Decision Science MCQ by Satish N Pawar

Unit 1-5 ( Bold option is correct one )

Unit 1

Q 1) In transportation problem, the points of demand is classified as

a) Transportation
b) Sources
c) Destinations
d) Origins

Q 2) In transportation problem, the points of supply is classified as

a) Transportation
b) Sources
c) Destinations
d) Cost

Q 3) The objectives such as minimizing the total transportation cost are considered as

a) Assignment Models
b) Transportation Models
c) Destination Models
d) Origins Models

Q 4) When the problem involves the allocation of n different facilities to n different

tasks, it is often termed as an ….....................
a) Transportation problem
b) Game theory.
c) Integer programming problem
d) Assignment problem

Q 5) In an assignment problem,
a) One agent can do parts of several tasks
b) One task can be done by several agents
c) Each agent is assigned to its own best task
d) None of the above

Q 6) Which of the following is true about assignment problem:

a) An assignment problem can be solved by enumeration method
b) An assignment problem can be solved by Floods technique
c) An assignment problem can be solved by Hungarian method
d) All of the above

Q 7) From the following methods ___________ is a method to obtain initial solution to

 Transportation Problem.
a) North-West Corner method
b) Hungarian
c) Simplex
d) Newton Raphson

Q 8) The method used for solving an assignment problem is called

a) Least Cost Method
b) MODI method
c) Hungarian method
d) VAM

Q 9) In Assignment Problem the value of decision variable is

a) Any positive value
b) One or zero
c) Two or one
d) Any value
Q 10) An artificial source added to a transportation table when total demand is greater than
total supply is called ________.
a) Filler source
b) Dummy destination
c) Dummy source
d) Supply source

Q 11) What is said to be present when total demand equals total supply in a transportation
problem?
a) An equilibrium problem
b) A harmonized problem
c) A balanced problem
d) All of the above.

Q12) Which of the following statements is accurate with regard to assignment problems?
a) A job can be assigned to more than one workman.
b) Only one workman can be assigned to each job.
c) A workman can be assigned to more than one job.
d) both a and c

Q 13) The matrix of assignment problem is always a

a) Identity matrix
b) Rectangular matrix.
c) Transpose matrix.
d) Square matrix.

Q 14) Which of the following accurately describes step of the NWCM , after making the initial
allocation of units in the northwest cell?
a) Move down first, and then move right.
 b) Move right first, and then move down.
c) Move right or down first, depending on whether the demand requirement or the
supply
capacity, respectively, is exhausted first.
d) Move diagonally first.

Q 15) In a transportation problem, units are allocated from sources to destinations

a) At a maximum cost
b) At a minimum cost
c) At a minimum profit
d) At a minimum revenue

Q 16) In transportation problem, North-West Corner Rule the allocation is done in

______________.
a) Upper left corner.
b) Upper right corner.
c) Middle cell in the transportation table.
d) Cell with the lowest cost.

Q 17) In an assignment problem, in Row Reduction step,

a) Subtract all the element from highest value of matrix
b) Subtract smallest value of each row from its corresponding row element
c) Subtract each value of a row from its largest value of that corresponding row.
d) Subtract smallest value of each column from its corresponding column element

Q 18) If there are n workers and n jobs there would be _______assignment

a) n!
b) (n-1)!
c) (n!)n
d) n

Q 19) Which of the following is an assumption of assignment problems?

a) The number of assignees and the number of jobs are the same
b) The objective is to minimize the number of assignments not made.
c) Each job is to be performed by exactly one assignee.
d) a. and c. only.

Q 20) In North-West Corner Rule, if the demand in the column is satisfied one must move to
the _________.
a) Left cell in the next column.
b) Down cell in the next row.
c) Right cell in the next column.
d) Left cell in the next row.

Q 21) In transportation problem if total supply greater than total demand we add _________.
( if supply points are along row wise)
 a) Dummy row with cost 0.
b) Dummy column with cost 0.
c) Dummy row with cost 1.
d) Dummy column with cost 1.

Q 22) When the problem involves the allocation of n different facilities to n different tasks, it is
often termed as 
a) Transportation problem
b) Assignment problem.
c) Queue problem
d) Facility planning
Q 23) In an assignment problem

a) The number of rows and columns must be equal.

b) The number of rows must equal or exceed the number of columns.
c) The number of columns must equal or exceed the number of rows.
d) The number of rows must exceed the number of columns.
Q 24) In North-West Corner Rule, if the supply in the row is satisfied one must move_________.
( supply points are along the row wise)
a) Down in the next row.
b) Next lowest cost cell
c) Right cell in the next column.
d) Left cell in the next row.

Q 25) The Transportation problem is said to be balanced if ________.

a) Total supply is not equal to total demand.
b) Total supply is greater than total demand.
c) Total supply is lesser than total demand.
d) Total supply is equal to total demand.
Q 26) The two most common objectives for the assignment problem are the minimization of
_____________.
a) Total profit or inexperience
b) Total costs or inexperience
c) Total costs or total time
d) Total sales or inexperience
Q 27) An assignment algorithm was developed by
a) Hungarian
b) Vogel’s
c) Modi
d) Erlang
Q 28) The solution to a transportation problem with m-rows and n-columns is feasible if
numbers of allocations are
a) m+n
b) m x n
c) m + n -1
 d) all of the above.
Q 29) The Least cost method
a) Is used to find an initial feasible solution
b) Is used to find an optimal solution
c) Is based on the concept of minimizing opportunity cost
d) None of the given

Q 30) The North-West Corner Rule is used to find _____________

a) An Initial feasible solution.
b) An optimal solution.
c) Non optimal solution.
d) None of these
Q 31) The only restriction for the initial solution of a transportation problem is that

a) Demand must equal supply.

b) All constraints must be satisfied.
c) Nonzero quantities in a majority of the cells.
d) Number of rows equal to number of columns

Q 32) Which of the following is not a step in the Hungarian method of assignment?
a) Find the opportunity-cost table
b) Draw horizontal and vertical line to cover all zeros of opportunity- cost table
c) Enumerate all possible solutions
d) Revise the opportunity-cost table

Q 33) The minimum number of lines covering all zeros in a opportunity- cost table of order n can
be:
a) at the most n
b) at the least n
c) at most n-1
d) n+1

Q 34) Which of the following methods is used only with the assignment problem?
a) Hungarian method
b) Simplex Method
c) Stepping Stone Method
d) VAM
Q 35) In a transportation problem, we must make the number of -------------- and ----------- equal
a) Destination, sources
b) Units supplied, units demanded
c) Columns, rows
d) Warehouses, supplier
Q 36) Maximization case in transportation problem the objective is to __________.
a) Maximize the total profit.
 b) Minimize the total loss .
c) Neither maximize nor minimize.
d) Optimal cost.

Q 37) The Least Cost method in TP requires that we start allocating units to shipping routes in
the
a) Middle cell.
b) Lowest cost cell of the table.
c) Lower right corner of the table.
d) Upper left-hand corner of the table.

Q 38) The LCM in transportation problem is also called as

a) NWCM
b) VAM
c) MODI
d) Matrix Minima method
Q 39) In a transportation problem, when number of occupied cells is less than number of rows
plus number of columns -1 ,we say that solution is:
a) Feasible solution
b) Multiple solution
c) Degenerate solution
d) Unbalanced solution

Q 40) Objectives of the assignment problem can include

a) Minimize total costs.
b) Minimize total time to perform the tasks at hand.
c) Maximize profit.
d) All of the above

Q 41) The purpose of dummy row or column in an assignment problem is to

a) Obtain balance between jobs and persons

b) Maximize the problem
c) Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
d) None of the above
Q 42) An assignment problem is a special form of transportation problem where all supply and
demand values equal
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Q 43) In an assignment problem, when number of horizontal and vertical lines to cover zero in
Reduced matrix is n, in case of matrix of order n ,we say that solution is:
a) Optimal solution
 b) Non optimal solution
c) Degenerate solution
d) Unbalanced solution
Q 44) Which of the following techniques can be used for moving from an initial feasible
solutionto an optimal solution in a transportation problem?
a) Hungarian method
b) U-V method
c) North-west Corner Rule
d) Vogel's approximation method

Q 45) If the initial solution is degenerate in transportation problem then

a) Create a fictitious destination

b) Create a fictitious source
c) Solution not possible
d) Create fictitious allocation
Q 46) The Penalty in VAM represents difference between _________ cost of respective
row / column.

a) Two Largest
b) Largest and smallest
c) Smallest two
d) None of them
Q 47) In Transportation problem the preferred method of obtaining either optimal or very
close to the optimal solution is
a) North West Corner rule.
b) Least cost method.
c) Vogel’s approximation method.
d) Simplex method.
Q 48) In Maximization of transportation problem, we convert problem into minimization by
subtracting all the elements from the
a) Zero.
b) One.
c) Highest element.
d) Lowest element.
Q 49) In assignment problem with 4 persons and 5 jobs

a) One person will be without job.

b) Two people will get the job.
c) One job will be without person.
d) Two jobs will be without person.
Q 50) Maximization case in assignment problem the objective is to
a) Maximize the total sales.
b) Minimize the total loss .
c) Neither maximize nor minimize.
d) Optimal cost.
Q 51) In a transportation problem with demand equal to 1000 and total supply equal to 1200, we
should add a _________ ______ with a quantity equal to ---------- to convert it to a
balanced problem.
a) Dummy supply 200
b) Dummy Supply 2200
c) Dummy demand 200
d) Dummy demand 2200

Q 52) The following represent solution of Transportation Problem

5
70
100
30 100
R D L K Capacity

A 40 40 30 20 200

B 80 60 0 10 100

C 130 130 130 130 5

Demand 75 100 100 30

Solution is
a) Alternate solution
b) Optimal
c) Degenerate
d) None of the above

Q 53) What does VAM stand for?

a) Variance Approximation method
b) Van Austin Method
c) Vector Approximation Method
d) Vogel’s Approximation Method

Q 54) Which of the following method is used to verify the optimality of the current feasible
solution of the transportation problem?
a. Least cost method.
b. Vogel’s method.
c. North West Corner Rule.
d. MODI method.
Q 55) The following represent solution of Transportation Problem
75
75
25
R D Capacity

A 40 40 100

B 50 60 75

Demand 75 100

Solution is

a) Alternate solution
b) Optimal
c) Degenerate
d) Not optimal

Q 56) In revising the opportunity cost table of the assignment problem, after drawing lines
through all of the zeros
a) Smallest uncovered number is added to all zeros.
b) Smallest uncovered number is added to all uncovered numbers.
c) Smallest uncovered number is added to all numbers at the intersection of lines.
d) Largest uncovered number is added to all numbers at the intersection of lines.

Q 57) A company must assign mechanics to each of three jobs. The time involved varies
according to individual abilities. Table shows how many minutes it takes each mechanic
to perform each job. If the optimal assignments are made, how many total minutes would
be required for completing the jobs?

J1 J2 J3
W1 5 10 15
W2 12 3 10
W3 12 10 4
a. 12
b. 4
c. 17
d. 16
Q 58) For optimality test in case of assignment problem we require to

a) Converting all profits to opportunity losses.

b) Add dummy agent or task.
 c) Matrix expansion.
d) Finding the minimum number of lines to cover all the zeros in the reduced matrix.

Q 59) In an assignment problem with four activities and four workers following is relative loss
Matrix
Worker 1 2 3 4

Cutting 0 0 3 1

Assembly 1 0 0 2

Finishing 0 5 0 0

Packaging 1 2 0 1

Solution is

a) Multiple Solution
b) Unique optimal
c) Not optimal
d) Unbalanced
Q 60) In an assignment problem with four activities and four workers following is relative loss

Matrix

Worker 1 2 3 4

A 0 1 1 1

B 0 1 2 2

C 2 0 0 2

D 1 2 0 0

Current Solution is

a) Multiple Solution
b) Unique optimal
c) Not optimal
d) Unbalanced
Unit 2

Q 1) Simulation
a) Does not guarantee optimality.
b) Flexible and does not require the assumptions of theoretical models.
c) Allows testing of the system without affecting the real system.
d) All of the above
Q 2) A simulation model uses the mathematical expressions and logical relationships of the
a) Real system.
b) Computer model.
c) Performance measures.
d) Estimated inferences.
Q3) All of the following are various ways of generating random numbers except

a) Table of random numbers

b) Use of computer
c) Spin of roulette wheel
d) Fibonacci series
Q 4) Analysis of a Markov process
a) Describes future behavior of the system.
b) Optimizes the system.
c) Leads to higher order decision making.
d) All of the above.
Q 5) Markov analysis assumes that the states are both ---------------and-----------------.
a) Finite, recurrent
b) Infinite, absorbing
c) Generally inclusive, always independent
d) Collectively exhaustive, mutually exclusive
Q 6) In Markov analysis, the likelihood that any system will change from one period to the next is revealed by
the
a) Identity matrix.
b) Transition elasticity.
c) Matrix of state probabilities.
d) Matrix of transition probabilities.
Q 7) Which technique is used to imitate an operation prior to actual performance?

a) Simulation
b) Queuing Models
c) Inventory Models
d) Game Theory
Q 8) Values for the probabilistic inputs to a simulation are
a) Selected by the decision maker.
b) Controlled by the decision maker.
c) Randomly generated based on historical information.
d) Calculated by fixed mathematical formulas
Q 9) Simulation should be thought of as a technique for

a) Increasing ones understanding of a problem.

b) Obtaining a relatively inexpensive solution to a problem.
c) Obtaining an optimal solution to a problem.
d) None of the above
Q 10) The following is not an assumption of Markov analysis.

a) There is an infinite number of possible states.

b) The probability of changing states remains the same over time.
c) We can predict any future state from the previous state and the matrix of transition
probabilities.
d) All of the above
Q 11) A condition in which state probabilities do not change after a long number of period is

a) Constant
b) Redundant
c) Stagnant
d) Equilibrium
Q 12) The probability that an entity in the Markov process is in a particular state is indicated by

a) Transition Matrix
b) State Probability Vector
c) Identity Matrix
d) Equilibrium matrix

Q 13) The first step in simulation is to

a) Construct a numerical model

b) Validate the model.
c) Set up possible courses of action for testing.
d) Define the problem

Q 14) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the advantages of simulation-
a) Simulation is relatively easy to explain and understand.
b) Simulation guarantees an optimal solution.
c) Simulation models are flexible.
d)  A simulation model provides a convenient experimental laboratory for the real system

Q 15) Which of the following are advantages of simulation?

a) Simulation allows "what-if?" type of questions.

b) Simulation can usually be performed by hand or using a small calculator.
c) Simulation does not interfere with the real-world system.
d) a and c only
Q 16) Markov analysis is a technique that deals with the probabilities of future occurrences by
 a) Using Baye’s theorem.
b) Analyzing presently known probabilities.
c) Time series forecasting.
d) The maximal flow technique

Q 17) In transition probability matrix

a) The sum of each column is 1
b) The sum of each column is 0
c) The sum of each row is 1
d) The sum of each row is 0

Q 18) Markov Analysis studies

a) Market
b) Brand Name
c) Brand Switching Behavior
d) None of the above

Q 19) The simulation model uses the mathematical expressions and logical relationships of the

a) Real system.
b) Computer model.
c) Performance measures.
d) Estimated inferences.

Q 20) The fax machine in an office is very unreliable. If it was working yesterday, there is a 90%
chance it will work today. If it was not working yesterday, there is a 5% chance it will work
today. The probability that it is not working today, if it was not working yesterday, is
a) 0.90
b) 0.10
c) 0.05
d) 0.95

Q 21) In Markov analysis, we assume that the states are

a) Mutually exclusive
b) Collectively Exhaustive
c) Finite
d) All of the above
Q 22) Simulation is

a) Optimization method
b) Descriptive Method
c) Measuring Method
d) All of the above
Q 23) A market research organization studied the car purchasing behavior in a certain region. It
was found that there are currently 50000 small car owner and 30,000 large car owners in
the region. What is current market share vector?
a) U = [ 0.5 0.3]
b) V = [ 0.62 0.38]
c) W = [ 0.6 0.4]
d) Can’t say
Q 24) For a situation with weekly purchase of either an Coke or Pepsi cold drink,
a) The weekly purchase is the trial and the cold drink is the state.
b) The weekly purchase is the state and the cold drink is the trial.
c) The weekly purchase is the trend and the cold drink is the transition.
d) The weekly purchase is the transition and the cold drink is the trend.

Q25) A company manufactures 200 motorcycles per day which changes according to
availability of raw material.
Production per day 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204

Frequency 10 18 26 34 40 28 18 16 10

The probability that 200 production per day is

a) 0.17
b) 0.14
c) 0.20
d) 0.05
Q 26) Consider the transition matrix

0.1 06 0.3

[
T= 0 1 0
0.2 0.2 0.6 ]
The absorbing State is

a) State 1
b) State 2
c) State 3
d) a and b
Q 27) In a matrix of transition probability, the diagonal element represent

a) Gain
b) Loss
c) Retention
d) None of the above

Q 28) A company manufactures 200 motorcycles per day which changes according to
availability of raw material.
Production per day 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204

Probability 0.05 0.09 0.12 0.14 0.20 0.15 0.11 0.08 0.06

The motorcycles are transported in a arranged lorry accommodating only 200

motorcycles. Using the following random number determine simulated the empty
spaces on the lorry on 5th day. Random numbers are 75, 34, 88, 20, 15, 41, 06, 71, 66,
36, 20
a) 196
b) 2
c) 200
d) 0
Q 29) The following data consists of transition probabilities (T) of three competing companies,
the initial market share state R0 and the steady state probability states. 
0.1 06 0.3

[
T= 0.7 0.1 0.2
0.2 0.2 0.6 ] Ro=
 0.3 0.6 0.1

S1= 0.3168 S2=0.2970 S3=0.3862

The market share of company 1 in the next period is

a) 0.3
b) 0.27
c) 0.4
d) 0.47
Q 30) Which of the following is not true?
a) The probabilities of switching from one state to another are called transition probabilities.
 b) Markov chain analysis assumes that the given system has a finite number of states.
c) Switching of different brands of soap within a given set is likely to be a case of non-
absorbing chains.
d) An absorbing state is one which if a customer reaches in, then he has to immediately
leave it and return to the initial state

Q 31) An LPP deals with problems involving only_________.

a) Single objective.
b) Multiple objectives.
c) Two objective.
d) None of these.

Q 32) Mr. Rao, the owner of a readymade garment shop wishes to publish advertisement in two
local daily newspapers, one in local language and one English. The expected coverage through
the advertisement is 1000 people and 1500 people per advertisement respectively. Each advt. in
local language cost Rs. 3000 and for English daily it is Rs. 5000. Mr. Rao has decided not to
place more than 10 advertisements in local language newspaper and want to place at least 6
advertisements in the English daily. The total advertisement budget is Rs. 50,000 = 00. The
Budget constraint is

a) 1000 x1 + 1500x2
b) x2 ¿ 6
c) 3x1 + 5x2 ¿ 50
d) 1000 x1 + 1500x2 ¿ 50000
Q 33) In LPP, feasible solution___________________.

a) Must satisfy all the constraints of the problem simultaneously

b) Need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
c) Must optimize the value of the objective function.
d) Must be a corner point of the feasible region.

Q 34) While solving LPP graphically to find optimum solution, which of the method is used

a) Corner point method

b) Iso- Line method
c) Simplex method
d) Both a and b

Q 35) In LPP,

Min Z = 2x1 + 4x2

Subject to
10x1 +25x 2≥400
20x1 + 10x2 ≥ 500
 15x1 + 20x 2 ≥ 300
x 1 + x2 ≥ 0

The feasible region is

a) Infeasible
b) Convex
c) Bounded
d) Unbounded

Q 36) Which of the following is associated with any LPP.

a) Simulated solution .
b) Optimum solution.
c) Network flow
d) Quadratic equation.
Q 37) Which of the following is not associated with any LPP.

a) Feasible solution .
b) Optimum solution.
c) Basic solution .
d) Quadratic equation.

Q38) Which of the following is not true about feasible region

a) It cannot be determined in a graphical solution of an LPP.

b) It is independent of the objective function.
c) It implies that there must be a convex region satisfying all the constraints.
d) An extreme point of the convex feasible region gives the optimum solution.

Q 39) The constraints in LPP model represent

a) Availability
b) Requirement
c) Objective
d) Both a and b

Q 40) Which of the following is a valid objective function for a linear programming problem?

a) Max 8xy+3x
b) Max 4x2 + 9y2
c) Min ( x+y)/z
d) Max 4x +(8/3) y +9z

Q 41) In mathematical programming, the goal represented by objective function includes

 a) Profit value
b) Total cost and revenue
c) Production capacity
d) All of the above

Q 42) In LPP maximization problem, the optimal solution occurring at the corner point yields the

a) Mid value of objective function

b) Highest value of objective function
c) Lowest value of objective function
d) Mean value of objective function

Q 43) Consider the following LPP

Max Z = 125 X1+100 X2

Subject to 3X1 + X2 ≤40
2X1 + 5X2 ≤ 44
X1, X2 ≥ 0
Which of the following point (X,Y) is feasible

a) (16,4)
b) (15,10)
c) (8,6)
d) (12,4)
Q 44) Practically multiple optimal solutions
a) are infeasible
b) are unbounded
c) are degenerate
d) provide management with greater flexibility in selecting and using resources

Q 45) Infeasibility means that the number of solutions to the linear programming problem that
satisfies all constraints is
a) Zero.
b) At least 1.
c) All.
d) At least 2.

Q 46) Graphical method of linear programming is useful when the number of decision variables
is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) More than 3
Q 47) In LPP, the area bounded by all the given constraints is
a) Non feasible region
b) Basic solution
 c) Feasible region
d) Optimum basic feasible solution
Q 48) Decision variables
a) Tell about how much or how many of something to produce, invest, purchase,
hire, etc.
b) Represent the values of the constraints.
c) Measure the objective function.
d) Must exist for each constraint.
Q 49) Multiple solution exist in a LPP when

a) One of the constraint is redundant

b) Objective function is parallel to one of the constraints
c) Two constraints are parallel
d) All of the above
Q 50) The overall goal stated as to represent the function of decision variable in LPP is best
classified as

a) Constraint function
b) Objective function
c) Functional modeling
d) Programme function

Q 51) Given the following Probability distribution

Inter arrival Time: 2 4 6 8

Probability: 0.50 0.30 0.10 0.10

If the store opens at 8:00a.m., and random numbers are used to generate arrivals,
what time would the first customer arrive if the first random number were 52?
a) 8:02
b) 8:04
c) 8:06
d) 8:08
Q 52) Rita purchases groceries and pop exactly once each week on Sunday evenings. She
buys either Surf or Ariel Soap only and switches from Surf or Ariel and vice-versa sort
of regularly. Her purchasing behavior of these two drinks is modeled as a Markov system.
Let the transition matrix be:

Surf Ariel

Surf 0.6 0.4

Ariel 0.25 0.75

 If in Week #8, Rita has purchased Surf, what is the probability that she would
purchase Ariel in Week #9?
a) 0.4
b) 0.25
c) 0.6
d) Cannot tell without her purchase behavior in weeks 1-6
0.31 0.69
Q 53) A Markov chain is defined by a transition matrix T =
[ 0.75 0.25 ]
The value p12=0.69 indicates
a) Gain of 69% customer to state 1
b) Loss of 69% customer of state 1
c) Both a and b
d) Retention of 69% customer
Q 54) A factory has a large number of machines that can be in one of two states, operating or
broken. The probability that an operating machine breaks down by the end of the day
is 0.05 and the probability that a broken machine is repaired by the end of the day is 0.80.
A transition matrix that can be used to represent this information is:

U= 0.95 0.20 V = 0.05 0.20 W= 0.05

[0.05 0.80 ] [0.95 0.80 ] [ ]
0.80

X = 0.95 0.05
[
0.80 0.20 ]
a) U
b) V
c) W
d) X
Q 55) Consider the following LPP
Minimize Z = 125 X1+100 X2
Subject to 3 X1 + 3 X2 ≥ 40
3X1 + X2 ≥ 40
2X1 + 5X2 ≥ 44
X1, X2 ≥ 0
Which of the following point (X,Y) is feasible

a) (6,4)
b) (5,10)
c) (4,4)
d) (12,4)
Q 56) In graphical method the LPP has unbounded solution if the feasible region has
 a) No lower boundary.
b) No upper boundary.
c) No boundary in the first quadrant.
d) None of the above.
Q 57) Given the following distribution:
Demand (units): 10 15 20 25 30

Probability : .05 .25 .30 .28 .12

Random number 74 lie in the interval

a) 55-84
b) 60-88
c) 65-88
d) 60-74
Q 58) While calculating equilibrium probabilities for Markov chain, it is assumed that

a) There is a single absorbing state

b) Transition probabilities do not change
c) There is a non-absorbing state
d) None of the above

Q 59) In LPP,

Max Z = 9x 1 + 3x 2

Subject to

2x 1+ 3x2 ≤ 13
2x 1+ x 2≤ 5
x1, x ≥ 0
2

The intersection point of constraint line1 and constraint line2 is

a) (1.5,4)
b) (0.5,3)
c) (2,3)
d) (0.5,4)
Q 60) Straight lines shown in a linear programming graph indicates
a) Objective function
b) Constraints
c) Points
d) All the above
Unit 3

Q 1) In a decision theory problem under complete uncertainty, which one of the following
approaches will not be possible?

a) Expected monetary value.

b) Maximin.
c) Minimax.
d) Hurwicz.

Q 2) What will you obtain when you sum the profit for each combination of a state and action
times the probability of the occurrence of the state?

a) Expected monetary value

b) Expected opportunity loss
c) Expected value of perfect information
d) None of the above

Q 3) Which of the following refers to the chance occurrences that can affect the outcome of an
individual's decision?

a) Payoff
b) State of nature
c) Course of action
d) Decision criteria

Q 4) A situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision and
also knows the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as

a) Certainty
b) Risk
c) Uncertainty
d) Competition

Q 5) A matrix that, for each state of nature and strategy, shows the difference between a
strategy's payoff and the best strategy's payoff is called

a. maximin matrix.
b. a minimax regret matrix
c. payoff matrix
d. maximax matrix
Q 6) Which theory concerns making sound decisions under conditions of certainity, risk and
uncertainty

a) Game Theory

b) Network Analysis

c) Decision Theory
d) None of the above

Q 7) A pessimistic decision making criterion is

A) maximax.

B) equally likely.

C) maximin.

D) decision making under certainty.

Q 8) In decision making under ________, there are several possible outcomes for each
alternative, and the decision maker knows the probability of occurrence of each outcome.
A) risk B) utility C) certainty D) probability

Q 9) Each player should follow the same strategy regardless of the other player's strategy in
which of the following games?

A) Constant Strategy
b) Mixed Strategy
c) Pure Strategy
d) Dominance strategy

Q 10) In a zero-sum game,

a)   what one player wins, the other loses.
b)   the sum of each player’s winnings if the game is played many times must be zero.
c)   the game is fair—each person has an equal chance of winning.
d)   long-run profits must be zero.
Q 11) In a decision theory problem under complete uncertainty, which one of the following
approaches will not be possible?
a) Expected monetary value
b) Maxmin
c) Minimax
d)Hurwicz
Q 12) For decision making under uncertainty, identify the decision rule that is appropriate for
the optimist.
 a) Laplace
b) Maximax
c) Minimax regret
d)Maxmin
Q 13) The equally likely decision criteria is also known as
a) Bayes
b) Laplace
c) Minimax
d) Hurwicz
Q 14) The criteria of expected monetary value is used for making decisions under
a) Certainty
b) Uncertainty
c) Risk
d) all of the above
Q 15) The maximax criteria is........
a) Optimistic
b) Neutral
c) Pessimistic
d) Can be any one of the above
Q 16) Which of the following might be viewed as an pessimistic decision criterion?
a) Hurwicz criterion
b) Maximin
c) Maximax
d) Minimax

Q 17) In a zero-sum game,

a) what one player wins, the other loses.

b) the sum of each player’s winnings if the game is played many times must be zero.
c) the game is fair—each person has an equal chance of winning.
d) long-run profits must be zero.

Q 18) Point of intersection of pure strategies is called :-

a) Payoff
b) Zero sum game
c) Saddle point
d) Algebraic

Q 19) In a maximization problem when each element is subtracted from largest element, the
resultant matrix indicates ________.

a) Pay-off matrix
b) Game matrix
c) Minimum matrix
 d) Opportunity loss matrix

Q 20) A mixed strategy 2 x 2 game is solved by ________method.

a) Sub-game method
b) Algebraic method
c) Dominance rule
d) Saddle point method

Q 21) In a pure strategy game, probability of selection of his optimal strategy by a player is :-
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) None of the above

Q 22) A two person game offering 2 strategies to each player is called 2x2 game.
a) True
b) False

Q 23) Point of intersection of pure strategies is called :-

a) Value of game
b) Probability of optimum strategy
c) Algebraic sum
d) None of the above

Q 24) A mixed strategy is decision of player to select :-

a) Same strategy
b) Constant Strategy
c) Different strategy
d) Only one strategy

Q 25) The equally likely decision criterion is also known as

a) Bay’s
b) Laplace
c) Hurwicz
d) Maximin

Q 26) A decision maker who looks at the worst result for every decision, and chooses the decision with
the least
disappointing possibility is using:
a) Minimax regret approach
b) Conservative approach
c) Optimistic approach
d) Equally approach

Q 27) The decision alternatives:

a) Show what might occur in the problem
 b) Are not under the control of the decision maker
c) List the actions the decision maker can select
d) All of the above

Q 28) Rules for selecting the best alternatives are called:

a) Objective
b) Outcome
c) Events
d) Criteria

Q 29) Consider the following two-person game, and determine the saddle point if it exists.

Y1 Y2
X1 4 7
X2 6 -2

a) 4
b) 6
c) 7
d) Saddle point does not exist

Q 30) Consider the following two-person game. What strategy will Y play?

Y1 Y2
X1 24 17
X2 16 12

a) X1
b) X2
c) Y1
d) Y2

Q 31) Consider the following two-person game, what percentage of the time should Y play
strategy Y1?

Y1 Y2
X1 4 7
X2 6 2

a) 2/7
b) 4/7
c) 5/7
d) 1

Q 32) Consider the following two-person game, the value of the game is
 Y1 Y2
X1 4 8
X2 7 4

a) 5
b) 5.7142
c) 4
d) 8

Q 33) Given the following two-person game, which strategy can be eliminated by use of
dominance?

Y1 Y2
X1 9 13
X2 12 8
X3 6 14

a) X1
b) X2
c) X3
d) None of the above

Q 34) The size of payoff matrix of a game can be reduced by using the principle of
a) Game inversion
b) Rotation reduction
c) Dominance
d) Game transpose

Q 35) Game theory models are classified by the

a) Number of players
b) Sum of all payoffs
c) Number of strategies
d) All of the above

Q 36) Which of the following criteria is not used for decision making under uncertainty
a) Maximin
b) Maximax
c) Minimax
d) Minimize expected loss

Q 37) Which of the following criteria is not used for decision making under risk
a) Maximize expected return
b) Maximize return
c) Minimize expected loss
d) Knowledge of likelihood occurrence of each state of nature

Q 38) The difference between the expected profit under condition of risk and the expected profit with
perfect information is called
a) Expected value of perfect information
b) Expected marginal loss
c) Expected opportunity loss
d) None of the above
Q 39) The value of the coefficient of optimism (α) is needed when using the criterion of
a) Equally likely
b) Maximin
c) Hurwicz
d) minimax

Queuing Theory

Q 40) The optimization technique which helps in minimizing total waiting and service costs is
a) Queuing Theory
b) Decision Theory
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Q 41) The manner in which units receive their service, such as FCFS, is the
a) Queue Discipline.
b) Channel.
c) Steady State.
d) Operating Characteristic.
Q 42 ) The passenger and the train in queuing system describers_________
a) Customer and server.
b) Server and customer.
c) Both Servers.
d) Both Customers

Q 43) In Queuing Model which cost is difficult to find

a) Service cost
b) Facility cost
c) Calling cost
d) Waiting cost

Q 44) A single channel system must have

a) One queue discipline

b) One waiting line

c) One customer allowed to stand..

d) One stage where service is received before exiting the system.

Q 45) The number of customers in the waiting line means
a) Service order.
b) Queue length.
c) Waiting time in queue.
d) None of the above.

Q 46) Which of the following items is not a part of the queuing system?
 a) Arrival rate

b) Service facility

c) Queue

d) Activity flow

Q 47) The Server utilization factor is also known as

a) Traffic intensity
b) Poisson distribution
c) Exponential distribution
d) Server Idleness
Q 48) In queue Model, M/M/2, the number of servers is _____________.
a) 1.
b) M.
c) 2.
d) None of these.
Q 49) The most important factors to consider in analyzing a queuing system are
a) The service and arrival rate
a) The nature of the calling population
b) The queue discipline
c) All of the above

Q 50) The customers are selected for service at random. This is known as
a) First-come, first served.
b) Random service discipline.
c) Last come first served.
d) None of the above
Q 51) The customer who arrives at a system, move from one queue to other in multiple server
system is
a) Balking.
b) Cropping.
c) Reneging.
d) Jockeying.

Q 52) Ina departmental store customers arrive at a rate of 15 customers per hour. The average
number of customers that can be handled by cashier is 20 per hour. The time between
successive customer is
a) 5 min
b) 3 min
c) 4 min
d) 6 min

Q 53) A repairman is to be hired to repair machines which breakdown at an average rate of 6 per
 hour. He services breakdown machines at rate of 8 per hour. No. of hours repairmen is
idle in 8 hrs in a day
a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
d) 2
Q 54) Given the following table that presents the solution for a queuing problem with a constant
service rate, the probability that the server is idle is

M/M/1
Mean Arrival Rate 4 arrivals per hour
Average Service Rate 6 customer per hour
Solution:
Mean Number of customers in the System: 2
a) Mean Number of customers in the Queue: 1.33 0.666
b) 0.333 Mean Time Spent in the System: 30 mins
c) 0.286 Mean Time Spent in the queue: 20 mins
d) 0.714
Service Utilization Factor 0.666

Q 55) The customer who arrives at a bank, see a long line, and leaves to return another time is
a) Balking.
b) Cropping.
c) Reneging.
d) Jockeying.

Q 56) In a departmental store customers arrive at a rate of 24 customers per hour. The average
number of customers that can be handled by cashier is 30 per hour. What is service rate
in this problem?
a) 30
b) 3
c) 24
d) 10
Q 57) The machine and the repairmen in queuing system describes_________
a. Customer and server.
b. Server and customer.
c. Both Servers.
d. Both Customers
Q 58) In the A/B/C designation for queuing systems, the A term represents information about
a) Service time
b) Arrival rate
c) Number of channels
d) Queue size
Q 59) For unloading cargo, queue discipline is used

a) First come first served

b) Last come first served
c) Random come first served
d) None of the above

Unit 4

Q 1) ......... is a series of related activities which result in some product or services.

a) Network
b) transportation model
c) assignment
d) none of these
Q 2) Any activity which does not consume either any resource or time is called...........activity.
a) Predecessor
b) Successor
c) Dummy
c) End
Q 3) An activity which must be completed before one or more other activities start is known
as ..........activity.
a) Predecessor
b) Successor
c) Dummy
c) End
Q 4). Activities that cannot be started until one or more of the other activities are completed, but
immediately succeed them are called ......activities
a) Predecessor
b) Successor
c) Dummy
c) End
Q 5). An event which represents the beginning of more than one activity is known
as...........event.
a) Merge
b) Net
c) Burst
d) None of the above
Q 6)..........is that sequence of activities which determines the total project time.
a) Net work
b) Critical path
c) Critical activities
d) None of the above
Q 7) Activities lying on the critical path are called.............
a) Net work
b) Critical path
c) Critical activities
d) None of the above
Q 8) It .......... at which an activity can start.
a) EST
b) EFT
c) LST
d) LFT
Q 9) With respect to PERT and CPM, slack

a) marks the start or completion of a task.

b) is the amount of time a task may be delayed without changing the overall project
completion time.
c) is a task or subproject that must be completed.
d) is the latest time an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.

Q 10) An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days, and a
pessimistic time of 27 days. What is its expected time?

a) 60 days

b) 20 days

c) 18 days

d) 19 days

Q 11) An activity has an optimistic time of 11 days, a most likely time of 15 days, and a
pessimistic time of 23 days. What is its variance?

a) 16.33
b) 15.6
c) 4
d) 2

Q 12) Time an activity would take assuming very unfavorable conditions is represented by the

a) Optimistic time
b) Most likely time
c) Pessimistic time
 d) Expected time

Q 13) In an AON network representation, the _______ represents the activities.

a) Arrow
b) Node
c) Time estimate
d) Arcs

Q 14) _______ assumes that activity times are probabilistic, while ______ assumes that activity
times are deterministic.

a) CPM,PERT
b) PERT,CPM

Q 15) The earliest start (ES) of an activity is the _________ earliest finish (EF) of the immediate
__________.

a) smallest, successors
b) largest, successors
c) smallest, predecessors
d) largest, predecessors

Q 16) The time of an activity in a network can be approximated by which distribution?

a) Binomial
b) Normal
c) Chi-square
d) Beta

Q 17) Which of these may require the use of a dummy activity?

a) Gantt Chart
b) Activity-on-arrow network.
c) Activity-on-node network.
d) Both b and C

Q 18) CPM is:

a. Critical Project Management

b. Critical Path Management
c. Critical Path Method
d. Crash Project Method
Q 19) Activities G, P, and R are the immediate predecessors for activity W. If the earliest finish times for
the three are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for W

a) is 10.
b) is 12.
c) is 15.
d) cannot be determined.

Q 20) Activities K, M and S immediately follow activity H, and their latest start times are 14, 18, and 11.
The latest finish time for activity H

a) is 11.
b) is 14.
c) is 18.
d) cannot be determined.

Q 21) The critical path

a) is any path that goes from the starting node to the completion node.
b) is a combination of all paths.
c) is the shortest path.
d) is the longest path.

Q 22) Which of the following statements regarding PERT times is true?

a) Optimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.
b) Optimistic time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
c) Most likely time estimate is an estimate of the maximum time an activity will require.
d) Pessimistic time estimate is an estimate of the minimum time an activity will require.

Q 23) At the completion of the forward and backward passes, the slack for an activity is given by
the

a) difference between early start and early finish.

b) difference between early start and latest finish.
c) difference between latest start and early finish
d) difference between latest start and early start

Q 24) A project has three paths: A—B—C has a length of 25 days. A—D—C has a length of 15
days. A—E—C has a length of 20 days. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A—D—C is the critical path.

b) A—B—C has the most slack.
c) The expected duration of the project is 25 days.
d) The expected duration of this project is 60 days.

Q 25) With respect to PERT and CPM, slack

 a) is a task or subproject that must be completed.
b) is the latest time an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
c) is the amount of time a task may be delayed without changing the overall
project completion time.
d) marks the start or completion of a task

Q 26) A dummy activity is required when

a. two or more activities have the same ending events.

b. the network contains two or more activities that have identical starting and
ending events.
c. two or more activities have different ending events.
d. two or more activities have the same starting events.

Q 27) PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as

a. the sum of the variances of all activities in the project.

b. the sum of the variances of all activities on the critical path.
c. the sum of the variances of all activities not on the critical path.
d. the variance of the final activity of the project.

Q 28) The time of activity in a project can be estimated to have a most likely completion time of
7 days, an optimistic time of 6 days, and a pessimistic time of 9 days. Which of the following is
true of the Expected time and the variance for this activity

a) 0.25 days, 7.17 days

b) 7.33 days, 0.25 days
c) 7.17 days, 0.25 days
d) 3.67 days, 0.25 days

Q 29) A project's critical path is composed of activities A, B, and C. Activity A has a

standard deviation of 2, activity B has a standard deviation of 1, and activity C has a
standard deviation of 2. What is the standard deviation of the critical path?

a) 25
b) 9
c) 3
d) 5

Q 30) Activities A and B are both 6 days long and the only immediate predecessors to activity C.
Activity A has ES=8 and LS=8 and activity B has ES=7 and LS=10. What is the ES of activity
C?
 a) 14
b) 15
c) 16
d) 13

Q 31) Dummy activities

a) Are found in both AOA and AON networks

b) have a duration equal to the shortest non-dummy activity in the network.
c) cannot be on the critical path.
d) are used when two activities have identical starting and ending events.
Q 32) Full form of PERT is

a) Performance evaluation review technique

b) Programme Evaluation Review technique
c) Programme Evaluation Research Technique
d) None of these.

Q 33) ............ is the duration by which an activity can be delayed without delaying the project.

a) Total float
b) latest time
c) Earliest event time
d) None of these

Q 34) ........... is the earliest starting time plus activity time.

a) EST
b) EFT
c) LST
d) LFT

Q 35) Generally PERT technique deals with the project of

a) repetitive nature
b) non- repetitive nature
c) deterministic nature
d) none of the above

Q 36) The activity which can be delayed without affecting the execution of the immediate succeeding
activity determined by

a) total float
b) free float
c) independent float
 d) none of the above

Q 38) A dummy activity is used in the network diagram when

a) two parallel activities have the same tail and head events
b) the chain of activities may have common event yet be independent by themselves
c) both a and b
d) none of the above

Q 37) The another term commonly used for activity slack time is

a) total float
b) free float
c) independent float
d) all of the above

Q 38) If an activity has zero slack, it implies

a) it lies on the critical path

b) it is a dummy activity
c) the project is processing well
d) project can be delayed

Q 39) Six jobs must be processed first on Machine 1 and then on Machine 2. Which sequence will result
in the fastest average processing time for all jobs?

Job Machine 1 Machine 2

A 6 11
B 6 5
C 12 8
D 12 14
E 11 7
F 9 10
a)
b) E, F, C, A, D, B
c) F, A, C, E, D, B
d) B, C, F, E, A, D
e) A, F, D, C, E, B

Q 40) Jobs

Machine J1 J2 J3 J4 J5
s
A 5 7 9 7 8
 B 3 2 3 1 9
C 10 9 10 9 10
Can we apply sequencing principles on the above data

a) Yes
b) No
c) Need more machines
d) Need more jobs

Q 41) Jobs

Process Time ( in hrs)

Machine J1 J2 J3 J4 J5
s
A 5 7 9 7 8
B 3 2 3 1 9
On sequencing last job processed is

a) J1
b) J2
c) J3
d) J4

Q 42) Jobs

Process Time ( in hrs)

Machine A B C D E
s
M1 5 9 8 3 2
M2 7 4 7 2 9
The time efficient sequence plan is

a) EABCD
b) AECBD
c) EACBD
d) EACDB

Q 43) In 2-machine and 5 jobs possible sequence of jobs are

a) 1
b) 5
c) 120
d) 2

Q 44) In sequencing objective is

 i) Maximize total elapsed time
ii) Minimize total elapsed time
iii) Maximize cost
iv) Minimize sales

Unit 5 Probability and Probability Distribution

Q 1) If P(A) = 0.6, P(B) = 0.4, P(A and B) = 0.0 , what can be said about events A and B?

a) Independent
b) Mutually exclusive
c) Posterior probability
d) All of the above

Q 2) The probability of event A occurring is 0.3, while the probability that event B occurs is 0.8.
The probability that event A and event B occur simultaneously is 0.2. If it is known that event A
occurred, what is the probability that event B occurred also?

a) 0.67
b) 0.25
c) 0.16
d) 0.90

Q 3) A production process is known to produce a particular item in such a way that 3% of these
are defective. If three items are randomly selected as they come off the production line, what is
the probability that all three are defective (assuming that they are all independent)?

a) 0.027
b) 0.09
c) 0.00027
d) 0.000027

Q 4) A company is considering producing some new products. Based on past records, management
believes that there is a 60% chance that the first product will be successful, and a 40% chance that the
second product will be successful. As these products are completely different, it may be assumed that
the success of one is totally independent of the success of the other. If two products are introduced to
the market, what is the probability that both are successful?

a) 0.12
b) 0.60
c) 0.24
d) 0.36
Q 5) In a throw of coin what is the probability of getting head.
a) 1
b) 2
c) ½
d) 0

Q 6) In a throw of dice what is the probability of getting number greater than 5

a) ½
b) 1/3
c) 1/5
d) 1/6

Q 7) If two events are independent, then

a) they must be mutually exclusive

b) the sum of their probabilities must be equal to one
c) their intersection must be zero
d) None of these alternatives is correct.
Q 8) Probability lies between:

a) -1 and +1
b) 0 and 1
c) 0 and n
d) 0 and ∞

Q 9) A set of all possible outcomes of an experiment is called:

a) Combination
b) Sample point
c) Sample space
d) Compound event

Q 10) The events having no experimental outcomes in common is called:

a) Equally likely events

b) Exhaustive events
c) Mutually exclusive events
d) Independent events

Q 11) The probability associated with the reduced sample space is called:

a) Conditional probability
b) Statistical probability
c) Mathematical probability
 d) Subjective probability

Q 12) If A is any event in S and its complement, then P( ) is equal to:

a) 1
b) 0
c) 1-A
d) 1-P(A)

Q 13) When certainty is involved in a situation, its probability is equal to:

a) Zero
b) Between-l and + 1
c) Between 0 and 1
d) One

Q 14) Which of the following cannot be taken as probability of an event?

a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) -1

Q 15) The term 'sample space' is used for:

a) All possible outcomes

b) All possible coins
c) Probability
d) Sample

Q 16) The term 'event' is used for:

a) Time
b) A sub-set of the sample space
c) Probability
d) Total number of outcomes.

Q 17) When the occurrence of one event has no effect on the probability of the occurrence of
another event, the events are called:

a) Independent
b) Dependent
c) Mutually exclusive
d) Equally likely

Q 18) The six faces of the die are called equally likely if the die is:
 a) Small
b) Fair
c) Six-faced
d) Round

Q 19) If we toss a coin and P(T)=2P(H), then probability of head is equal to:
a) 0
b) 1/2
c) 1/3
d) 2/3

Q 20) Given P(A) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.5 and P(A⋃B)=0.8,then:

(a) A and B are not mutually exclusive events
(b) A and B are equally likely events
(c) A and Bare independent events
(d) Aand B are mutually exclusive events

Q 21) If A and B are independent events, then:

(a) P(A⋃B) = P(A).P(B)
(b) P(A⋂B) = P(A).P(B)
(c) P(A⋂B) = P(A)+P(B)
(d) P(A)=P(B)

Q 22) Two dice are rolled. Probability of getting similar faces is:
(a) 5/36
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/2

Q 23) If A and B are two independent events, then:

(a) P(A/B)= P(A)
(b) P(A) = P(B)
(c) P(A) < P(B)
(d)P(A/B) = P(B/A)

Q 24) Probability of getting a red ace if a card is drawn at random from pack of 52 cards is

a) 1⁄52
b) 1⁄26
c) 1⁄13
d) 1

Q 25) A survey of 120 business executives revealed the following results:

  80 Read the Financial Times
 60 read the Economist
 40 read both the Financial Times and the Economist

If an executive is picked at random, find the probability that he or she reads both the Financial
Times and the Economist. 

a) 0.333
b) 0.833
c) 0.666
d) 0.5

Q 26) If an executive is picked at random find the probability that he or she reads either the Financial
Times or the Economist.

a) 0.333
b) 0.833
c) 0.666
d) 0.5

Q 27) A standard normal distribution has:

a. the mean equal to the variance

b. mean equal 1 and variance equal 1
c. mean equal 0 and variance equal 1
d. mean equal 0 and standard deviation equal 0

Q 28) If X N(55,49) then σ

a) 55
b) 49
c) 7
d) 104

Q 29) Area under the normal curve on either side of mean is

a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) -1

Q 30) If X~N(16, 49), then mean is

a) 16
b) 49
 c) 7
d) 104

Q 31) Shape of normal curve can be related to

a) Circle
b) J
c) L
d) bell

Q 32) Total Area under the normal curve is

a) 0
b) Greater than 1
c) 1
d) Less than 1

Q 33) A Bernoulli trial has:

(a) At least two outcomes

(b) At most two outcomes
(c) Two outcomes
(d) Fewer than two outcomes

Q 34) The two mutually exclusive outcomes in a Bernoulli trial are usually called:

(a) Success and failure

(b) Variable and constant
(c) Mean and variance
(d) With and without replacement

Q 35) In a binomial probability distribution, the sum of probability of failure and probability of success is always:

(a) Zero
(b) Less than 0.5
(c) Greater than 0.5
(d)One

Q 36) If n = 6 and p= 0.9 then the value of P(x=7) is:

(a) Zero
(b) Less than zero
(c) More than zero
(d) One

Q 38) In a multiple choice test there are five possible answers to each of 20 questions.If a candidate guesses the correct
answer each time, the mean number of correct answers is:

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 1/5
(d) 20

Q 39) If the probability of a success is 0.80, and there are n=10 trials, then the mean of the
binomial distribution is would be

a) 1.6
b) 1.26
c) 8
d) 0.08

Q 40) If n = 10 and p = 0.8, then the variance of the binomial distribution is

a) 1.6
b) 1.26
c) 8
d) 0.08