferoxamine
D. Alkalinize urine

104. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?
A. Naloxone
B. Nitrite
C. CaEDTA
D. Dialysis

105. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Blood
D. Heart

106. Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

A. Gastritis
B. Peptic Ulcers
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Thalamus hypertrophy

107. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

A. Histamine
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist

108. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

A. Histamine
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist

109. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
 D. H2 antagonist

110. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist

111. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?
A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones

112. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

A. Cataracts
B. Hypotension
C. Psychosis
D. Acne

113. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

A. CHF
B. Tachycardia
C. AV block
D. Sedative appearance

114. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Mexiletine
B. Aminodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide

115. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?
A. Headaches
B. Tachycardia
C. Dizziness
D. Projectile vomiting

116. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?
A. Nausea
B. Renal dysfunction
C. Anemia
D. Muscle wasting

117. The physician orders penicillin for a patient with streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse administers
the drug as ordered, and the patient has an allergic reaction. The nurse checks the medication order
sheet and finds that the patient is allergic to penicillin. Legal responsibility for the error is:
A. only the nurse’s—she should have checked the allergies before administering the medication.
B. only the physician’s—she gave the order, the nurse is obligated to follow it.
C. only the pharmacist’s—he should alert the floor to possible allergic reactions.
D. the pharmacist, physician, and nurse are all liable for the mistake

118. The most important instructions a nurse can give a patient regarding the use of the antibiotic
ampicillin prescribed for her are to:
A. call the physician if she has any breathing difficulties.
B. take it with meals so it doesn’t cause an upset stomach.
C. Take all of the medication prescribed even if the symptoms stop sooner.
D. not share the pills with anyone else.

119. The physician orders an intramuscular injection of Demerol for the postoperative patient’s pain.
When preparing to draw up the medication, the nurse is careful to remove the correct vial from the
narcotics cabinet. It is labeled
A. simethicone.
B. albuterol.
C. meperidine.
D. ibuprofen.
120. The most common dose-limiting toxicity of chemotherapy is:
A. Nausea and vomiting.
B. Bloody stools.
C. Myelosuppression.
D. Inability to ingest food orally due to stomatitis and mucositis.

121. Anticipatory nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy occurs:

A. Within the first 24 hours after chemotherapy.
B. 1-5 days after chemotherapy.
C. Before chemotherapy administration.
D. While chemotherapy is being administered.

122. Walter, a teenage patient is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol)
overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the
following organs?
A. Lungs
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Adrenal Glands

123. In infants and children, the side effects of first generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines,
such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax) include:
A. Reye’s syndrome.
B. Cholinergic effects.
C. Paradoxical CNS stimulation.
D. Nausea and diarrhea.

124. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for clients who are taking NSAIDs and anticoagulants would be
which of the following?
A. Risk for injury related to prolonged bleeding time, inhibition of platelet aggregation, and
increased risk of GI bleeding.
B. Potential for injury related to GI toxicity and decrease in bleeding time.
C. Altered protection related to GI bleeding and increasing platelet aggregation.
D. Risk for injury related to thrombocytosis prolonged prothrombin time.

125. Teaching has been adequate when a client being treated with acetylsalicylic acid states:
A. “I can crush the pills before i swallow them.”
B. “I should take the pills with antacids.”
C. “Taking the pills on an empty stomach will help absorption.”
D. “If the pills smell like vinegar, I should throw them out.”

126. To minimize the risk of dyspnea and GI bleeding, OTC ibuprofen is given:
A. IV
B. With orange juice
C. On an empty stomach
D. With meals

127. Which of the following NSAIDs is used to prevent thrombosis?

A. Motrin
B. Toradol
C. Aspirin
D. naproxen

128. Which of the following contributes most to the debilitation of an individual during a course of
chemotherapy?
A. Diarrhea
B. Alopecia
C. Constipation
D. Pain

129. Corinne is experiencing diarrhea after consuming her prescribed antibiotics for the whole week.
This is because:
A. The drugs render food indigestible.
 B. Gastric flora is disturbed.
C. Fluid is added into the intestine.
D. Normal intestinal bacteria are destroyed.

Rationale: Destruction of the normal flora within the intestine can lead to diarrhea because this
normal flora or bacteria aids or functions on the process of digestion or metabolic activities.

130. When assessing clients for evidence of a penicillin allergy, which of the following symptoms may
not be considered to be a true hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Wheezing
B. Nausea
C. Urticaria
D. Angioneurotic edema

Rationale: Nausea is off the symptoms to be considered as true hypersensitivity reaction because it
is caused primarily by increase growth of gram-positive bacteria or yeast during GI disturbances.

131. Which of the following statements is true when educating clients about penicillin therapy?
A. The client must take the medication at evenly spaced intervals.
B. The client may save leftover medication for a future illness.
C. If signs of an allergic reaction, continue the medication and notify physician.
D. Clients taking oral contraceptives must be cautioned to use an alternate form of birth
control while being treated with penicillin.

Rationale: It is important to take note or inform the client that birth control pill’s effectiveness is
lessen when under penicillin therapy.

132. When administering topical ophthalmic preparations, the nurse must assess:
A. visual acuity.
B. intraocular movements.
C. color of the sclera.
D. blinking reflex.

Rationale: Visual acuity is one of the eye examinations that should be assess prior to ophthalmic
preparations because it makes the eyes of the patient blurry. Along with extra ocular movements
that makes an effective administration.

133. When administering otic preparations, the nurse should observe the tympanic membrane for:
A. erythema.
B. perforation.
C. fluid.
D. all of the above.

Rationale: Observance of these conditions is essential intervention nurses must consider in order to
assess efficiency of the preparation.

134. Topical antibiotics work by:

A. Inhibiting replication of a virus
B. Blocking histamine-1 and -2 receptors
C. Binding to fungal cell membranes
D. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis

Rationale: One of the effective ways pathogenic bacteria lives is due to the firmness of their cell
wall, topical antibiotics works by preventing cell wall production of these microorganisms.

135. Chemotherapy dosing is usually based on the total body surface. What should the nurse do
before administering chemotherapy?
A. Get the body mass index (BMI).
B. Ask the client about intake and output.
C. Weigh and measure the height of the patient on the day of administration.
D. Ask the client for the height and weight.

Rationale: One of the special considerations in knowing the drug dosage in chemotherapy
medications is to measure the weight and height of the patient on the day of administration because
should be based on the total body surface of the client.

136. The nurse is caring for of a client who is receiving a chemotherapy. Which of the following
would be expected as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?
 A. Leukopenia.
B. Anemia.
C. Thrombocytopenia.
D. Hyperuricemia.

Rationale: Due to the destruction of cells brought about by chemotherapy there is a release of
purines in the DNA which later increases the uric acid a condition called hyperuricemia.

137. The clinic nurse provides instructions to a client receiving an antineoplastic medication. When
implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client to?
A. To drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amount during the evening.
B. To avoid hot foods and high fiber rich foods.
C. To take acetylsalicylic acid as needed for headache.
D. To consult with health care providers before receiving immunization.

Rationale: It is essential to inform the client to seek approval from a health care provider when
he/she is to receive immunization, this response is due to the effect of the medication lowering the
body’s resistance.

138. A male client with breast cancer is receiving Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). The nurse specifically
monitors which laboratory value?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time
B. Triglyceride level.
C. Fasting blood sugar.
D. Serum sodium and potassium.

Rationale: It is important to specifically assess and monitor the client’s triglyceride levels when
Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is being administered because one of its effects is the increase of triglyceride
in the body of the client.

139. The client with an ovarian cancer is receiving Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). Which of the following
indicates a side effect specific to this medication?
A. Weak and brittle nails.
B. Facial twitching.
C. Convulsions.
D. Constipation.

Rationale: When antineoplastic drugs or medicines like Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) is taken into the
body one of its responses is that it increases the client’s calcium levels which we called the condition
in medical term hypercalcemia that can cause constipation.

140. A client is receiving Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) for a series of chemotherapy. Which of the
following medication should be readily available to avoid toxicity?
A. Mesna (Mesnex).
B. Vigabatrin (Sabril).
C. Leucovorin (Folinic acid).
D. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

Rationale: The medication is should be readily available when the client is receiving methotrexate
for a series of chemotherapy, because it is use to avoid harmful effects of the said medicine by
decreasing its toxicity.

DRUGS AND SOLUTION: Solve for the following, show your computation please ( your computation
maybe handwritten, scan email )
141. Order: Ibuprofen 0.8 gm P.O.
Supply: 400mg tablets
2 tabs are needed for each dose

142. Order: Valproic acid 0.75 gm P.O

Supply: 250mg per 5 ml
______ml are needed for each dose

143. Order: Warfarin 15mg P.O.

Supply: 10mg tabs
______tabs are needed for each dose

144. Order: 120mg furosemide IM

Supply: 10mg/ml
______ml is administered

145. Order: Haloperidol 4mg IM

Supply: 5mg/ml
______ml is administered

146. Order: 600,000 units Penicillin G

Supply: 300,000 units/ml
______ml is administered

147. The nurse is to administer Mycostatine suspension 400,000 units to a patient. This anti fungal
drug arrives from the pharmacy in a bottle labeled 5ml= 500,000 units. How many ml should be
administered?

148. The doctor orders Catapres 300mcg p.o every 8 hours. You have 0.1 mg tablets on hand. How
many tablets would you administer?

149. The physician orders 0.125mg orally (po) of digoxin The medication is available in tablets
containing 0.25mg. Calculate how many tablet you are going to give?

150. The physician orders 1000mg of Acetaminophen (tylenol) p.o. The only available tablets are
0.5gm each. How many tablets are needed to administer this dose?

GOD BLESS YOU ALL!!!

*****ayingshielaannaezra…..