Power Systems - I Question Bank

ONLINE QUESTION BANK
POWER SYSTEM I CODE:-EE501

CONTACT HOURS:-3L+1T CREDITS:-4
Prepared By:- SUPARNA PAL,ASST PROF,EE DEPT,JISCE
Multiple Choice Questions
For One Marks

1. A transmission and distribution engineer needed to design the sub transmission substation. The tapping
component needed will be _______________
a) feeder
b) distributor
c) transmitter
s) tap-changing transformer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the sub transmission level, there is no tapping at various level does not take place. For this
a feeder is used.
2. While designing the distribution to locality of one lac population with medium dense load requirement,
we can employ ___________
a) radial system
b) parallel system
c) ring main system
d) any of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A radial system is used for the medium requirement of loading and a medium dense
population as it becomes easier to install and operate.
3. A _________ distribution system is more reliable than the ______ distribution system.
a) parallel, radial
b) parallel, ring
c) radial, parallel
d) ring, parallel
Answer: a
Explanation: A parallel distribution system has two end feeding and an alternative of parallel line, so in
case there is a fault, the isolator can isolate the faulty part and let the healthy system operate.
4. While designing the distribution sub stations by the designer, it is required to use the _______ for the
discrete power tapping.
a) distributor
b) power transformer
c) distribution transformer
d) feeder
Answer: a
Explanation: For the discrete tapping of the power the consumer level it is the distributor which is
employed at the sub stations and consumer levels.
5. For the single phase 2-wire system, the maximum voltage between the outer wires and earth is
______________
a) V/√2
b) √2V
c) V
d) 2V
Answer: a
Explanation: The midpoint voltage will be V/√2.
6. Which part of thermal power plant causes maximum energy losses?

a) Boiler
b) Alternator
c) Condenser
d) Ash and unburnt carbon
Answer: c
Explanation: About 54% of energy losses occurs in condenser. Losses in boiler and alternator are about 1%
and 16% because of such high losses overall efficiency of thermal power plant reduces to 29% for normal
old thermal power plant and 50% for modern super critical pressure steam power plant which employs
many heat saving devices.
7. What is the effect of increasing steam pressure on efficiency of steam power plant?
a) Increases linearly
b) Increases nonlinearly
c) Decreases linearly
d) Does not changes
Answer: b
Explanation: The thermal efficiency of steam power plant depends upon the steam pressure. The efficiency
increases with increasing steam pressure nonlinearly up to a level. After that level increase in efficiency
becomes very low with respect to increasing pressure.
8. What is the effect of increasing steam temperature of thermal power plant on its thermal efficiency?
a) Increases linearly
b) Decreases
c) It does not depends on temperature
d) Increases nonlinearly
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal efficiency of steam power plant increases with increase in steam temperature
linearly. Increas in temperature of steam also causes its effect on cost. So temperature of steam is increased
only upto a level at which it is economical.
9. Overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to ___________

a) Thermal efficiency
b) Generation efficiency
c) Multiplication of thermal and generation efficiency
d) Ratio of thermal and generation efficiency
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal efficiency of steam power plant is the ratio of the heat equivalent of mechanical
energy transmitted to the turbine shaft and the heat of the combustion. Thermal efficiency is generally quite
low about 30%. Efficiency of generator is called generation efficiency.
10. In supercritical pressure steam power plant temperature of steam is __________

a) 480°C
b) 240°C
c) 600°C
d) 150°C
Answer: c
Explanation: At a temperature about 600°C water enters in supercritical phase and has property between
those of liquid and gas. advantage of such plant are that low grade fossil fuel (lignite) can be used.
Efficiency of such plants may be reached up to 50%.
11. Kaplan turbine is _____________

a) axial flow turbine
b) inward flow turbine
c) tangential flow turbine
d) mixed flow turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: In Kaplan turbine water strikes the turbine blades axially. That’s why Kaplan turbine is an
axial flow turbine. Kaplan turbines are special type of turbines for low head applications.
12. Which of the following is not a reaction turbine?

a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton wheel turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: c
Explanation: When the entire pressure of water is converted into kinetic energy in a nozzle and the jet thus
formed drives the wheel then the turbine is called impulse turbine. Pelton turbine works in similar way, so
it is an impulse turbine. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines are reaction turbines.
13. Inside pressure of which of the following turbine is equal to atmospheric pressure?
a) Fixed vane propeller turbine
b) Movable vane propeller turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Pelton wheel turbine
Answer: d
Explanation: Francis and propeller turbines are totally submerged in water, the turbine casing is full of
water. As the water flows through the turbine blades, its pressure changes. Also the discharging water
creates negative pressure below the turbine blades. Pelton turbines are fitted in open air and water Jet is
forced into its blades by nozzel so it’s inside pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure.
14. Francis turbine is suitable for medium head hydroelectric power plant.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Francis turbines are medium head and medium flow turbines. Kaplan turbines are low head
high flow turbines. Pelton turbines are high head and low flow turbines.
15. Which turbine has highest speed?

a) Pelton wheel turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Impulse turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
Answer: d
Explanation: Francis turbine has a specific speed of 60 to 300 rpm. Specific speed of Pelton turbine is
lowest. Speed of Kaplan turbine is 2 to 3 times more than that of Francis turbine.
16. Governing mechanism used in case of Pelton wheel turbine is ________

a) guide vane
b) nozzle needle
c) control valve
d) dam gates
Answer:b
Explanation: During load variation it is necessary to maintain the speed of the alternator constant. This is
achieved by controlling the flow of water entering the turbine by the help of automatic adjustment of guide
vanes for reaction turbine and the nozzle needle is in case of impulse turbine. Such an operation of speed
regulation called governing and the system used to do this is called governor.
17. Guide vanes are used as governor in Kaplan turbine.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Guide vanes are used as governor in Francis and Kaplan turbines. These guide vanes controls
the flow of water to the turbine and hence governs the speed of rotation of turbine. Under different loading
conditions the speed of rotation of turbine is needed to be controlled for constant frequency output.
18. Which of the following is the correct equation for the electrical power generated by the hydroelectric
power plant?
a) 75×0.736 wQHη Watt
b) (7.5/0.736) × wQHη Watt
c) 0.845 ×wQHη Watt
d) 9.81 ×wQHη
Answer: c
Explanation: Rating of any power plant is expressed by its maximum output power. These are large
quantities so rating is given in mega watts.The electrical power generated by this plant is proportional to
specific weight of water(w), water head(H), generation efficiency(η), flow rate of water(Q) and
acceleration due to gravity.
19. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation
Answer: d
Explanation: Sedimentation may reduce the water storage capacity of reservoir and may also cause damage
to the turbine blades. Availability of water, large catchment area and rocky land are primary requirements
for site selection of hydroelectric power plant.
20. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends upon
___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential energy of large quantity of stored water is used by hydroelectric power plant to
generate electrical energy. Head of water is important to get kinetic energy from that potential energy.
Efficiency of alternator represents that what percentage of input mechanical power it can convert into
electrical power.
21. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: When water falls, potential energy of water is converted into kinetic energy. This kinetic
energy is used to drive the turbine.
22. Hydroelectric power plant is __________

a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Conventional source of energy
c) Non-conventional source of energy
d) Continuous source of energy
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are conventional source of energy. About 16.6% of total
electricity and about 70% of total renewable energy of world is provided by hydroelectric power plants.
They are not Non-renewable because water is inexhaustible. It is not continuous source of energy because
its output fluctuates with change in flow rate of water with season.
22. Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are generally constructed in hilly areas. These power plants are
quite away from the load centre.
23. Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________
a) Flat areas
b) Deserts
c) Hilly areas
d) Deltas
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to get sufficient head, hydroelectric power plants are constructed in hilly areas. In
desert and flat areas sufficient water head cannot be obtained. Deltas are not suitable for this because of
high sedimentation.
24. Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?

a) Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
b) Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
c) It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
d) Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
Answer: d
Explanation: Fluctuating load demands can be met just by controlling the flow of water using valves and
gates. Due to its robust construction, its efficiency does not fall with time. Statement ‘b’ is correct because
construction of dam, installation of alternator and turbines are very costly.
26.. Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?

a) no fuel requirement
b) low running cost
c) continuous power source
d) no standby losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Output of such plants is never constant. This is because of their dependency over flow rate of
water in river which is seasonal. No fuel requirement low running cost and no standby losses are
advantages of hydroelectric power plants.
27. Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
Answer: a
Explanation: It is because in addition to generation of electricity they are also used for irrigation, flood
control etc. Frequency control in such plants is done easily just by controlling flow of water to the turbine
through valves and gates. Due to low maintenance cost and no fuel requirement running cost of a plant is
very low. Water is not fuel.
28. In a 2 stroke engine, the operation cycle are completed in how many strokes and revolution?
a. 4 strokes and 2 revolutions.

b. 2 stroke and 2 revolutions.
c. 2 strokes and 1 revolution.
d. 4 stroke and 4 revolutions.
ANSWER: c. 2 strokes and 1 revolution.
29. The speed of the diesel engine may vary from
a. 0 – 100 rpm.
b. 200 – 1000 rpm.
c. 500 -5000 rpm.
d. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
ANSWER: d. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
30. The diesel plants are mainly used ________
a. As peak load plants.

b. As base load plants.
c. As standby power plants.
d. Both peak and stand by plants.
ANSWER: d. Both peak and stand by plants.
31. What is the ranging capacity of the diesel plant?
a. 50 – 750 kW
b. 100 – 1175 kW
c. 75 – 3750 kW
d. 150 – 4575 kW
ANSWER: c. 75 – 3750 kW
32. It is very much necessary to treat the makeup water to remove the scale forming the impurities.
Which treatment is used?
a. Zeolite softener.
b. Lime or lime soda treatment
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of the following
ANSWER: c. Both (a) and (b).
33. Which among the following instruments are provided on the exhaust line to reduce the pressure?
1. Ducts.
2. Muffler
3. Strainers.
4. Purifiers.
ANSWER: 2. Muffler
34.. The best capable alternative source which can meet the future energy demand is _____________
a) thermal power plant
b) nuclear power plant
c) hydroelectric power plant
d) geothermal power plant
Answer: b
Explanation: Demand of electrical energy is increasing at fast rate owing to booming increase in the
population and industrial growth. The reserves of fossil fuel i.e., coal, oil and gas are fast depleting. There
are many alternative sources of energy but they are not enough to supply such huge demand, only nuclear
power plants are capable of doing that.
35. How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to the energy generated by 1 kg of uranium?
a) 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
b) 300 tonnes of high grade coal
c) 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
d) 3000 tonnes of high grade coal
Answer: d
Explanation: One of the main attention for nuclear fuel is the huge amount of energy that can be released
from a small quantity of active nuclear fuel. The energy obtainable by completely using 1 kg of Uranium
would give energy equivalent 3000 tons of high grade coal i.e. Uranium has three millions times the energy
of coal.
36. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for ________________

a) more than 5 months
b) few weeks
c) few days
d) more than 5 years
Answer: d
Explanation: Very small amount of nuclear fuel can produce very high amount of energy. Nuclear fuel may
remain in a reactor for more than 5 years.
37. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as __________
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fuel in a nuclear reactor may remain for more than 5 years. So the cost of fuel
injected initially is taken as capital cost and may be a few crore rupees.
38. In economics of nuclear power plant taxes and insurance charges are taken as _______
a) operating cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) fixed cost
Answer: d
Explanation: The life of reactor plant may be taken as between 15 to 20 years. For the other parts of the
plant equipment the life may be taken as 30 years. The fixed cost would be interest, depreciation, taxes and
insurance charges.
39. Which of the following are not taken as operation and maintenance cost in economics of nuclear power
plant?
a) Taxes and insurance
b) Salaries and wages of staff
c) Cost of waste disposal
d) Cost of processing materials
Answer: a
Explanation: Taxes and insurance are taken as fixed costs. Salaries and wages of operation and
maintenance staff, cost of waste disposal and cost of processing materials are the operation and
maintenance cost.
40. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear power plant?

a) 20 to 25%
b) 25 to 30%
c) 30 to 40 %
d) 50 to 70 %
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a nuclear power plant is around 30 to 40%. Efficiency is higher at
high road factors. Therefore, a nuclear power plant is always operated as a base load plant.
41. The land area required for installation of nuclear power plant is ________
a) more than thermal power plant
b) less than thermal power plant
c) equel to thermal power plant
d) depends on type of construction
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear power plants need less area as compared to any other plant of same generation
capacity. A 2000MW nuclear power plant needs about 80 acres whereas the coal fired steam power plant of
same generation capacity needs 250 acres of land.
42. All of the nuclear fuel reserve will be ended in about 400 years.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: There are larger deposits of nuclear fuel available all over the world. Therefore, such plants
can ensure continued supply of electrical energy for thousands of years.
43. With respect to the load centre which location is suitable for stablishment of nuclear power plant?
a) Load centre
b) Near load centre but at reasonable distance
c) Far away from load centre
d) Near chemical industries
Answer: b
Explanation: These plants can be located near the load centre because of the negligible cost of
transportation of fuel. But there should be a reasonable distance between the nuclear power plant and the
nearest populated areas from point of view of safety against danger of radioactivity. It is highly undesirable
to choose a site adjacent to chemical industries oil refineries PWD works hospitals and schools.
44. Operating cost of nuclear power plant is less than thermal power plant.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Cost of fuel in nuclear power plant is taken as the capital cost. The the total operating cost
involves wages and the salaries of operating and maintenance staff only, cost of disposal of waste etc.. The
cost of transport and handling of coal for conventional thermal power plant is much higher than the cost of
nuclear fuel.
45. Which of the following is not a reason of heating feed water?

a) It improves overall efficiency
b) It removes dissolved impurities
c) It prevents from thermal stress which may cause due to enter of cold water into boiler
d) It produces steam from feed water
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam production is work of boiler. Feed water is heated only for four reasons : to improve
overall efficiency, to remove dissolved impurities, to avoid thermal stress going to entering of cold water to
the boiler and to precipitate impurities carried by steam and condensate outside the boiler.
46. Feed water for boiler of thermal power plant is obtained from:
a) Natural sources like river and lake
b) Partly from condensed steam and natural sources
c) Condensed steam and small percentage from natural resources
d) Natural sources and small percentage from condensed steam
Answer: c
Explanation: The steam coming out of turbines is condensed and the condenset is fed back to the boiler.
Some of water losses due to the blow-down, leakage etc.. and to make up these losses additional water
called “makeup water” is taken from natural sources after treatment. This makeup water is obtained from
natural sources like river and lake and about 1 – 4% of total feed water.
47. Mechanical method of water treatment is done to _____________

a) Heat the feed water
b) To remove solid matter and impurities
c) To add some solid materials
d) To remove dissolved gases
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical method of water treatment involvs sedimentation and filtration. During
sedimentation water kept at standstill or flow with a very low velocity which causes the solid matter to
settle down and finally removed. During filtration the dirty water is allowed to flow downword through the
beds of filtering materials to remove suspended matters.
48. Which method is used in large modern thermal power plants to heat feed water?
a) Open type heatre is used
b) Close type heater is used
c) Steam is directly taken from main turbine and used to heat it feed water
d) Surface type heater is used
Answer: c
Explanation: Open and contact type haters are in small power plants. Such heaters recives steam from back
pressure turbine. In large modern power plants heaters bleed steam from the main turbine and use it for
heating of feed water
.
49. Thermal treatment methods used to remove impurities like:
a) Dissolved carbon dioxide and other gases
b) Solid materials
c) Carbonate
d) Bacterial impurities
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal treatment method involves distillation and derative heating of feed water. During
distillation water is evaporated then condensed and collected. During derating heating water is broken up
into fine droplets and heated to produced vapour within the deaerator. During these process carbon dioxide
and other days of devices separated from feet water.
50. Heat treatment arrangement used to separate or remove deserved gases and impurities from feed water
is called the year later.
a) true
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A deaerator is a device that is widely used for the removal of oxygen and other dissolved
gases from the feedwater to steam-generating boilers. These gases make house corrosion scale formation.
51. Chemical method of treatment is used for treatment of:

a) Diissolve gases
b) Carbonate and carbon dioxide
c) Bacterial impurities
d) Send and suspended materials
52. Scall formation in boiler tube causes ____________

a) reduction of heat transfer and overheating of boiler tube
b) corrosion of boiler surface
c) feeling up of steam passage
d) cracks in the ages rivites
Answer: a
Explanation: Dissolved gases include oxygen and carbon dioxide which may lead to scale formation
corrosion, carry over and imbrittlement in boiler and other apprature. Scale formation reduces the heat
transmission through the heating surface.
53. In nuclear power stations which nuclear reaction is performed?

a) Nuclear fission
b) Nuclear fusion
c) 90% fission and 10% fusion
d) 90% fusion and 10% fission
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fission is the process in which heavy nucleus is split when it is bombarded by certain
partials. Huge amount of energy is released during nuclfclear fission in form of heat and radiation.
54. Which particle is bombarded on heavy nucleus of nuclear fuel?
a) Electron
b) Proton
c) Neutron
d) Photon
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fission involvs bombardment of certain particles on heavy nucleus causing it to split.
All modern fission reactors uses neutron particles for this purpose because they are neutral in charge and
so, they can make their way through the shells of electrons and then through the nucleus at low energy.
55. The critical mass for U235 fission reaction is about _____________
a) 100Kg
b) 200 Kg
C) 50 kg
d) 10 kg
Answer: d
Explanation: For a chain reaction to occur the sample of the fissionable material should be large enough to
capture the neutron internally. The minimum mass of fissionable material required to sustain a chain
reaction is called the Critical Mass”. The critical mass varies for each reaction, for U235 fission reaction it
is about 10 Kg.
56. The fuel mainly used in nuclear fission reactors are:
a) U235
b) U239
c) U233
d) U238
Answer: a
Explanation: The materials U235,U233 and Pu239 are called fissionable materials. From all the above
mentioned fuels only U235 will fission in chain reaction.
57. Which fissionable nuclear fuel occur in nature?

a) Plutonium
b) Thorium
c) Uranium
d) 94239 Pu
Answer: c
Explanation: The only natural fissionable fuel occurring in our nature is Uranium, of which 99.3% is U238
and 0.7% is U235 and U234 is only a trace. Out of these isotopes only U235 will fission in chain reaction.
58. Which of the following has high fission percentage?
a) Pu239
b) U233
c) U235
d) U234
Answer: c
Explanation: U235 has higher fission percentage in comparison to others. U235 is only fissionable nuclear
fuel found in nature, Pu239 and U233 are produced artificially. They are fissionable.
59. Reactors used for converting fertile materials to fissile materials are called _____
a) research and development reactor
b) production reactor
c) power reactors
d) slow reactors
Answer: b
Explanation: Research and development reactors are used for testing new reactor designs and research.
Production reactors are used for converting fertile materials into fissile materials and Power reactors are
used for generation of electrical energy.
60. Which statement about fast reactor is true?

a) These reactors are big in size so not easier to shield
b) Fast reactors can convert fertile materials to fissile materials
c) Fast reactors are easy to control
d) Heat transfer and cooling is very easy and simple
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast reactors can convert more fertile material to fissile materials with the result that the net
fuel consumption for such reactors is much less. These reactors are small and compact and so easier to
shield. Heat transfer and cooling problems in the core are accomplished due to high power density.
61. In which part of nuclear power plant steam is produced?

a) Boiler
b) Heat exchanger
c) Chamber across the reactor
d) Air preheater
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no boiler in nuclear power plant. The heat energy released in the reactor during
nuclear fission is utilised to heat the coolant. This coolant is circulated through the heat exchanger to
produce steam.
62. What is the main function of moderator?

a) It absorb the extra neutrons
b) It divert extra neutrons
c) It slow down the speed of fast neutrons
d) It absorb the heat energy caused by nuclear reaction
Answer: d
Explanation: Neutrons rejected during the fission process at a very high velocity of about 1.5 × 107 m/s.
For more effective use in nuclear reactor it is desirable to slow down the fast neutrons to speed
corresponding to the speed of molecules of gas at normal temperature and pressure. This is accomplished
with the help of moderator.
63. Which of the following material is not used as moderator?

a) Oxygen
b) Ordinary water
c) Heavy water
d) Graphite
Answer: a
Explanation: At present the common moderator materials used are graphite, ordinary water and heavy
water. Oxygen is not suitable to use due to its low density and the consequent small number of collision.
64. Which of the following part of nuclear reactor is used to control the rate of reaction.
a) Moderator
b) Control rods
c) Reflector
d) Coolant
Answer: b
Explanation: In a reactor the chain reaction is to be maintained at steady value during the operation of
reactor. Also the reactor must be able to shutdown automatically under emergency conditions. All these
requires control rods for control of reactor so as to prevent the melting of fuel rods, disintegration of
coolant and destruction of reactor as the amount of energy released is enormous.
65. Which of the following is the most essential requirement of control rod material?
a) It must be light weight
b) It must be cheap
c) It must have high absorption capacity for neutrons
d) It must be very reflective to neutrons
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of control rod is to control the rate of nuclear reaction by absorption extra
release neutrons. Chain reaction is controlled either by removing or inserting neutron absorbing materials.
The materials used for control rods must have very high absorption capacity for entrance.
66. Which of the following can be used as both as coolant and moderator ?
a) Helium
b) Molten sodium
c) Lithium
d) Ordinary water
Answer: d
Explanation: A good coolant should not absorb neutrons, should be non-oxidizing, non-toxic, non
corrosive, should have high chemical and radiation stability and good heat transfer ability. Ordinary water
is used as both as coolant and moderator in boiling water reactor and pressurized water is used as both as
coolant and moderator in pressurized water reactor.
67. In thermal reactors control is very easy in comparison to other reactors.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In thermal reactor control his very easy because of relatively low power densities and longer
in neutron lifetime.
68. The main body of reactor is called ____________

a) Thermal shielding
b) Reactor vessel
c) Reflector
d) Biological shielding
Answer: b
Explanation: The reactor core, reflector and thermal shielding are all enclosed in the main body of reactor
and is called reactor vessel or tank. It is strong walled container and provides the entrance and exit for the
coolant. It also provides the passage for flow of coolant through and around the reactor core.
1. Which of the following material is not used for overhead line insulators?
a) Porcelain
b) Glass
c) PVC
d) Steatite
Answer: c
Explanation: In addition to high insulation resistance and high relative permittivity, overhead line
insulators must have high mechanical strength to bear the weight of line insulators, wind stress and ice
loading if any. PVC have good insulation resistance but it does not have such mechanical strength so it is
not suitable for overhead line insulators.
69. Pin type insulator are mostly subjected to which type of mechanical stress?
a) Compressive stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Both tensile and compressive stress
d) Twisting stress
Answer: d
Explanation: The conductor is placed in the governor at the top of the insulator and is tied down. So the
weight of wire acts on the top of the insulator in downward direction causing compressive stress on
insulator. No tensile stress is acted on the pin type insulator.
70. Which of the following is the main field of application of pin type insulator?
a) Distribution system
b) Transmission system
c) Transmission and distribution system
d) EHV transmission system
Answer: a
Explanation: Pin type insulator become very bulky and cumbersome when designed for higher voltage. Pin
insulators beyond 50,000 Volts becomes uneconomical. the modern practice is not to use pin type insulator
SBI on 33kv so use of pin insulator is limited to distribution level voltage.
71.. Suspension type insulator are subjected to ______________

a) tensile stress
b) compressive stress
c) tensile and compressive stress
d) depends on its use
Answer: a
Explanation: Suspension type insulator hangs from the cross arms of the suspending supporting structure.
The line conductor is attached to its lower end hence the load of the conductor causes tensile stress on the
suspension insulator.
72. A transmission line consists of 9 discs of suspension insulator in each string. What is the operating
voltage of the transmission line?
a) 11 KV
b) 33 KV
c) 66 KV
d) 132 KV
Answer: d
Explanation: For different voltage it does not need to use different suspension insulator. Srength of
insulator can easily be increased just by adding extra disc of suspension insulators. For 130 KV
transmission lines 9 or 10 disks are used.
73. Suspension insulator are made up of _____________
a) glass
b) porcelain
c) steatite
d) epoxy resin
Answer: b
Explanation: Suspension insulators consist of a number of porcelain disks flexibly connected in series by
metal links in the form of Strings. Glass is used for making pin type insulators.
74. Which of the following insulator is similar to pin type insulator?

a) Suspension insulator
b) Post insulator
c) Strain insulator
d) Shackle insulator
Answer: b
Explanation: Post insulators are very similar to pin type insulator, but has a metal base with a metal cap so
that more than one unit can be mounted in series. Suspensions train and shackle insulators are completely
different from pin type insulator on the basis of construction.
75.. Which type of insulator is used where there is dead end of the line or there is a corner or a sharp curve,
for high voltage line?
a) Pin type insulator
b) Shackle insulator
c) Strain insulator
d) Stay insulator
Answer: c
Explanation: Pin type insulators cannot be used in such situations because they cannot take conductor
mechanical load intention which often occurs in such situations for low voltage line. Shackle insulator can
be used but for higher voltages transmission lines strain insulator consisting of assembly of suspension type
insulator are used.
76. What is the most common cause of failure of overhead line insulators?
a) Flashover
b) Mechanical stress
c) Porosity of materials
d) Improper vitrification
Answer: a
Explanation: Failure of overhead line insulators due to mechanical stress is rare because defective pieces
are separated during routine factory test. Failure due to porosity and improper vitrification is also very low.
The most common cause of failure of overhead line insulator is flashover.
77. Voltage distribution across disc of strings of suspension insulator assembly is ______
a) same for all disks
b) maximum for unit nearest to the line
c) maximum for unit nearest to the tower
d) equal to transmission line voltage rating
Answer: b
Explanation: Thee voltage between line conductor and Earth is not distributed uniformly across individual
disks. The unit nearest the conductor has the maximum value across it. The figure progressively decreases
as the unit nearest the cross on is approach.
78. The unequal voltage distribution across individual unit of string of suspension insulator is __________
a) desirable and expressed by string efficiency
b) undesirable and expressed by string efficiency
c) desirable and expressed by impulse ratio
d) undesirable and expressed by impulse ratio
Answer: b
Explanation: The unequal potential distribution is undesirable and is expressed in terms of string
efficiency. Impulse ratio is calculated during Impulse Frequency Flash Over Test. Impulse ratio is the ratio
of impulse park over voltage to Spark over voltage at power frequency.
79. Glass insulator cannot be used for voltage above __________

a) 25 KV
b) 11 KV
c) 33 KV
d) 50 KV
Answer: d
Explanation: Glass is cheaper than porcelain in the simplest shapes and if properly toughened and annealed
gives high resistivity and dielectric strength. The main disadvantage of Glass is that moisture more readily
condenses on its surface and facilitates the accumulation of dust deposit thus giving a high surface leakage.
Hence, glass insulators can be used upto 25 KV under ordinary atmosphere and well upto 50 KV in dry
atmosphere.
80. Which of the following location is suitable to use shackle insulator?

a) Sharp Turn in transmission line
b) Dead end of low voltage distribution line
c) For bearing High Voltage transmission line conductor
d) Dead end of EHV transmission line
Answer: b
Explanation: Shackle insulator are almost universally used for low voltage lines. They can be used at all
positions either intermediate terminal or angle where the angle exceed 60 degree deviation. They are
generally used in conjunction with shackle sharps.
81. Which of the following insulator is used for insulating stay wire from pole?
a) Pin type insulator
b) Shackle insulator
c) Suspension insulator
d) Stay insulator
Answer: d
Explanation: Stay insulators are also called as guy insulators and are used in guy cables. Because it is
necessary to insulate the lower part of the guy cable from pole for safety of people and animals on the
ground.
82. What is the reason for unequal distribution of voltage among different unit of suspension insulator?
a) Unequal capacitance of different units
b) Unequal distribution of charging current caused by stray capacitance
c) Unequal resistivity of different units
d) Dirt deposited over the insulator disc
Answer: b
Explanation: The capacitance due to two metal fittings on either side of insulator is known as the mutual
capacitance and the capacitance between these metal fittings and earthed pole or tower is known as shunt
capacitance. Due to shunt capacitance charging current is not the same through all the discs of strings. So
voltage being directly proportional to the current flowing through them will be different.
83. Arcing horns are used for ______________

a) protecting insulators from birds
b) protecting insulators from cracking or breaking due to flash over
c) improving string efficiency
d) protecting insulator from deposition of dirt
Answer: b
Explanation: During flash over insulators are cracked or broken up due to the heat of Arc. Grading ring in
addition to equalization of voltage distribution across the insulators unit when used in conjunction with
Arcing horns protects the insulator string from flashover. It does so by keeping the arc away from the
insulator string until it is interrupted by protecting devices.
84. What is the effect of rain on string efficiency?

a) It becomes very low
b) It reduces slightly
c) It does not changes
d) It is improved
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to rain insulators becomes wet and mutual capacitance increases while the shunt
capacitance remains constant thereby decreasing the value of k. As k is inversely related to string
efficiency so, string efficiency is improved. K is the ratio of stray capacitance to mutual capacitance.
85. A suspension string have 3 units. Voltage across topmost and lower most unit of string are 6.71 volts
and 11 volts respectively. What is the voltage across middle string, if voltage across whole string is 25.76
volts?
a) 103.47 volts
b) 8.05 volts
c) 83.6 volts
d) 25.76 volts
Answer: b
Explanation: Voltage across whole string is equal to the sum of voltage across each unit. From this the
voltage across middle unit can be calculated.
86. If voltage across lowermost unit of a string is 34.8% of voltage across whole string and string
efficiency is 57.46%. What is the voltage across whole string.
a) 100%of line voltage
b) 43.64% of line voltage
c) 75.2% of line voltage
d) 92.26% of line voltage
Answer: a
Explanation: Voltage across string is equal to the line voltage of conductor. So it is 100% of line voltage.
89. By using which of the following method hundred percent string efficiency can be achieved?
a) Using long cross arms
b) Capacitance grading
c) Static shielding
d) 100% string efficiency cannot be achieved
Answer: d
Explanation: 100% string efficiency can only be achieved by making voltage distribution across each unit
of string equal. In practice it is impossible to attain such uniform voltage distribution. So 100% string
efficiency cannot be achieved with any of the above methods.
90. If the flux linkages are varied sinusoid with current, then what can be concluded about the inductance?
a) Constant
b) Varying with the current
c) Linearly varying
d) Exponential change
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductance = flux linkages/current.
91.The principle behind the influence of the power lines on the telephone lines is __________
a) Faraday’s laws
b) Mutual inductance
c) Self inductance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The concept of mutual inductance is the main reason for the interference between telephone
lines and the power lines.
92. Effect of earth is considered insignificant while calculating the inductance of a single phase
transmission line.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The earth’s magnetic symmetry does not affect the inductance of the line.
93. Effect of earth’s presence on the magnetic field geometry is _________________

a) significant
b) insignificant
c) cannot be said
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: This is because the relative permeability of earth is about the same as that of air and its
electrical conductivity is relatively small.
94. The inductance of the transmission line is do not contain effect of earth electric field geometry while
the capacitances contain.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is true as the earth’s magnetic field symmetry is insignificant to the inductance while the
electric field symmetry is.
95. The end effect information is included in the inductance of a transmission line.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Since TL is infinitely long, the end effects are ignored and they are not a part of the
inductance formula.
96.Transposition is the mean to balance ____________

a) Inductance
b) Voltage
c) Current
Answer: a
Explanation: Transposition primarily balances the inductances in the line thus causing a constant
inductance throughout the line.
97. Over the length of one transposition cycle of a power line, the total flux linkages of a nearby telephone
line are zero for the unbalanced three phase currents.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: For an unbalanced supply, there will be non zero flux zero flux linkages in the telephone
lines.
98. Over the length of one transposition cycle of a power line, the total flux linkages of a nearby telephone
line are zero for the balanced three phase currents.
a) The above statement is valid
b) The above statement is invalid
c) It can’t be concluded
d) The above statement is valid for all conditions.
Answer: a
Explanation: Its valid only with balanced systems.
99. Bundled conductors used in the EHV transmission lines result into __________
a) reduced inductance
b) increase capacitance
c) increase inductance
d) increase resistance
Answer: a
Explanation: Bundled conductors cause the GMR to increase and thus reducing the inductance.
100.
(i) Skin effect
(ii) Proximity effect
Which of the options are right?
a) Both (i) and (ii) cause non uniform distribution of the current
b) Neither (i) and (ii) cause non uniform distribution of the current
c) Both (i) and (ii) cause uniform distribution of the current
d) Only (i) causes the non uniformity of the current
Answer: a
Explanation: Skin-effect as well as the Proximity effect cause the non distribution of the flux linkages,
leading to non uniform distribution of the current.
101.. Ferranti effect causes the non uniform distribution of the current and voltage.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Only the voltage regulation is affected due to the Ferranti law.
102. Apart from the skin effect the phenomena which cause/s the non uniform distribution of the current is
____________
a) Proximity effect
b) Faraday’s effect
c) Ferranti effect
Answer: a
Explanation: Only the proximity effect and skin effect cause the non uniform distribution of the current.
103. Bundle conductor ______ inductance and ______ capacitance of a transmission line.
a) reduces, increases
b) increases, reduces
c) reduces, keeps constant
d) keeps constant, increases
Answer: a
Explanation: The inductance reduces by employing the bundle conductor.
104. For a transmission line, the distributed parameters is/are ____________

a) Resistance, inductance, capacitance
b) Resistance
c) Inductance, capacitance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: All R, L and C are considered distributed parameters.
105. As the frequency increases, the flux inside the conductor will ________
a) decrease
b) increase
c) be constant
d) be zero
Answer: a
Explanation: Skin effect is inversely proportional to frequency.
106. Self GMD and GMR vary with each other as __________
a) linearly
b) parabolic
c) exponential
Answer: d
Explanation: Because the self GMD and GMR are same quantities.
107. If the diameter of the conductor is increased then _____________

a) inductance increases
b) inductance remains unaltered
c) inductance decreases
d) inductance can’s be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: Inductance will increase.
108. The per unit value of any quantity is usually given by _____________
a) (The actual value in any units)/(The base base value in same in same units)
b) (The base base value in same in same units)/(The actual value in any units)
c) The actual value in any units* The actual value in any units
d) 1/(The base base value)
Answer: a
Explanation: The per unit value is given as (The actual value in any units)/(The base base value in same in
same units).
109. If Xa is the armature reactance of a synchronous machine and Xl is the leakage reactance of the same
machine, then the synchronous reactance is ____________
a) Xa+Xl
b) ½(Xa)
c) 1/2(Xa+Xl)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Xs = Xa+Xl
110.A large bus system whose voltage and frequency remain constant independent of the power exchange
between the synchronous machine and the bus is called ________________
a) infinite bus
b) load bus
c) generator bus
d) cannot be determined
111. In a three phase system the three-phase fault MVA is always higher than the LG fault MVA at a bus.
a) True
b) False
Answer :a
112. The charging current of a 400 kV is _____ that of 220 kV line of the same length.
a) more than
b) less than
c) equal to
Answer: a
Explanation: Line charging current is proportional to voltage.
113. Voltage regulation in the power system is __________

a) rise in voltage at receiving end
b) dip in voltage at receiving end
c) rise in voltage at sending end
d) dip in voltage at sending end
Answer: a
Explanation: VR is rise in voltage at receiving end for a transmission line.
114. Voltage regulation becomes negative for a ______load.

a) leading
b) lagging
c) zero power factor
d) unity power factor
Answer: a
Explanation: VR will be negative for a leading load at a receiving end.
115. For a transmission line under study of failure analysis, it is observed that the current at the receiving
end is same as that of the sending end, then what can be concluded about the nature of the transmission
line?
a) It is short TL
b) It is medium TL
c) It is long TL
d) Current is always same at the receiving end and the sending end.
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a short transmission line as the capacitance considered is zero and so the line charging
current is also zero.
116. When the frequency of the system is increased, the charging MVAR of a system will __________
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain constant
d) cannot be said
Answer: a
Explanation: Increasing the frequency decreases the reactance and thus charging current increases and so
the MVAR.
117.Taking a case study for the long line under no load condition, the receiving end voltage is
____________
a) more than the sending-end voltage
b) less than the sending-end voltage
c) equal to the sending-end voltage
d) it will not be affected by the loading
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to Ferranti effect, the voltage will be more at receiving end in a LTL.
118. While given receiving-end voltage for a long transmission line, the sending-end voltage is more than
the actual is found out using _____________
a) Nominal-pi method
b) Nominal-T method
c) Load end capacitance method
d) Any of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In the nominal pi method, the losses are minimum.
119. Only advantage of corona is that it

A. Produces a pleasing luminous glow
B. Makes line current sinusoidal
C. Works as a safety valve for surges
D. Ozone gas is produced
Answer:-C. Works as a safety valve for surges
120. The chances of occurrence of corona are maximum during
A. Humid weather
B. Dry weather
C. Winter
D. Hot summer
Answer:-A. Humid weather
121. The charging current in a transmission line increases due to corona effect because corona increases
A. Line current
B. effective line voltage
C. Power loss in lines
D. Effective conductor diameter
Answer:-D. Effective contactor diameter
122. The effect of corona is

A. Increased energy loss
B. Increased reactance
C. Increased inductance
D. All of the above
Answer:-A. Increased energy loss
123. Corona losses are minimised when
A. Conductor size is reduced

B. Smooth conductor is used
C. Sharp points are provided in the line hardware
D. Current density in conductor is reduced
Answer:-B. Smooth contactor is used
Numerical Problems:-
1. Single core cables for AC systems are not provided with armouring.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Because of the armouring of the cables leads to eddy current in the power cables adding more
to the losses.
124. Single core cables for ac systems are provided with armouring.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This is so because the eddy currents induced in the steel armour cause the additional power
losses.
125. Grading of the cables is performed in order to achieve ____________

(i) uniform stress
(ii) reduction in quantity of insulation
(iii) reduction in quality of insulation
a) (i), (ii)
b) (ii)
c) (i),(iii)
d) (ii), (iii)
Answer: a
Explanation: Grading is performed to reduce the stress at one cable and to make it uniform throughout.
Also it reduces the insulation material to be used and thus the cost saving
.
2 MARKS Questions & Answers
1. How does grading neutralize the potential distribution across the units of the suspension insulators?
a) By forming capacitances to cancel the charging current from link pins
b) By forming capacitances with link pin to cancel the charging current from them
c) By increasing the capacitance of lower insulator units
d) By decreasing the capacitance of lower insulator units
Answer: a
Explanation: The non uniform distribution of the voltage occurs due to the leakage currents at the pins. So
grading is done to provide a capacitance which can neutralize these charging currents.
2. The capacitance grading method is one of the most practical and most widely used method in Indian
transmission system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The capacitance grading method is uneconomical because it requires a large number of the
different sized insulators.
3. A string of insulators consisting of 7 units. The voltage across the bottom most unit is 25% of the total
voltage. The string efficiency of this system will be
a) 57.14 %
b) 50.6 %
c) 80.4 %
d) 67.7 %
Answer: a
Explanation:
4. For a line-man while measuring the string efficiency of the insulator installation done, observes that it
shows a reading of 100%. This means ___________________
a) equal potential across each insulator disc
b) one of the insulator disc is shorted
c) zero potential across each disc
Answer: a
Explanation: As the equi potential exists between the plates there will not be any charging current and so
100% of efficiency.
5. The pin type insulators are generally not used for the voltage range exceeding ____________
a) 33kV
b) 66kV
c) 25kV
d) 11kV
Answer: a
Explanation: The pin type insulators have the ceramic material and the string structure of it can not sustain
the voltage above 33kV.
6. If the frequency of the transmission line is changed from 50 Hz to 100 Hz, then the string efficiency
____________
a) remains unchanged
b) increases
c) decreases
d) May or may not increase depending on the parameters
Answer: a
Explanation: The string efficiency is independent of system frequency.
7. For a 400 kV, 50 Hz five pin insulator setup provides the protection with an efficiency of 87.4%. The
same setup is now meant to be used at the frequency of 60 Hz, the updated string efficiency of the system
will be ____________
a) 87.4
b) 91
c) 82%
d) 86%
Answer: a
Explanation: The string efficiency is independent of system frequency.
8. How can one think of reducing the earth capacitance of line?

a) Using guard ring
b) Using special designed earth capacitances
c) Implementing parallel insulator lines
d) Any of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The guard rings can provide an economical protection to the string and it is very simple
method.
9. What is the value of charging current in short transmission lines?

a) Less than medium transmission lines
b) Equal to medium transmission lines
c) More than medium transmission lines
d) More than long transmission lines
Answer: c
Explanation: Line to Earth capacitance of short transmission line is less than that in medium and long
transmission line and is negligable. Because of this the charging current of short transmission line is less
than that in medium and long transmission line and is negligable.
10. What is the value of Inductive reactance in short transmission lines?

a) More at reciving end
b) More at sending end
c) Uniformly distributed over entire length
d) More in middle of sending end and reciving end
Answer: c
Explanation: Actually the inductive reactance of line is uniformly distributed over its entire length. To
make calculations simple this reactance is assumed to be lumped and connected in series with the line.
11. Regulation of short transmission lines depends:

a) Only on line resistance
b) Only on line inductance
c) Only on line capacitance
d) On line inductance and line resistance
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression of voltage regulation of short transmission line shows that, its voltage
regulation depends on line resistance and line inductive reactance. Capacitance of short transmission line is
negligible so it does not cause its effecting it.
12. Which of the following is like equivalent circuit of short transmission line?
a) Series RLC circuit
b) Parallel RLC circuit
c) Series RL circuit
d) Parallel RL circuit
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to smaller distance and lower line voltage, the shunt capacitance effects are extremely
small and also the shunt conductance effects are very low. So both of them are neglected and equivalent
circuit contains only series inductance(L) and resistance(R).
13. In single phase transmission lines resistance and inductance are considered only up to neutral.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of single phase transmission lines the total loop resistance and inductance is to be
taken into account. Resistance and inductance only up to neutral are taken into account for 3 phase
transmission lines.
14. What is the line to earth capacitance value of the short transmission line.
a) Very high
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Negligible
Answer: d
Explanation: Due to smaller distance and lower line voltage, the capacitance effects are extremely small
and, so are neglected.
15. Performance of short transmission lines depends on which of the following?

a) Resistance and Capacitance
b) Resistance and Inductance
c) Inductance and Capacitance
d) Resistance, Inductance and Capacitance
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to smaller distance and lower line voltage, the capacitance effects are extremely small
and, so are neglected. So, performance of short transmission lines depends only on inductance and
resistance of the line.
16. Performance analysis of short transmission line is done __________

a) By symmetrical component analysis method
b) By reactance diagram
c) On per phase basis
d) By neglecting line inductance
Answer: c
Explanation: Performance analysis of balance transmission line is done only. And is done on per phase
basis. No symmetrical component method or reactance diagram method is required for performance
analysis.
17. What is the value of shunt conductance of short transmission line?

a) Very high
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Negligable
Answer: d
Explanation: In short transmission lines the shunt conductance and shunt capacitance are neglected and so
only series resistance and inductance are to be considered.
18. In short transmission line the reciving end voltage may be greater than sending end voltage due to
Ferranti effect.
a) True
b) False
19. Series inductance and series resistance of short transmission lines are taken as ___________
a) Lumped and Distributed
b) Distributed and Lumped
c) Both Lumped
d) Both Distributed
Answer: c
Explanation: The series inductance and resistance of short transmission lines are taken as lumped. This
makes the performance analysis easy.
20. What is the value of charging current in short transmission lines?

a) Less than medium transmission lines
b) Equal to medium transmission lines
c) More than medium transmission lines
Answer: c
Explanation: Line to Earth capacitance of short transmission line is less than that in medium and long
transmission line and is negligable. Because of this the charging current of short transmission line is less
than that in medium and long transmission line and is negligable.
21. What is the value of Inductive reactance in short transmission lines?
a) More at reciving end
d) More in middle of sending end and reciving end
Answer: c
Explanation: Actually the inductive reactance of line is uniformly distributed over its entire length. To
make calculations simple this reactance is assumed to be lumped and connected in series with the line.
22. Regulation of short transmission lines depends:

a) Only on line resistance
b) Only on line inductance
c) Only on line capacitance
d) On line inductance and line resistance
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression of voltage regulation of short transmission line shows that, its voltage
regulation depends on line resistance and line inductive reactance. Capacitance of short transmission line is
negligible so it does not cause its effecting it.
23. Performance of short transmission lines depends on which of the following?

a) Resistance and Capacitance
b) Resistance and Inductance
c) Inductance and Capacitance
d) Resistance, Inductance and Capacitance
Answer: d
Explanation: Medium transmission lines have enough value of resistance and inductance. Length and
operating voltage of the medium transmission lines are sufficiently large to cause unavoidable charging
current and therefore capacitance effect can not be ignored. Hence, performance of Medium transmission
lines depends on R, L and C.
24. What is the value of shunt capacitance of medium transmission line?

a) Very high
b) Medium
c) Zero
d) Negligable
Answer: b
Explanation: Length and operating voltage of the medium transmission lines are sufficiently large to cause
unavoidable charging current and therefore capacitance effect can not be ignored. Capacitance effect in
medium transmission line is less than that in long transmission line.
25. In medium transmission line the reciving end voltage may be greater than sending end voltage due to
Ferranti effect.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferranti effect happens when capacitance effect in medium or long transmission lines
becomes greater than inductance effect. This happens during low or no load period.
26. Series inductance and series resistance of medium transmission lines are taken as:
a) Distributed and Lumped
b) Lumped and Distributed
c) Distributed
d) Lumped
Answer: d
Explanation: The series inductance and resistance of medium transmission lines are taken as lumped. This
makes the performance analysis easier.
27. Which of the following is like equivalent circuit of medium transmission line?
b) RLC circuit in pie form
Answer: b
Explanation: Medium transmission lines have considerable amount of inductance, resistance and shunt
capacitance. Medium transmission lines are represented as either pie form or as T form.
28. In medium transmission lines shunt capacitances are considered as lumped.

a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of medium transmission lines the charging current is unavoidable but less than that in
long transmission lines. So it does not cause much error in calculations if shunt capacitances are taken as
lumped.
29. In medium transmission lines capacitive current is ________________

a) Less than short transmission lines
b) Equal to short transmission lines
c) More than short transmission lines
Answer: c
Explanation: Line to Earth capacitance of medium transmission line is more than that in short transmission
line and less than that in long transmission line. Because of this the charging current of medium
transmission line is more than that in short transmission line and less than that in long transmission line.
30. In actual the capacitance of line is ____________

a) More at receiving end
d) More in middle of sending end and receiving end
Answer: c
Explanation: Actually the capacitance of line is uniformly distributed over its entire length. To make
calculations simple the capacitance of the system is assumed to be divided up and lumped in the form of
capacitors shunted across the line at one or more points.
31. Charging current in medium transmission line is _________________
a) Maximum at receiving end
b) Maximum at sending end
c) More in between sending and receiving end
d) Equal throughout the line
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnitude of capacitive current flowing at any point along the line is that required to
charge the section of the line between the given point and receiving end. Hence, it has maximum value at
the sending in and diminished at practically uniform rate down to zero at the receiving end.
32. In end condenser method of solution of medium transmission line, capacitance of the line is assumed to
be _____________
a) Distributed uniformly from sending end to receiving end
b) Lumped at the load end
c) Lumped at the generation end
d) Lumped at middle of generation and load end
Answer: b
Explanation: In end condenser method the capacitance of the line is assumed to be lumped at the load end.
This method overestimates the effect of capacitance.
33. In nominal-T method of solution of medium transmission line, capacitance is assumed to be

__________
b) Lumped at the load end
Answer: d
Explanation: In nominal- T method or middle condenser method of analysis of medium transmission line
the whole of the line capacitance is assumed to be concentrated at the middle point of the line and half the
line resistance and reactance to be lamp on either side.
34. In nominal-π method of solution of medium transmission line, capacitance is assumed to be:
b) Divided into two halves
Answer: b
Explanation: In nominal-π method of solution of medium transmission line the capacitance of each line
conductor is assumed to be divided into two halves. One half being shunted between line conductor and
neutral at the receiving in and other half at the sending end.
35. Medium transmission line operates below voltage level of 20 KV.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The voltage limit of 20 KV is for short transmission lines. Medium transmission lines can
operate for voltage more than 20 KV.
36. Which of the following is not a method for solution of medium transmission line?
a) End condenser method
b) Nominal-T method
c) Nominal-π method
d) Nominal-H method
Answer: d
Explanation: Actual method used for solution of medium transmission lines are end condenser method,
nominal-T method and nominal π method.
37. In a nominal-π method the resistance of line is assumed to be __________

b) Divided into two halves
d) Lumped at middle of the line
Answer: d
Explanation: In nominal-π method the capacitance of each line conductor is assumed to be divided into two
halves and the resistance of the line is assumed to be lumped in between them at the middle of the line.
38. In nominal-T method of solution of medium transmission line, resistance and inductive reactance of the
line is divided into two half’s.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In nominal-T method of solution of medium transmission line, the whole of the line
capacitance is assumed to be concentrated at the middle point of the line and half the line resistance and
reactance to be lumped on either side of it.
39. Length of long transmission line is more than ___________

a) 80 Km
b) 50 Km
c) 120 Km
d) 200 Km
Answer: d
Explanation: Transmission lines having length more than 200 kilometres are categorised as long
transmission lines. Transmission lines having length less than 200 kilometres are medium transmission
lines.
40. In long transmission lines Resistance and Capacitance parameters of lines are connected in __________
a) Series, shunt
b) Series, series
c) Shunt, shunt
d) Shunt, parallel
Answer: d
Explanation: The resistance and inductance parameters are series elements of long transmission line.
Capacitive susceptance and conductance parameters are shunt elements of transmission lines.
41. Under no load condition inductance of line predominant the line to earth capacitances.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Under no load condition capacitance between line and earth predominant the inductance of
long and medium transmission lines.
42. What is the main reason for maintaining consumer end voltage within prescribed limit?
a) Because it is declared by the supplier
b) For satisfactory operation of electrical equipments
c) For easy calculation of units supplied
d) To reduce the line losses
Answer: b
Explanation: All electrical equipments are designed to work at a certain voltage mentioned as voltage
rating of that equipment. Change of supply voltage beyond a certain limit may cause malfunction or even
damage to the equipment. So, the consumer end voltage must be maintained to a prescribed limit for
satisfactory operation of consumer’s equipments.
43. Which of the following equipment is not used for voltage control?
a) Tap changing transformer
b) Induction generators
c) Series compensators
d) Synchronous phase modifiers
Answer: b
Explanation: Induction generators are not used for voltage control. Tap changing transformer is used to
control distribution end voltage for upto limited voltage variations. Series compensators and Synchronous
phase modifiers controls line voltage by supplying required leading or lagging VAR.
44. What is the full form of AVR? This term is related to voltage control?
a) Automatic Voltage Rectifier
b) Actuated Voltage Rectifier
c) Automatic Voltage Rectifier
d) Automatic Voltage Regulator
Answer: d
Explanation: AVR stands for Automatic Voltage Regulator. It operates on the principle of detection of
error and is used to control the line voltage.
45. On which side of the transformer tap changer is provided?

a) On High Voltage side
b) On low voltage side
c) On high voltage and low voltage side
d) In core
Answer: a
Explanation: In tap changing transformer there is always a typing on the high voltage winding which when
connected to the rated voltage gives rated voltage on the low voltage side. This tapping is called principal
typing.
46. Which of the following power plant causes highest amount of air pollution?
a) Thermal power plant
b) Hydroelectric power plant
c) Nuclear power plant
d) Geothermal power plant
Answer: a
Explanation: The major contribution of electrical power generation is from thermal power plant. The
thermal power plant definitely contribute to economic growth but they bring with it like air and water
pollution. Thermal power plant mostly causes air pollution by the emission of flue gases into air.
47. Which of the following gas is not emitted during combustion of coal?
a) Oxides of sulphur
b) Oxides of Nitrogen
c) Oxides of Mercury
d) Oxides of carbon
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal power plant emit large amount of harmful gases such a Sulphur dioxide, nitrogen
oxide, CO, CO2, certain hydrocarbons and particulates during the combustion of fossil fuels. There is no
any emission of oxides of mercury.
48. Which of the following pollutants emitted by thermal power plant causes irritation in Eyes?
a) Oxides of sulphur
b) Oxides of Nitrogen
c) Oxides of Mercury
d) Oxides of carbon
Answer: b
Explanation: At high temperatures existing in the flame core of high power boilers, the nitrogen of fuel and
air may partially be oxidised to form nitrogen oxides. These are toxic and produce a sharp irritating effect
especially on the mucous membrane of the eye.
49. Which of the following pollutants emitted by thermal power plant is a cause of global warming?
a) NO
b) CO2
c) SO2
d) NO2
Answer: b
Explanation: Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are also emitted during the combustion of coal. Carbon
monoxide is very toxic pollutant but it gets converted into carbon dioxide in open atmosphere surrounding
the power station. On the other hand carbon dioxide has been identified as major cause of global warming.
50. Which of the following pollutant causes acid rain?

a) NO
b) CO2
c) SO2
d) NO2
Answer: c
Explanation: The Sulphur Dioxide emitted by thermal power plant gradually oxides to sulphur trioxide
under the influence of Sunlight. This in turn interact with atmospheric moisture and forms sulphuric acid.
This sulphuric acid later causes acid rain.
51. Which of the following is mostly affected by thermal power plant pollutants?
a) Lithosphere
b) Atmosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Exosphere
Answer: b
Explanation: The thermal power plant mostly causes air pollution by the emission of harmful flue gases.
So, it can be said that thermal power plant mostly pollutes our atmosphere.
52. Hydroelectric power plants with limited storage are suitable to supply __________
a) Base load
b) Peak load
c) Base load and Peak load
d) Average load
Answer: c
Explanation: The hydropower plant should be employed for supplying base load. But hydro power plants
with limited water storage cannot supply base load. Hence they are suitable for peak loads.
53. The unvarying load, which occurs almost the whole day on the power plant is called _________
a) Base load
b) Peak load
c) Average load
d) Discrete load
Answer: a
Explanation: The load on any power plant can be conveniently considered into two parts namely ‘base
load’ and ‘peak load’. The unvarying load which occurs almost the whole day on the power plant is called
base load.
54. If there is one power plant only, the installed capacity of that power plant should be equal to ____
a) Average load
b) Base load
c) Peak load
d) Minimum load
Answer: c
Explanation: If the load is to be supplied from one power plant only then the installed capacity of the plant
should be equal to the peak load or more. Otherwise during peak load period the plant will not be able to
meet the load demand.
55. The various peak demands of the load above the base load of power plant is called _________
a) Base load
b) Over load
c) Extra load
d) Peak load
Answer: d
Explanation: Various peak demands of the load over and above the base load of the power plant is called
peak load. The unvarying load which occurs almost the whole day on the power plant is called base load.
56. The system supplying base and peak loads will be more economical if power is supplied by _________
a) Only gas turbine power plant
b) Only thermal power plant
c) Only Deasel power plant
d) Combined operation of various power plants.
Answer: d
Explanation: The system containing only one power plant would be uneconomical since. Gas turbine and
Diesel power plants operate economically only for peak load and Thermal power plant is suitable only for
base load. Hence such power loads should not be supplied from single power plant.
57. Power plants to be employed as base load plants are not required to have ___________
a) Capability of working continuously
b) Low operating cost
c) Capability of quick start
d) Economical and speedy repair
Answer: c
Explanation: Capability of quick start is the essential requirement for peak load plant. Base load plants are
started once and operated for long time so capability of quick start is not an essential requirement for base
load plants.
58. Which of the following is an essential requirement for a peak load plant ___________
a) Capability of working continuously
b) Low operating cost
c) Capability of quick start
d) Economical and speedy repair
Answer: c
Explanation: The power plants to be employed as peak load plant should only have the capability of quick
start, synchronization and taking up of system load and quick response to load variations.
60. Which of the following is not suitable to uses as peak plant?

a) Hydroelectric power plant
b) Gas power plant
c) Diesel elected plant
d) Nuclear power plant
Answer: d
Explanation: The power plants to be employed as peak load plant should have the capability of quick start
and quick response to load variations. Nuclear power plant is not suitable for variable load operation as the
reactor cannot be easily controlled to respond quickly to load variations.
61 Which of the following power plant cannot be used as base load plant?
b) Nuclear power plant
c) Diesel elected plant
d) Thermal power plant
Answer: c
Explanation: The power plant to be employed as base load plant should have low operating cost. Diesel
power plants have very high operating cost and so it is not suitable to use as base load plant.
61. Which of the following costs come under semi fixed cost?
a) Salaries of high officials
b) Salaries of operational and maintenance staff
c) Salaries of Management and clerical staff
d) Annual cost of fuel
Answer: c
Explanation: The semi fixed cost is due to annual interest, the capital cost of generating plant transmission
and distribution network building and other civil works, all types of taxes and insurance charges and
salaries of Management and clerical staff. Salaries of higher officer is a fixed cost and salaries of operation
and maintenance staff is running or operating cost.
62. Which power plant has minimum operating cost?

b) Thermal power plant
d) Gas Turbine Power Plant
63. Which of the following is most likely to nuclear power plant?

b) Hydroelectric power plant
c) Gas turbine power plant
d) Nuclear power plant
Answer: d
Explanation: Most of the parts of nuclear power plants are similar to the thermal power plant, except the
heat generating system. In thermal power plant heat energy is produced by the combustion of fossil fuels
like coal, Oil or gas. In nuclear power plant the heat energy is produced by Nuclear Fission of nuclear fuels
like Uranium or plutonium in reactor.
64. Which of the following have highest operating cost?

b) Thermal power plant
d) Solar electric power plant
Answer: b
Explanation: Operating cost of hydroelectric and Solar Power Plant are very low because they don’t need
fuel. In nuclear power plant fuel required is of very small quantity as compared to coal required by thermal
power plant. Due to above the cost of transportation of fuel and also the cost of fuel itself is low for nuclear
power plant.
65. Which of the following least affect the cost of electricity produced in thermal power plant?
a) Cost of fuel
b) Cost of transportation
c) The load factor
d) Salaries of higher officials
Answer: d
Explanation: Change in fuel cost by 20% main cause about 8% variation in total cost per KWh generated.
Cost of transportation and the load factor changes and also cause variation in fuel cost. The salaries of
higher officials comes under fixed cost and so it does not affects the cost of fuel.
66. Which of the following power plant have longest physical life?
b) Nuclear power plant
c) Hydroelectric power plant
d) Diesel power plant
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal and diesel power plants are so constructed that their efficiency Falls over time faster
as compared to hydroelectric power plant. Nuclear power plant also needs maintenance over time. The
components of hydroelectric power plant including turbine, generator and the concrete Dam are so rugged
in construction that their life maybe as long as 80 years or even longer.
67. When load factor and diversity factor increases ___________

a) cost of electricity decreases
b) cost of electricity also increases
c) cost of electricity remains same
d) cost of electricity increases exponential
Answer: a
Explanation: Load factor and diversity factor playes an important role in cost of supply of electrical energy.
Higher the value of load factor and diversity factor, lower will be the cost per unit generated.
68. Which of the following has highest diversity factor?

a) Domestic lightning
b) Commercial lightning
c) Industrial power
d) Domestic power
Answer: a
Explanation: Diversity fector of all of the options rangers from 1.5 to 2. The diversity factor of domestic
lightning upto 1 kilo watt rangers from 3 to 5.
69. What is the advantage of sectionalizing of power plant?

a) High reliability
b) Low capital cost
c) Low maintenance
d) Easy operation
Answer: a
Explanation: Sectionalizing means installing more number of small units rather than installing a big unit.
Doing so enables us to maintain continuity of supply from rest of the units, when one or two units of plant
fails. this makes the plant more reliable.
70. The area under the load curve represents ____________
a) the average load on power system
b) maximum demand
c) number of units generated
d) load factor
Answer: c
Explanation: Load curve is obtained by plotting fluctuating load be keeping load on y axis and time in x
axis. The area under the load curve represents the total number of units generated in a particular time.
72. Which of the following is equal to the maximum demand?

a) The ratio of area under curve to the total area of rectangle
b) The ratio of area under curve and number of hours
c) The peak of the load curve
d) The area under the curve
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of area under curve to the total area of the rectangle is called load factor. The ratio
of area under the curve to the number of hours represents the average load. The peak of the curve
represents the maximum demand.
73. Load duration curve indicates _______

a) the variation of load during different hours of the day
b) total number of units generated for the given demand
c) total energy consumed by the load
d) the number of hours for which the particular load lasts during a day
Answer: d
Explanation: The variation of load during different hours of the day is shown by load curve. Load duration
curve is different from Load curve. Load duration curve indicates the variation of the load, but with the
load arranged in descending order of magnitude. Load duration curve give the number of hours for which a
particular load lasts during a day.
74. During which time the demand of electrical energy is maximum?

a) 2 A.M. to 5 A.M.
b) 5 A.M. to 12 P.M.
c) 12 P.M. to 7 P.M.
d) 7 P.M. to 9 P.M
Answer: d
Explanation: From the load curve it is obtained that during early morning demand is always low. Around 5
A.M. it starts increasing and around 9 A.M. load reaches a high value and remains almost constant till
evening except for some Dip during lunch hours. The load again starts increasing in evening hours and
reaches its peak around 7 to 9 P.M.
75.. Size and cost of installation depends upon ____________
a) average load
b) maximum demand
c) square mean load
d) square of peak load
Answer: b
Explanation: The greatest of all “short time interval averaged” during a given period, on the power system
is called the maximum demand. Maximum demand represents the maximum amount of load that is active,
out of total connected load. So the size and rating of power plant depends on Maximum demand.
76. What is Demand factor?

a) Ratio of connected load to maximum demand
b) Ratio of average load to connected load
c) Ratio of maximum demand to the connected load
d) Ratio of kilowatt hour consumed to 24 hours
Answer: c
Explanation: Demand factor is the ratio of actual maximum demand on the system to the total load
connected to the system. The idea of demand factor was introduced due to the fact that all the equipments
connected to the system does not work at a time in practice.
78. Which of the following represents the annual average load?

a) (KWh supplied in a day)/24
b) {(KWh supplied in a day)/ 24 } × 365
c) {(KWh supplied in a month)/(30 x 24)
d) (KWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365)
Answer: d
Explanation: The average load on the power station is average of load occurring at the various events. It
can also be stated as energy deliver in a given period divided by the number of hours in that period. Option
d matches correctly to these statements.
79. The load factor is __________

a) always less than unity
b) less than or greater than 1
c) always greater than 1
d) less than zero
Answer: a
Explanation: Load factor is the ratio of average demand to the maximum demand. Average demand can not
be greater than maximum demand. So the value of load factor is always less than unity.
80. In practice what is the value of diversity factor?

a) Less than Unity
b) Geater than Unity
c) Equal to or greater than Unity
d) Less than zero
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum demand of different consumers never occurs at a time, due to this the total
maximum demand of the load is always less than sum of individual maximum demands. And hence,
demand factor e.i. the ratio of sum of individual maximum demand to the maximum demand of total load is
always greater than unity.
81. Coincidence factor is reciprocal of ___________

a) average load
b) demand factor
c) capacity factor
d) diversity factor
Answer: d
Explanation: Coincidence factor is the ratio of total maximum demand to the sum of individual maximum
demands which is the reciprocal of diversity factor.
82. Which of the following is called as cold reserve?

a) Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
b) Reserve capacity available and ready for use
c) Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load
d) Capacity in service in excess of peak load
Answer: a
Explanation: Cold reserve is the generating capacity which is available for service but not normally ready
for immediate loading. Reserved capacity available and ready to use are called hot reserve.
.
83. What is the difference between two part tariff and maximum demand tariff?
a. A separate meter is used.
b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
c. Semi fixed charges are also included.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
84. This tariff is applied for which kind of consumers?
a. Big consumers.
b. Small consumers.
c. Residential consumers.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: a. Big consumers.
85. Why is this tariff not applicable to domestic consumers?
a. Low maximum demand.

b. Low load factor.
c. Lower energy consumption.
d. Low power factor.
ANSWER: a. Low maximum demand.
86. What is tariff?
a The rate at which electrical energy is produced in the plant.

b. The rate at which electrical energy is supplied to the consumers.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. The rate at which electrical energy is supplied to the consumers.
87. Flat rate tariff is charged on what basis?
a. Connected load.
b. Units consumed.
c. Maximum demand.
d. Both (a) and (b).
ANSWER: b. Units consumed.
88. Domestic consumers are charged?
a. Flat demand tariff.

b. Block rate tariff.
c. Flat rate tariff.
d. Off peak tariff.
ANSWER: b. Block rate tariff.
89. Which tariff is used by the small commercial consumers?
a. Maximum demand tariff.

b. Block rate tariff.
c. Three part tariff.
d. Two part tariff.
ANSWER: b. Block rate tariff.
90. Block rate tariff, where energy charge decreases with the increase in energy consumption,
a. Encourages the consumers for more consumption.
b. Discourages the consumers for more consumption.
c. Encourages the consumers to restrict their demand.
d. Encourages the consumers to improve the power factor.
ANSWER: a. Encourages the consumers for more consumption.
91. Two part tariff is charged on what basis?
a. Connected load
b.Units consumed.
c. Maximum demand.
d. Both (b) and (c).
ANSWER: d. Both (b) and (c).
92. Fixed charge is dependent on what factor?
a. Energy consumption
b. Maximum demand
c. Peak load demand
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: b. Maximum demand
93. A variable charge is based on what?
a.Energy consumption
b.Maximum demand
c.Peak load demand
d.All of the above.
ANSWER: a. Energy consumption
94. What is the main disadvantage of two port tariff?
a.He has to pay semi fixed charges.
b.He has to pay fixed charges.
c.He has to pay running charges.
d.None of the above.
ANSWER: b. He has to pay fixed charges.
95. What all are included in the three part tariff?
i. Fixed charges
ii. Running charges
iii. Semi fixed charges.
a. i, ii and iii
b. i and ii
c. i and iii
d. ii and iii.
ANSWER: a. i, ii and iii
96. The most ideal tariff for the consumer is which tariff?
a. Two part tariff.
b. Three part tariff.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: b. Three part tariff.
97. What is the difference between two part tariff and maximum demand tariff?
a.A separate meter is used.
b.A separate maximum demand meter is used.
c.Semi fixed charges are also included.
d.All of these.
ANSWER: b. A separate maximum demand meter is used.
98. This tariff is applied for which kind of consumers?
e. Big consumers.
f. Small consumers.
g. Residential consumers.
h. All of these.
ANSWER: a. Big consumers.
Level-II
99. Why is this tariff not applicable to domestic consumers?
a. Low maximum demand.
b. Low load factor.
c. Lower energy consumption.
d. Low power factor.
ANSWER: a. Low maximum demand.
100. Why is a big consumer charged at a lower rate than the small consumer?
a. Their maximum demand is small.
b.It improves the load factor.
d.None of these.
ANSWER: b. It improves the load factor.
101. What is the power factor tariff?
a.It considers only maximum demand.
b.It considers only semi fixed charges and the power factor.
c. It considers only power factor.
d. It considers the load factor.
ANSWER: c. It considers only power factor.
102. What is consequence of low power factor?

a. Increases the rating of station equipments only.
b.Only line losses increases.
c.Both (a) and (b).
d.Neither of these
ANSWER: c. Both (a) and (b).
103. A consumer having lower power factor contributes towards which factor?
a. Semi fixed charges.
bFixed charges.
c.Running charges.
d.Penalty is imposed.
ANSWER: b. Fixed charges.
104. Which tariff is also known as the average power factor tariff?
a. Sliding scale tariff.
b. kW tariff.
c. kVAR tariff.
d. kVA maximum demand tariff.
ANSWER: a. Sliding scale tariff.
105. What is maximum value of power factor?

a. 0.5
b. 1
c. 1.5
d. 0.95
ANSWER: b. 1 30.
106. Active power and apparent power are respectively represented by?
a. kW and kVAR
b. kVAR and kVA
c. kVA and kVAR
d. kW and kVA
.ANSWER: d. kW and kVA
107. Which among the following happens in a low power factor?

a. Large kVA rating of the equipment.
b. Greater conductor size.
c. Reduced handling capacity of the system.
ANSWER: d. All of the above. 38.
108. Lower power factor is usually not due to

a. Discharge lamp.
b. Arc lamps.
c. Incandescent lamps.
d. Induction furnace.
.
ANSWER: c. Incandescent lamps. 42.
109. For a consumer what is the most economical power factor?

a. 0.25 – 0.5 lagging
b. 0.25 – 0.5 leading.
c. 0.85 – 0.95 lagging.
d. 0.85 – 0.95 leading.
ANSWER: c. 0.85 – 0.95 lagging.
110. The primary reason for the low power factor is due to the installation of
a. Induction motors
b. DC motors
c. Synchronous motors.
d. Commutator motors.
ANSWER: a. Induction motors
112. For which among the following consumers is penalty imposed for low power factor?
a. Residential and commercial consumers.

b. Industrial consumers.
c. Agricultural consumers.
ANSWER: b. Industrial consumers.
SET-2 for 2marks
1. For the figure shown, having a 2-wire dc system where mid point is earthed, having resistance of 20 ohms, with a
power transmitted of 5 MW at the voltage level of 440 kV.
The power loss of the distribution system will be ___________
a) 5165 W
b) 515 kW
c) 10330 W
d) 2583 W
Answer: a
Explanation: I = P/V = 5000000/440000 = 11.36 A
Power loss = 2I2*R = 2* 11.362*20 = 5165 W.
2. For the figure shown, having a 2-wire dc system where mid point is unearthed, having resistance of 20 ohms, with
a power transmitted of 5 MW at the voltage level of 440 kV.
The power loss of the distribution system will be ___________
a) 5165 W
b) 515 kW
c) 10330 W
d) 2583 W
Answer: d
Explanation: I = P/V = 5000000/440000 = 11.36 A
Power loss = I2*R = 2* 11.362*20 = 2583 W.
3. A DC 2-wire system with mid-point earthed having cross-sectional area of each conductor be ‘a’ and resistance
‘R1’. If the DC tow wire replaces the system, then the ratio of volume of each conductor V1/V2 will be
___________
a) ¼
b) ½
c) 4
d) 2
Answer: a
Explanation: Let the power losses remain constant over the systems, then
2P2R/V2 = 2P2R1/2*V2
or, R = R1/4;
As R = lρ/a;
a1 = a/4;
So, V1/V1 = 1/4.
4. A DC 2-wire system with mid-point earthed having cross-sectional area of each conductor be ‘a’ and resistance
‘R1’. If this is replaced by monopolar system, then saving of copper will be ______
a) ½
b)b¼
c) 2
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Let the power losses remain constant over the systems, then
2P2R/V2 = 2P2R1/V2
or, R1 = R
As R = lρ/a;
a1 = a
So, V1/V1 = a1*2l/a1 = 1/2.
5. If a string of suspension insulator has three units, each can withstand a maximum 11 KV and total string can
withstand 25.76 KV. What is the string efficiency?
a) 234.1%
b) 46.3%
c) 68.75%
d) 78%
Answer: d
Explanation: String Efficiency = [( flashover voltage of the string) /(n × flashover voltage of 1 unit)] × 100
Where ‘n’ is number of units in one string
Hence, String Efficiency = [25.76/(3×11)] × 100
= 78%.
6. A 500 MW, 21 kV, 50 Hz three phase two pole alternator has 0.8 lagging p.f. with moment of inertia of
27.5×103 kgm-2. The inertia constant H will be _______ MJ/MVA.
a) 2.17
b) 4.2
c) 2.82
d) 2.62
Answer: a
7. If the power system network is at Vs∠δ and receiving end voltage is Vr∠0 consisting of the impedance of TL as
(R+j5)Ω. For maximum power transfer to the load, the most appropriate value of resistance R should be __________
a) 1.732
b) 3
c) 1.2
d) 0.33
Answer: a
Explanation: For maximum power transfer, X=√3 R
3=√3 R
R=√3.
8. At a 33kV 50 Hz to a bus a load of 35 MW is connected. To improve the power factor to unity a synchronous
phase modifier is connected taking 5 MW. If the SPM is represented as delta connected impedance, where in each
phase we have capacitor connected parallel to resistance forming RC parallel network, then the value of this
resistance is ___________
a) 653.4 Ω
b) 753.6 Ω
c) 280.4 Ω
d) 682 Ω
Answer: a
Explanation: Reactive power fed by SPM = 35tan36.87 = 26.25 MVAR
Active power consumed by prime mover = 5 MW
5*106 = 3V2/R
R=3(33×1000)2/(5*106) = 653.4 Ω.
9. At a 33kV 50 Hz to a bus a load of 35 MW is connected. To improve the power factor to unity a synchronous
phase modifier is connected taking 5 MW. If the SPM is represented as delta connected impedance, where in each
phase we have capacitor connected parallel to resistance forming RC parallel network, then the value of this
capacitance is __________
a) 25.57 μF
b) 76.2 μF
c) 32.2 μF
d) 24 μF
Answer: a
Explanation: Q=3V2Cω
C= 25.57 μF.
10.The transmission efficiency for a single phase line can be expressed as ____________
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency of single phase is
11 The transmission efficiency for a three phase line can be expressed as _________
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency of three phase system is

12. The magnetic flux intensity due to the current flowing inside the conductor is _________
Answer: a
Explanation: Referring the ampere’s Law,
2πyH=Iy
Assuming uniform current density,
13. The flux density B, y meters from the centre of conductors in the following diagram, is _______
Answer: a
Explanation: Referring the ampere’s Law,
2πyH=Iy
Assuming uniform current density,
14.The internal flux linking the single infinite conductor causes the inductance of ___________
a) 0.5 *10-7 H/m
b) 2 *10-7 H/m
c) 0.5 *10-7 ln(r) H/m
d) 2 *10-6 H/m
Answer: a
Explanation: λint = I/2 x 10-7 Wb-T/m
L= λint/I = 0.5 *10-7 H/m.
15. The inductance of the conductor contributed by the flux between the point D outside at the distance d from
conductor is _____________
a) 0.461 log(d/r) mH/km
b) 0.4 log(d/r) mH/km
c) 0.461 log(r/d) mH/km
d) 0.461 log(d/r) H/km
Answer: a
Explanation: L= 0.461 log(d/r) mH/km.
16. The number of the strands included in the stranded cables while implementing a similar cable equivalent of
single strand should be ________
a) 3x2-3x+1
b) 2x2-3x+1
c) 3x2-2x+1
d) 3x2-x+1
Answer: a
Explanation: It is 3x2-3x+1.
17. The overall diameter of a stranded conductor if ‘x’ is the number of layers and each layer has a diameter ‘d’ will
be
a) (2x-1)d
b) (3x-1)d
c) (6x-3)d
d) (2x+1)d
Answer: a
Explanation: It is given by (2x-1)d.
18. _______ conductors are the latest trend of the extra high voltage lines.
a) Bundled
b) Parallel
c) ACSR
d) Bundled or ACSR
Answer: a
Explanation: The bundled ACSR conductors have corona free characteristics and they have good tensile strength.
19. A 10 MVA, 11 kV alternator has positive, negative and zero sequence reactance of 25%, 40%,10% respectively.
The resistance that must be placed in the neutral such that zero sequence of fault current for a single phase to ground
fault will not exceed the rated line current in ohms is
a) 2.66 Ω
b) 1.66 Ω
c) 12.1 Ω
d) 0.22 Ω
Answer: a
20. (I) Unsymmetrical spacing configurations cause the line interference.
(II) Unsymmetrical spacing causes the voltage induction in the communication lines.
a) (I) and (II) are valid
b) Only (I) is valid
c) Only (II) is valid
d) Both are invalid
Answer: a
Explanation: Both the statements are correct as the unsymmetrical spacing causes the unbalanced voltage generation.
21. (I) Unsymmetrical spacing configurations cause the line interference.

(II) Unsymmetrical spacing causes the voltage induction in the communication lines.
The above problems can be eliminated by ________
a) transposition
b) parallel lines
c) three phase
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Transposition meaning exchange of conductors will cause the net voltage induced in the other lines to
be zero as the net inductance remains constant.
22. The fictitious resistance, “ r’ ” implemented in the conductors for the calculation of the inductance is
_____________
a) 0.7788r
b) 2r
c) r/0.7788
d) r
Answer: a
Explanation: It is 0.7788r in the equivalent network configuration.
23. The power delivered by a synchronous generator to an infinite bus is given by ______
Answer: a
Explanation:
24. A single phase 50 hz, generator supplies an inductive load of 5 MW at a power factor of 0.8 lagging using OHTL
over 20 km. The resistance and reactance are 0.39Ω and 3.96 Ω. The voltage at receiving station is maintained at 10
KV. The sending end voltage is ______
a) 11.68 kV
b) 7.62 kV
c) 14.4 kV
d) 12.2 kV
Answer: a
Explanation: Current, I = 5000/(10*0.8)
=625 A
Vs = |Vr|+|I|*(RcosФr + XsinФr)
= 10000+625(0.39*0.8+3.96*0.6)
= 11.68kV.
25) A 3-phase line has conductors 2 cm in diameter spaced equilaterally 1 m apart. If the
dielectric strength of air is 30 kV (max) per cm, find the disruptive critical voltage for the line.
Take air density factor δ = 0·952 and irregularity factor mo = 0·9.Ans:- 144·8 kV
a) 144.8 KV
b) 140 KV
c) 300KV
d) 150 KV
Answer : a
26)A 132 kV line with 1·956 cm dia. conductors is built so that corona takes place
if the line voltage exceeds 210 kV (r.m.s.). If the value of potential gradient at which ionisation
occurs can be taken as 30 kV per cm, find the spacing between the conductors.
a)341 cm
b) 359 cm
c)153 cm
d)231 cm
Answer :a
27. A 3-phase, 220 kV, 50 Hz transmission line consists of 1·5 cm radius conductor
spaced 2 metres apart in equilateral triangular formation. If the temperature is 40ºC and
atmospheric pressure is 76 cm, calculate the corona loss per km of the line. Take mo =
0·85.
a)-0·05998 kW
b) 0·06998 kW
c) 0·07998 kW
d) 0·5998 kW
28.A certain 3-phase equilateral transmission line has a total corona loss of 53 kW
at 106 kV and a loss of 98 kW at 110·9 kV. What is the disruptive critical voltage? What is the
corona loss at 113 kV?
a)3
b)2
c)6
d)nil
29. Potential gradient of single core cable is ________________
Answer: a
Explanation: The electric field intensity,
30. For a transmission system of voltage ‘V’ volts having the core radius of ‘r’ m and outer radius of ‘R’ m. The
maximum dielectric stress on single core cable is ___________
31. For a transmission system of voltage ‘V’ volts having the core radius of ‘r’ m and outer radius of ‘R’ m. The
minimum dielectric stress on single core cable is ______________
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum stress will occur at the outermost surface of the conductor such that x(max) = outer
radius of core.
32. For a transmission system of voltage ‘765 kV’ volts having the core radius of ‘5’ cm and outer radius of ‘0.40’
m. The maximum dielectric stress on single core cable is _________
a) 7357.7 kV
b) 919.7 kV
c) 4247 kV
d) 530 kV
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum stress will occur at the surface of the conductor such that x(min) = radius of core.
33. The ratio of dielectric stress of the on the cable corresponding to the maximum and minimum is ____________
a) R/r
b) r/R
c) rR
d) (R/r)2
Answer: a
34. The condition at which the minimized dielectric stress condition (R/r) will take place is ______________
a) 2.7188
b) 0.7188
c) 1/2.7188
d) 2.71882
Answer: a
35. Consider a system having a cable of capacitance 5 nF, with 765 kV star connected at 50 Hz having a power loss
in the cable as 82.1 kW. Then the dielectric loss angle is _________(in degrees).
a) 15
b) 7.5
c) 20
d) 4.9
Answer: a
Explanation: Dielectric loss = ωCV2 tanδ
36. The resistance of the insulation used for the cables is 40 ohms for a length of ‘x’ km. If the proposed plan needs
to extend the transmission line cable to extra ‘2x’ m then the resistance of the cable offered will be _____________
(in ohms).
a) 13.33
b) 20
c) 120
d) 40
Answer: a
Explanation: The resistance of the cable is inversely proportional to the length of it.
37. Dielectric power loss of a transmission line cable operating for ‘V’ volts, ‘f’ Hz having a capacitance of ‘C’
Farads with the tangent loss angle of δis ____________
a) ωCV2 tanδ
b) ωCV2/tanδ
c) (tanδ/ωCV)2
d) ωCV2 tanδ2
Answer: a
Explanation: The Dielectric loss = ωCV2 tanδ for a cable.
38. The power losses occurring in the transmission cable has the relation with loss tangent angle as _____
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: a
Explanation: The Dielectric loss = ωCV2 tanδ
So, Pd α tanδ.
39. In a transmission tower having ‘n’ insulators with equivalent pin-to-earth capacitance of ‘C’ farads. For the static
shielding of the conductors, the capacitance from the shield to the kth link from the top is ______
Answer: a
Explanation: The generalized expression for the capacitance of the kth metal ring is,
C(k) = k*pin-to-earth/(n-k).
40. For a string of five suspension insulators is to be fitted with a grading ring. If the pin to earth capacitances is
equal to C, then the value of line to pin capacitance of first capacitance is
a) 0.25C
b) 0.667C
c) 1.5C
d) 4C
Answer: a
Explanation: Ck= KC/(n-k) = 1*C/5-1 = C/4.
41. For a string of five suspension insulators is to be fitted with a grading ring. If the pin to earth capacitances are
equal to C, then the value of line to pin capacitance of first and last capacitance(from top) is
a) 0.25C, 4C
b) 0.667C, 3C
c) 1.5C, 1.5C
d) 4C,0.25
Answer: a
Explanation: Ck= KC/(n-k)
C1= 1*C/(5-1) = C/4
C4 = 4C/(5-4) = 4C.
42.The Murray loop test is used to locate an earth fault on one core of a two-core cable. The
other core is used to complete the loop. When the network is balanced, the resistance connected to the
faulty core hasa value of 3·2 Ω. The other resistance arm has a value of 11·8 Ω. The fault is 42·7 m from
the test end.
Find the length of the cable. [100 m]
a)100 m
b)55m
c)200 m
d)150 m
Ans:-100 m
43. What is the percentage voltage regulation of short transmission line if its sending end and reciving end voltages
are 160 KV and 132 KV respectively?
a) 30 %
b) 21.21 %
c) 12.12 %
d) 38.22 %
Answer: b
Explanation: % Voltage Regulation = (Sending end voltage -Reciving end voltage) ÷ Reciving end voltage
= [( 160 – 132 ) × 100] ÷ 132
= 21.21 %.
43. A single phase transmission line is transmitting 1,100 KW power at 11 KV and at unity power fector. If it has a
total resistance of 5 Ω, what is the efficiency of the transmission line?
a) 80 %
b) 89.65 %
c) 97.24 %
d) 99.54 %
Answer: c
Explanation: Efficiency (η) = Power delivered ÷ (Power Delivered + line losses)
Line current (I) = P/V
= (1100 × 1000/11000)
= 100 Amp.
Line losses = I2 R
= (100)2 5
= 50 KW
η = [11000/(11000+50)] × 100
= 99.54 %.
44. Voltage regulation of a transmission line should be ________

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Greater than 50 %
d) Less than 50 %
Answer: a
Explanation: More value of voltage regulation means more voltage fluctuations and this is undesirable. So the value
of voltage regulation should be as low as possible.
45. Which of the following transmission line can be considered as short transmission line?
a) Transmission line of length upto 600 Km
b) Transmission line of length upto 500 Km
c) Transmission line of length upto 200 Km
d) Transmission line of length upto 80 Km
Answer: d
Explanation: The transmission lines having length less than 80 Km are considered as short transmission lines.Their
operating voltage is also less than medium and long transmission lines.
46. Which of the following is correct operating voltage range for short transmission lines.
a) Less than 456 KV
b) Less than 132 KV
c) Less than 20 KV
d) Less than 100 KV
Answer: c
Explanation: Transmission lines having length lesser than 80 Km and operating voltage lower than 20 KV fall in the
category of short transmission lines.
47. What is the percentage voltage regulation of short transmission line if its sending end and reciving end voltages
are 160 KV and 132 KV respectively?
a) 30 %
b) 21.21 %
c) 12.12 %
d) 38.22 %
Answer: b
Explanation: % Voltage Regulation = (Sending end voltage -Reciving end voltage) ÷ Reciving end voltage
= [( 160 – 132 ) × 100] ÷ 132
= 21.21 %.
48. A single phase transmission line is transmitting 1,100 KW power at 11 KV and at unity power fector. If it has a
total resistance of 5 Ω, what is the efficiency of the transmission line?
a) 80 %
b) 89.65 %
c) 97.24 %
d) 99.54 %
49. Voltage regulation of a transmission line should be ________

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Greater than 50 %
d) Less than 50 %
50. Which of the following is like equivalent circuit of short transmission line?
b) Parallel RLC circuit
Answer: c
Explanation: Due to smaller distance and lower line voltage, the shunt capacitance effects are extremely small and
also the shunt conductance effects are very low. So both of them are neglected and equivalent circuit contains only
series inductance (L) and resistance(R).
51. In single phase transmission lines resistance and inductance are considered only up to neutral.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of single phase transmission lines the total loop resistance and inductance is to be taken into
account. Resistance and inductance only up to neutral are taken into account for 3 phase transmission lines.
52. Which of the following transmission line can be considered as medium transmission line?
a) Transmission line of length upto 600 Km
b) Transmission line of length upto 500 Km
c) Transmission line of length upto 200 Km
d) Transmission line of length upto 80 Km
Answer: c
Explanation: The transmission lines having length more than 80 Km and less than 200 Km are considered as
medium transmission lines.Their operating voltage is more than short transmission lines but less than long
transmission lines.
53. Which of the following is correct operating voltage range for medium transmission lines.
a) More than 765 KV
b) More than 400 KV
c) More than 20 KV
d) More than 132 KV
Answer: c
Explanation: Transmission lines having length more than 80 Km and less than 200 Km, operating voltage between
20 KV and 100 KV fall in the category of medium transmission lines.
54. What is the value of the charging current flowing to earth in medium transmission line.
a) Very high
b) Medium
c) Negligible
d) No capacitance
Answer: b
Explanation: Owing to appreciable length and voltage of the line the charging current is appreciable in medium
transmission lines. Also the capacitance effect cannot be ignored in medium transmission lines.
55. Range of surge impedance for an overhead transmission line is ____________

a) 12 Ω – 144 Ω
b) 40 Ω – 60 Ω
c) 400 Ω – 600 Ω
d) 300 Ω – 900 Ω
Answer: c
Explanation: Surge impedance is the characteristic impedance of a loss free transmission line. It is the square root of
ratio of line impedance(Z) and shunt admittance (Y). Its value varies between 400 Ω and 600 Ω.
56. Range of surge impedance for an underground cables is _____________

a) 12 Ω – 144 Ω
b) 40 Ω – 60 Ω
c) 400 Ω – 600 Ω
d) 300 Ω – 900 Ω
Answer: b
Explanation: Surge impedance is the characteristic impedance of a loss free transmission line. It is the square root of
ratio of line impedance(Z) and shunt admittance (Y). Its value varies between 40 Ω and 60 Ω.
57. Synchronous phase modifiers are installed at which of the following position of the transmission line?
a) Reciving end
b) Sending end
c) Between reciving end and sending end
d) Near reciving end
Answer: b
Explanation: For constant voltage transmission, specially designed synchronous motors, called synchronous phase
modifiers. Synchronous phase modifiers are installed at receiving end to maintain the voltage drop along the line
constant.
58. The voltage rating of long transmission line is _________

a) 20 KV to 100 KV
b) Upto 20 KV
c) Above 100 KV
d) 60 KV to 80 KV
Answer: c
Explanation: The transmission line having length above time 200 kilometre and line voltage above 100 KV fall into
the category of long transmission line.
59. The shunt capacitive susceptance in long transmission line is greater than that in medium and short transmission
line.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to long length and high voltage of line the charging current is very high for the long transmission
line and therefore the capacitance in long transmission line is also very high and is more than that in short and
medium transmission line.
60. What is the value of characteristics impedance for loss free transmission line?
a) √(L/C)
b) √(R/C)
c) √(LC)
d) √(C/L)
Answer: a
Explanation: Characteristic impedance of a long transmission line is given by
Zc = √[(R+jX) / ( G+jB)] For loss less transmission line resiatance (R) and shunt conductance (G) are equal to zero.
And hence, Z0 ( Characteristic impedance for loss-free transmission line) is given by
Z0 = √(L/C).
61. The leakage current through the shunt admittance is __________

a) Maximum at sending end
b) Maximum at receiving end
c) Uniform over length of line
d) Maximum at centre of line
Answer: a
Explanation: The leakage current through the shunt admittance is maximum at the sending end of the transmission
line. This current decreases continuously as it move towards the receiving end of the line and becomes zero at the
receiving end.
62. Value of leakage current at reciving end of transmission line is zero.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Value of leakage current through the shunt admittance is maximum at the sending end of the
transmission line. This current decreases continuously as we move towards the receiving end of the line and
becomes zero at the receiving end.
63. Ferranti effect is not a problem for ________

a) Long Transmission lines
b) Medium Transmission lines
c) Short Transmission lines
d) Transmission line having high capacitance
Answer: c
Explanation: Ferranti effect is happens when line to earth capacitance becomes more than the inductance parameter.
This effect is more predominant in medium and long transmission lines but is not a problem for short transmission
lines. This is because line to earth capacitance for short transmission line is negligible.
64. What happens during the Ferranti effect?

a) Reciving end current becomes more than sending end current
b) Reciving end voltage becomes more than sending end voltage
c) Reciving end power becomes more than sending end power
d) Reciving end frequency becomes more than sending end frequency
Answer: b
Explanation: In a medium or long transmission line when open circuited or lightly loaded the receiving end voltage
is found more than the standing in voltage. This phenomenon of rise in voltage at receiving end of open circuited or
lightly loaded line is called Ferranti effect.
30. During Ferranti effect the voltage drop across line resistance ___________
a) In phase with reciving end voltage
b) lags behind reciving end voltage
c) lead the reciving end voltage
d) lags behind sending end voltage
Answer: c
Explanation: During Ferranti effect the leading charging current is more than lagging component of current. Net line
current leads the sending end and reciving end voltage. Hence the iR drop leads these voltages.
31. A transmission line of 200 Km is supplying at 50Hz frequency. What is the percentage rise in voltage at reciving
end?
a) 20%
b) 1.2%
c) 2.19%
d) 20.8%
Answer: c
Explanation: Percentage rise in voltage = (ω2 l2 10-8 )/18
Solving this % Vrise = {(2 × Ω × 50) × 2002 × 10-8}/18
= 2.19%.
32. Which of the following equipment or element can reduce Ferranti effect?
a) Relay
b) Circuit Breaker
c) Resistors
d) Current limiting reactors
Answer: d
Explanation: For high voltage and extra high voltage lines shunt reactors are provided to absorb part of charging
current. As leading charging current is reduced. Ferranti effect is also reduced.
33. What is the limit within which the consumer’s end terminal voltage should be maintained?
a) ± 9 %
b) ± 10 %
c) ± 5 %
d) ± 6 %
Answer: d
Explanation: The voltage fluctuations at consumers end may cause malfunction or event damage of consumer’s
equipments. So, the voltage at the consumers end must be maintained within prescribed limit upto ± 6% of declared
supply voltage so that the consumers apparatus may operate satisfactorily
.
34. Nuclear power plants are suitable only for load factor over _________
a) 0.5
b) 0.7
c) 0.3
d) 0.8
Answer: d
Explanation: Nuclear power plant is not suitable for variable load operation as the reactor cannot be easily controlled
to respond quickly to load variations. Such a plant is used as base load plant only operating at high load factors of
over 0.8.
35. For the given distribution system the maximum voltage at the midpoint will be ________
a) 155.6 V
b) 311.12 V
c) 622 V
d) 220 V
Answer: a
Explanation: Vmax = V/√2 = (440/2)/√2 = 155.6 V.
36. For increasing the thermal efficiency of thermal power plant pressure in condenser should be:
a) Reduced upto 0.04 kg/cm3
b) Kept above 2.45 kg/cm3
c) As high as boiler pressure
d) Same as atmospheric pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: The thermal efficiency can be effectively increased by decreasing the pressure in the condenser.
Pressure in condenser is kept very low usually 0.04 kg/cm2 .
37. Economisers are necessary to use for pressure of 70 kg/cm2 or more.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: High cost of fuel consumption, high load factor and high pressure and temperature conditions, all
justify the use of economiser. Installation of economiser involves extra cost of installation, maintenance and regular
cleaning and additional requirement of space. By considering above points it has been found that use of economiser
becomes necessary for pressure above 70 kg/cm2.
38. Supercritical pressure boiler scan produce steam at the rate of _________
a) less than 1,500 kg/hr
b) less than 340,000 kg/hr
c) less than 80,000 kg/hr
d) upto 1,000,000 kg/hr
Answer: d
Explanation: Modern supercritical pressure boiler with pressures as high as 350 atm temperature 600°C and capacity
1,000,000 kg/hour are available now days. Fire tube boiler can produce steam at the rate of 15,000 kg/hr. Water tube
boiler can produce 340,000 kg of steam per hour.
39.The load of a consumer is generally measured in terms of

(A) Volts
(B) Amperes
(C) Ampere hour
(D) kW.
40. The normal connected load of a domestic consumer is usually
(A) up to 10 kW
(B) 10 to 20 kW
(C) 25 to 50 kW
(D) 50 to 100 kW
41. Load factor during a period is
(A) Average Load / Installed Capacity
(B) Average Load / Maximum Load
(C) Maximum Load / Average Load
(D) Maximum Load / Installed Capacity
42.Which of the following installation provides peaked load ?
(A) Arc furnace
(B) Air conditioner
(C) Air compressor running continuously
(D) Cold storage plant
43. Demand factor is the
(A) Maximum Demand / Average Demand
(B) Maximum Demand / Connected Load
(C) Average Demand / Maximum Demand
(D) Connected Load / Maximum Demand vi)The inductance of a line is minimum when
(A) GMD is high
(B) GMR is High
44.GMD is low but GMR is high. (A)Both GMD and GMR are High.
vii)If the supply frequency increases then Skin effect is
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Unchanged
45.Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage overhead transmission line to
a) Reduce transmission line losses
b) Increase mechanical strength of line.
c) Reduce corona
d) Reduce Sag
46.The rated voltage of a 3 phase power system is given as

a) rms phase voltage
b) peak phase voltage
c) rms line to line voltage
d) peak line to line voltage.
47.The concept of an electrically short ,medium and long line is primarily based on the
a.Nominal voltage of the line
b.Physical length of the line
c.Wave length of the line
d.Power transmitted over the line
48.In conductors, electrons can flow because their

i. Ions are free
ii. Protons are free
iii. Electrons are free and mobile
iv. Negative ions are free
49.Materials that allow electrons to flow through are known as
v. Insulators
vi. Conductors
vii. Electrolytes
viii. Bases
50.Where is the strain type insulators used?
a) At dead ends.
b) At any intermediate anchor tower.
c) On straight runs.
d) Either (a) or (b).
51.The line constants of a transmission line are
e) Uniformly distributed.
f) Lumped.
52.The length of a short transmission line is upto about .
a) 50KM b)120 KM c)200KM D)400 KM
53.The Capacitance of a transmission line is a element
a) Shunt b) Series Answer
54.After allowing a discount of 10% on M.P., a shopkeeper charges Rs 540 for a watch. Had he not
allowed any discount, he would have made a profit of 20%. What was the C.P. of the watch?
A. Rs 648
B. Rs 600
C. Rs 500
D. None of these ANSWER: C
55.Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy?

A. Tidal power
B. Geothermal energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. Wind power.
ANSWER: C
56.Pulverized coal is
A. coal free from ash
B. non-smoking coal
C. coal which bums For long time
D. coal broken into fine particles.
ANSWER: D
57.Heating value of coal is approximately A. 1000-2000 kcal / kg

B. 2000-4000 kcal / kg
C. 5000-6500 kcal / kg
D. 9000-10,500 kcal / kg.
ANSWER: C
58.Water gas is a mixture of
A. CO2 and O2
B. O2and H2
C. C.H2, N2 and O2
D. CO, N2 and H2.
ANSWER: D
59.Coal used in power plant is also known as

A. steam coal
B. charcoal
C. coke
D. soft coal.
ANSWER: A
60.Which of the following is considered as superior quality of coal ?

A. Bituminous coal
B. Peat
C. Lignite
D. Coke.
ANSWER: A
61.In a power plant, coal is carried from storage place to boilers generally by means of
A. bucket
B. V-belts
C. trolleys
D. manually.
ANSWER:B
62.Live storage of coal in a power plant means

A. coal ready for combustion
B. preheated coal
C. storage of coal sufficient to meet 24 hour demand of the plant
D. coal in transit.
ANSWER: C
63.Pressure of steam in condenser is

A. atmospheric pressure
B. more than pressure
C. slightly less than pressure
D. much less than pressure.
ANSWER: D
64.Equipment used for pulverizing the coal is known as

A. Ball mill
B. Hopper
C. Burner
D. Stoker.
ANSWER: A
65.Power plants using coal work closely on known which of the following cycle ?
A. Otto cycle
B. Binary vapor cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Rankine cycle.
ANSWER: D
66.Critical pressure of water is

A. 1 kg / cm2
B. 100 kg / cm2
C. 155 kg / cm2
D. 213.8 kg / cm2.
ANSWER: D
67.The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with

A. increased quantity of coal burnt
B. larger quantity of water used
C. lower load in the plant
D. use of high steam pressures.
ANSWER: D
68.Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a thermal
power plant?
A. Reheating of steam at intermediate stage
B .Regeneration use of steam for heating boiler feed water C .Use of high pressures
D. All of the above.
ANSWER:D
69.Steam pressures usually used in thermal power plants are

A. 5 kg/cm2 to 10 kg / cm2
B. 50 kg/cm2 to 100 kg / cm2
C. 110 kg/cm2 to 170 kg / cm2
D. 200 kg/cm2 to 215 kg / cm2
ANSWER: C
70.When pulverized fuel is not used, the equipment used for supplying coal to the boiler is
A. Heater
B. Stoker
C. Burner
D. Skip hoist.
ANSWER: B
71.Burning of low grade fuel can be improved by A..Blending with better quality
B. Oil assisted ignition
C. Pulverizing
D.Any of the above.
ANSWER: D
72.As steam expands in turbine A.its pressure increases

B. its specific volume increases
C. its boiling point increases
D. its temperature increases.
ANSWER: B
73.Water is supplied to a boiler A at atmospheric pressure

B. at slightly more than atmospheric pressure
C. at 100 cm/kg2
D. at more than the steam pressure on the boiler.
ANSWER: D
74.Which of the following enters the super heater of a boiler ?

A. Cold water
B. Hot water
C. Wet steam
D. Super-heated steam.
ANSWER: C
75.Super heated steam is always

A. at a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to a steam pressure
B. at a pressure more than the boiler steam pressure
C. separated from water particles before being supplied to turbine
D. at a pressure less than the maximum cycle pressure.
ANSWER: A
76.The equipment installed in power plants to reduce air pollution due to smoke is
A. Induced draft fans
B. De-super heaters
C. Electrostatic precipitators
D. Re-heaters.
Answer:C
77.Permissible pH value of water for boilers is

A. 1
B.7
C.slightly more than 7
D. 10.
ANSWER:C
78.A condenser in a thermal power plant condenses steam combing out of

A. Boiler
B. Super-heater
C. Economizer
D. Turbine.
ANSWER:D
79.What is the maximum size of steam turbine usually being installed, for thermal power plants ?
A. 120 MW
B. 250 MW
C. 500 MW
D. 1000 MW.
ANSWER: C
80.Overall thermal efficiency of a steam power station is in the range A. 0-4%

B. 25-35%
C. 44-62%
D. 68-79%.
ANSWER: D
81.Which of the following is not the voltage at which power is usually transmitted
A.132 kV
B. 66 kV
C. 33 kV
D. 20 kV.
ANSWER: D
82.Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at

A. 3000 rpm B.1500 rpm
C. 1000 rpm
D. 750 rpm.
ANSWER:A
83.A photovoltaic cell converts

A. heat energy into mechanical energy
B. chemical energy into electrical energy
C. solar energy into electrical energy
D. electrical energy into chemical energy.
ANSWER:C
84.In geothermal power plants waste water is

A. re circulated after cooling in cooling towers
B. discharged into sea
C. discharged back to earth
D. evaporated in ponds.
ANSWER:C
85.Which of the following is not the trans¬mission voltage in INDIA ?

A. 66 kV
B. l32kV
C. 264 kV
D. 400 kV
ANSWER:C
86.Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?

A. 6.6 kV
B. 9.9 kV
C. 11kV
D. 13.2 kV.
ANSWER: B
87.Which of the following is not the distribution system normally used

A. 3 phase-4 wire
B. 3 phase-3 wire
C. Single phase - 3 wire
D. Single phase -4 wire.
ANSWER: D
88.Conductors for high voltage transmission lines are suspended from towers
A. to reduce clearance from ground
B. to increase clearance from ground
C. to reduce wind and snow loads
D. to take care of extension in length during summer.
ANSWER: B
89.Transmission efficiency increases as

A. voltage and power factor both increase
B. voltage and power factor both decrease
C. voltage increases but power factor decreases
D. voltage decreases but power factor increases.
ANSWER: A
90.When alternating current passes through a conductor

A. it remains uniformly distributed throughout the section of conductor
B. portion of conductor near the surface carries more current as compared to the core
C. portion of conductor near the surface carries less current as compared to the core
D. entire current passes through the core of the conductor.
ANSWER: B
91.The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as
A. skin effect
B. corona
C. permeability
D. unsymmetrical fault.
ANSWER: A
92.The effective resistance of a conductor will be the same as ohmic resistance when
A. current is in true sine wave form
B. voltage is low
C. power factor is unity
D. Current is uniformly distributed in the conductor cross-section.
ANSWER: C
93.Skin effect results in

A. reduced effective resistance but increased effective internal reactance of the conductor
B. increased effective resistance but reduced effective internal reactance of. the conductor
C. reduced effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance
D. increased effective resistance as well as effective internal reactance.
ANSWER: B
94.Skin effect depends on

A. size of the conductor
B. frequency of the current
C. resistivity of the conductor material
D. all of the above.
ANSWER: D
95.The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the

A. diameter increases
B. frequency increases
C. permeability of conductor material increases
D. resistivity of conductor material increases.
ANSWER: D
96.Skin effect is proportional to

A. diameter of conductor
B. (diameter of conductor)1/2
C. (diameter of conductor )2
D. (diameter of conductor )2.
ANSWER: C
97.In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of line is
less than
A. 200 km
B. 160 km
C. 100 km
D. 50 km. ANSWER: D
98.Pin insulators are normally used up to voltage of about A.100kV

B. 66 kV
C. 33 kV
D. 25 kV.
ANSWER: D
99.Strain type insulator arc used where the conductors arc

A. dead ended
B. at intermediate anchor towers
C. any of the above
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
100.For 66 kV lines the number of insulator discs used are
A. 3
B. 5
C. 8
D. 12. ANSWER: B
101.Ten discs usually suggest that the transmission line voltage is

A. 11 kV
B. 33 kV
C. 66 kV
D. 132 kV.
Answer: D
102.The effect of corona is

A. increased energy loss
B. increased reactance
C. increased inductance
ANSWER: A
103.Corona effect can be detected by

A. hissing sound
B. faint luminous flow of bluish color
C. presence of ozone detected by odor
ANSWER: D
104.Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because

A. it gives bad odor
B. it corrodes the material
C. it transfers energy to the ground
D. reduces power factor. ANSWER: B
105.Between two supports, due to sag the conductor takes the form of
A. catenary
B. triangle
C. ellipse
D. semi-circle.
ANSWER: A
106.The effect of ice deposition on conductor is

A. increased skin effect
B. reduced corona losses
C. increased weight
D. reduced sag. ANSWER: C
107.String efficiency can be improved by

A. using longer cross arm
B. grading the insulator
C. using a guard ring
D. any of the above. ANSWER: D

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ONLINE QUESTION BANK

POWER SYSTEM I CODE:-EE501

Prepared By:- SUPARNA PAL,ASST PROF,EE DEPT,JISCE

Multiple Choice Questions

For One Marks

6. Which part of thermal power plant causes maximum energy losses?

9. Overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to ___________

10. In supercritical pressure steam power plant temperature of steam is __________

11. Kaplan turbine is _____________

12. Which of the following is not a reaction turbine?

15. Which turbine has highest speed?

16. Governing mechanism used in case of Pelton wheel turbine is ________

17. Guide vanes are used as governor in Kaplan turbine.

21. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.

22. Hydroelectric power plant is __________

22. Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre.

24. Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?

26.. Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?

a. 4 strokes and 2 revolutions.

29. The speed of the diesel engine may vary from

ANSWER: d. 1000 – 3000 rpm.

30. The diesel plants are mainly used ________

a. As peak load plants.

ANSWER: d. Both peak and stand by plants.

31. What is the ranging capacity of the diesel plant?

ANSWER: c. Both (a) and (b).

36. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for ________________

40. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear power plant?

45. Which of the following is not a reason of heating feed water?

47. Mechanical method of water treatment is done to _____________

51. Chemical method of treatment is used for treatment of:

52. Scall formation in boiler tube causes ____________

53. In nuclear power stations which nuclear reaction is performed?

57. Which fissionable nuclear fuel occur in nature?

60. Which statement about fast reactor is true?

61. In which part of nuclear power plant steam is produced?

62. What is the main function of moderator?

63. Which of the following material is not used as moderator?

67. In thermal reactors control is very easy in comparison to other reactors.

68. The main body of reactor is called ____________

71.. Suspension type insulator are subjected to ______________

74. Which of the following insulator is similar to pin type insulator?

79. Glass insulator cannot be used for voltage above __________

80. Which of the following location is suitable to use shackle insulator?

83. Arcing horns are used for ______________

84. What is the effect of rain on string efficiency?

93. Effect of earth’s presence on the magnetic field geometry is _________________

96.Transposition is the mean to balance ____________

104. For a transmission line, the distributed parameters is/are ____________

107. If the diameter of the conductor is increased then _____________

113. Voltage regulation in the power system is __________

114. Voltage regulation becomes negative for a ______load.

119. Only advantage of corona is that it

Answer:-C. Works as a safety valve for surges

120. The chances of occurrence of corona are maximum during

Answer:-A. Humid weather

122. The effect of corona is

Answer:-A. Increased energy loss

123. Corona losses are minimised when

A. Conductor size is reduced