1.Which among the following words/words is written in Preamble of Indian Constitution?

I. Justice

II. Liberty

III. Equality

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. All I, II and III

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

● Preamble is the introductory statement in a constitution which states the reasons and
guiding values of the constitution.

● The preamble was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, Through
this amendment, the words "socialist" and "secular" were added between the words
"Sovereign" and "democratic" and the words "unity of the Nation" were changed to "unity
and integrity of the Nation".

● Justice, Liberty and Equality are also written in the Preamble of Indian Constitution.

2.Where is the ‘abolition of untouchability’ articulated in the Constitution of India ?

A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

● Article 17 is the ‘abolition of untouchability’ articulated in the Constitution of India.

● Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before the law or equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India.

● Article 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination of Indians on basis of

religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
● Article 16 is related to Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

3.The establishment of Legislative Council is defined in which article of the Constitution of

India?

A. Article 170
B. Article 169
C. Article 173
D. Article 174

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

• The Legislative Council is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral
legislature.

• Its establishment is defined in Article 169 of the Constitution of India.

• As of November 2019, after the bifurcation of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh as union
territories, 6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council.

4.Each Member of the State Legislative Council (MLC) serves for a__________term.

A. 5 year
B. 3 year
C. 4 year
D. 6 year

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Each Member of the State Legislative Council (MLC) serves for a six-year term, with
terms staggered so that the terms of one third of a State Legislative Council's membership
expire every two years.

• MLC must be a citizen of India, at least 30 years old, mentally sound, not an insolvent.

• He/She must be enrolled on the voters' list of the state for which he or she is contesting an
election.

• He or she may not be a Member of Parliament at the same time.

5.Powers of President to grant pardons & to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain
cases are mentioned under which Article?

A. 70
B. 71
C. 72
D. 74

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

 A President is empowered with the power to pardon under Article 72 of the Indian
Constitution.
 Article 72 says that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves,
respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of
any person convicted of any offence.

6.Disqualification of members is mentioned under which article?

A. 100
B. 101
C. 102
D. 110

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

* Article 102 deals with the disqualification of members of parliament.

* It contain five major grounds for disqualification which are- Office of profit, unsound mind,
insolvent, not citizen and if he is so disqualified under any law.

7.Union Public Service Commission is mentioned under which part of constitution?

A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
Answer ||| B

Solution |||

* Union Public Service Commission is mentioned under 14 th part of constitution.

* It’s provisions are included in Article 315-323.

* The Union public service commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed
by the president of india.

8.Which of the following is not a statutory body?

A. SEBI
B. NHRC
C. NGT
D. CBI

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The Central Bureau of Investigation is not a statutory body.

● Though it derives its powers from Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.

● SEBI was established in 1988 and given Statutory Powers on 30 January 1992 through the
SEBI Act, 1992.

● The National Human Rights Commission of India is a Statutory

public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights
Ordinance of 28 September 1993.

● The National Green Tribunal is a statutory body under National Green Tribunal Act,
2010.

9.Which of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals with citizenship?

A. Part II
B. Part VI
C. Part VIII
D. Part XII

Answer ||| A
Solution |||

a) Part II – Citizenship

b) Part VI – The States

c) Part VIII – The Union Territories

d) Part XII – Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits

10.The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, included Panchayati Raj in the Indian
Constitution from Article _________.

A. 243 to 243 (J)

B. 243 to 243 (M)
C. 243 to 243 (O)
D. 243 to 243 (Z)

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, included Panchayati Raj in the Indian
Constitution from Article 243 to 243(O).

• It added a new Part in Constitution, i.e., Part IX.

• It provided for three tier Panchayati Raj System.

• State election commission was formed to conduct elections of Panchayati Raj. There is a
provision of the reservation of seats for SCs and STs at every level of Panchayat.

11.As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the intermediate level may NOT be
constituted in a State having a population not exceeding:

A. Thirty lakhs
B. Forty lakhs
C. Ten lakhs
D. Twenty lakhs

Answer ||| D

Solution |||
As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the intermediate level may NOT be
constituted in a State having a population not exceeding 20 lakhs.

* The above said clause is mentioned in Artcile 243B of the Indian Constitution.

* The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992, made 3 tier system of Panchayati Raj for all
states.

* The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992, came into effect from 24 April, 1993.

12.Write jurisdiction of the high courts is mentioned in which of the following articles of the
Indian constitution?

A. Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Article 214
D. Article 52

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

• Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers a high court to issue writs in nature
of habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo-warrento, or any of them, for
the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose.

• The high court can issue writs t any person, authority, and government not only within
its territorial jurisdiction but also outside of its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action
arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

13.Which of the following power does not belong to Prime Minister?

A. Advices President to appoint other Ministers

B. Preside over the meeting of council of Ministers
C. Guides, Directs, controls and coordinates all ministries
D. Appoints other ministers

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• The Prime Minister is appointed by President and other ministers are appointed by President
on recommendation of Prime Minister.
• Powers of Prime Minister include-

a) Advices President to appoint other Ministers.

b) Preside over the meeting of council of Ministers.

c) Guides, Directs, controls and coordinates all ministries.

d) He can bring about the collapse of the council of ministers by resigning from office.

14.Right to Property deleted from the list of fundamental rights in which year?

A. 1986
B. 1976
C. 1978
D. 1952

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

* The Right to Property (Article 31) was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by
the 44th Amendment Act 1978.

* It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.

* Article 300-A stipulates that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority
of law".

15.Which was the only amendment to be unanimously adopted by the Parliament?

A. 51st
B. 41st
C. 86th
D. 52nd

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

* The 52nd amendment was the only amendment to be unanimously adopted by the
Parliament.

* This amendment was passed on 15 th February 1985.

* This amendment inserted the tenth schedule in the constitution regarding provision as to
disqualification on the grounds of defection.

16.The phrase ‘bicameral legislature’ means :

A. a single assembly
B. an elected legislature
C. a legislature consisting of a lower and an upper house
D. Parliamentary system of Government

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| The phrase ‘bicameral legislature’ means a legislature with two houses, or
chambers. The British parliament is a bicameral legislature, made up of the House of
Commons and the House of Lords.

17.In India, which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides for the
formation of a new state?

A. Article 9
B. Article 2
C. Article 1
D. Article 3

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• 1-Name and territory of the Union.

• 2-Admission or establishment of new States.

• 3-Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States.

• 9-Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to be citizens.

18.President can proclaim National Emergency on the grounds of which of following?

A. War
B. External aggression
C. Armed rebellion
D. All of above

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

* As per 44th constitutional amendment the president can proclaim emergency on the basis of
war, internal disturbance and armed rebellion.

* Emergency is declared on the aid and advice of cabinet.

* It is mentioned in A 352 in Indian Constitution.

19.The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved by ____.

A. Prime Minister
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Lok Sabha
D. Either house of Parliament

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| • As per the Constitution, Vice President can be removed by a resolution of the
Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority.
• It has also to be passed by the Lok Sabha with simple majority.

20.The idea of ‘Office of Governor’ taken from?

A. Government of India Act, 1858

B. Charter Act, 1793
C. Government of India Act of 1935
D. The Regulating Act, 1773

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| The Government of India Act 1935 formed the basis of the Constitution of India.
• The features of Federal systems, officer Governor, Judiciary, Public Service
Commissions, Emergency provisions, Administrative details were taken from this Act.
• It also provided for the establishment of an All India Federation.
21.The Comptroller and Auditor General of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure
of

A. Central Government
B. Local Bodies
C. State Government
D. Government Companies

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Comptroller and Auditor general of India, does not audit the receipt and
expenditure of Local bodies. For these bodies, constitution has empowered the concerned
legislature of a state, to take due steps in this regard.

22.Which article was referred to as the 'the heart and soul' of the constitution by Dr. B. R.
Ambedkar?

A. Article 4
B. Article 32
C. Article 28
D. Article 30

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| It was Article 32 of the Indian constitution which is termed as the “Heart and
Soul” of the Indian constitution by DR BR Ambedkar. He said so because this particular
article deals with “issuance of writ” which involves correcting the wrong inflicted on an
individual fundamental rights.

23.Which of the following does not come under Fundamental Duty?

A. To safe guard public property

B. To protect and improve the natural environment
C. To promote harmony
D. To protect freedom of speech and expression

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| To protect freedom of speech and expression does not come under Fundamental
Duty. Freedom of speech and expression comes under fundamental rights which are provided
by the constitution to the citizens of India. While fundamental duties are certain rules which
citizens should follow to safeguard the nation sovereignty.
24.Which of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature?

A. Odisha
B. Bihar
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Maharashtra

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

 Seven Indian States, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka,
Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh, have bicameral Legislatures, in these
states the upper house is called Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Councils), one-third of
whom members are elected every two years.
 Odisha Assembly passes the resolution for creation of Legislative Council. The
resolution now will be sent to Central Government for approval and then for
President's assent.

25.What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

A. 6 years or up to the age of 65 years

B. 5 years or up to the age of 65 years
C. 5 years or up to the age of 62 years
D. 6 years or up to the age of 62 years

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner for a tenure
of 6 years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
The Chief Election Commissioner heads the Election Commission of India, a body
constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the national and state
legislatures.

26.Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

A. OM Birla
B. Sumitra Mahajan
C. M. Thambidurai
D. Venkaiah Naidu
E. None of these
Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Muppavarapu Venkaiah Naidu is an Indian politician and the current Vice-
President of India. He has been in office since 11 August 2017.
• The Vice-President of India is also ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
• Previously, Naidu served as the Minister of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, Urban
Development, and Information and Broadcasting in the Modi Cabinet.

27.Right to constitutional remedies comes under which article?

A. Article 33-36
B. Article 32-35
C. Article 34-40
D. Article 33-34

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Right to constitutional remedies [Article 32 to 35] empowers the citizens to
move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.

28.In a cut motion, when the amount of demand is reduced by Rs 100/-, it is known as

A. Disapproval of policy cut

B. Economy cut
C. Vote on Account
D. Token cut

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Token cut motion reduces the specific grant by Rs 100. It can be passed once the
budget documents are tabled in Lok Sabha after its scrutiny by departmental related standing
committees.

29.Preamble of Indian constitution is inspired by_____.

A. Nehru Report
B. Objective Resolution
C. GOI Act, 1935
D. August Offer

Answer ||| B
Solution |||

• The Preamble of Indian Constitution is inspired by the Objective Resolution.

• On 13 December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution in

Constitution Assembly.

• This resolution was unanimously adopted on 22 January 1947 and it became the
Preamble to the Constitution.

30.What does the writ of ‘Mandamus’ mean?

A. We Command
B. By What Warrants
C. To be Certified
D. You May Have the Body

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• Mandamus is a Latin word, which means "We Command".

• It is an order from the Supreme Court or High Court to a lower court or tribunal or public
authority to perform a public or statutory duty.

• There are five types of Writs - Habeas Corpus (you may have the body), Mandamus (we
command), Prohibition (stay order), Certiorari (to be certified) and Quo warranto (by what
warrants).

31.The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India in consultation with
the________.

A. Chief Justice of India and the Governor

B. Chief Justice of High Court and the Governor
C. Chief Minister and Governor
D. Governor and President

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India in consultation with
the Chief Justice of India and the governor of the State concerned.
• The High Court comes second in the line of hierarchy.

• As per the Constitution of India, every State should have a High Court.

• The High Court deals with civil as well as criminal cases.

32.The Lokpal is appointed for a period of ____.

A. 4 Year
B. 6 Year
C. 2 Year
D. 5 Year

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till attaining age
of 70 years.

• A Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or body of ombudsman who represents the public

interest in India.

• The current Chairperson of Lokpal is Pinaki Chandra Ghose (First Lokpal).

• The Lokpal is responsible for enquiring into corruption charges at the national level while
the Lokayukta performs the same function at the state level.

33.During the emergency period, the Lok Sabha can extend tenure by a period of ____ at a
time.

A. 3 Months
B. 6 Months
C. 15 Days
D. 1 Year

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Lok Sabha can be extended during the National Emergency by a law of Parliament for one
year at a time for any length of time.
• But this extension cannot go beyond the period of 6 months after the emergency has
ceased to operate.

• The President of India is authorised to dissolve Lok Sabha at any time even before the
completion of 5 years and this cannot be challenged in the Court of Law.

34.Which of following was not a member of Drafting committee?

A. BR Ambedkar
B. KM Munshi
C. Jawahar Lal Nehru
D. Krishnaswamy Iyer

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| • The Constituent Assembly appointed of Drafting Committee on 29 th August

1947.
• There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee.
• Dr BR Ambedkar was the chairman of the Drafting Committee.
• These members were:

Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi (KM Munshi), Alladi
Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopalaswami Iyengar, B L Mitter, Md. Saadullahand D P Khaitan.

35.Who appoints the Advocate General of state?

A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. Prime Minister
D. Chief Justice of High Court

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Under Article 165 the Governor of state appoints the Advocate General of State.

* He also appoints the State Chief Election Commissioner, Vice Chancellors of Universities,
Chairman and other members of the State Publish Service Commission.

36.How long can a Money Bill be delayed by the Rajya Sabha ?

A. 3 Month
B. 6 Month
C. 15 Days
D. 14 Days

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Under Article 109 (1), Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend the Money Bill, and
must return it within 14 days.
• Money Bill is not returned by the Rajya Sabha to the Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days
from the date of its receipt, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses.
• A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. The
final power to decide whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not It is vested in the
speaker of the Lok Sabha.

37.First hour of a sitting session of India's Lok Sabha is devoted to:

A. Zero Hour
B. Question Hour
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| First hour of a sitting session of India's Lok Sabha is devoted to Question
Hour.
• During the Question Hour the members can ask questions on every aspect
of administration and Governmental activity.
• Zero Hour denotes the time immediately following the Question Hour in both Houses of
Parliament.
• Zero Hour in parliament starts around 12:00 PM noon.
• In this hour members can raise important issues of national interest with prior notice to
speaker.

38.Who can not pardon a sentence of death?

A. President of India
B. Governor of States
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

Answer ||| B
Solution |||

The Governor cannot pardon a death sentence.

* The Governor can grant pardons, reprives, respites and remissions of punishment or
suspend, remit and commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any
law relating to a matter, to which the executive power of the state extends.

* The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is sentence of death
but pardoning power of Governor does not extend to death sentence cases.

39.Indian Citizenship is granted by

A. The President of India

B. The Prime Minister
C. The Ministry of Home Affairs
D. The Ministry of External Affairs

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| The Citizenship of India has been provided in the articles 5-11 in the Constitution
of India. The Constitution empowers the Parliament to frame law regarding the Citizenship,
consequently the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1950 through which the
Ministry of Home Affairs grants Citizenship to persons.

40.The Comptroller and Auditor General of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure
of

A. Central Government
B. Local Bodies
C. State Government
D. Government Companies

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Comptroller and Auditor general of India, does not audit the receipt and
expenditure of Local bodies. For these bodies, constitution has empowered the concerned
legislature of a state, to take due steps in this regard.

41.Who gives oath to the Members of Lok-Sabha ?

A. Chief Justice of India
B. Protem Speaker
C. Prime Minister
D. Vice President

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| President appoints a speaker Pro Tem for the first meeting of the newly elected
Lok Sabha. He is appointed to administer oath to the new members and enable the house to
elect a new speaker.

42.Which of the following is not included amongst the fundamental duties of the
Constitution?

A. Obey the Constitution

B. Protect the unity and integrity of the Nation
C. Follow secularism
D. Safeguard the public property

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| The Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Constitution of India are the moral
obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of
India. These duties, set out in Part IV – A of the Constitution, are not enforceable by law.
Following secularism is not a part of any of the 11 duties that together constitute the
Fundamental Duties.

43.Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from his office by passing
resolution in Parliament

A. 2/3rd majority in Lok sabha

B. 3/4th majority in Lok sabha
C. 2/3rd majority in both houses
D. 3/4th majority in both houses

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from his office by passing
resolution in Parliament with two-thirds majority in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
44.India has taken the concept of 'Judicial Review' from which country's constitution?

A. United States America

B. United Kingdom
C. Canada
D. Ireland

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

 It’s from the USA, that India has taken the provision of judicial review and
subsequently has incorporated in its constitution.
 This concept has added to the vitality of the Indian constitution by enabling the
judiciary to evaluate the legislative work to check their compatibility with the
constitutional provision and philosophy.

45.What is the literal meaning of 'Certiorari'?

A. We command
B. To have the body of
C. To forbid
D. To be certified (or) to be informed

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| 'Certiorari' means to be certified or informed. In constitutional terms it is a writ

issued by Supreme Court or high court to review a case tried in lower court. It is used to
quash a decision after the decision is taken by a lower tribunal against the acts or proceedings
of a judicial or quasi-judicial body as the decision has been incomplete or there has been
some error of law.

46.Who among the following is not a member of any of the two houses of our country?

A. Prime Minister
B. Finance Minister
C. President
D. Railway Minister

Answer ||| C
Solution ||| President is not a member of any of the two houses of our country. He is the
constitutional head of the state and a part of parliament in which he has the power to summon
both the houses of parliament and dissolve the lower house.

47.Who among the following is a full-time member of NITI Aayog?

A. Rajnath Singh
B. Thawar Chand Gehlot
C. Smriti Irani
D. Bibek Debroy

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Bibek Debroy is an Indian economist. From March 2007 to January 2015, he
was professor at Centre for Policy Research, New Delhi.
• On 25 September 2017, he was appointed the Chief of the newly set-up “Economic
Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).”
• Since its conception in January 2015, Mr. Debroy has been a member of NITI Aayog, the
think tank of Indian Government.

48.Who was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. Sumitra Mahajan
B. Meira Kumar
C. Sunanda Mahajan
D. None of the above

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Meira Kumar is an Indian politician and five-time Member of Parliament who was
the United Progressive Alliance nominee for President of India in the 2017 election.
• She was elected unopposed as the first woman Speaker of Lok Sabha and served from 2009
to 2014.

49.Who is the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

A. Rajiv Kumar
B. Nitin Gadkari
C. Smriti Zubin Irani
D. Suresh Prabhu
Answer ||| A

Solution ||| Mr. Rajiv Kumar is the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog. The NITI Aayog is a
policy think tank of the Government of India, which was established with the aim to
achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering
the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using
a bottom-up approach.

50.What does the writ of habeas corpus mean?

A. the arrested person must be brought before the court, that holds the right to set the person
free if the grounds of arrest are found to be faulty.
B. it is issued when an office holder is found to misuse his duties
C. it is issued by higher courts when they find that lower courts have made judgments beyond
their powers of jurisdiction
D. it is issued when the court finds that the office holder is illegally holding that position

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| A writ of habeas corpus (which literally means to "produce the body") is a court
order to a person or agency holding someone in custody (such as a warden) to deliver the
imprisoned individual to the court issuing the order and to show a valid reason for that
person's detention.
Hence option A is the right answer.

51.Whom did Gandhi refer as the Post Dated Cheque

A. Cripps India Mission

B. Cabinet Mission Plan
C. Morley Minto Reforms
D. None of these

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| Gandhiji referred Cripps India Mission as Post Dated cheque.

52.Who takes the final decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?

A. Finance Minister
B. Speaker
C. Vice President
D. Prime Minister

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

• Under Article-110, money bill can only be presented in Lok Sabha and not in Rajya Sabha.

• The decision of whether a bill is a money bill or not is taken by Speaker of Lok Sabha and
is presented in house with prior permission to President of India.

• The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding to Money bill and there is no provision of
Joint Sitting for Money bills.

53.Who appoints the Chairman of all the Parliamentary Committees of Lok Sabha ?

A. Speaker
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Attorney General of India

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| The Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of all the Parliamentary
Committees of Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker acts as the ex-offico Chairman of the Indian Parliamentary group of the Inter
Parliamentary Union.

54.The Non- Money bill can be introduced in_______

A. Legislative Council
B. Legislative Assembly
C. Either of these
D. None of these

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| Non- Money bills can be introduced in either Legislative

Assembly or Legislative Council.
• But Money Bills are introduced only in Legislative Assembly.
• According to the Constitution , the Legislative Assembly of a state shall consist of not
more than 500 and not less than 60 members who are chosen by direct election from the
territorial constituencies.
55.Which one of the following is true about the President of India?

A. Term of office is six years.

B. Violation of the constitution is the ground for impeachment.
C. Minimum qualification age is 30 years.
D. Elected by only members of the Rajya Sabha

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| The term of office for the President of India is five years and can be impeached
only on the ground of violation of the constitution.
The minimum qualification age is 35 years and the Electoral College for the President
compromises (1) The elected members of both houses of Parliament (2) The elected members
of the Legislative Assemblies of the states (3) The elected members of the Legislative
Assemblies of Union Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry.

56.What is the term of office of the panchayat at every level?

A. Five year
B. Four year
C. Six year
D. Three year

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| 73 rd amendment act has provided for a five year term of office at every level.
However it can be dissolved before the completion of its term. Further fresh election to
constitute a panchayat shall be completed before the expiry of its duration of five years and
in the case of dissolution, before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of its
dissolution.

57.Which Constitutional Amendment Act deals with the disqualification of MPs and MLAs?

A. 42nd Amendment Act

B. 52nd Amendment Act
C. 62nd Amendment Act
D. 32nd Amendment Act

Answer ||| B
Solution ||| The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 popularly known as the
anti-defection law came into force w.e.f. 1 March 1985.

58.

The National Flag was accepted by the Constituent Assembly on ______.

A. 22nd July
B. 24th January
C. 26th January
D. None of these

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

 On July 22nd 1947, the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
During the 19th century, India was under British rule and a variety of flags were used
by rulers of independent states in India, before the Indian independence movement
began.

59.Which among the following is correct

(i) President of Constitution Assembly – B. R. Ambedkar
(ii) Chairman of Drafting Committee – B. R. Ambedkar
(iii) Official languages – 22
(iv) Population control is in – state list

A. (i, ii) are correct

B. (ii, iii) are correct
C. (iii, iv) are correct
D. (i, iv) are correct

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| President of Constitution Assembly is Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Population control
is a matter of Concurrent list

60.Voting is
A. The process by which people exercise their right to vote.
B. The process of selecting representatives.
C. The unit of area who constitute a unit for electing representative.
D. Universal adult franchise.

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| Voting is a process by which people exercise their right to vote.

61.For which committee, The CAG acts as a guide?

A. Public Undertaking Committee

B. Public Accounts Committee
C. Estimates Committee
D. Privilege Committee

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher to Public accounts committee.

• The three Financial committees of parliament are-

a) Public Accounts Committee

b) Estimates Committee

c) Public Undertaking Committee

• The PAC is not concerned with questions of policy. It is concerned only with the execution
of the policy laid down by Parliament and its results.

62.How many sessions of the Lok Sabha are normally held in a year?

A. 7
B. 3
C. 5
D. 2

Answer ||| B

Solution |||
Three sessions of Lok Sabha take place in a year:

1) Budget session: February to May.

2) Monsoon session: July to September.

3) Winter session: November to mid December.

63.Which of following is not a type of cut motion?

A. Economy Cut Motion

B. Policy Cut Motion
C. Token Cut Motion
D. Election Cut Motion

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

* Cut Motion is a power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in
the Financial Bill discussed by the Government.

* There are three types of cuts: Policy Cut Motions, Economy Cut Motions and Token Cut
Motions.

64.Who determine the salaries of the judges of the supreme court?

A. Parliament
B. Law Commission
C. Pay Commission
D. Council of Ministers

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

* Parliament, by law, decides the salaries of the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts by
virtue of Article 125 and Article 221 of the Constitution of India respectively.

* As per the article 125, There shall be paid to the Judges of the Supreme Court such salaries
as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made,
such salaries as are specified in the Second Schedule.
65.Which article of the Constitution of India provides that each Indian state will have a
governor?

A. Article 152
B. Article 154
C. Article 151
D. Article 153

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Article 151-Relate to CAG

• Article 152- definition of State

• Article 153-Govenors of States

• Article 154-Executive powers of governor

66.Which article of the Constitution says that the Rajya Sabha ( Council of States ) is a
Permanent House ?

A. Article 80
B. Article 87
C. Article 83
D. Article 89

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| •Article 83 says, The Rajya Sabha ( Council of States ) is a Permanent House .
•It is not subject to dis & members can enjoy it’s a tenure of 6 years . However one-third of
the members retire every second year.

67.Which Article deals with Freedom of Press ?

A. Article 19(1) A
B. Article 20
C. Article 22
D. Article 21

Answer ||| A
Solution ||| •There is no specific provision in our constitution to guaranteeing the freedom of
the press because freedom of press is included in the wider freedom expression which is
guaranteed by the Article 19(1) A.
•Freedom of expression means the freedom of express not only one's own views but also the
views of others and by means including printing.

68.Who is called father of Local self-government in India?

A. Lord Mayo
B. Lord Ripon
C. Lord Canning
D. William Bentick

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

 Lord Rippon’s resolution of 1882 has been hailed ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-
government.
 He is called as the father of local self-government in India.

69.The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers

A. with the consent of the Speaker

B. only under emergency conditions
C. on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
D. on his own

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers on the
recommendation of the Prime Minister.

70.The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by

A. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly

B. Elected members of Legislative Council
C. The people
D. Lok Sabha

Answer ||| A
Solution ||| Members of RajyaSabha are elected by the legislative Assembly of States and
Union territories by means of Single transferable vote through Proportional representation.

71.If the President of India wants to resign, he has to address the letter of resignation to
the_____.

A. Chief Justice of India

B. Prime Minister
C. Vice-President
D. Speaker
E. None of these

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

 Article 56 of the Indian Constitution says that the President shall hold office for a
term of five years from the date he takes up his post.
 He may resign from his office by writing his resignation to the Vice-President of
India.

72.Who can initiate impeachment of the President?

A. 1/4th members of either House of Parliament

B. Half of the members of either House of Parliament
C. Half of the State Legislatures
D. 1/3rd members of any State Legislature

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

 The Impeachment charges can be initiated in either house of the Parliament

with atleast one-fourth members of that house signing the charges.
 A 14 day notice should be given to the President
 The house should pass this resolution with a majority of two-thirds of the
total membership of the house and then send it to the other house.
 The second house should investigate the charges and President has the right to
appear and to be represented at such an investigation.
 If the second house also passes the resolution with two-thirds majority of the total
membership of the house, then the President stands impeached from that date.
73.The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Six months

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| The Security Council is made up of only fifteen members, making it the smallest
of the principal organs. This group of fifteen includes five non-elected, permanent members
(China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States), leaving only ten
countries as the elected portion.

74.Which of the following article is related to Attorney General of India?

A. 75
B. 74
C. 76
D. 78

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

• Article 75 says that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President.

• Article 74 says that that there shall be a council of ministers with Prime Minister to aid and
advice the President who shall exercise his powers in accordance with this advice.

• Article 76 is related to Attorney General of India.

• Article 78 refers to Duties of Prime Minister as respects the furnishing of information to the
President, etc.

75.What is the tenure of judges of the ‘International Court of Justice’?

A. 5 years
B. 9 years
C. 6 years
D. 4 years

Answer ||| B
Solution ||| The International Court of Justice is composed of fifteen judges elected
to nine-year terms by the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council from a list of
people nominated by the national groups in the Permanent Court of Arbitration.

76.How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?

A. One-eighth
B. One-third
C. One-sixth
D. One-twelfth

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| Governor nominates one-sixth of the members of the State Legislative
Council from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience
in literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
Governor can nominate one member to the State Legislative Assembly from the Anglo-
Indian Community.

77.Who has the power to prorogue the Lok Sabha?

A. The Speaker
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
D. The President

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Prorogation means the termination of a session of the House by an order made by
the President under article 85(2) (a) of the Constitution. Usually, prorogation follows the
adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die.

78.The phrase "equality before law” used in Article-14 of Indian Constitution has been
borrowed from ?

A. U.S.A.
B. Germany
C. Britain
D. Greece

Answer ||| C
Solution ||| Article 14 is borrowed from the Britain constitution.
Hence, option C is correct.

79.Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by whom ?

A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Both A and B
D. President

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker and Deputy Speaker is elected by Loksabha from amongst its members as soon
as after the first meeting.
• The date of election is fixed by the President. Usually, the speaker remains in his office
during the life of the Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the principal spokesman of the House, and his decision in all
Parliamentary matters is final.
• Article 93 deals with Speaker of Lok Sabha.

80.What is the literal meaning of the term "Quo-Warranto"?

A. We command
B. To forbid
C. By what authority (or) warrant
D. None of the above

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| The literal meaning of the term “ Quo-Warranto “ is By what authority (or)
warrant. It is basically a writ among five types of writ in Indian constitution. Habeas Corpus,
Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto are five writs listed in Indian constitution.

81.From which country, the process of impeachment of President of India is taken?

A. UK
B. USA
C. Australia
D. Canada
Answer ||| B

Solution ||| The process of impeachment of President of India is taken from constitution
of USA. Some other features taken from USA constitution are - fundamental rights,
preamble, supreme court, office of vice president, independence of judiciary e.t.c.

82.Who acts as Chairman of Inter-State Council?

A. Attorney General of India

B. President
C. Vice President
D. Prime Minister

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Prime Minister of India acts as Chairman of Inter-State Council.

• Article 263 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.

• The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body.

• The body was formed by a Presidential Order dated 28 th May 1990 on the recommendation
of Sarkaria Commission.

• Chief Ministers of all states and UTs (having legislative Assembly) are its members.
Also, Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative Assembly are members.

• Six Union ministers of cabinet rank nominated by the Prime Minister are also its members.

83.

The two forms of democracy are

A. Parliamentary and Presidential
B. None of these
C. Monarchical and Republican
D. Parliamentary and King

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

 There are two major forms of democratic government.

1. Parliamentary
2. Presidential

84.The Union Executive of India consists of

A. The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministry & Prime Minister
B. The President and the Council of Ministry only
C. The President, the Vice-President, the Council of Ministers and Lok Sabha Speaker
D. The President, the Prime Ministers, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabh, Lok Sabha Speaker

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, and the
Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.

85.Subordinate courts are supervised by _________

A. Supreme Court
B. District Court
C. High Court
D. Parliament

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

 Subordinate courts or District courts of India are under administrative control of

the High Court of the State to which the district concerned belongs. They administer
justice in India at a district level.
  Hence option C is the right answer.

86.Who is presiding officer of the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament?

A. President
B. Vice president
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Prime Minister

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

 The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presiding officer of the Joint Session of the two
Houses of Parliament.
 The speaker is elected in the very first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general
elections.
 Serving for a term of 5 years, he is chosen from amongst the members of the Lok
Sabha, and is by convention a member of the ruling party or alliance.

87.What is the minimum age to be the governor of a state?

A. 21
B. 35
C. 45
D. 25

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Under Article 158, the Constitution stipulates the following conditions for the
Governor's office:

 Must be a citizen of India.

 Completed 35 years of age.
 Shall not be a member of both the House of Parliament or of the house of Legislative
Assembly or Legislative Council.
 Shall not hold the office of profit.

88.Which type municipality is in larger urban areas?

A. Municipal corporation
B. Municipal council
C. Nagar panchayat
D. Town area committee

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| 74th amendment act of 1992 provided three type of municipalities in india these
are Municipal corporation for larger urban areas, Municipal council for small urban
areas and nagar panchayat for an area is in transition from a rural area to urban area.

89.Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

A. Right to vote
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Equality
D. Right against exploitation

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| Right to Speak is not a Fundamental Right.

Below is the list of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution –
1) Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
2) Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
3) Right against exploitation (Article 23-24)
4) Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
5) Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
6) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32-35)

90.The tenure of the Rajya Sabha is__.

A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. Permanent
D. 2 years

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

 Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.

 However, one third of the members retire every second year, and are replaced by
newly elected members.
  Each member is elected for a term of six years.

91.Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner of State?

A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. President
D. None of these

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Governor of state appoints Chief Election Commissioner of State.

* Under article 165 He/She also appoints Advocate General of State.
* He also appoints the Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission and
Vice Chancellors of Universities.

92.Who administers the oath of office of the governor?

A. President
B. Chief Justice of High Court
C. Chief Minister
D. Advocate General of State

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The Governor's oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court
and in his absence, the senior most judge of that court.

* Article 159 of the constitution deals with the Governor's Oath Or Affirmations.

* Article 156 of the Constitution says that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of
the President.

* He/She may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the President.

* He/She holds office for a period of 5 years.

93.Chief Minister is appointed by______

A. Governor
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Vice President

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| Article 164 of the Indian Constitution stipulates , The Governor appoints
the Chief Minister of a State (leader of the party which has majority).
• The Governor also appoints the Advocate General and the Chairperson and members of
the State Public Service Commission.

94.When a state is under President's rule, who passes the budget of that state ?

A. President
B. Parliament
C. Finance Ministry
D. Governor

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| When a state is under President's rule then Parliament passes the budget of that
state.
• Under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in the state, President Rule
can be inforce .
• This is known as President’s Rule or Constitutional Emergency.
• During the President Rule, the Parliament gets the legislative power of the state.

95.The Constituent Assembly was setup on ___________.

A. 6th Dec 1946

B. 15th August 1945
C. 26th January 1950
D. None of these

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| •The Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly of India.
•It was set-up on 6th Dec 1946.
•It was framed by the accordance with the Cabinet Mission Plan under the Chairmanship of
Sachidanand Sinha.
•Dr Rajendra Prasad & HC Mukherjee were elected as the President & Vice President
respectively on 11th December 1946.
•BN Roy was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor.

96.How long can the Rajya Sabha delay a ordinary bill?

A. 14 days
B. 3 Months
C. 6 Months
D. 2 Months

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

According to Article 108 clause (1) (c) Rajya Sabha can delay a ordinary bill for
maximum period of 6 months.

* It is one of the requirements for calling a joint sitting.

* If 6 months have lapsed and President does not calls for Joint Sitting than this period is
indefinitely increased and there is no provision regarding it.

* Money Bills can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha only for 14 days.

97.Panchayati Raj is the subject of which list?

A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. None of These

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

 Panchayati Raj is the subject of state list.

 The Panchayats” covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O) and a new Eleventh
Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats.

98.Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under _________.

A. Legal rights
B. Fundamental rights
C. Human rights
D. Natural rights

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

 Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under Fundamental rights.

 Fundamental Right is a charter of rights contained in Part III of the Constitution of
India.
 It guarantees civil liberties such that all Indians can lead their lives in peace and
harmony as citizens of India.
 These include individual rights common to most liberal democracies, such as equality
before law, freedom of speech and expression, religious and cultural freedom and
peaceful assembly, freedom to practice religion, and the right to constitutional
remedies for the protection of civil rights by means of writs such as habeas corpus,
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto.

99.How long can the Vice President act as President?

A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 1 year
D. 6 months

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Vice President can act as President only for a maximum period of 6 months.
* The Vice-President can be re-elected any number of times.
* He acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to
his resignation, removal, death or otherwise.
* While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the Vice President does
not perform the duties of the office of Chairman of Rajya Sabha; those duties are
performed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

100.How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?

A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
D. Eight
Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Six fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution. They are

 right to equality (article 14-18)

 right to freedom(article 19-22)

 right against exploitation(article 23-24)

 right to freedom of religion(article 25-28)

 cultural and educational rights(article 29-30)

 right to constitutional remedies(article 32)

101.An ordinance promulgated by the President:

A. Will lapse automatically after 2 months.

B. Will fail on the expiration of six weeks from the meeting of the Parliament.
C. Will mechanically become law after 6 months.
D. Will continue to be in force till it is replaced by an act of the Parliament.

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Article 123:

Power of President to promulgate Ordinances:

- If at any time, exclude when both the Houses of Parliament are in the assembly, the
President is pleased that the circumstances exist which make it necessary for him to take
instant action, he may promulgate such Ordinance as the circumstances appear in need.
- An Ordinance promulgated under article 123 shall have the same power as an Act of
Parliament.

- shall be put before both House of Parliament and shall end to operate at the termination of
six weeks from the reassemble of Parliament, or, if before the end of that period resolutions
not approving it are passed by both Houses, upon the passing of the second of those
resolutions; and

- may be withdrawn at any time by the President clarification. Where the Houses of
Parliament are called to reunited on different dates, the period of six weeks shall be computed
from the later of those dates for the motive of this article.

102.Under Article – 102, on which ground/s can a Member of Parliament be disqualified

from the House -

1) If he is of unsound mind

2) If he is in-discharged insolvent

3) For occupying office of profit

Which of the above is/are correct regarding office of profit?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Article 102 provides for the disqualification of a Member of House of Parliament if -

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any
State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State,
or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament Explanation For the
purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the
Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister
either for the Union or for such State.

103.Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Fundamental Rights and
DPSP?

1) DPSP are mentioned in Article 12 to Article 35 of the Indian Constitution.

2) DPSP are classified into three types- Gandhian, Intellectual, and Liberal.

3) Fundamental Rights are mentioned in Part-III of the Indian Constitution.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Directive Principles of State Policies are the ideals that the state has to keep in mind while
formulating the policies and laws.

Whereas Fundamental Rights are responsible for the moral intellectual development of
citizens and help in maintaining political democracy in any state. , they are mentioned in
Part-III from Articles 12 to 35.

104.Which among the following is correct regarding the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

A. The constitutional position of Deputy Chairman created under the Article 89

B. The Deputy Chairman is subordinate to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
C. The Rajya Sabha elects the Deputy Chairman from amongst the members of Rajya Sabha
and Lok sabha.
D. The Deputy Chairman gives his resignation in writing to the President of India.

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• The Deputy Chairman is the constitutional position which is created under Article 89 of the
Constitution, which signifies that the Rajya Sabha shall choose one among its MPs to be the
Deputy Chairman as soon as the position becomes vacant.
• The Rajya Sabha elects the Deputy chairman from amongst its member (i.e. it is elected
solely by members of Rajya Sabha). The Deputy Chairman also plays a key role in ensuring
the smooth functioning of the House.

• The Deputy Chairman vacates his/her office in any among the following three cases:

o if he/she ceases to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.

o if he/she resigns by writing to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

o if he/she is removed by a resolution which is passed by a majority of all the Rajya Sabha
members. Such a resolution may be moved only after giving the fourteen days’ advance
notice.

• The Deputy Chairman is not the subordinate to the Chairman. He/she is directly responsible
to the Rajya Sabha only.

• The Deputy Chairman is also entitled to a regular salary & allowance which are fixed by the
Parliament and these are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

105.Which among the following is/are cases where the concept of simple majority is used?

1) To declare a financial emergency

2) Election of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

3) To pass Adjournment motion

Select the correct code:

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The Simple Majority refers to the majority of more than 50 percent of the members present
and voting. This is also called as functional majority or the working majority. The simple
majority is the most constantly used form of the majority in Parliamentary business. When
the constitution or the laws don’t specify the kind of majority needed, the simple majority is
then considered for the voting.

Below are the cases where the simple majority is used:

1. To pass Ordinary or Money or Financial bills.

2. To pass Non-Confidence Motion or Adjournment Motion or Censure Motion or

Confidence Motion.

3. For the removal of the Vice President majority required in the Lok Sabha is the simple
majority – A67(b).

4. To declare the financial emergency.

5. To declare the state emergency (i.e. President’s rule).

6. Election of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and State legislatures.

7. Constitution Amendment Bill under the Article 368 which needs to be ratified by the
states, require only simple majority at the State Legislatures.

106.Which among the given statements is correct with respect to the Election of Vice
President participation?

A. There can be no more than two nominated members in the Lok Sabha and twelve in the
Rajya Sabha.
B. There can be no more than three nominated members in the Lok Sabha and eleven in the
Rajya Sabha.
C. There can be no more than four nominated members in the Lok Sabha and ten in the Rajya
Sabha.
D. There can be no more than five nominated members in the Lok Sabha and nine in the
Rajya Sabha.

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Statement 1 is correct as there can be no more than two nominated members in the Lok Sabha
and twelve in the Rajya Sabha.

The Vice-President is elected indirectly by an Electoral College. An Indian citizen who can
qualify for the Vice President post if he/she is 35 years old or more.

An electoral college consisting below-given division of people to elect the Vice President.
The principle of election used to elect Vice President is the PR (Proportional Representation)
by means of the STV (Single Transferrable Vote.)

1. Elected members of both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

2. Nominated members of both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

There can be no more than two nominated members in the Lok Sabha and twelve in the Rajya
Sabha.

The state Legislative Assemblies in case of the unilateral legislatures and the state legislative
councils along with the Assemblies in case of the bilateral legislatures; do not participate in
the election of the Vice President.

107.Under which of the constitution amendment act, National commission for SC’s came into
existence by the bifurcation of combined national commission for SC’s & ST’s.

A. 88th Amendment act, 2003

B. 89th Amendment act, 2003
C. 91th Amendment act, 2003
D. 92nd Amendment act, 2003

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

National Commission for Scheduled Caste is a constitutional body under Article 338 of the
Indian constitution. It was established to provide safeguards against the exploitation of
Scheduled Caste. Also, to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and
cultural interests, special provisions were made in the Constitution. Earlier, it was combined
national commission for SC’s & ST’s but later, by 89th constitutional amendment act of 2003
bifurcates it into national commission for SCs and national commission of ST’s as two
different entities.

108.Which of the following is a constitutional body?

A. Niti Aayog
B. Central Information Commission
C. Central Bureau of Investigation
D. Advocate General of the State

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Advocate General of the state is a constitutional body under Article 165 of the Indian
constitution. He is the highest law officer of the state means he is entitled to appear before the
court of law within the state to represent the state government in any dispute/case. He has the
responsibility to defend and protect the interest of the state government. The office of the
Advocate General in the state as similar to the office of Attorney General of India. He is
appointed by the governor and should be qualified to be appointed as a judge of a high court
and he also takes part in the proceeding of the state legislature, but without a right to vote.

Niti Aayog, Central Information Commission, Central Bureau of Investigation are the Non-
constitutional bodies

109.CAG submits audit report to the president on which of the following accounts:

A. Appropriation account
B. Finance account
C. Account of public undertaking
D. All of the above

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The CAG submits three audit report to the president. Further, the president lay these reports
before both the houses of parliament. After this, the public accounts committee examines
them and reports it finding to the parliament

All these accounts are as follows:

1. Appropriation account compare the actual expenditure with the expenditure sanctioned

2. Finance account shows the annual receipts and disbursement of the union government

3. Account of the public undertaking is audited by CAG and submit an annual report to the
president.

110.Term of the office of the advocate general of a state:

A. 5 year
B. 6 year
C. Till the pleasure of the governor
D. Not fixed

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Article 165 of the Indian constitution deals with the Advocate General for the State, He is
responsible to assist the state government in all its legal matters. He has the responsibility to
defend and protect the interest of the state government. The Governor appoints the Advocate
General of the state and the person who is appointed should be qualified to be appointed a
judge of a high court that means, he should be a citizen of India and should have held a
judicial office for ten years or been an advocate of a high court for ten years. The constitution
does not provide for fixed tenure to the Advocate General. Governor determines the
remuneration of the Advocate General of the state.

111.Which of the following pairs of lists and contents is/are correctly matched?

A) State List : Capitation taxes

B) Concurrent List : Inns and inn-keepers

C) Union List : Lighthouses, including lightships, beacons

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The Seventh Schedule (Article 246) to the Constitution of India defines and specifies
allocation of powers and functions between Union & States in form of three lists: (i) Union
List (Contains 98 Subjects), (ii) State List (Contains 59 Subjects) and (iii) Concurrent
List (Contains 52 Subjects).

* Capitation taxes, Inns and inn-keepers are listed in the State list.

* Lighthouses, including lightships, beacons is listed in the Union list.

112.Which of the following statements is not correct about Gram Nyayalayas?

A. Nyayadhikari (presiding officer of the Gram Nyayalayas) is appointed by the High Court.
B. The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C. The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes, specified in
the 1st and 2 nd schedule of the Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008
D. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court with its seat located at headquarters of the
intermediate Panchayat.
Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 provides for the establishment of the Gram Nyayalayas at the
grass root level for the purpose of providing access to justice to the citizens at their
doorsteps. The Act came into force from 2 October 2009.

* The Gram Nyayalayas are mobile courts that exercise the powers of both criminal and civil
courts.

* The seat of the Gram Nyayalaya is located at the headquarters of the intermediate
Panchayat.

* The Nyayadhikari (presiding officer of the Gram Nyayalayas) is appointed by the State
Government in consultation with the High Court.

* The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any
rule made by the high court.

113.Who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?

A. Governors of States within their respective States

B. Former Presidents
C. Deputy Prime Minister
D. Chief Justice of India

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The following table contains the order of precedence approved by the president:
114.Which law prescribes that all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English
language?

A. Article 145 of the Constitution of India

B. Article 348 of the Constitution of India
C. The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
D. An Act passed by the Parliament

Answer ||| B
Solution |||

Article 348 deals with the language to be used in the Supreme Court and in the High Courts
and for Acts, Bills, etc.

the authoritative texts:

I. of all Bills to be introduced or amendments thereto to be moved in either House of

Parliament or in the House or either House of the Legislature of a State,

II. of all Acts passed by Parliament or the Legislature of a State and of all Ordinances
promulgated by the President or the Governor of a State, and

III. of all orders, rules, regulations and bye laws issued under this Constitution or under any
law made by Parliament or the Legislature of a State, shall be in the English language

115.Which one of the following Articles were defended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on the plea
that it would be used as ‘a matter of last resort’?

A. Article 352
B. Article 359
C. Article 356
D. Article 368

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Article 356 states that the president’s rule can be imposed on any state of India due to the
failure of the constitutional machinery. In other words, the state government will cease to
function and the central government will directly administer the state. This is done if the
President receives a report from the Governor of the state or is convinced that the situation of
the state is such that the state government cannot function without the interference of the
central government.

Article 352 is related to the proclamation of National Emergency by the President if he/she is
convinced that security of the country or any of its part is in grave danger, whether by war,
external aggression, or armed rebellion.

Article 359 authorizes the president to suspend the right to move to any court for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency

Article 359 gives the power to the Parliament to amend the Consitution and its procedure.
This can be done by addition, repeal, or variation of any provision of the Constitution by the
established procedure.
116.What is the ground on which the Supreme Court can refuse relief under Article 32?

A. The aggrieved person can get remedy from another court

B. That disputed facts have to be investigated
C. That no fundamental right has been infringed
D. That the petitioner has not asked for the proper writ applicable to his/her case

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Article 32 of the Indian Consitution is related to the remedies for the enforcement of the
Fundamental Rights. The aggrieved person can get remedy from another court such as the
Supreme Court or High Court if his issues aren’t solved. It is called the soul of the
Constitution. The Supreme court becomes the defender and guarantor of fundamental rights.
The person can also approach the supreme court directly without any way of appeal. It can be
invoked only to get a remedy related to fundamental rights and not any other legal right.

117.Which of the following NOT a task performed by Election Commission of India?

1) To prepare electoral rolls.

2) Conduct of election to the office of the President and Vice- President of India.

3) Disqualify a Member of Parliament after the elections.

Choose the correct answer from the given code:

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Key functions of the Election Commission of India are:

• Conduct elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, to the office of the President and Vice-
President of India.

• Registration of political parties.

• Regulates the campaign expenditure for candidates.

• Implements Model Code of Conduct.

• To set down general rules for election.

• Determine constituencies (delimitation) and to prepare electoral rolls.

• Allots election symbols to different political parties and individual contestants.

• Appoint tribunal to decide upon the disputes arising in elections ( only to parliament and
State Legislatures).

• Recommends for disqualification of members after the elections in case of violation of

guidelines.

• Recommends Supreme Court and High Courts in case, a candidate is found guilty of
dishonest practices.

• To facilitate the voters to know where he/she is enrolled as a voter at a particular polling
station and what is his/her serial number in the Electoral roll, the Commission has directed
that voter slip along with Photo (wherever present in the roll) will be distributed to all
enrolled voters by the District Election Officer. It has also been directed that the said voter
slip should be in the languages in which electoral roll is published for that Assembly
Constituency.

118.The dissolution of Lok Sabha does not affect which of the following?

A. Bill originated in the Rajya Sabha and Pending in Lok Sabha

B. motions or resolutions pending in the Lok Sabha
C. Bills returned by President for reconsideration.
D. a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Articles 107 and Article 108 of the Indian Constitution deal with the provisions of
Introduction, Passing and Lapsing of the Bill in both Houses.

The following bills will have no effect (do not lapse) even after the dissolution of Lok Sabha:

• Bill that is pending in Rajya Sabha and has not yet been passed to the Lok Sabha.

• Bills that have cleared both the Houses but are pending assent from the President.

• Bill passed by both Houses but has been returned by the President for reconsideration of
Rajya Sabha.
• Pending bills and all pending assurances that are to be examined by the Committee on
Government Assurances.

119.Which one of the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) of India is NOT correct?

A. He is appointed by the President of India

B. He can be removed from office in the same way as the judge of the Supreme Court of
India.
C. The CAG Is eligible for further office under the government of India after he has ceased to
hold his office
D. The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The Comptroller and Auditor General is a constitutional body under Article 148 of the Indian
Constitution that acts as an auditor of government finances. Its independence is ensured
through several provisions of the Constitution, which include-

* He is appointed by the President.

* He is provided with a fixed tenure of six years or 65 years of age, whichever is early.

* He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state,
after he ceases to hold his office.

* His salary and other service conditions though determined by the Parliament cannot be
varied to his disadvantage after appointment.

* The administrative expenses of the office of CAG, including all salaries, allowances and
pensions of persons serving in that office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

120.Consider the following statements regarding the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
1992 -

1) The 12th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains eighteen functional items of the
Municipality.

2) It provides for the Constitutional obligation of the state government to adopt the system of
municipalities in accordance with the act.

3) The members of the municipality will be partly elected and partly nominated.
4) Parliament would make provisions for the elections to municipalities.

Choose the incorrect statements from above -

A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 -

* The act has added a new Part IX-A and Schedule - XII to the Constitution of India; entitled
‘The Municipalities’.

* The Schedule - XII contains a total of 18 functional items of Municipalities.

* State Governments are under Constitutional obligation to adopt the new system of
Municipalities in accordance with the act.

* Compositions - all the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people of
the Municipal Area.

* The State Legislature and not Parliament may make provisions with respect to all matters
relating to elections.

121.The declaration of National Emergency has to be approved within which time period by
the Parliament?

A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 4 months

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The National Emergency is proclaimed by the President of India, however after proclamation
it has to be approved by the Parliament within one month. If not, the Emergency ceases to
exist and if it has been approved by both the Houses of Parliament within 1 month. It will
continue to be in operation for 6 months.
122.How many times financial emergency has been declared in India

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

In India, the Financial Emergency has never been declared. However, National Emergency
has been declared three times and President’s Rule has been imposed hundreds of times in
Indian States.

123.What is duration within which proclamation of President’s Rule shall be approved by

both the houses of Parliament?

A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 8 months

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

For President’s Rule and Financial Emergency the time period within which Parliament shall
approve the emergency is 2 months. For National Emergency it is 1 month.

124.The provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 are not applicable to tribal
areas of which state?

A. Nagaland
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Gujrat
D. Sikkim

Answer ||| A

Solution |||
.

125.The retirement age of the member of State Public Commission Service is:-

A. 58 yrs
B. 60 yrs
C. 62 yrs
D. 65 yrs

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

• State Public service commission established by the government of India act 1935.

• It’s comprises a chairman and other members are appointed by a Governor.

• The constitution of India gave it a constitutional status as autonomous bodies. The State
Public Service Commissions were constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of
India.

126.Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1935:

1) It introduced dyarchy in the provinces

2) it abolished the principle of communal representation

3) it provided for the establishment of Joint Public Service Commission for two or more
provinces

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

* Government of India Act of 1935 abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced
‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
* Government of India Act of 1935 further extended the principle of communal
representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes),
women and labour (workers).

* Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of not only a Federal
Public Service Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint
Public Service Commission for two or more provinces.

127.Consider the following statements about Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT).

1) VVPAT is a method of providing feedback to voters using a ballot less voting system.

2) VVPAT along with EVMs was used on a large-scale for the first time in India in all
assembly seats of 40 in Mizoram Legislative Assembly election, 2013.

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) or Verifiable Paper Record (VPR) is a method
of providing feedback to voters using a ballot less voting system.

• A VVPAT is intended as an independent verification system for voting machines designed

to allow voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly, to detect possible election fraud or
malfunction, and to provide a means to audit the stored electronic results.

• VVPAT along with EVMs was used on a large-scale for the first time in India in 10
assembly seats out of 40 in Mizoram Legislative Assembly election, 2013.

• VVPAT -fitted EVMs was used in entire Goa state in the 2017 assembly elections, which
was the first time that an entire state in India saw the implementation of VVPAT.

• A fundamental hurdle in the implementation of paper audit trails is the performance and
authority of the audit.

128.Establishment of Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) for two or more state-
required, which of the following provision:
A. Approval from the concern states governor
B. State assemblies pass the resolution for JSPSC
C. UPSC formed JSPSC for the two or more state
D. Two or more state public service commission officially joined and formed JSPSC

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Two or more than two states may agree that there shall be one Public Service Commission for
that group of States, and if a resolution to that effect is passed by the States Legislatures
(those states), Parliament may by law provide for the appointment of a Joint State Public
Service Commission to serve the needs of those States.

129.Which of the following Article is related to Money Bill?

A. Article 110
B. Article 123
C. Article 89
D. Article 141

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Article 110 of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions related to the Money Bill.

* A Money Bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.

* If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker thereon
is final.

* Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha
within 14 days, with or without recommendations.

* The pre-consent of President is required for a money bill to be introduced in the

Parliament.

130.Article 249 and Article 312 are related to

A. Union Public Service Commission

B. Rajya Sabha's Special power
C. Finance Commission
D. Centre-State relation

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Both the Articles (article 249 and Article 312) deal with Rajya Sabha's Special power in the
national interest (a legislative power).

Article 249 says that If the Rajya Sabha declares by Resolution supported by two-thirds of
the members present and voting (special majority), that it is necessary to expedient in the
national interest that Parliament must make laws with respect any matter enumerated in the
State List then, Parliament is competent to make laws on such kind of issues for whole or part
of India. This is a very significant feature which makes the importance of Rajya Sabha in
keeping the balance of law-making powers between Union and States.

Article 312 of the Constitution gives us a national-level judicial service. In spite of this
particular provision, its establishment remains stranded. It deals with the creation of one or
more All India Services, and this would be a brief example of an effective majority. Here,
also two-third members are required (present and voting), but the catch is that vacancies in
the Raj Sabha have to be separated from the total strength.

131.The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 may be
seen as giving effect to which of the following Fundamental Rights?

1) Equality before the Law

2) Right against Discrimination

3) Abolition of Untouchability

4) Right to Freedom of Religion

Select the correct answer using the code given below -

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer ||| A

Solution |||
The Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is an Act to
prevent the commission of offences of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled Castes
and the Scheduled Tribes

Provisions of the Act provide for Special Courts for the trial of such offences and for the
relief and rehabilitation of the victims of such offences and for matters connected therewith
or incidental thereto, thus guaranteeing Right to Equality before law.

The Act was specifically enacted to prevent and protect SC/STs from atrocities committed
against them by non-SCs/STs. It became the need of the hour as the existing provisions of the
Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 and the Indian Penal Code were found inadequate to
prevent and eliminate these offences.

132.Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while
not being a member of either House?

A. The Solicitor General of India

B. The Vice-President of India
C. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
D. The Attorney General of India

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The Attorney General of India is the only person under the Indian system that can participate
in the proceedings of the Parliament or any Parliamentary Committee but cannot vote. He has
the right to participate in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament and their Joint
Sitting, and any committee of Parliament, in which, he can be nominated as a member
without the right to vote.

133.The idea of single citizenship in Indian constitution has been borrowed from:

A. British Constitution
B. Canadian Constitution
C. Government of India Act of 1935
D. Soviet Constitution

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The following ideas have been borrowed from British Constitution:

• Parliamentary government

• Rule of Law

• Legislative procedure

• Single citizenship

• Cabinet system

• Prerogative writs

• Parliamentary privileges

• Bicameralism

134.Which of the following is/are true regarding Urban Local Bodies in India?

1) The Constitution 74th Amendment Act envisages three types of urban local bodies, namely
Municipal Corporation, Municipality and City Council.
2) 'Municipal Corporations are established in cities with population greater than 1 million.
3) Bombay and Calcutta Corporations were the first Municipal Corporations that were
established during British time.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. Only 2

C. 1 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was a breakthrough in the history of Urban
Local Bodies. The subjects are mentioned in Schedule 12 of Indian constitution.

74th amendment act envisages three types of urban local bodies, namely Nagar Panchayat,
Municipal Council and Municipal Corporation.

Municipal Corporation are established in cities with population greater than 1 million.
First Municipal Corporation of India was setup in 1687 at Madras followed by Bombay and
Delhi Municipal Corporations.

135.In which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of States from
external aggression and internal disturbance?

A. Article 352
B. Article 358
C. Article 356
D. Article 355

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Article 355- it shall be the duty of the union to protect States against external aggression
and internal disturbance.

• Article 352 - if the president is satisfied that a grave emergency exists, whereby the security
of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external
aggression or armed rebellion, then the president may be proclamation make a declaration of
emergency.

• Article 356 - it deals with provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States,
also known as President’s rule.

• Article 358- it deals with the suspensions of provisions of article 19 during the emergency.

136.Which one of the following is not related to the powers of the Governor?

A. Diplomatic and military powers

B. Power to appoint Advocate General
C. Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature
D. Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| Diplomatic Powers

The international treaties and agreements are negotiated and concluded on behalf of the
President. However, they are subject to the approval of the Parliament. He represents India in
international forums and affairs and sends and receives diplomats like ambassadors, high
commissioners, and so on.
Military Powers
He is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India. In that capacity, he appoints the
chiefs of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force. He can declare war or conclude peace,
subject to the approval of the Parliament.
These powers are exclusive to the President and not given to the Governor.

137.Which one of the following statement about the process of the Parliament to make new
States is not correct?

A. The Parliament may be law form a new State and alter the boundaries or names of existing
States.
B. A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament except on the recommendation
of the President.
C. A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to the Legislature of the affected
State.
D. Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The First schedule of the constitution has the list of all the states and union territories. A new
state in India can be created by three different means as follows: Breaking / reorganizing an
existing state(s) Giving status of full-fledged state to a union territory Acquiring a new
territory.

Article - 3 empowers the parliament to create new states and alter the areas, boundaries or
names of existing States by making suitable law. Such a law will fall under the purview of
Article 368.

A Union Territory may be upgraded to a full-fledged state by making suitable law in

Parliament.

138.Which of the following laws have been repealed by the Constitution of India?
1). The Government of India Act, 1935
2). The Indian Independence Act, 1947
3). The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
4). The Preventive Detenation Act, 1950
Select thecorrect answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 4

Answer ||| A
Solution ||| · A total of 125 Central laws, which had become obsolete, have been repealed by
the Narendra Modi Government, with the President of India giving his assent to two
Repealing and Amending Bills passed by the Parliament in this regard.
· On 13 May 2015, the President gave his assent to the Repealing and Amending Act, 2015,
which repealed a total of 35 obsolete laws of the Centre. Thereafter, on 14 May 2015, the
President gave his assent to the Repealing and Amending (Second ) Act, 2015, which has
repealed a total of 90 obsolete Acts (out of which, in 2 obsolete Acts, only certain sections
have been repealed instead of repealing the whole Acts). Both these Repealing And
Amending Acts have been notified in the official gazette on 13 May and 14 May respectively.

139.Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian
Political System?

A. Dual citizenship
B. Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments
C. Superemacy of the Constitution
D. Authority of the Courts to interpret the Consitution

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| The Indian government's Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) and Person of Indian
Origin (PIO) programs are often incorrectly described as offering "dual nationality" or "dual
citizenship." This is not true, as India does not recognize dual citizenship.

140.Which of the following statement is correct about the National Human Rights
Commission?

A. The Chairperson of the NHRC should be Chief Justice of India only.

B. The tenure of the Chairperson of the NHRC is fixed at a maximum of Five years.
C. The Chairman of the NHRC is eligible for any further employment under the Central or
State Government.
D. The Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Caste is an ex-officio member
of NHRC.

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 brought the following changes to the
NHRC Body:
141.How many types of writs are provided in the Indian Constitution -

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

There are five types of Writs that are provided in the Indian Constitution –

a) Habeas Corpus.

b) Mandamus.

c) Certiorari.

d) Prohibition.

e) The Writ of Quo-Warranto.

142.How many articles were there originally in the Indian Constitution

A. 395
B. 397

C. 403

D. 410

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Original Indian Constitution had 22 parts and 395 Articles & 8 Schedules. Later 3 parts were
added to it.

At present -

Total Schedules are 12

Total Parts are 25 Parts

Total Articles = 444

143.The emergency provision has been borrowed from which of the Constitution?

A. USA
B. Germany
C. Britain
D. France

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The emergency provisions included in the Indian Constitution has been taken from the
Weimar Constitution of the Germany.

144.Attorney General of India:

A. Is a constitutional body under Article 76

B. Holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

C. Is debarred from private legal practice

D. Cannot take part in the proceedings of Parliament

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• Attorney General of India is a Constitutional body under Article 76. He is the highest law
officer in the country.

• Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the President. He holds office during the pleasure of
the President and hence can be removed by President any time.

• The Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He does not fall in the
category of government servants and therefore, he is not debarred from private legal practice.

• In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right to speak and to
take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament.

145.Who is the final authority to interpret the constitution?

A. President
B. The Parliament
C. The Lok Sabha
D. supreme Court

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The ultimate authority to interpret our Constitution is the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court
of India is the final judicial forum and the final court of appeal under the Constitution of
India, with the power of constitutional review.

146.The primary objectives of NITI Aayog are:

1) to achieve Sustainable Development Goals

2) to enhance cooperative federalism

3) to eliminate poverty

4) to streamlines policies of government

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

* The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a
resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think
Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs. While
designing strategic and long term policies and programmes for the Government of India,
NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.

* The primary objectives of NITI Aayog are to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and
to enhance cooperative federalism by allowing the participation of State Governments in
formulation and implementation of public policy.

147.Which of the following matters deems fit to consider a bill as a Money Bill?
1) The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
2) The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3) The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local
authority.
4) The audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the money bill. It states that a bill is
deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the
following matters:
1) The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
2) The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
3) The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the
payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
4) The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
5) Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing
the amount of any such expenditure;
6) The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account
of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of
a state; or
7) Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
However, a bill is not to be deemed to be a money bill by reason only that it provides for:
1) The imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or
2) The demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered; or
3) The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local
authority or body for local purposes.

148.Which one of the following is not considered a part of the Legislature of States?

A. The Governor
B. The Legislative Assembly
C. The Legislative Council
D. The Chief Minister

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| For every state, there is a legislature, which consists of Governor and one House
or, two Houses as the case may be.

149.Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is
not correct?

A. It is not a discretionary power.

B. The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.
C. The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session.
D. The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| The exercise of ordinance-making power is not discretionary. The governor
exercises this power on
the advice of the cabinet.
150.The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by -

A. Law Commission
B. Santhanam Committee
C. Shah Commission
D. Administrative Reforms Commission

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

In November 1965, the Government of India headed by Lal Bahadur Shastri announced its
intention of setting up an Administrative Reforms Commission to conduct a comprehensive
examination of public administration in India.

The Commission was formally constituted in January 1966 with Morarji Desai as its
chairman. In 1970, at the end of the prescribed term of the Commission, the Commission
consisted of K. Hanumanthaiya (Chairman) and four other members.

The main recommendation regarding Grievance Redressal Machinery was –

“two-tier machinery to redress the grievances of public, i.e. Lokpal and Lokayukta”

The Lokpal should deal with complaints against Ministers and Secretaries of Central
Government as well as in the States. The Lokayukta, one for the Centre and one in each State,
should attend complaints against the rest of the bureaucracy.

151.The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains

A. provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas

B. the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
C. a list of recognized languages
D. provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on the grounds of
defection

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246. It gives the division of powers between
Union ans states. It is having list namely:

• Union List: presently, it has 100 subjects on which only the Union Government can make
legislations.

• State list: presently, it has 61 subjects on which State Government can make legislations.
• Concurrent list: presently, it has 52 subjects which comes in the purview of both Union and
State Governments.

Sixth Schedule is given under article from 244 and 275. It contains the matter related to
administration of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Eight Schedule from Article 344 and 351 contains a list of recognized languages. It has a
total of 22 languages.

Tenth Schedule is given under article 102 and 191. It is having provision related
disqualification of the Members of Parliament and State Legislature on the ground of
defection. This provision was added by the 52 nd Amendment Act of 1985. It is also known as
the Anti - Defection Law.

152.Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held to –

A. elect the President of India

B. elect the Vice President of India
C. adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill
D. consider and pass a bill on which the two Houses disagree

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Legislative Powers of the President –

The President can call a Joint Sitting of the two Houses of Parliament in case of a deadlock
due to disagreement between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on a Non – Money Bill. So
far thrice such joint sittings have been summoned.

Article 108 of the Indian Constitution deals with Joint Sitting.

153.The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the Constitution of India by:

A. 44th Amendment Act

B. 52nd Amendment Act
C. 42nd Amendment Act
D. 34th Amendment Act

Answer ||| C

Solution |||
Secularism the word defined as an equal treatment to all religion by the state. It is especially
in the Indian context. India follows positive secularism.

After the 42nd Amendment Act of Constitution of India enacted in 1976, Secularism word
added in the Preamble. It describes the Indian state as a Secular country. However, the Indian
constitution and Indian laws do not define the relationship between the religion and state.

154.The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?

A. Right to reside and settle in any part of India

B. Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
C. Right to practice any profession
D. Right to form co-operative societies

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property - At present Fundamental Rights does not
consider property rights.

By the 44th Amendment Act, 1977 the right to acquire, hold and dispose of the property as a
Fundamental Right has been eliminated. So, Article 300 (A) was inserted to affirm to save
property by authority of law.

In a nutshell, the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property is a Constitutional right but
not a Fundamental Right.

155.Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?

A. Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative assembly of a state
B. The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single
transferable vote
C. 1/3rd of its permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President
D. It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Rajya Sabha is upper house of the parliament. It is playing the role of permanent house in
the legislature. The members in Rajya Sabha re-elected by the elected members of state
legislative assemblies and indirectly elected from union territories by members of an electoral
college specially constituted in Delhi and Puducherry. President nominates 12 members from
the field of art, literature, science and social service.

• C onstitution has adopted proportional representation by means of single transferrable vote

for the election of Rajya Sabha.

• Rajya Sabha is a permanent body, however one third of its members retire every second
year. It cannot be dissolved by President.

156.An election commissioner can be removed from office on the recommendation of

A. The chief Justice of India

B. The chief Election Commissioner
C. The president of India
D. The Parliament

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

An election Commissioner can be removed from the office by the President only on the
recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner although they are apoointed by
President only.

157.Who among the following is the ex officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council?

A. The President of India

B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The union Home Minister
D. The union Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Development of North
Eastern Region

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

North Eastern council was created by a separate act of Parliament, The North eastern council
Act of 1971. It members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim.

The union home minister is the ex-officio chairman and the Ministry of state (independent
Charge) development of North Eastern region is the ex officio vice chairman of North eastern
council.
It is to formulate a unified and coordinated regional plan covering matters of common
importance.

158.In which of the following cases, the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’ was laid down -

A. Minerva Mills Case

B. Shankari Prasad Case
C. Keshavananda Bharti Case
D. Golak Nath Case

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

In Keshavananda Bharti Case, 1973, the Supreme Court laid down a ‘New Doctrine of the
Basic Structure’ of the Constitution.

In Minerva Mills Case 1980, the court held that Judicial Review is a basic feature of the
Constitution.

In Shankari Prasad Case 1951, SC ruled that the power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution under Article - 368 also includes the power to amend the Fundamental Rights.

In Golak Nath Case 1967, SC reversed its earlier stand and declared that Fundamental Rights
are ‘transcendental and immutable’.

159.The President of India can issue the proclamation of Emergency -

A. on the advice of the Prime Minister

B. on the advice of the Council of Ministers
C. in his own discretion
D. when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been
communicated to him in writing

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Proclamation of National Emergency (Article 352) –

The Constitution of India has provided for the imposition of emergency caused by war,
external aggression or internal rebellion. This is described as the National Emergency. This
type of emergency can be declared by the President of India. According to the 44th
Amendment of the Constitution, the President can declare such an emergency only if the
Cabinet recommends in writing to do so. Such a proclamation of emergency has to be
approved by both the Houses of Parliament by the absolute majority of the total membership
of the Houses as well as 2/3 majority of members present and voting within one month;
otherwise the proclamation ceases to operate.

160.The Speaker of the Lok sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

A. President of India
B. Prime Minister of India
C. Vice President of India
D. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

After the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the Speaker stopped to be a member of the
House, but does not vacate the office.

The speaker can resign any time from office by giving resignation it to the Deputy Speaker
by her hand.

Removal of the Speaker can be done only on a Resolution of the House passed by a majority
of all the then members of the House.

161.Which one of the following statements about the Union Executive in India is correct?

A. According to the Constitution of India, the total number of members of the Council of
Ministers cannot exceed 20% of the total number of Members of the House of the People
B. The rank of the different Ministers is determined by the President
C. The Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
D. Only a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Council of the Minister
shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok sabha. The provision was added by the
91st amendment act of 2013

Prime Minister recommends the persons who can be as Ministers by the President. The
President can appoint only those persons as ministers. PM is appointed by the President,
while the other ministers are appointed by the President on the aid advice of the PM.
162.Who amongst the following elects the President of India?

1) Elected members of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

2) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states

3) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The President of India is not elected directly by the people. He is elected indirectly by the
members of the Electoral College consisting of:

1. Elected members of both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

2. Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states

3. Elected members of the legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry.

Note:

1. No Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha participate.

2. No members of state legislative councils whether elected or nominated can participate in

the President's elections.

3. No nominated members of the legislative assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry participate

in the President's elections.

163.Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a ‘Federal System’-

A. There are two distinct levels of government

B. The responsibilities and powers of each level of government are clearly defined in a
written Constitution
C. There is no separation of powers between the legislative and executive branches of
government
D. A Supreme Court is entrusted with the responsibility of interpreting these provisions and
arbitrating in matters of dispute

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Characteristic of a Federal System:

* Dual Government: separate government at Centre and state

* Writen Constitution: lays rules and provision regarding different laws and their amenability.

* Distribution of Subjects among Centre and States: to strengthen the federal relation
between Centre and States.

* The supremacy of Constitution.

* Rigidity of the Constitution in which amending certain articles require passing by different
states.

* Authority of Supreme Courts in matters of Centre-State and Inter-State dispute resolution.

164.Which one of the following agencies enforces the laws on food

security in India?

A. FDA
B. WHO
C. FSSAI
D. FAO

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

FSSAI is the sole agency in India for enforcing the laws on food security.

The food safety and standards authority of India has been established
under the ‘Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006’ by the parliamentary
provision. It was a statute in the country for food safety and regulation in
India.

It is basically responsible for protecting and promoting public health. It

was through the regulation and supervision of food safety.