C) Destinations: Decision Science MCQ by Satish N Pawar Unit 1-5 (Bold Option Is Correct One) Unit 1
C) Destinations: Decision Science MCQ by Satish N Pawar Unit 1-5 (Bold Option Is Correct One) Unit 1
C) Destinations: Decision Science MCQ by Satish N Pawar Unit 1-5 (Bold Option Is Correct One) Unit 1
Unit 1
a) Transportation
b) Sources
c) Destinations
d) Origins
a) Transportation
b) Sources
c) Destinations
d) Cost
Q 3) The objectives such as minimizing the total transportation cost are considered as
a) Assignment Models
b) Transportation Models
c) Destination Models
d) Origins Models
Q 5) In an assignment problem,
a) One agent can do parts of several tasks
b) One task can be done by several agents
c) Each agent is assigned to its own best task
d) None of the above
Q 11) What is said to be present when total demand equals total supply in a transportation
problem?
a) An equilibrium problem
b) A harmonized problem
c) A balanced problem
d) All of the above.
Q12) Which of the following statements is accurate with regard to assignment problems?
a) A job can be assigned to more than one workman.
b) Only one workman can be assigned to each job.
c) A workman can be assigned to more than one job.
d) both a and c
a) Identity matrix
b) Rectangular matrix.
c) Transpose matrix.
d) Square matrix.
Q 14) Which of the following accurately describes step of the NWCM , after making the initial
allocation of units in the northwest cell?
a) Move down first, and then move right.
b) Move right first, and then move down.
c) Move right or down first, depending on whether the demand requirement or the
supply
capacity, respectively, is exhausted first.
d) Move diagonally first.
a) At a maximum cost
b) At a minimum cost
c) At a minimum profit
d) At a minimum revenue
Q 20) In North-West Corner Rule, if the demand in the column is satisfied one must move to
the _________.
a) Left cell in the next column.
b) Down cell in the next row.
c) Right cell in the next column.
d) Left cell in the next row.
Q 21) In transportation problem if total supply greater than total demand we add _________.
( if supply points are along row wise)
a) Dummy row with cost 0.
b) Dummy column with cost 0.
c) Dummy row with cost 1.
d) Dummy column with cost 1.
Q 22) When the problem involves the allocation of n different facilities to n different tasks, it is
often termed as
a) Transportation problem
b) Assignment problem.
c) Queue problem
d) Facility planning
Q 23) In an assignment problem
Q 32) Which of the following is not a step in the Hungarian method of assignment?
a) Find the opportunity-cost table
b) Draw horizontal and vertical line to cover all zeros of opportunity- cost table
c) Enumerate all possible solutions
d) Revise the opportunity-cost table
Q 33) The minimum number of lines covering all zeros in a opportunity- cost table of order n can
be:
a) at the most n
b) at the least n
c) at most n-1
d) n+1
Q 34) Which of the following methods is used only with the assignment problem?
a) Hungarian method
b) Simplex Method
c) Stepping Stone Method
d) VAM
Q 35) In a transportation problem, we must make the number of -------------- and ----------- equal
a) Destination, sources
b) Units supplied, units demanded
c) Columns, rows
d) Warehouses, supplier
Q 36) Maximization case in transportation problem the objective is to __________.
a) Maximize the total profit.
b) Minimize the total loss .
c) Neither maximize nor minimize.
d) Optimal cost.
Q 37) The Least Cost method in TP requires that we start allocating units to shipping routes in
the
a) Middle cell.
b) Lowest cost cell of the table.
c) Lower right corner of the table.
d) Upper left-hand corner of the table.
a) Two Largest
b) Largest and smallest
c) Smallest two
d) None of them
Q 47) In Transportation problem the preferred method of obtaining either optimal or very
close to the optimal solution is
a) North West Corner rule.
b) Least cost method.
c) Vogel’s approximation method.
d) Simplex method.
Q 48) In Maximization of transportation problem, we convert problem into minimization by
subtracting all the elements from the
a) Zero.
b) One.
c) Highest element.
d) Lowest element.
Q 49) In assignment problem with 4 persons and 5 jobs
5
70
100
30 100
R D L K Capacity
A 40 40 30 20 200
B 80 60 0 10 100
Solution is
a) Alternate solution
b) Optimal
c) Degenerate
d) None of the above
Q 54) Which of the following method is used to verify the optimality of the current feasible
solution of the transportation problem?
a. Least cost method.
b. Vogel’s method.
c. North West Corner Rule.
d. MODI method.
Q 55) The following represent solution of Transportation Problem
75
75
25
R D Capacity
A 40 40 100
B 50 60 75
Demand 75 100
Solution is
a) Alternate solution
b) Optimal
c) Degenerate
d) Not optimal
Q 56) In revising the opportunity cost table of the assignment problem, after drawing lines
through all of the zeros
a) Smallest uncovered number is added to all zeros.
b) Smallest uncovered number is added to all uncovered numbers.
c) Smallest uncovered number is added to all numbers at the intersection of lines.
d) Largest uncovered number is added to all numbers at the intersection of lines.
Q 57) A company must assign mechanics to each of three jobs. The time involved varies
according to individual abilities. Table shows how many minutes it takes each mechanic
to perform each job. If the optimal assignments are made, how many total minutes would
be required for completing the jobs?
J1 J2 J3
W1 5 10 15
W2 12 3 10
W3 12 10 4
a. 12
b. 4
c. 17
d. 16
Q 58) For optimality test in case of assignment problem we require to
Q 59) In an assignment problem with four activities and four workers following is relative loss
Matrix
Worker 1 2 3 4
Cutting 0 0 3 1
Assembly 1 0 0 2
Finishing 0 5 0 0
Packaging 1 2 0 1
Solution is
a) Multiple Solution
b) Unique optimal
c) Not optimal
d) Unbalanced
Q 60) In an assignment problem with four activities and four workers following is relative loss
Matrix
Worker 1 2 3 4
A 0 1 1 1
B 0 1 2 2
C 2 0 0 2
D 1 2 0 0
Current Solution is
a) Multiple Solution
b) Unique optimal
c) Not optimal
d) Unbalanced
Unit 2
Q 1) Simulation
a) Does not guarantee optimality.
b) Flexible and does not require the assumptions of theoretical models.
c) Allows testing of the system without affecting the real system.
d) All of the above
Q 2) A simulation model uses the mathematical expressions and logical relationships of the
a) Real system.
b) Computer model.
c) Performance measures.
d) Estimated inferences.
Q3) All of the following are various ways of generating random numbers except
a) Simulation
b) Queuing Models
c) Inventory Models
d) Game Theory
Q 8) Values for the probabilistic inputs to a simulation are
a) Selected by the decision maker.
b) Controlled by the decision maker.
c) Randomly generated based on historical information.
d) Calculated by fixed mathematical formulas
Q 9) Simulation should be thought of as a technique for
a) Constant
b) Redundant
c) Stagnant
d) Equilibrium
Q 12) The probability that an entity in the Markov process is in a particular state is indicated by
a) Transition Matrix
b) State Probability Vector
c) Identity Matrix
d) Equilibrium matrix
Q 14) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the advantages of simulation-
a) Simulation is relatively easy to explain and understand.
b) Simulation guarantees an optimal solution.
c) Simulation models are flexible.
d) A simulation model provides a convenient experimental laboratory for the real system
Q 19) The simulation model uses the mathematical expressions and logical relationships of the
a) Real system.
b) Computer model.
c) Performance measures.
d) Estimated inferences.
Q 20) The fax machine in an office is very unreliable. If it was working yesterday, there is a 90%
chance it will work today. If it was not working yesterday, there is a 5% chance it will work
today. The probability that it is not working today, if it was not working yesterday, is
a) 0.90
b) 0.10
c) 0.05
d) 0.95
a) Optimization method
b) Descriptive Method
c) Measuring Method
d) All of the above
Q 23) A market research organization studied the car purchasing behavior in a certain region. It
was found that there are currently 50000 small car owner and 30,000 large car owners in
the region. What is current market share vector?
a) U = [ 0.5 0.3]
b) V = [ 0.62 0.38]
c) W = [ 0.6 0.4]
d) Can’t say
Q 24) For a situation with weekly purchase of either an Coke or Pepsi cold drink,
a) The weekly purchase is the trial and the cold drink is the state.
b) The weekly purchase is the state and the cold drink is the trial.
c) The weekly purchase is the trend and the cold drink is the transition.
d) The weekly purchase is the transition and the cold drink is the trend.
Q25) A company manufactures 200 motorcycles per day which changes according to
availability of raw material.
Production per day 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204
Frequency 10 18 26 34 40 28 18 16 10
0.1 06 0.3
[
T= 0 1 0
0.2 0.2 0.6 ]
The absorbing State is
a) State 1
b) State 2
c) State 3
d) a and b
Q 27) In a matrix of transition probability, the diagonal element represent
a) Gain
b) Loss
c) Retention
d) None of the above
Q 28) A company manufactures 200 motorcycles per day which changes according to
availability of raw material.
Production per day 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204
Probability 0.05 0.09 0.12 0.14 0.20 0.15 0.11 0.08 0.06
[
T= 0.7 0.1 0.2
0.2 0.2 0.6 ] Ro=
0.3 0.6 0.1
a) 0.3
b) 0.27
c) 0.4
d) 0.47
Q 30) Which of the following is not true?
a) The probabilities of switching from one state to another are called transition probabilities.
b) Markov chain analysis assumes that the given system has a finite number of states.
c) Switching of different brands of soap within a given set is likely to be a case of non-
absorbing chains.
d) An absorbing state is one which if a customer reaches in, then he has to immediately
leave it and return to the initial state
Q 32) Mr. Rao, the owner of a readymade garment shop wishes to publish advertisement in two
local daily newspapers, one in local language and one English. The expected coverage through
the advertisement is 1000 people and 1500 people per advertisement respectively. Each advt. in
local language cost Rs. 3000 and for English daily it is Rs. 5000. Mr. Rao has decided not to
place more than 10 advertisements in local language newspaper and want to place at least 6
advertisements in the English daily. The total advertisement budget is Rs. 50,000 = 00. The
Budget constraint is
a) 1000 x1 + 1500x2
b) x2 ¿ 6
c) 3x1 + 5x2 ¿ 50
d) 1000 x1 + 1500x2 ¿ 50000
Q 33) In LPP, feasible solution___________________.
Q 34) While solving LPP graphically to find optimum solution, which of the method is used
Q 35) In LPP,
a) Infeasible
b) Convex
c) Bounded
d) Unbounded
a) Simulated solution .
b) Optimum solution.
c) Network flow
d) Quadratic equation.
Q 37) Which of the following is not associated with any LPP.
a) Feasible solution .
b) Optimum solution.
c) Basic solution .
d) Quadratic equation.
a) Availability
b) Requirement
c) Objective
d) Both a and b
Q 40) Which of the following is a valid objective function for a linear programming problem?
a) Max 8xy+3x
b) Max 4x2 + 9y2
c) Min ( x+y)/z
d) Max 4x +(8/3) y +9z
Q 42) In LPP maximization problem, the optimal solution occurring at the corner point yields the
a) (16,4)
b) (15,10)
c) (8,6)
d) (12,4)
Q 44) Practically multiple optimal solutions
a) are infeasible
b) are unbounded
c) are degenerate
d) provide management with greater flexibility in selecting and using resources
Q 45) Infeasibility means that the number of solutions to the linear programming problem that
satisfies all constraints is
a) Zero.
b) At least 1.
c) All.
d) At least 2.
Q 46) Graphical method of linear programming is useful when the number of decision variables
is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) More than 3
Q 47) In LPP, the area bounded by all the given constraints is
a) Non feasible region
b) Basic solution
c) Feasible region
d) Optimum basic feasible solution
Q 48) Decision variables
a) Tell about how much or how many of something to produce, invest, purchase,
hire, etc.
b) Represent the values of the constraints.
c) Measure the objective function.
d) Must exist for each constraint.
Q 49) Multiple solution exist in a LPP when
a) Constraint function
b) Objective function
c) Functional modeling
d) Programme function
If the store opens at 8:00a.m., and random numbers are used to generate arrivals,
what time would the first customer arrive if the first random number were 52?
a) 8:02
b) 8:04
c) 8:06
d) 8:08
Q 52) Rita purchases groceries and pop exactly once each week on Sunday evenings. She
buys either Surf or Ariel Soap only and switches from Surf or Ariel and vice-versa sort
of regularly. Her purchasing behavior of these two drinks is modeled as a Markov system.
Let the transition matrix be:
Surf Ariel
X = 0.95 0.05
[
0.80 0.20 ]
a) U
b) V
c) W
d) X
Q 55) Consider the following LPP
Minimize Z = 125 X1+100 X2
Subject to 3 X1 + 3 X2 ≥ 40
3X1 + X2 ≥ 40
2X1 + 5X2 ≥ 44
X1, X2 ≥ 0
Which of the following point (X,Y) is feasible
a) (6,4)
b) (5,10)
c) (4,4)
d) (12,4)
Q 56) In graphical method the LPP has unbounded solution if the feasible region has
a) No lower boundary.
b) No upper boundary.
c) No boundary in the first quadrant.
d) None of the above.
Q 57) Given the following distribution:
Demand (units): 10 15 20 25 30
a) 55-84
b) 60-88
c) 65-88
d) 60-74
Q 58) While calculating equilibrium probabilities for Markov chain, it is assumed that
Q 59) In LPP,
Max Z = 9x 1 + 3x 2
Subject to
2x 1+ 3x2 ≤ 13
2x 1+ x 2≤ 5
x1, x ≥ 0
2
a) (1.5,4)
b) (0.5,3)
c) (2,3)
d) (0.5,4)
Q 60) Straight lines shown in a linear programming graph indicates
a) Objective function
b) Constraints
c) Points
d) All the above
Unit 3
Q 1) In a decision theory problem under complete uncertainty, which one of the following
approaches will not be possible?
Q 2) What will you obtain when you sum the profit for each combination of a state and action
times the probability of the occurrence of the state?
Q 3) Which of the following refers to the chance occurrences that can affect the outcome of an
individual's decision?
a) Payoff
b) State of nature
c) Course of action
d) Decision criteria
Q 4) A situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision and
also knows the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as
a) Certainty
b) Risk
c) Uncertainty
d) Competition
Q 5) A matrix that, for each state of nature and strategy, shows the difference between a
strategy's payoff and the best strategy's payoff is called
a. maximin matrix.
b. a minimax regret matrix
c. payoff matrix
d. maximax matrix
Q 6) Which theory concerns making sound decisions under conditions of certainity, risk and
uncertainty
a) Game Theory
b) Network Analysis
c) Decision Theory
d) None of the above
A) maximax.
B) equally likely.
C) maximin.
Q 8) In decision making under ________, there are several possible outcomes for each
alternative, and the decision maker knows the probability of occurrence of each outcome.
A) risk B) utility C) certainty D) probability
Q 9) Each player should follow the same strategy regardless of the other player's strategy in
which of the following games?
A) Constant Strategy
b) Mixed Strategy
c) Pure Strategy
d) Dominance strategy
a) Payoff
b) Zero sum game
c) Saddle point
d) Algebraic
Q 19) In a maximization problem when each element is subtracted from largest element, the
resultant matrix indicates ________.
a) Pay-off matrix
b) Game matrix
c) Minimum matrix
d) Opportunity loss matrix
a) Sub-game method
b) Algebraic method
c) Dominance rule
d) Saddle point method
Q 21) In a pure strategy game, probability of selection of his optimal strategy by a player is :-
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) None of the above
Q 22) A two person game offering 2 strategies to each player is called 2x2 game.
a) True
b) False
a) Bay’s
b) Laplace
c) Hurwicz
d) Maximin
Q 26) A decision maker who looks at the worst result for every decision, and chooses the decision with
the least
disappointing possibility is using:
a) Minimax regret approach
b) Conservative approach
c) Optimistic approach
d) Equally approach
Q 29) Consider the following two-person game, and determine the saddle point if it exists.
Y1 Y2
X1 4 7
X2 6 -2
a) 4
b) 6
c) 7
d) Saddle point does not exist
Q 30) Consider the following two-person game. What strategy will Y play?
Y1 Y2
X1 24 17
X2 16 12
a) X1
b) X2
c) Y1
d) Y2
Q 31) Consider the following two-person game, what percentage of the time should Y play
strategy Y1?
Y1 Y2
X1 4 7
X2 6 2
a) 2/7
b) 4/7
c) 5/7
d) 1
Q 32) Consider the following two-person game, the value of the game is
Y1 Y2
X1 4 8
X2 7 4
a) 5
b) 5.7142
c) 4
d) 8
Q 33) Given the following two-person game, which strategy can be eliminated by use of
dominance?
Y1 Y2
X1 9 13
X2 12 8
X3 6 14
a) X1
b) X2
c) X3
d) None of the above
Q 34) The size of payoff matrix of a game can be reduced by using the principle of
a) Game inversion
b) Rotation reduction
c) Dominance
d) Game transpose
Q 36) Which of the following criteria is not used for decision making under uncertainty
a) Maximin
b) Maximax
c) Minimax
d) Minimize expected loss
Q 37) Which of the following criteria is not used for decision making under risk
a) Maximize expected return
b) Maximize return
c) Minimize expected loss
d) Knowledge of likelihood occurrence of each state of nature
Q 38) The difference between the expected profit under condition of risk and the expected profit with
perfect information is called
a) Expected value of perfect information
b) Expected marginal loss
c) Expected opportunity loss
d) None of the above
Q 39) The value of the coefficient of optimism (α) is needed when using the criterion of
a) Equally likely
b) Maximin
c) Hurwicz
d) minimax
Queuing Theory
Q 40) The optimization technique which helps in minimizing total waiting and service costs is
a) Queuing Theory
b) Decision Theory
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Q 41) The manner in which units receive their service, such as FCFS, is the
a) Queue Discipline.
b) Channel.
c) Steady State.
d) Operating Characteristic.
Q 42 ) The passenger and the train in queuing system describers_________
a) Customer and server.
b) Server and customer.
c) Both Servers.
d) Both Customers
Q 46) Which of the following items is not a part of the queuing system?
a) Arrival rate
b) Service facility
c) Queue
d) Activity flow
Q 50) The customers are selected for service at random. This is known as
a) First-come, first served.
b) Random service discipline.
c) Last come first served.
d) None of the above
Q 51) The customer who arrives at a system, move from one queue to other in multiple server
system is
a) Balking.
b) Cropping.
c) Reneging.
d) Jockeying.
Q 52) Ina departmental store customers arrive at a rate of 15 customers per hour. The average
number of customers that can be handled by cashier is 20 per hour. The time between
successive customer is
a) 5 min
b) 3 min
c) 4 min
d) 6 min
Q 53) A repairman is to be hired to repair machines which breakdown at an average rate of 6 per
hour. He services breakdown machines at rate of 8 per hour. No. of hours repairmen is
idle in 8 hrs in a day
a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
d) 2
Q 54) Given the following table that presents the solution for a queuing problem with a constant
service rate, the probability that the server is idle is
M/M/1
Mean Arrival Rate 4 arrivals per hour
Average Service Rate 6 customer per hour
Solution:
Mean Number of customers in the System: 2
a) Mean Number of customers in the Queue: 1.33 0.666
b) 0.333 Mean Time Spent in the System: 30 mins
c) 0.286 Mean Time Spent in the queue: 20 mins
d) 0.714
Service Utilization Factor 0.666
Q 55) The customer who arrives at a bank, see a long line, and leaves to return another time is
a) Balking.
b) Cropping.
c) Reneging.
d) Jockeying.
Q 56) In a departmental store customers arrive at a rate of 24 customers per hour. The average
number of customers that can be handled by cashier is 30 per hour. What is service rate
in this problem?
a) 30
b) 3
c) 24
d) 10
Q 57) The machine and the repairmen in queuing system describes_________
a. Customer and server.
b. Server and customer.
c. Both Servers.
d. Both Customers
Q 58) In the A/B/C designation for queuing systems, the A term represents information about
a) Service time
b) Arrival rate
c) Number of channels
d) Queue size
Q 59) For unloading cargo, queue discipline is used
Unit 4
Q 10) An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days, and a
pessimistic time of 27 days. What is its expected time?
a) 60 days
b) 20 days
c) 18 days
d) 19 days
Q 11) An activity has an optimistic time of 11 days, a most likely time of 15 days, and a
pessimistic time of 23 days. What is its variance?
a) 16.33
b) 15.6
c) 4
d) 2
Q 12) Time an activity would take assuming very unfavorable conditions is represented by the
a) Optimistic time
b) Most likely time
c) Pessimistic time
d) Expected time
a) Arrow
b) Node
c) Time estimate
d) Arcs
Q 14) _______ assumes that activity times are probabilistic, while ______ assumes that activity
times are deterministic.
a) CPM,PERT
b) PERT,CPM
Q 15) The earliest start (ES) of an activity is the _________ earliest finish (EF) of the immediate
__________.
a) smallest, successors
b) largest, successors
c) smallest, predecessors
d) largest, predecessors
a) Binomial
b) Normal
c) Chi-square
d) Beta
a) Gantt Chart
b) Activity-on-arrow network.
c) Activity-on-node network.
d) Both b and C
a) is 10.
b) is 12.
c) is 15.
d) cannot be determined.
Q 20) Activities K, M and S immediately follow activity H, and their latest start times are 14, 18, and 11.
The latest finish time for activity H
a) is 11.
b) is 14.
c) is 18.
d) cannot be determined.
a) is any path that goes from the starting node to the completion node.
b) is a combination of all paths.
c) is the shortest path.
d) is the longest path.
Q 23) At the completion of the forward and backward passes, the slack for an activity is given by
the
Q 24) A project has three paths: A—B—C has a length of 25 days. A—D—C has a length of 15
days. A—E—C has a length of 20 days. Which of the following statements is correct?
Q 27) PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as
Q 28) The time of activity in a project can be estimated to have a most likely completion time of
7 days, an optimistic time of 6 days, and a pessimistic time of 9 days. Which of the following is
true of the Expected time and the variance for this activity
a) 25
b) 9
c) 3
d) 5
Q 30) Activities A and B are both 6 days long and the only immediate predecessors to activity C.
Activity A has ES=8 and LS=8 and activity B has ES=7 and LS=10. What is the ES of activity
C?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 13
Q 33) ............ is the duration by which an activity can be delayed without delaying the project.
a) Total float
b) latest time
c) Earliest event time
d) None of these
a) EST
b) EFT
c) LST
d) LFT
a) repetitive nature
b) non- repetitive nature
c) deterministic nature
d) none of the above
Q 36) The activity which can be delayed without affecting the execution of the immediate succeeding
activity determined by
a) total float
b) free float
c) independent float
d) none of the above
a) two parallel activities have the same tail and head events
b) the chain of activities may have common event yet be independent by themselves
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Q 37) The another term commonly used for activity slack time is
a) total float
b) free float
c) independent float
d) all of the above
Q 39) Six jobs must be processed first on Machine 1 and then on Machine 2. Which sequence will result
in the fastest average processing time for all jobs?
Q 40) Jobs
Machine J1 J2 J3 J4 J5
s
A 5 7 9 7 8
B 3 2 3 1 9
C 10 9 10 9 10
Can we apply sequencing principles on the above data
a) Yes
b) No
c) Need more machines
d) Need more jobs
Q 41) Jobs
Machine J1 J2 J3 J4 J5
s
A 5 7 9 7 8
B 3 2 3 1 9
On sequencing last job processed is
a) J1
b) J2
c) J3
d) J4
Q 42) Jobs
Machine A B C D E
s
M1 5 9 8 3 2
M2 7 4 7 2 9
The time efficient sequence plan is
a) EABCD
b) AECBD
c) EACBD
d) EACDB
a) 1
b) 5
c) 120
d) 2
Q 1) If P(A) = 0.6, P(B) = 0.4, P(A and B) = 0.0 , what can be said about events A and B?
a) Independent
b) Mutually exclusive
c) Posterior probability
d) All of the above
Q 2) The probability of event A occurring is 0.3, while the probability that event B occurs is 0.8.
The probability that event A and event B occur simultaneously is 0.2. If it is known that event A
occurred, what is the probability that event B occurred also?
a) 0.67
b) 0.25
c) 0.16
d) 0.90
Q 3) A production process is known to produce a particular item in such a way that 3% of these
are defective. If three items are randomly selected as they come off the production line, what is
the probability that all three are defective (assuming that they are all independent)?
a) 0.027
b) 0.09
c) 0.00027
d) 0.000027
Q 4) A company is considering producing some new products. Based on past records, management
believes that there is a 60% chance that the first product will be successful, and a 40% chance that the
second product will be successful. As these products are completely different, it may be assumed that
the success of one is totally independent of the success of the other. If two products are introduced to
the market, what is the probability that both are successful?
a) 0.12
b) 0.60
c) 0.24
d) 0.36
Q 5) In a throw of coin what is the probability of getting head.
a) 1
b) 2
c) ½
d) 0
a) -1 and +1
b) 0 and 1
c) 0 and n
d) 0 and ∞
a) Combination
b) Sample point
c) Sample space
d) Compound event
Q 11) The probability associated with the reduced sample space is called:
a) Conditional probability
b) Statistical probability
c) Mathematical probability
d) Subjective probability
a) 1
b) 0
c) 1-A
d) 1-P(A)
Q 17) When the occurrence of one event has no effect on the probability of the occurrence of
another event, the events are called:
a) Independent
b) Dependent
c) Mutually exclusive
d) Equally likely
Q 18) The six faces of the die are called equally likely if the die is:
a) Small
b) Fair
c) Six-faced
d) Round
Q 19) If we toss a coin and P(T)=2P(H), then probability of head is equal to:
a) 0
b) 1/2
c) 1/3
d) 2/3
Q 22) Two dice are rolled. Probability of getting similar faces is:
(a) 5/36
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/2
Q 24) Probability of getting a red ace if a card is drawn at random from pack of 52 cards is
a) 1⁄52
b) 1⁄26
c) 1⁄13
d) 1
If an executive is picked at random, find the probability that he or she reads both the Financial
Times and the Economist.
a) 0.333
b) 0.833
c) 0.666
d) 0.5
Q 26) If an executive is picked at random find the probability that he or she reads either the Financial
Times or the Economist.
a) 0.333
b) 0.833
c) 0.666
d) 0.5
a) 55
b) 49
c) 7
d) 104
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) -1
a) 16
b) 49
c) 7
d) 104
a) Circle
b) J
c) L
d) bell
a) 0
b) Greater than 1
c) 1
d) Less than 1
Q 34) The two mutually exclusive outcomes in a Bernoulli trial are usually called:
Q 35) In a binomial probability distribution, the sum of probability of failure and probability of success is always:
(a) Zero
(b) Less than 0.5
(c) Greater than 0.5
(d)One
(a) Zero
(b) Less than zero
(c) More than zero
(d) One
Q 38) In a multiple choice test there are five possible answers to each of 20 questions.If a candidate guesses the correct
answer each time, the mean number of correct answers is:
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 1/5
(d) 20
Q 39) If the probability of a success is 0.80, and there are n=10 trials, then the mean of the
binomial distribution is would be
a) 1.6
b) 1.26
c) 8
d) 0.08
a) 1.6
b) 1.26
c) 8
d) 0.08