Fiitjee: Big Bang Edge Test - 2019

FIITJEE Big Bang Edge Test - 2019
for students presently in
Class 8
Paper 1
(20 October 2019)
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 210
Code 8000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 67 to 78 +1 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 79 to 90 +1 0
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 91 to 102 +1 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 103 to 114 +1 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
BBE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-AT+S&M-2
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Direction (Q.1 – Q.3): Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
1. Distinguish : Similar : : Short : ?

(A) Fastidious (B) Tiny
(C) Minute (D) Lengthy
2. LF : OH : :IV : ?
(A) JX (B) LX
(C) KY (D) JY
3. 25 : 7 : : 81 : ?
(A) 10 (B) 9
(C) 7 (D) 14
4. From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
ENVIRONMENT
(A) ENTER (B) METRE
(C) IRON (D) MOMENTUM
5. Find out the odd letters from the given alternatives.

(A) TSR (B) WVU
(C) HFE (D) KJI
6. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series.
B,D,H,?
(A) O (B) P
(C) Q (D) R
Space for Rough Work
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
7. If “A” denotes “added to”, “B” denotes “divided by”, “C” denotes “multiplied by” and “D” denotes
“subtracted from”, then 116 B 29 C 6 A 24 D 45 = ?
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 6
8. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left, how many boys
should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in the line?
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 14 (D) 15
9. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
i. Fabricii. Face iii. Failure iv. Faculty
(A) iv, ii, i, iii (B) iii, iv, ii, i
(C) iv, iii, i, ii (D) i, ii, iv, iii
10. In a certain code language, “REMINDER” is written as “SFNJMCDQ”. How is “STANDARD” written in
that code language?
(A) TUBOEQZE (B) CZQETUBO
(C) TUBOCZQC (D) TUBOEBSE
11. Select the missing number from the given response

(A) 9
(B) 1
(C) 25
(D) 2
12. How many triangles, there in the following figure?

(A) 24
(B) 26
(C) 28
(D) 30
13. If the TERMINATION is coded as 12345671586, what should be the code for the word MOTION?
(A) 438586 (B) 458586
(C) 481586 (D) 485186
14. ‘Army’ is related to ‘Land’ in the same way as ‘Navy’ is related to _____.
(A) Ships (B) Battle
(C) Water (D) Admiral
15. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Amphibian 2. Amorphous
3. Amphidextrous 4. Ambiguous
5. Ambivalent
(A) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 (B) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
(C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (D) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
16. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
(A) Eyes (B) Tongue
(C) Nose (D) Hand
17. Which of the following will complete the series?

c, E, g, I, k, _ , _
(A) O, k (B) K, m
(C) M, o (D) M, l
18. Kajul goes 30 metres North, then turns right and walks 40 metres, then again turns right and walks 20
metres, then again turns right and walks 40 metres. How many metres is she from her original
position?
(A) 0 (B) 10
(C) 20 (D) 40
19. Choose the odd numeral pair/group from the given alternatives:
(A) 3 : 12 (B) 4 : 20
(C) 6 : 42 (D) 7 : 63
20. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Siddharth said, “Her mother’s brother is the only son of my
mother’s father.” How is the girl’s mother related to Siddharth if there are only 5 members in the
family.
(A) Mother (B) Sister
(C) Aunt (D) Grandmother
Directions (21 – 24): Study the following questions and answering the questions referring to the word
sequence given below:
MEF THY JFG KSY NOE RXB
21. When first and second letter of each word is interchanged, then how many meaning full word will be
formed?
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) One (D) Five
22. If each Consonant is changed to previous letter in the alphabetical series and each vowel is changed
to next letter in the alphabetical series, then How many word contains at most two vowel?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
23. If words are arranged according to the alphabetical series from left to right, which word is third from
the right end?
(A) MEF (B) KSY
(C) JFG (D) NOE
24. If each letter in the each word is arranged according to the alphabetical series from left to right, and
then first and second letter are interchanged in each word then how many meaning full word will be
formed?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) None (D) More than three
25. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
Animals, Lion, Tiger
(A) (B) (C) (D)

26. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given
answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question Figure
Answer Figure
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27. Complete the missing portion of the given figure (X) by selecting from the given options (A), (B), (C)
and (D).
?
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
28. How many triangles are there in the figure below?

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
29. A dot is placed in the figure marked as (X). This figure is followed by four alternatives marked as (A),
(B), (C) and (D). One out of these four options contain the common region to circle, square, triangle,
similar to that of marked by dot in figure (X). Select the option.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
30. Which of the following dices is identical to the unfolded figure as shown here?
P
P Q P P
R T
S S T T R S U T Q
U Q
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. How do the lubricants minimises friction?

(A) By filling the irregularities between two surfaces in contact
(B) Use of lubricants makes the surface smooth
(C) By forming a very thin layer between the surfaces
(D) All of these
32. __________ is a contact force.

(A) Gravitational force (B) Magnetic force
(C) Frictional force (D) Electrostatic force
33. The maximum force of friction when the block is just starting to move is called the _______
(A) sliding friction (B) limiting friction
(C) rolling friction (D) none of these
34. ___________ is the S.I. unit of density of an object.

(A) kg m–3 (B) g cm–3
(C) g cm3 (D) kg cm3
35. Physical quantity which is the product of mass and velocity is known as _________.
(A) force (B) momentum
(C) inertia (D) energy
36. When a body is stationary,

(A) there is no force acting on it
(B) the force acting on it is not in contact with it
(C) the combination of forces acting on it balance each other
(D) the body is in vacuum
37. SI unit of Impulse is

(A) kg m/sec2 (B) kg m/sec
(C) kg sec/m (D) Newton-meter (Nm)
38. With the rise in temperature, the speed of sound in a gas

(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) may increase or decrease depending on the corresponding change in pressure.
39. Which of the following musical instrument comes under wind and reed instruments?
(A) Mridangam (B) Shehnai
(C) Manjira (D) Jaltarang
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
40. Which of the following substance can decolourise the blue aqueous solution of copper
sulphate(CuSO4)?
(A) NH3 (B) Zn
(C) Ag (D) NaCl
41. In India, petroleum is found in

(A) Assam (B) Gujarat
(C) Mumbai high (D) All of these
42. The process that are carried out in the formation of coal is known as:
(A) cabylation (B) catenation
(C) carbonization (D) carboxylation
43. A burning magnesium ribbon was dissolved in water to make a solution. Which of the following
statement is NOT correct for the solution?
(A) The solution turns red litmus blue (B) The solution contains Mg(OH)2
(C) The solution turns blue litmus red (D) None of these
44. Which of the following substance(s) is/are formed by burning of natural gas?
(A) CO and CO2 (B) CO2 and H2O
(C) CO2, H2 and CH4 (D) CO2, H2O and O2
45. Which of the following gas is evolved if sodium reacts with water?
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Ozone (D) Water vapour
46. Which of the following synthetic fibre is obtained from a natural source?
(A) Nylon (B) Rayon
(C) Polyester (D) Terylene
47. PET is a
(A) polyamide (B) polyester
(C) polypeptide (D) Polyene
48. The word polymer comes from Greek words ‘Poly’ and ‘mer’ meaning
(A) many and unit (B) many and bead
(C) many and clip (D) many and term
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
49. Find the supplement of 135°.

(A) 60° (B) 15°
(C) 70° (D) 45°
50. Which of the following is irrational number?

2
22
(A) (B)  32  5
7
(C) 1.313131….. (D) 1.313113111….
51. Which of the following is reflex angle?

(A) 135° (B) 75°
(C) 175° (D) 195°
7 5
52. The value of m that satisfies the equation  is
4m  2 3m  4
1
(A) 9 (B) 3
2
(C) 18 (D) 38
53. If the ratio of the areas of two squares is 9 : 1 then ratio of their perimeters is :
(A) 9 : 1 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 3 : 4 (D) 2 : 3
54. Zero is an integer which is

(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Both positive and negative (D) Neither positive nor negative
 2
55. Additive inverse of     is:
 3
2 2
(A) (B) 
3 3
3 3
(C) (D) 
2 2
56. If x = 6 and y = x + 2, then the value of x2  y2

(A) 11 (B) 12
(C) 13 (D) 10
x x
57. Find the value of x if   4.
5 6
(A) 100 (B) 120
(C) 130 (D) 140
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
58. Species found only in a particular area are known as:

(A) Endangered species (B) Endemic species
(C) Extinct species (D) None of these
59. Malaria is caused by:

(A) Plasmodium (B) Paramecium
(C) Amoeba (D) All of these
60. Seed drill is used to:

(A) Sow the seeds (B) Remove the weeds
(C) Mix manure in the soil (D) None of these
61. National animal of India is:

(A) Lion (B) Tiger
(C) Antelope (D) Elephant
62. Dengue is caused by:

(A) Bacteria (B) Virus
(C) Protozoans (D) Fungi
63. An ecosystem is made of:

(A) Biotic component (B) Abiotic component
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
64. Watering the crops is called:

(A) Sowing (B) Manuring
(C) Tilling (D) Irrigation
65. Weeds are the:

(A) Main crop plants
(B) Insect & pests
(C) Unwanted plants growing along the crop
(D) None of these
66. Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for:

(A) Chicken pox (B) Small pox
(C) Polio (D) Hepatitis B
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
67. Ultrasonic, infrasonic and audible sound waves propagate through same medium with speed V1, V2
and V3 respectively at constant temperature, then
(A) V1 = V2 = V3 (B) V1 > V3 > V2
(C) V1 < V3 < V2 (D) V1 < V2 < V3
68. The thunder of a lightening in the sky is heard 20 seconds after the flash of light. If the speed of
sound is 330 m/s, the distance of lightening is
(A) 6.6 km (B) 6 × 109 m
(C) 660 m (D) 660 km
69. An iron piece and a wooden piece have equal weights in air. If they are moved from air to vacuum
(A) the iron piece appears to weigh more
(B) the wooden piece appears to weigh more
(C) there is no change in the weight of either
(D) the information is insufficient to find which one will appear to weigh more
70. According to Newton’s __________ law of motion, force  rate of change of momentum.
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) None of these
71. A wooden block of weight 50 N is placed on a table. The force exerted by the surface of the table on
the block will be __________ .
(A) zero (B) 25 N
(C) 50 N (D) 100 N
72. A constant retarding force of 100 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with speed 25
m/s. How long does the body take to stop?
(A) 9 sec (B) 4.5 sec
(C) 5 sec (D) 10 sec
73. Which of the following relation between wavelength (), frequency (f) and velocity (v) of a wave is
correct?
v 1
(A)   (B)  
f vf
f
(C)   (D)  = vf
v
74. The frequency of a source of sound is 50 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
1
(A) 50 times (B) times
50
(C) 3000 times (D) 300 times
75. Which of the following is/are ways to reduce friction?

(A) By using anti-friction metals (B) By using lubricants
(C) By making stream lined bodies (D) all of these
76. We need to increase_________, if we want to change feeble sound to loud sound.

(A) velocity (B) wavelength
(C) frequency (D) amplitude
77. If the amplitude (assumed small) of a pendulum is doubled, its periodic time
(A) does not change (B) is doubled
(C) is halved (D) increases four times
78. Brakes of automobiles do not work well during rainy season because
(A) water destroys the wheel drum.
(B) we cannot apply much force on brakes during rainy season.
(C) water acts as lubricant between wheel drum and brake shoe.
(D) All of these.
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
79. Which of the following elements are present in household cooking gas(LPG) in compound form?
(A) Carbon and hydrogen (B) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
(C) Carbon, hydrogen and sulphur (D) Carbon, hydrogen and phosphorus
80. The property of metals by which they can beaten into thin sheets is called
(A) ductility (B) malleability
(C) electroliity (D) foiling
81. Which of the following is NOT a petroleum content?

(A) Kerosene (B) Petrol
(C) Lubricating oil (D) Producer gas
82. In what form isobutane gas is stored in cylinders and used in domestic kitchen.
(A) Gas (B) Liquid
(C) Solid (D) Plasma
83. Petroleum is formed under

(A) high pressure (B) high temperature
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
84. Which of the following is inexhaustible resource?

(A) Sunlight (B) Portable water
(C) Coal (D) Forest
85. Statement-1: Metal forms basic oxide.

Statement-2: Metal form alloys.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is also true, Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
86. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Non metals combine among themselves to form compounds.
(B) Hydrogen is the most abundant gas on earth.
(C) Non-metals exist in only gaseous state.
(D) None of these
87. Which of the following is made from coal tar components?

(A) Perfume (B) Methane
(C) Petrol (D) Ammonical liquor
88. CNG is NOT being used for

(A) power generation (B) transport vehicles
(C) jet aircrafts (D) domestic fuel
89. Electric switches are made up of

(A) melamine (B) bakelite
(C) both A and B (D) neither A nor B
90. Which is NOT a characteristic of bakelite?

(A) It is a thermosetting plastic (B) It is a polymer of two monomers
(C) It is not affected by heat (D) It melts at a particular temperature
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
91. The base of a right angled triangle is 5 metres and hypotenuse is 13 metres. Its area will be :
(A) 25 m2 (B) 28 m2
2
(C) 30 m (D) None of these
x y y x
x y
92. If x = 2 and y = 4, then     =
y x
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 2
93. If 5x+ 3 = 253x  4 then x = ?

7 7
(A) (B) 
2 4
11 7
(C) (D)
5 5
94. If 35 is removed from the data 30, 34, 35, 40, 38, 36, 37, 39 then the median will be increased by
(A) 2 (B) 1.5
(C) 1 (D) 0.5
95. A car covers a distance of 89.1 km in 2.2 hours. What is the average distance covered by it in 4
hours.
(A) 162 kms (B) 198 kms
(C) 226 kms (D) 248 kms
25p  14q 8
96. If  , then find p : q.
5p  7q 3
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 2 : 3
(C) 2 : 5 (D) 5 : 4
97. Find mean of following data: 12 ,22 ,3 2 ,........20 2

(A) 132.5 (B) 140
(C) 143.5 (D) 148
98. If one angle of a triangle equals to the sum of the other two angles, the triangle must be:
(A) scalene (B) right angled
(C) obtuse angled (D) acute angled
99. If x and y are co-primes, then their LCM is:

(A) xy (B) x  y
x
(C) (D) 1
y
100. Given that 13  3.605 and 130  11.40 then the value of 1.3  1300  0.013  ?
(A) 36.164 (B) 36.304
(C) 37.164 (D) 37.304
101. The maximum number of points of intersection of three lines in a plane is:
(A) Three (B) Zero
(C) One (D) Two
102. In the figure given, if PQRS is a parallelogram then y = ? P

Q
(A) 80 (B) 90
x + 20
(C) 100 (D) 110
y + 10
x – 40
S R
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
103. Green plants in food chain represent:

(A) Primary consumer (B) Secondary consumer
(C) Producer (D) Decomposer
104. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Manures improves soil texture
(B) Manure replenishes the soil with nutrients
(C) Crop rotation also replenishes the soil with nutrients
(D) All of the above
105. Bread left unused under moist conditions is attacked by ______.

(A) Bacteria (B) Fungus
(C) Virus (D) Protozoa
106. Part of earth which supports the life is called

(A) Biosphere (B) Sanctuary
(C) Ecosystem reserve (D) Biotic community
107. Large scale storage of grains to protect them from pests like rats & insects is done in
(A) Jute bags (B) plastic bins
(C) Granaries (D) None of these
108. Some bacteria live in root nodules where they are associated with:
(A) Carbon cycle (B) Water cycle
(C) Nitrogen cycle (D) Mineral cycle
109. Jim Corbett National Park is situated in:

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Uttarakhand
(C) West Bengal (D) Sikkim
110. The system of irrigation where in water is supplied drop by drop near the roots of plants is:
(A) Pulley system (B) Drip system
(C) Sprinkler system (D) Lever system
111. Foot and mouth disease of cattle is caused by a ______.

(A) Bacteria (B) Virus
(C) Protozoa (D) None of these
112. Which of the following statement is correct about wild life sanctuary?
(A) Killing or capturing animals in general is strictly prohibited & punishable by law in all such
places.
(B) Wildlife sanctuaries like reserve forests provide protection & suitable living conditions to wild
animals.
(C) People living in wildlife sanctuaries are allowed to do certain activities like grazing by their
livestock, collecting medicinal plants, firewood, etc.
(D) All of these
113. The mode of transmission of Hepatitis A virus is:

(A) Water (B) Air
(C) Mosquito (D) All of these
114. When plants of the same kind are cultivated at one place on a large scale, it is called:
(A) Crop (B) Rabi crop
(C) Kharif crop (D) None of these

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for students presently in

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Marking Scheme for each question

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

1. Distinguish : Similar : : Short : ?

5. Find out the odd letters from the given alternatives.

11. Select the missing number from the given response

12. How many triangles, there in the following figure?

15. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

17. Which of the following will complete the series?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for Rough Work

28. How many triangles are there in the figure below?

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

31. How do the lubricants minimises friction?

32. __________ is a contact force.

34. ___________ is the S.I. unit of density of an object.

36. When a body is stationary,

37. SI unit of Impulse is

38. With the rise in temperature, the speed of sound in a gas

41. In India, petroleum is found in

49. Find the supplement of 135°.

50. Which of the following is irrational number?

51. Which of the following is reflex angle?

54. Zero is an integer which is

56. If x = 6 and y = x + 2, then the value of x2  y2

58. Species found only in a particular area are known as:

59. Malaria is caused by:

60. Seed drill is used to:

61. National animal of India is:

62. Dengue is caused by:

63. An ecosystem is made of:

64. Watering the crops is called:

65. Weeds are the:

66. Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine for:

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

75. Which of the following is/are ways to reduce friction?

76. We need to increase_________, if we want to change feeble sound to loud sound.

81. Which of the following is NOT a petroleum content?

83. Petroleum is formed under

84. Which of the following is inexhaustible resource?

85. Statement-1: Metal forms basic oxide.

86. Which of the following statement is correct?

87. Which of the following is made from coal tar components?

88. CNG is NOT being used for

89. Electric switches are made up of

90. Which is NOT a characteristic of bakelite?

93. If 5x+ 3 = 253x  4 then x = ?

97. Find mean of following data: 12 ,22 ,3 2 ,........20 2

99. If x and y are co-primes, then their LCM is:

102. In the figure given, if PQRS is a parallelogram then y = ? P

103. Green plants in food chain represent: