Solutions 1

First Mean Value Theorem

1. Let d > 0 and let f : [0, d] → R be defined by f (x) = x − tan−1 x.Then f is continuous on
1 x2
[0, d] and differentiable on (0, d) with f ′ (x) = 1 − = > 0 for 0 < x < d. By the
1 + x2 1 + x2
corollary to the first mean value theorem f (b) > f (0) for all 0 < b < d. Hence x − tan−1 x > 0
or tan−1 x < x for all x > 0.

2. (i) Let f : [0, 1] → R be defined by f (x) = x − log(1 + x). Then f is continuous on

1 x
[0, 1] and differentiable on (0, 1) with f ′ (x) = 1 − = > 0 for 0 < x < 1. By the
1+x 1+x
first mean value theorem, if 0 < x ≤ 1 then f (x) − f (0) = x f ′ (c) for some c ∈ (0, x). Since
f (0) = 0 it follows that f (x) = x − log(1 + x) ≥ 0 for all x ∈ [0, 1].
x
(ii) If g : [0, 1] → R is defined by g(x) = log(1 + x) − then g is continuous on [0, 1] and
2
1 1 1−x
differentiable on (0, 1) with g (x) =
′
− = > 0 for 0 < x < 1. By the corollary
1+x 2 2(1 + x)
to the first mean value theorem, if 0 < x ≤ 1 then g(x) − g(0) = x g ′(c) for some c ∈ (0, x).
x
Since g(0) = 0 it follows that g(x) = log(1 + x) − ≥ 0 for all x ∈ [0, 1].
2
π π
3. (i) Let f : [0, ] → R be defined by f (x) = tan x − x. Then f is continuous on [0, ]
4 4
π π π
and differentiable on (0, ) with f ′ (x) = sec2 x − 1 > 0 for 0 < x < . If 0 < x < then by
4 4 4
the corollary to the first mean value theorem f (x) − f (0) = x f ′ (c) for some c ∈ (0, x). Since
π
f (0) = 0 it follows that f (x) = tan x − x > 0 for 0 < x < .
4
π π
(ii) If g : [0, ] → R is defined by g(x) = 2x − tan x then g is continuous on [0, ] and
4 4
π 2 π 2 1 π
differentiable on (0, ) with g (x) = 2 − sec x > 0 for 0 < x < as cos x > for 0 < x < .
′
4 4 2 4
π
By the corollary to the first mean value theorem, if 0 < x < then g(x) − g(0) = x g (c) for ′
4
π
some c ∈ (0, x). Since g(0) = 0 it follows that g(x) = 2x − tan x > 0 for 0 < x < .
4
√
4. Let f : [0, ∞) → R be defined by f (x) = x . Then f is continuous on [0, ∞) and
1
differentiable on (0, ∞) with f ′ (x) = x−1/2 . Applying the first mean value theorem to f on
2
the interval [n, n + 1] we have f (n + 1) − f (n) = f ′ (c) for some c ∈ (n, n + 1), that is
√ √ 1
n+1− n = c−1/2 .
2
Since n < c < n + 1 it follows that n−1/2 > c−1/2 > (n + 1)−1/2 . Hence
1 √ √ 1
(n + 1)−1/2 ≤ n + 1 − n ≤ n−1/2 .
2 2

5. Let f : [0, ∞) → R be defined by f (x) = sinh−1 x . Then f is continuous on [0, ∞) and

1
differentiable on (0, ∞) with f ′ (x) = √ . Applying the first mean value theorem to f on
x +1
2
the interval [n, n + 1] we have f (n + 1) − f (n) = f ′ (c) for some c ∈ (n, n + 1), that is
1
sinh−1 (n + 1) − sinh−1 (n) = √ .
c2 +1
1 1 1
Since n < c < n + 1 it follows that √ > √ >p . Hence
n2 + 1 c2 + 1 (n + 1)2 + 1
1 1
p ≤ sinh−1 (n + 1) − sinh−1 (n) ≤ √ .
(n + 1) + 1
2 n +1
2

Now
1
xn+1 − xn = √ − (sinh−1 (n + 1) − sinh−1 (n)) ≥ 0
+1
n2
by the above result so {xn } is increasing.

6. Let f : [1, ∞) → R be defined by f (x) = log x. Then f is continuous on [1, ∞)

1
and differentiable on (1, ∞) with f ′ (x) = . Applying the first mean value theorem to f
x
on the interval [n, n + 1] we have f (n + 1) − f (n) = f ′ (c) for some c ∈ (n, n + 1), that is
1
log(n + 1) − log n = . Since n < c < n + 1 it follows that
c
1 1
≤ log(n + 1) − log n ≤ .
n+1 n
To show that {xn } and {yn } are monotone we calculate xn − xn+1 and yn+1 − yn .
1
xn − xn+1 = log(n + 1) − log n − ≥0
n+1
by the above result so {xn } is decreasing.
1
yn+1 − yn = + log(n + 1) − log(n + 2) ≥ 0
n+1
by the above result (with n replaced by n + 1 ) so {yn } is increasing. In particular, yn ≥ y1
and x1 ≥ xn for all n. Since xn − yn = log(n + 1) − log n ≥ 0 , {xn } is bounded below by y1
and {yn } is bounded above by x1 . Hence {xn } and {yn } both have limits. Moreover

lim xn − lim yn = lim ( xn − yn ) = lim log(1 + n−1 ) = 0.

n→ ∞ n→ ∞ n→∞ n→∞

7. Let f : [0, ∞) → R be defined by f (x) = (1 + x)r − xr . Then f is continuous on [0, ∞)

differentiable on (0, ∞) with f ′ (x) = r [(1 + x)r−1 − xr−1 ] ≥ 0 . By the corollary to the first
mean value theorem, if x > 0 then f (x) − f (0) = x f ′ (c) for some c ∈ (0, x). Hence, for x ≥ 0
we have
(1 + x)r ≥ 1 + xr .
a
To get the final inequality put x = in the above inequality to get
b
 a r  a r
1+ ≥1+ .
b b
Multiplying each side of this by br gives (a + b)r ≥ ar + br .
8. Let ǫ > 0. Since lim f ′ (x) = 0, there exists K > 0 such that |f ′ (x)| < ǫ for all x ≥ K.
x→ ∞
Let x > K. By applying the first mean value theorem to f on the interval [x, x + 1] we have
f (x + 1) − f (x) = f ′ (c) for some c ∈ (x, x + 1). Thus for x > K, |f (x + 1) − f (x)| < ǫ. Hence

lim [ f (x + 1) − f (x) ] = 0
x→ ∞