Avionics Online MCQs

1. How many types of transducers are there?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are basically two types of transducers. They are as follows:
i) Mechanical
ii) Electrical.
2. Mechanical transducers sense __________
a) electrical changes
b) physical changes
c) chemical changes
d) biological changes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A mechanical transducer senses the changes in a system’s physical condition
and gives an output. When a bimetallic strip is subjected to changes in temperature, the
output is the displacement of the strip mechanically.
3. Mechanical transducers generate ________
a) electrical signals
b) chemical signals
c) physical signals
d) biological signals
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical transducers in general portray physical or mechanical signals at
the output in response to any physical changes in a system.
4. Electrical transducers generate ________
a) biological signals
b) chemical signals
c) physical signals
d) electrical signals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrical transducers in general respond to physical quantities that are non-
electrical such as pressure, temperature, force etc and generate equivalent electrical
signals at their output.
5. Electrical signals are easy to amplify.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrical signals are easier to either amplify or attenuate. By making use of
static devices such as FGK, electrical signals can be brought to a suitable level.
6. The power needs of electrical transducers is ________
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) infinite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electrical transducers have very minimum power requirements. Electrical
transducer based systems are controlled with a small amount of power.
7. Electrical transducers are ________
a) small and non-portable
b) large and non-portable
c) small and compact
d) large and portable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electrical systems have integrated circuits that are small and compact. They
can be easily ported as well.
8. Mechanical transducers cause ________
a) power loss
b) hysteresis loss
c) eddy current loss
d) frictional loss
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mechanical transducer based systems are affected by the frictional loss of the
rotating parts. In electrical transducers, there is no wear and tear due to non moving parts.
9. Electrical transducers are costly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the speed at which the takeoff is aborted when there is an engine failure?
a) Decision speed
b) Stall speed
c) Rotational speed
d) Takeoff speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: At any speed greater than the decision speed, takeoff is not aborted even
when there is an engine failure. Stall speed is lower than the decision speed and hence the
takeoff is aborted.
2. The distance the aircraft has to cover in the ground to achieve takeoff speed is called?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The distance the airplane has to cover in the ground before it can lift off is
called the ground roll and it varies from aircraft to aircraft. Generally, bigger aircraft have a
larger ground roll distance. This is the reason why huge aircraft need longer runways.
3. The distance the aircraft climbs to clear an obstacle of particular height during takeoff is
called as?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The extra distance the aircraft covers airborne but before it covers an obstacle
of particular height is called airborne distance. Airborne distance is also added with the
ground roll to give the total takeoff distance.
4. What is the takeoff clearance height for a military aircraft?
a) 50ft
b) 35ft
c) 20ft
d) 100ft
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The height that the aircraft must cover during the airborne distance is different
for different aircraft depending upon their usage. The height of the obstacle is generally
specified to be 50ft for military aircraft and 35ft for commercial aircraft.
5. The velocity at which yawing motion can be produced by rudder deflection while the
aircraft is on the ground is called _______
a) Ground roll speed
b) Ground control speed
c) Minimum control speed on the ground
d) Control speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Minimum control speed on the ground is the minimum speed at which enough
aerodynamic force can be generated in the vertical fin by rudder deflection while the aircraft
is still rolling on the ground to produce a yawing moment on the aircraft.
6. Departure and approach are subphases of what?
a) Landing phase
b) Takeoff phase
c) Terminal phase
d) Surface phase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The terminal phase consists of the departure and the approach phase.
Departure starts when the aircraft is in the ground and ends when it is out of the terminal
area. The approach starts when the aircraft enters the terminal control area and ends when
the aircraft intercepts the landing aids at approach fix.
7. The height at which approach is aborted when the runway is not in sight is called as?
a) Decision height
b) Approach altitude
c) Clearance altitude
d) Landing altitude
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Decision altitude is the altitude above the runway at which the approach must
be aborted if the runway is not sight. Decision height published for each runway at each
airport.
8. A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal direction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal
direction. An aircraft executing a non-precision approach must abort if the runway is not
visible at minimum descent altitude, which is typically 700ft above the runway.
9. What instrument is used to measure the aircraft’s altitude during the approach phase?
a) Pressure altimeter
b) Radio altimeter
c) Sound altimeter
d) Infrared altimeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A radio altimeter can accurately measure the altitude of an aircraft and works
on the radar principle. Typically, radio altimeters provide accurate altitude measurements till
5000ft and are used only during takeoff and landing.
10. Which of the following conditions does not lead to missed approaches?
a) Poor visibility
b) Excess fuel
c) Alignment with runway
d) Traffic
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Resistance temperature detector is ___________
a) a electrical transducer
b) a mechanical transducer
c) a chemical transducer
d) a physical transducer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance temperature detector is an electrical transducer. It is used for
measuring the variation in temperature. It is also known as a resistance thermometer.
2. Relation between temperature and resistance of a conductor is ________
a) Rt = Rref [1+t]
b) Rt = Rref [1+α∆t]
c) Rt = Rref [1-αt]
d) Rt = Rref [1-t]
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relationship between temperature and resistance of a conductor is given
by
Rt = Rref [1+α∆t]
where, Rt is the resistance of the conductor at t°C.
Rref is the resistance of the conductor at reference temperature
α is the temperature coefficient of resistance
∆t is the difference between the temperature being measured and the reference
temperature.
3. Sensing element in the thermometer must provide ________
a) small change in resistance
b) no change in resistance
c) large change in resistance
d) infinite change in resistance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The sensing element in a thermometer must give a large change in the
resistance for a given change in the temperature.
4. Platinum is used for industrial applications because ________
a) it is cheap
b) it is available readily
c) it is a noble metal
d) it gives accurate measurements
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In industrial applications, platinum is used due to its accuracy in providing
measurements. It is also reproducible. Platinum element can be used for the measurement
of temperatures of about 1000 K.
5. Resistance thermometer provides the change in electrical resistance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A resistance thermometer provides a change in the electrical resistance with
respect to a variation in the temperature. Basically resistance thermometers work on the
principle of change in the electrical resistance with variation in the temperature.
6. If the sensing element is large, then less amount of heat is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the sensing element in a resistance thermometer is small in size, then
less quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature. Platinum, nickel and copper are
the commonly used metals for measuring temperature.
7. Most metallic conductors have a ________
a) neutral temperature coefficient of resistance
b) negative temperature coefficient of resistance
c) positive temperature coefficient of resistance
d) zero temperature coefficient of resistance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In general metallic conductors have a positive temperature coefficient of
resistance. The resistance increases with an increase in temperature.
8. In a temperature sensing element ________
a) low value of α is required
b) infinite value of α is required
c) α must be zero
d) high value of α is required
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In order to achieve a large change in the value of resistance for a small
change in the value of temperature, high value of α is required. Change in resistance is
measured through a Wheatstone’s bridge.
9. Nickel and its alloys can be used over a temperature range of ________
a) 100 to 450 K
b) 10 to 50 K
c) 0 to 25 K
d) 5 to 15 K
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Temperature sensors constructed using nickel and its alloys can be used in
the temperature range of 100 to 450 K. Compared to platinum, they are less expensive.
They have a comparatively higher temperature coefficient that increases with temperature.
10. How can corrosion be prevented in a resistance thermometer?
a) by immersing the setup in oil
b) by enclosing the elements in a glass tube
c) by using guard rings
d) by painting the elements
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Active transducers are classified into ____________
a) 4 types
b) 2 types
c) 6 types
d) 8 types
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Active transducers can be subdivided into four types. They are as follows:
• Photovoltaic
• Thermoelectric
• Piezoelectric
• Electromagnetic.
2. Active transducers develops ______________
a) mechanical parameter
b) electrical parameter
c) chemical parameter
d) physical parameter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Active transducers are also known as self generating type of transducers.
They develop an electrical voltage or current proportional to the quantity being measured.
3. How do passive transducers develop electrical signals?
a) using a transformer
b) using internal source
c) using external source
d) using a diode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Passive transducers develop electrical signals by means of an external source.
They are usually known as externally power driven sources.
4. Capacitive transduction involves ___________
a) change in resistance
b) change in inductance
c) change in resistance
d) change in capacitance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In capacitive transduction, measurand involves the change in the capacitance.
Capacitance changes when the distance between the plates is varied or by a change in the
dielectric.
5. In electromagnetic based transduction measurand is ___________
a) converted into mechanical force
b) converted into electromotive force
c) converted into chemical force
d) converted into physical force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electromagnetic transduction involves the conversion of the measurand into
electromotive force. Magnetic flux is produced as a result of the relative motion between the
magnet and an electromagnet.
6. Inductive transduction involves ___________
a) change in self inductance
b) change in capacitance
c) change in mutual inductance
d) change in resistance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an inductive transduction based system, measurand involves change in the
self inductance of the coil.
7. Photovoltaic transduction involves ___________
a) voltage generation heat
b) voltage generation through sound
c) voltage generation through light
d) voltage generation current
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a photovoltaic transduction based system, measurand is converted into
voltage when the junction between dissimilar elements is illuminated.
8. Analog transducers convert input into ___________
a) voltage
b) current
c) digital
d) analog
View Answer
9. Inverse transducer converts electrical into a physical quantity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An inverse transducer is used to convert an electrical quantity into a physical
quantity. For example, loudspeaker converts electrical signal into sound signal.
10. Digital transducers produce analog output.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Thermoelectric transducer is a __________
a) temperature transducer
b) pressure transducer
c) inductive transducer
d) capacitive transducer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A thermoelectric transducer is a temperature transducer. It converts thermal
energy into electrical energy.
2. Commonly used thermoelectric transducer is __________
a) thermometer
b) thermocouple
c) linear variable differential transducer
d) loud speaker
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most commonly used thermoelectric transducer is a thermocouple. It
measures the change in temperature and converts it into an electrical signal.
3. The algebraic sum of e.m.f.s in a circuit containing thermocouples is __________
a) infinite
b) hundred
c) zero
d) ten
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a circuit consisting of many thermocouples, the algebraic sum of the e.m.f.s
produced is zero. It remains constant with temperature.
4. What is a thermopile?
a) single thermocouple
b) series-parallel connection of thermocouples
c) parallel connection of thermocouples
d) series of thermocouples
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermopile is a series connection of thermocouples. By making use of
thermopiles, a more sensitive element is obtained as compared to a single thermocouple.
5. Chromel-constantan thermopile consists of 25 thermocouples.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A chromel-constantan thermopile provides a sensitivity of 1 mv/°F. It is made
up of 25 thermocouples. Temperature variation as small as 0.001°F can be measured using
this thermopile.
6. Thermocouple must provide ________
a) small thermo e.m.f
b) sufficient thermo e.m.f
c) no thermo e.m.f
d) infinite thermo e.m.f
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A thermocouple must be able to provide sufficient thermo e.m.f. This must be
with respect to each degree variation in the temperature. It helps in detecting the
temperature variation and in measurement.
7. Most suitable material for a thermocouple is ________
a) brass
b) gold
c) platinum
d) silver
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Platinum is the most suitable material for constructing thermocouples. It has a
very high sensitivity. Constantan is the other material (alloy) with a composition of 40 % of
Ni and 60 % of Cu used in a thermocouple.
8. If two different metals are joined forming a closed circuit an electric current flows.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When two different metals are joined together forming a closed circuit, if the
temperatures of the two junctions are different then an electric current flows through the
circuit.
9. Which of the following should satisfy for measuring higher temperatures using a
thermocouple?
a) no wire is required
b) wire must be small
c) wire must be thin
d) wire must be heavy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Higher temperatures can be measured using a thermocouple by making the
wire heavy. Increase in size of the wire affects the response time of the thermocouple.
10. For accurate temperature measurement in a thermocouple the __________
a) cold compensation is needed
b) hot compensation is needed
c) no compensation is needed
d) hot and cold compensations are needed
View Answer
Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: a
a) thermometer
b) thermocouple
d) loud speaker
View Answer
Answer: b
a) infinite
b) hundred
c) zero
d) ten
View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: d
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
this thermopile.
c) no thermo e.m.f
View Answer
Answer: b
a) brass
b) gold
c) platinum
d) silver
View Answer
Answer: c
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
circuit.
thermocouple?
View Answer
Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: a
a) thermometer
b) thermocouple
d) loud speaker
View Answer
Answer: b
a) infinite
b) hundred
c) zero
d) ten
View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer
Answer: d
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
this thermopile.
c) no thermo e.m.f
View Answer
Answer: b
a) brass
b) gold
c) platinum
d) silver
View Answer
Answer: c
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
circuit.
thermocouple?
View Answer
Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is false with respect to GPS?
a) Active system
b) All weather system
c) Continuous system
d) Space based system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The GPS is an all weather global navigational system. It is passive, survivable,
continuous, space based system that provides any suitable equipped user with highly
accurate three dimensional position, velocity, and time information anywhere on or near the
Earth.
2. What is the approximate time taken by the GPS for one complete orbit?
a) 11 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 5 hours
d) 12 hours
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The GPS satellites are in approximately 12 hour orbits( 11 hours, 57 minutes,
57.27 seconds) at an altitude of approximately 11,000 nmi. At any point on Earth, 4
satellites are visible at all times.
3. What is the reason for sending two transmissions in the same band?
a) Redundancy
b) Ionosphere refraction corrections
c) Multiplexing
d) Reducing traffic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Each GPS satellite transmits signals at two frequencies in the L-band to permit
ionospheric refraction corrections by properly equipped users. These signals are in sync
with the pseudorandom noise that is unique to each satellite to provide instant ranging
capabilities.
4. Which of the following position services provided by the GPS require crypto keys?
a) Precise position service
b) Standard position service
c) Ultimate position service
d) Doppler position service
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GPS provides two position services, The precise position service and the
standard position service. The PPS can be denied to unauthorized users while SPS is free
to everyone. Users need crypto keys to access the PPS. These are generally military users.
5. The intentional degradation of GPS signal in specific areas is called ________
a) Selective degradation
b) Selective availability
c) Distributed GPD
d) Signal jamming
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The intentional degradation of GPS signal is meant to deny accuracy to
unfriendly forces. It is known as selective availability. SA also denies accuracy to
unauthorized users who are friendly, which is the entire civil community.
6. Only L2 signal carries the encrypted precise code.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Precise codes are required to correct for the international degradation of
signals. Only the L2 signal carries the p code and only authorized users can access them.
7. What is the number of GPS satellites used?
a) 54
b) 12
c) 5
d) 24
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation: The fully operational GPS satellite constellation comprises 24 satellites, 4 each
in six 55° inclined orbit placed 60° apart in longitude. The number of satellites is limited
mainly due to budget restrictions.
8. What type of antenna is used in GPS systems?
a) Yagi antenna
b) Helical array antenna
c) Loop antenna
d) Parabolic antenna
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The GPS antenna array is formed by an inner quad helices encircled by a ring
of eight outer helices that provide near equal power to all terrestrial users. The helical
antenna is optimum since circular polarization is least affected by weather and atmosphere.
9. Which of the following is the latest block of GPS satellites?
a) I
b) IA
c) II
d) IIF
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The IIF block of the GPS is the latest launched till date. The twelfth and final
IIF launch was February 5, 2016. The third generation GPS satellites are scheduled to be
launched by SpaceX in 2018.
10. What type of modulation is used in L1 Signal of the GPS?
a) Amplitude modulation
b) Phase modulation
c) Frequency shift keying
d) Binary phase shift keying
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Which of the following is true with respect to Head up display?
a) View and assimilate the flight data with his head up in a transparent display
b) Assimilate the flight data without looking at any kind of display panel
c) View and assimilate the flight data that is projected on the helmet
d) Using a head up display a pilot and view and assimilate the flight data in all 360°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A major improvement in the man-machine interface is the HUD system. The
major advantage in HUD is that the pilot is able to view and assimilate the important flight
data parameters whilst head up and maintaining full visual concentration to the outside
world. The area at which the flight parameters are displayed is only on the transparent
display panel thus the pilot does not have a 360° display.
2. Which one of the following flight parameters are not present in a typical commercial head
up display?
a) Airspeed
b) Altitude
c) Heading
d) Throttle position
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A typical head up display system in a commercial aircraft consists of airspeed,
altimeter, heading, slip/skid indicator, turn/bank indicator, artificial horizon lining, angle of
attack indicator, vertical speed indicator, flight path vector and much more depending upon
the customer requirements.
3. The main reason for using a collimated display in HUD is ________
a) More information can be displayed
b) Wide view of display
c) Information displayed is focused at infinity
d) Fast screen refresh rates
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A collimated display is a display in which the rays of light emitted/reflected is
parallel to the display. Since the rays of light are parallel, its focus is at infinity, thus the pilot
is able to view the information on the HUD without changing his focus from the outside
world scene without parallax error. Also, the ray of light from a collimated display would not
disperse with distance.
4. What are the sensors used in combination with a raster mode HUD?
a) GPS
b) LIDAR
c) Radar and FLIR (Forward Looking InfraRed)
d) Microwave radar
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the raster mode HUD a video image of the outside world (generated from
the FLIR sensors mounted in the aircraft) and the synthetic image of the outside world
(generated from radar sensor) are combined to produce an enhanced vision system. The
advantages of these enhanced vision system are that it enables the pilot to fly and land the
aircraft in very low visibility conditions and in airports without ILS or MLS or for night flying.
5. Which of the following is the correct order for the path of light in a HUD?
a) CRT -> mirror -> collimating lens -> combiner glass -> pilot
b) CRT -> collimating lens -> mirror -> combiner glass -> pilot
c) CRT -> mirror -> combiner glass -> collimating lens -> pilot
d) Collimating lens -> CRT -> mirror -> combiner glass -> pilot
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The symbols and flight parameters are generated and magnified by the CRT
(Cathode Ray Tube) and is reflected almost 90° by a mirror. The reflected rays are passed
through a collimating lens which produces a parallel ray of light with focus at infinity. The
collimated rays are then displayed in a combiner glass which combines the outside world
picture with the flight parameters generated to be viewed by the pilot.
6. The Instantaneous FOV (Field Of Vision) changes with the position of view.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The instantaneous FOV is the total angular coverage of the outside world
scene which can be viewed by the pilot at any particular instant.
IFOV=2tan-1 D/2L, where a D= diameter of collimating lens and L=length of pilot’s eyes to
the collimating lens. Clearly, as the position of view changes, L changes resulting in a
change in IFOV.
7. What is the IFOV for a collimating lens of diameter 100mm, the distance between the
collimating lens and combiner glass=50mm, the distance between pilot eyes and combiner
glass=400mm?
a) 25.0°
b) 12.6°
c) 28.0°
d) 14.2°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: D=100mm, L=50+400 =450mm (Since L is the distance from the observer to
the collimating lens)
IFOV = 2 x tan-1 (D/2L) =2 x tan-1( 100/2×450) = 12.6803° ≈ 12.6°
8. Which of the following are not controlled by the HUD processor?
a) Power supply to HUD
b) Brightness level and contrast level
c) Symbol and font generation
d) Computing flight parameters
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flight parameters are computed by the air data computer. The various
controls and functions carried out by the HUD processor are display formats, axis
conversion, parameter conversion, format management, brightness and contrast control,
power supply and calibration.
9. What is the contrast ratio of real world image to the CRT display image?
a) 1:1
b) 4:1
c) 7:3
d) 2:1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A combiner allows 70% of the outside world light and 30% of the CRT
produced collimated light to pass through it. Thus contrast ration= brightness of real-world
light : brightness of CRT light = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3 .
10. What is the reason for using CRT used instead of LCD or LED displays?
a) To meet the required brightness level
b) Cheap to manufacture
c) Low energy of operation
d) Lightweight
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What type of beams are used for the tactical control panel?
a) Matrix array of infrared beams
b) Light beams
c) Lasers
d) Microwave beams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A typical tactical control panel uses a matrix of infrared beams across the
surface of the display containing various functional keys. Touching a specific function key
on the display surface interrupts the x and y infrared beams which intersect over the
displayed key function and hence signal the operation of that particular key function.
2. What is DVI control?
a) Direct voice input
b) Digitally vectored input
c) Digital voice input
d) Direct vectored input
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DVI control is direct voice input control through which the pilot can enter flight
and navigational commands through voice.
3. In a DVI control, which system recognizes the pilot’s control?
a) Flight data computer
b) Air Data Computer
c) Speech recognition system
d) Central command center
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The commands given by the pilot is recognized by a speech recognition
system which compares the spoken audio with preloaded vocabulary templates. If the
command is recognized indication is given either aurally or visually to confirm the
command.
4. The main reason for DVI control system in aircraft is _____________
a) less weight
b) latest technology
c) reduce pilot work load
d) space constraints
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DVI control system is used to control the aircraft using voice commands, thus
the pilot need not have to operate push buttons, switches. This reduces the workload on the
pilot during heavy workload operations such as combat.
5. What are isolated word recognizers?
a) Systems that can recognize anyone’s voice
b) System that is not fully voice commanded
c) Systems that require a pause between each word to recognize
d) Systems that only accept one-word command
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An isolated word recognizer requires pauses between each word said as it
cannot recognize fully connected speech. The DVI control in an aircraft must not be an
isolated voice recognizer to ensure smooth man-machine interface.
6. The DVI control system need not be super sensitive to the voice of the pilot.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The DVI control system must be super sensitive to the voice of the pilot so that
it can be operated in cockpit noise environment. In a fast jet combat aircraft, the background
noise levels can be very high.
7. What is the reason for using speech synthesizers in aircrafts?
a) Communication with ATC
b) Communication with another aircraft
c) Used in flight data recorder
d) Warning messages to pilot
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Speech synthesizers are used to provide voiced warning messages to the pilot
of system malfunctions and failures. They also aid DVI systems to provide feedback that a
spoken command has been correctly recognized.
8. The audio/tactile management system combined with FBW and automated engine control
is called ________
a) autopilot
b) flight management system
c) voice, throttle, stick control
d) flight control computer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the audio/tactile system, FBW, and the automated engine control is
combined it is called the Voice, Throttle, Stick control. It is used in fighter aircraft such as
Eurofighter Typhoon to reduce pilot workload.
9. What is the role of eye trackers in cockpits?
a) Improve concentration
b) Improve accuracy for targeting
c) Monitor pilot health
d) Assist in high g maneuvers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Using an eye tracker the pilot’s gaze can be measured with accuracy which
helps in better targeting. A fast and accurate data system can be achieved by this means
without any discomfort to the pilot. They can track the eye by exploiting the principle of
corneal reflection.
10. Why is the stereo sound warning system used?
a) Better sound clarity
b) Warning sound from the actual direction of a threat
c) To cancel the heavy background noise
d) To hear sound external to the aircraft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A stereo sound warning system is used to produce a warning signal with the
direction of threat. It consists of speakers mounted all around the cockpit, if the threat is
approaching from the left side, the speakers on the left side produce signals to warn the
pilot.
11. Only the pilot of a particular aircraft can use its DVI control system?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Why is the BFW system used?
a) To control aerodynamically efficient but unstable body
b) For communications in aircraft
c) Better navigation
d) Reduced chances of enemy detection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The literal meaning of Fly By wire system is flying by wires(I.e; electrically).
One of the main advantages of using FBW is to exploit increased aerodynamic shapes at
the cost of stability. The FBW system provides high integrity automatic stabilization to
compensate for the loss of stability and provide overall better performance.
2. How is fly by wire system implemented in an aircraft?
a) By using control rods and linkages connecting stick to control surfaces
b) By using high power radio transmitters and receivers
c) By using computers and actuators to control surfaces
d) Artificial intelligence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The fly by wire system uses actuators to move the control surfaces to maintain
the stability of an aircraft. The signals sent by the pilot via the control stick is intercepted by
the flight controller computer and signals are sent to the respective actuators to move the
control surfaces.
3. Which one of the following is not true with respect to the FBW system?
a) FBW is not necessary for every aircraft
b) FBW makes an aircraft stealthy
c) FBW provides better control and carefree flying
d) FBW makes aircraft with low stability fly smoothly
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The FBW system need not necessarily provide stealth to an aircraft. It provides
control, stability and carefree flying in aircraft with low natural stability. Typically stealthy
aircraft design is mainly focused on stealth and has very less stability, here FBW provides
good handling and control characteristics to fly the aircraft without FBW system.
4. Which of the following is not a component of the FBW system?
a) Flight control computer
b) Aircraft motion sensor
c) Actuators
d) Communication receivers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The fly by wire system consists of control stick (input by the pilot), Flight
control computer(processing unit), actuator control electronics(signal to actuators),
actuator(movement of control surfaces). Communication systems are completely
independent of FBW systems.
5. FBW system requires an air data system for control and stability.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The air data system provides various information like airspeed, height(density
of air), angle of attack and temperature. These parameters change with flight and are
considered necessary to maintain optimal control and stability at all times.
6. How are FBW signals transmitted?
a) Simplex
b) Duplex
c) Time division multiplexing
d) Code division multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Transmission of electric signals is a key element in a FBW system. Faster the
signal transmission, quicker the response of the aircraft to the pilot stick controls. Time
division multiplexing is used where signals can be transmitted along a network comprising
only of two wires as only one set of data is being transmitted at any particular time.
7. Which one of the following is a military standard data bus?
a) Mil Std 1553
b) ARINC 629
c) ARINC 429
d) COMAC C919
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mil Std 1553 is a US military standard data bus which came out in the 1970s in
the F-16 and the following models of fighter aircraft. It has a data rate of 1Mbit/sec and a
word length of 20 bits to encode clock, data, and address and so can receive or transmit up
to 50,000 data words a second.
8. What type of cable is used in ARINC 629?
a) Coaxial cable
b) Screened twisted pair
c) Unscreened twisted pair
d) Parallel lines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ARINC 629 links and bus uses an unscreened twisted pair of wires with a
connection to the bus through demountable current transformer couplers. Mil STD 1553
uses screened twisted pair cables. Parallel lines are rarely used today.
9. Why are actuators used in FBW systems?
a) Movement of control surfaces
b) Reduce drag
c) Increase lift
d) Safety equipment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike traditional aircraft, FBW system uses electrical signals to operate the
actuators which in turn move the control surface in place of mechanical linkages and control
rods directly connecting the pilot’s stick to the control surfaces.
10. Why are both electrical and hydraulic systems are used in the same aircraft?
a) To generate more force
b) Quick deflections
c) As a fail safe
d) Hydraulics for more force and electric for quick deflections
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the main actuators are electro-hydraulic, fully electric actuators are
used as a fail safe for hydraulic actuators. They must be able to survive any two failures and
carry on operating satisfactorily in order to meet the aircraft safety and integrity
requirements.
11. The reason for using quadruplex actuation system is _______
a) precise movement
b) to counteract heavy air loads on the control surfaces
c) quick reaction to the control stick movement
d) as a fail safe mechanism
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A quadruplex actuation system consists of four independent actuators whose
output drives the power control unit. The fail-safe mechanism of the quadruplex system is
that when one fails three can override it. All four actuators have totally independent power
and control electronics.
12. In a typical quadruplex actuator system, how is the failure of an actuator identified?
a) By comparing it with the signal of the three good ones
b) By comparing it with a simulation model
c) Using in-lane fault detection
d) Using reflectometry
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What type of system is classified as “Direct electric link system”?
a) Systems with parallel wire connection
b) System with serial wire connection
c) System with motion sensor feedback
d) System without motion sensor feedback
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A FBW system by definition has to have a motion feedback system. Without
these, the system is considered as “Direct electric system”. The information from these
sensors is used to automatically stabilize the aircraft.
2. What does FBW use to scale the control surface deflection according to the aircraft’s
airspeed and height?
a) Air Data Computer
b) Flight Management System
c) Flight Control Computer
d) Autopilot system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FBW uses an Air Data System to scale the control surface deflection according
to the aircraft’s airspeed and height variations. The need for air data information on the
airspeed and height is to compensate for the very wide variation in the control surface
effectiveness over the aircraft’s flight envelope of height and speed combinations. The Air
Data Computer provides various information available from the airstream such as airspeed,
altitude, and angle of attack.
3. What is the incidence angle in the yaw plane called?
a) Side slip angle
b) Yaw angle
c) Crossflow angle
d) Angle of crosswind
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of incidence in the yaw plane is known as the side slip angle. It is
the angle between the direction the aircraft is travelling and the direction its nose is pointing.
When the side slip angle is high the aircraft is not in a coordinated turn and hence is flying
inefficiently.
4. Why does an FBW system use a smaller tail area?
a) Bigger tails are harder to move as they produce larger wing loads
b) Actively controls the tail thus making up for the reduced stability due to lesser area
c) Tail does not contribute much to stability and its area can thus be reduced effectively
d) To reduce weight and drag but at a cost of natural stability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The reason for using reduced tail area is to reduce weight, drag and to
increase overall performance, But at a cost of reduced natural stability. A FBW makes up
for the reduced stability by actively controlling the tailplane and rudder using accurate
motion feedback sensors and actuators.
5. An aircraft is negatively stable when ______
a) its tailplane produces negative lift (downwards)
b) its tailplane produces positive lift (upwards)
c) its tailplane does not produce lift
d) it is flying inverted
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An aircraft is said to be negatively stable when its tailplane produces positive
lift. The tail of an aircraft without an FBW system must always produce negative lift to
maintain stability and to keep the nose up. Since it produces negative lift, it actually acts in
the direction of weight reducing aerodynamic efficiency. In an FBW equipped aircraft a
positive lift producing tail can be used by using flight control computers and motion sensors
to main stability at all times.
6. A highly stable aircraft is not easily maneuverable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An aircraft is said to be stable when the aerodynamic forces on the aircraft are
equal to thrust produced and the weight of the aircraft. Such a condition is called steady
level flight. A highly stable aircraft will return to its initial stable position even if disturbed.
Maneuverability is the rate of pitch, roll, and yaw an aircraft can execute without failing. Roll,
pitch, and yaw are basically disturbances and a stable aircraft will try to resist the change
from its initial position.
7. A FBW control stick is referred as _______
a) FBW joystick
b) FBW control pad
c) FBW inceptor
d) FBW analog stick
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A FBW control stick is referred to as FBW inceptor. An inceptor by definition is
a device that converts the pilot’s control inputs into electrical signals. There are two types of
inceptors- active and passive.
8. Why are dampers an essential element in FBW inceptors?
a) Control aircraft stability by damping forces
b) Acts as a low pass filter on the stick movement
c) Provides accurate deflections
d) To prevent aircraft to carry out critical maneuvers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Without the damper, the stick would be considerably under damped because
of the low friction in the mechanism and the significant mass of the hand grip. It provides a
smooth feel to the stick movement; the spring–mass–damper combination acting as a low
pass filter on the stick movement. These characteristics are carefully tailored to meet the
consensus of pilot approval.
9. FBW has the power to reject pilot inputs in extreme situations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FBW system automatically limits the pilot’s commands to ensure it does not
enter unacceptable altitude or approach stall. A number of aircraft are lost in a year due to
flying too close to their maneuver limits and the very high workload in the event of a
subsequent emergency. This system makes a significant contribution to flight safety.
10. What is the relation between autopilot and FBW?
a) FBW provides autopilot commands for roll, pitch, and yaw
b) Autopilot provides FBW commands of roll, pitch, and yaw
c) Autopilot is a part of FBW system
d) Autopilot is not related to FBW
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The autopilot is like an artificial pilot system which flies the aircraft under a set
of constraints. It provides steering commands such as roll, pitch and yaw rates to the FBW
system. FBW system ensures that response to the autopilot commands is fast and well
damped, providing smooth control of aircraft in autopilot modes.
11. Fill the missing block in the roll rate command system.
a) Rate gyro
b) Flight control computer
c) Display
d) Autopilot
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The missing block is in a feedback loop, typically it consists of a motion
sensor. Here the motion sensor used is a rate gyro. The signal from the rate gyro is
subtracted from pilot’s input so that the error in deflection is corrected.
12. Why is FBW essential in stealth aircraft?
a) FBW system damps radar energy
b) Improves control
c) Reduces engine noise
d) Disturbs tracking techniques used by missiles
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is missing in the autopilot loop?
a) Autopilot
b) Flight Management System
c) FBW system
d) FBL system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The basic function of the autopilot is to control the flight of the aircraft and
maintain it on a predetermined path in space without any action being required by the pilot.
The autopilot can thus relieve the pilot from the fatigue and tedium of having to maintain
continuous control of the aircraft’s flight path on a long duration flight so the pilot can
concentrate on other tasks and the management of the mission.
2. Which of the following is not one of the functions performed by the FMS?
a) Automatic navigation and guidance including ‘4D’ navigation
b) Management of aircraft systems
c) Efficient management of fuel
d) Housekeeping management
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Light Management System performs various functions such as Automatic
navigation and guidance including ‘4D’ navigation, Presentation of information,
Management of aircraft systems, Efficient management of fuel, Reduction of operating
costs. Housekeeping management is a separate system which takes care of air
conditioning, entertainment systems, etc.
3. What does the outer loop of an autopilot do?
a) Generate commands to the inner flight control loop
b) Access the flight control surfaces to control the pitch and roll of the aircraft
c) Access the flight control surfaces to control the altitude and heading of the aircraft
d) Generate commands for the pilot to follow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The autopilot exercises a guidance function in the outer loop and generates
commands to the inner flight control loop. These commands are generally attitude
commands which operate the aircraft’s control surfaces through a closed flight control loop
system so that the aircraft rotates about the pitch and roll axes until the measured pitch and
bank angles are equal to the commanded angles. The changes in the aircraft’s pitch and
bank angles then cause the aircraft flight path to change through the flight path kinematics.
4. Which of the following is the fundamental control of a common autopilot mode?
a) Altitude control
b) Pitch, roll and yaw control
c) Engine control
d) Automated landing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pitch attitude control loop and the heading control loop, with its inner loop
commanding the aircraft bank angle, are thus fundamental inner loops in a common
autopilot control mode. They are short, fast period loops which continuously control the
control surfaces of an aircraft to maintain the pilot command.
5. An altitude control loop does not depend on _______
a) Aircraft pitch angle
b) Angle of attack
c) Forward velocity
d) Density of air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The altitude control loop works using , Where H is the required
height or altitude, θ is aircraft pitch angle and α is angle of incidence.
6. What is the reason for choosing height error gain in such a way that the frequency of
height loop is below the bandwidth of the pitch attitude loop?
a) Efficient flight
b) Better Range
c) Stable and damped response
d) Better climb rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The height error gain is chosen so that the frequencymax is well below the
bandwidth of pitch attitude loop to ensure a stable and well damped height loop response. If
the frequency is high, it might lead to oscillations in the vertical axis.
7. What is in for a heading control system?

a) Rate of change of heading
b) Bank angle
c) Side slip angle
d) Required rudder deflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: is the Rate of change of heading if the forward velocity of the aircraft is U
and the bank angle is ɸ. The function of the heading control mode of the autopilot is to steer
the aircraft along a particular set of direction. is used assuming the aircraft is in
coordinated turn.
8. Which of the following is the correct transfer function for?
a)
b)
c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is ILS?
a) Instrument landing system
b) Indian Levitation System
c) Indian Landing system
d) International Levitation system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ILS or instrument landing system is a radio based approach guidance system
installed at major airports and airfields where the runway length exceeds 1800 m which
provides guidance in poor visibility conditions during the approach to the runway.
2. Which one of the following can provide a reliable and accurate approach path guidance in
category II visibility conditions?
a) ILS
b) MLS
c) SBAS
d) VHF
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SBAS or Satellite Based Augmentation Systems exploiting differential GPS
techniques will be able to provide reliable and accurate approach path guidance in category
II visibility conditions. This will be increasingly used in the future.
3. What are the two main components of an ILS on the ground?
a) Horizontal alignment transmitter and vertical alignment transmitter
b) Localizer transmitter and glide slope transmitter
c) Center line transmitter and glide slope transmitter
d) Center line transmitter and approach slope transmitter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ILS system basically comprises a localiser transmitter and a glide slope
transmitter located by the airport runway together with two or three radio marker beacons
located at set distances along the approach to the runway. The airborne equipment in the
aircraft comprises receivers and antennas for the localiser, glide slope and marker
transmissions.
4. What is the frequency used by the localizer transmitter?
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) MF
d) LF
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The localizer transmitter used VHF range from 108-122 MHz frequency and
provides information to the aircraft as to whether it is flying to the left or right of the center
line of the runway it is approaching. The localizer receiver output is proportional to the
angular deviation γL, of the aircraft from the localizer beam center line which in turn
corresponds to the center line of the runway.
5. What is the frequency used by the glide slope transmitter?
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) MF
d) LF
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The glide slope or glide path transmission is at UHF frequencies from 329.3 to
335 MHz frequency and provides information to the aircraft as to whether it is flying above
or below the defined descent path of nominally 2.5◦, for the airport concerned. The glide
slope receiver output is proportional to the angular deviation γV, of the aircraft from the
center of the glide slope beam which in turn corresponds with the preferred descent path.
6. The use of autopilot for landing using ILS does not depend on _______
a) Visibility category
b) ILS ground installation standard
c) Runway lighting installation
d) Weight of the aircraft
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The height limits and visibility conditions in which the autopilot can be used to
carry out a glide slope coupled approach to the runway depends on the visibility category to
which the autopilot system is certified for operation, the ILS ground installation standard, the
runway lighting installation and the airport’s runway traffic control capability.
7. Under what category does zero visibility conditions come?
a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Category IV
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Visibility conditions are divided into three categories, namely Category I,
Category II and Category III, depending on the vertical visibility ceiling and the runway
visual range (RVR). Category III includes zero visibility conditions.
8. What is DH?
a) Distance Height
b) Direct Height
c) Decision Height
d) Direction height
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This minimum permitted ceiling for vertical visibility for the landing to proceed
is known as the decision height or DH. A very high integrity autopilot system is required for
fully automatic landing below a DH of 100 ft – Cat. III conditions.
9. What is the frequency of marker beacon transmission?
a) 100 MHz
b) 75 MHz
c) 1 GHz
d) 1000 MHz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The marker beacon transmissions are at 75 MHz. The middle marker beacon
is located at a distance of between 1,000 and 2,000 m from the runway threshold and the
outer marker beacon is situated at a distance of between 4,500 and 7,500 m from the
middle marker.
10. MLS has a wide selection of channels to avoid interference with nearby airports
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since microwaves are of higher frequency they can have a wide channel from
300 MHz to 300 GHz. This is particularly useful when two airports nearby are aligned
equally. The MLS system an all weather guidance system with wide vertical and horizontal
beam widths.
11. At what height is the auto flare initiated?
a) 100 ft
b) 50 ft
c) 25 ft
d) 10 ft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The auto flare is initiated around 50 ft where the aircraft is over or very near
the runway threshold so that the radio altimeter is measuring the height of the aircraft above
the runway. Low range radio altimeters are used to ensure accuracy.
12. What type of controller is used in an auto flare control?
a) Proportional plus derivative
b) Proportional plus integral
c) Proportional plus integral plus derivative
d) Proportional only
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The auto-flare loop is a high-order system; apart from the lags present in the
filtered rad.alt. signals there are also the lags present in the response of the pitch attitude
command loop. This loop controls and its response is significantly slower at the low speeds
during the approach. A proportional plus integral control term is used in the auto-flare
controller to ensure accuracy and some phase advance is generally provided to
compensate for the lags in the loop and hence improve the loop stability and damping.
13. What is the velocity at the start of flare maneuver if the approach speed is 130 knots?
a) 2.91 m/s
b) 3 m/s
c) 3.56 m/s
d) 10 m/s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical velocity at the start of flare = approach speed x glide slope angle.
Thus Vv= 66.87* x sin(2.5°) = 2.91 m/s . *[converting knots to m/s].
14. What is the position accuracy that can be achieved by satellite guidance systems?
a) 10 m
b) 5 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 1 m
View Answer
Answer: d
1. What is the beam error in localizer for aircraft CG displacement of 5m at a range of
1,500m?
a) 0.0033 RAD
b) 3.3 RAD
c) 0 RAD
d) 5 RAD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam error γ = d/R, where d is the displacement of the aircraft’s CG from
the beam center line and R is the slant range of the aircraft. γ = 5/1,500 = 0.0033 RAD.
2. The guidance sensitivity decreases as the range decreases
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The beam error of a localizer or glide path transmitter is given by γ =d/R,
Where R is the slant range of the aircraft. It is evident that the beam error is inversely
proportional to the slant range. As range increases, beam error decreases and hence the
guidance sensitivity is more.
3. When does an ILS localizer coupling loop become unstable?
a) Aircraft range is infinity
b) Aircraft range is close to zero
c) When too many aircraft are present
d) When no aircraft is present
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the localizer coupling loop gain increases as range between aircraft and
runway decreases. The gain reaches a point where it becomes too large and the loop
becomes unstable. Thus gain scheduling with range is required.
4. What is missing in the localizer coupling loop?
a) Flight computer
b) ILS Localizer receiver
c) ILS glide path receiver
d) ILS Localizer transmitter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Localizer coupling loop is integrated with the heading command loop to
manage the heading of the aircraft. It is a closed loop system which continuously corrects
with respect to the ILS Localizer. The error in flight path is corrected with respect to the
localizer beam by means of a localizer receiver in the aircraft.
5. Which one of the following is not a basic parameter used to define visibility category?
a) Decision height
b) Minimum vertical visibility
c) Runway length
d) Runway visual range
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two basic parameters used to define the visibility category are the decision
height, that is the minimum vertical visibility for the landing to proceed and the runway visual
range. The length of a runway is not used to define visibility category.
6. Which of the following is not one of the operational limits and autopilot requirement for a
category IIIc visibility condition?
a) Runway guidance required to taxi point
b) Fully automatic landing system with flare
c) Probability of catastrophic failure of less than 10−7 per hour required
d) Decision height of 5m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The autopilot requirements and operational limits for a category III visibility
conditions are a probability of catastrophic failure of less than 10−7 per hour, fully automatic
landing system with flare, runway guidance required to taxi point. The decision height for a
category IIIc condition is 0m. No system is yet certified for category IIIc operation.
7. How is altitude measured when the aircraft is about to land?
a) Pitot static port
b) Pitot stagnation port
c) Radio altimeters
d) Inertial navigation systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When an aircraft is about to land, accurate altitude measurements are needed.
Pitot static measurements suffer from errors due to weather and generally have lag. The
aircraft height above the ground is measured by very accurate radio altimeters during the
landing phase.
8. Why is flare maneuver executed during landing phase?
a) To align with the runway
b) To reduce airspeed and rate of descent
c) To stabilize the aircraft during crosswinds
d) To conserve fuel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flare maneuver is the increase in pitch of the aircraft seconds before
touching the ground. This is done to reduce the airspeed and the rate of descent. If the flare
is not executed correctly it may result in a runway overrun, landing gear collapse or a tail
strike.
9. Why is the kick off drift maneuver executed?
a) To align with the runway
b) To reduce airspeed and rate of descent
c) To stabilize the aircraft during crosswinds
d) To conserve fuel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Just prior to touchdown a ‘kick off drift’ maneuver is initiated through the rudder
control so that the aircraft is rotated about the yaw axis to align it with the runway. This
ensures the undercarriage wheels are parallel to the runway center line so that no sideways
velocity is experienced by the wheels when they make contact with the runway.
10. What is HREF in the control law used for auto flare?
a) Height when flare is initiated
b) Height where flare should be initiated
c) Maximum height where flare can be initiated
d) Small negative height
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the control law for auto flare, HREF is a small negative height, or bias, which
ensures there is still a small downwards velocity at touchdown. This avoids the long
exponential ‘tail’ to reach zero velocity and enables a reasonably precise touchdown to be
achieved.
11. The final approach path in a satellite landing guidance can be curved
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since GPS does not use radio beams to align the aircraft to the runway center
line the final approach path need not be limited to straight line approaches, but can be
curved or stepped, horizontally or vertically. The life cycle costs of a GBAS is also only a
fraction of ILS or MLS.
12. What controls the efficient functioning of an engine?
a) Autopilot
b) FMS
c) FBW
d) FADEC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The FADEC or Full Authority Digital Engine Control is a system that controls all
aspects of the engine performance. Since there are a lot of variables involved in the control
of different engines, the workload of the pilot is increased. The FADEC system is used to
reduce the workload at the same time giving full control of the engine to the pilot. It also
ensures maximum engine performance at different flight conditions.
13. The response of a jet engine thrust to the throttle angle is instantaneous.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Which one of the following is not a function of the FMS?
a) Flight guidance and control of flight path
b) Monitor and regulate speed of the aircraft
c) Automatically switch between different types of communication
d) Automatic control of engine thrust
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tasks of the FMS include Flight guidance and lateral and vertical control of
the aircraft flight path, Monitoring the aircraft flight envelope and computing the optimum
speed for each phase of the flight and ensuring safe margins are maintained with respect to
the minimum and maximum speeds over the flight envelope, Automatic control of the
engine thrust to control the aircraft speed. However, the communication systems are taken
care manually by the pilot.
2. What does the following figure represent?
a) Flight Management System

b) Flight Data System
c) Total autopilot system
d) Flight Management Computer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The above figure represents flight management system. The throttle, Flight
Management Computer, Data storage, Navigation and display systems, and the autopilot
together is called the FMS.
3. The number of independent FMS in a typical commercial aircraft is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two independent FMS in a typical commercial aircraft’s cockpit.
FMS-1 is on the Captain’s side and FMS-2 on the First Officer’s side to carry ou the flight
management functions. The reason why both are independent is that when one fails the
other can take over.
4. Which of the following is not a way cockpit-flight crew interfaces in the FMS?
a) Primary Flight Display
b) Multi Function Display
c) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
d) Target Detection and Locking System
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cockpit interfaces to the flight crew provided by each FMS comprise a
Navigation Display (ND), a Primary Flight Display (PFD), a Multi-Function Display(MFD), a
Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit (KCCU) and an Electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS) Control Panel (EFIS CP).
5. What type of cockpit flight crew interface is used to enter or modify the data on the MFD?
a) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
b) Control stick
c) Control Switches
d) Control levers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flight crew can navigate through the pages of FMS and can consult, enter
or modify the data via the Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit (KCCU). The Keyboard and
Cursor Control Unit (KCCU) enables the flight crew to navigate through the FMS pages on
the MFD and enter and modify data on the MFD and can also perform some flight plan
revisions on the lateral Navigation Display (ND).
6. What control does the EFIS Control Panel provide?
a) Control over graphical and textual FMS data
b) Control over flight plan
c) Control over flight performance
d) Navigation through FMS pages
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The EFIS Control Panel (EFIS CP) provides the means for the flight crew to
control the graphical and textual FMS data that appear on the ND and PFD. Control over
flight plan and performance is given by MFD. Navigation through the pages is by KCCU.
7. What is the number of Flight Management Computers used in a typical commercial
aircraft?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are a total of three Flight Management Computers FMC -A, FMC -B,
FMC -C. They are necessary to carry out the necessary functional computations. They can
be reconfigured to maintain the system operation in the event of failures.
8. What operating mode of the FMS does the figure show?
a) Double mode
b) Independent mode
c) Single mode
d) Redundancy mode
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Both FMS 1 & 2 get information from only one FMC in the case of ______
a) Independent mode
b) Loss of one FMC
c) Single mode
d) Double mode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Single mode operating mode of the FMS two of the FMC is not in operation
and this might cause one of the two FMS to fail. Hence both the FMS get information from
one FMC.
2. The standby FMC performs calculations even when both the FMC are fully functional.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The standby computer does not perform any calculations, but is regularly
updated by the master FMC. In the case of a single FMC failure, the standby FMC provides
data to FMS connected with the failed FMC.
3. What filter is used by the FMS to estimate the position of the aircraft from various
sensors?
a) Kalman filter
b) Position error filter
c) GPS filter
d) Gyro and accelerometer filter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The FMS combines the data from the navigational sources, comprising the
inertial systems, GPS and the radio navigation systems, in a Kalman filter to derive the best
estimate of the aircraft position. Each navigation system has its own advantages and limits,
a Kalman filter combines the resource from all the systems to provide a more accurate
position of the aircraft.
4. What is the output for the following system?
a) Aircraft position
b) All the fight data
c) Gyro and accelerometer values
d) Warning signals for wrong navigation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The final output of a Kalman filter is the best estimated aircraft position derived
from various radio and inertial/GPS sensors. The direct information from the sensors ( raw
data) cannot be used directly for accurate position location as their error increases with
time.
5. Which one of the following is not a navigation mode used by FMS for computing position
of the aircraft?
a) Inertial (IRS) – GPS
b) Inertial (IRS) – DME/DME
c) Inertial (IRS) – VOR/DME
d) GPS only
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Each FMS computes the aircraft position and the position accuracy. The FMS
computed position is an optimum combination of the inertial position and the GPS or radio
position, depending on which equipment provides the most accurate data. This results in
four navigation modes: Inertial (IRS) – GPS, Inertial (IRS) – DME/DME, Inertial (IRS) –
VOR/DME, Inertial (IRS) only. The only GPS is not used as the position information is within
a radius where the aircraft is flying.
6. Navigational functions are no longer available if the INS shuts down in an FMS.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The FMS aircraft position always uses the inertial position. This computation is
not possible if the inertial position is not valid, and in this case, all the FMS navigation and
flight planning functions are no longer available. FBW system also fails in the case of an
INS shut down since it uses INS for feedback.
7. What is the interval for updating data in the navigation database?
a) 1 hour
b) 1 month
c) 24 hours
d) 28 days
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The navigation database is updated every 28 days, according to the ICAO
AiRAC cycle, and is held in non-volatile memory. It is clearly essential to maintain the
recency and quality of the database and the operator is responsible for the detail contents
of the database which is to ARINC 424 format.
8. Which one of the following is not a factor for calculating speed breaches by the FMS?
a) Aircraft weight
b) CG position
c) Wind and temperature models
d) Position of the aircraft
View Answer
Answer: d
. Which of the following is false with respect to AIRNIC?
a) Define system and equipment specification
b) Non-profit organization
c) Run by civil airlines with industry and establishment representation
d) Used only in America
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ARINC is a non-profit-making organization in the USA which is run by the civil
airlines with industry and establishment representation, which defines systems and
equipment specifications in terms of functional requirements, performance and accuracy,
input and output interfaces, environmental requirements and physical dimensions and
electrical interfaces. For example, air data computers, attitude heading reference systems,
INS, communication radio equipment, data bus systems, etc. Although it is a US based
company the system standard is worldwide.
2. What is the fastest mode of data communication between components in aircraft?
a) Coaxial cable
b) Twisted pair cable
c) Fiber optic cable
d) Radio communication
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A single screened twisted pair of wires only is required with such an encoding
system to transmit information data rates of up to 1 to 2 Mbits/s. Higher data rates of up to
100 Mbits/s can be transmitted using a suitably screened coaxial electrical cable and
information at even higher data rates can be transmitted as coded light pulses using a fibre
optic cable. Radio communication is not for data transfer between aircraft components.
3. In an aircraft, serial data transfer is achieved by _________
a) Time division Multiplexing
b) Code Division Multiplexing
c) Frequency Division Multiplexing
d) Pulse Modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The individual avionic sub-systems are interconnected by means of a digital
data bus system. This enables the system to communicate with each other and transfer
serial data information using time division multiplexing.
4. What type of avionic architecture consist of a number of an interconnected but
functionally independent subsystem with some degree of central computer of overall
operating modes.
a) IMA architecture
b) Federated architecture
c) Disjoint architecture
d) Distributed architecture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Federated architectures essentially consist of a number of interconnected but
functionally independent sub-systems with some degree of central computer control of
overall operating modes. System is loosely coupled and are connected via a time shared
multiplex highway.
5. How are Data bus in avionics architecture broadly divided into?
a) High speed and low speed data bus
b) AIRNIC and MIL standard data bus
c) Electrical and Optical data bus
d) Main and interconnecting data bus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data bus systems are the essential enabling technologies of avionic systems
integration in both federated and integrated modular avionics architectures. They can be
broadly divided into electrical data bus systems where the data are transmitted as electrical
pulses by wires, and optical data bus systems where the data are transmitted as light
pulses by optical fibres.
6. The type of Ethernet data bus adapted for airborne applications is _______
a) Airborne Simplex Ethernet
b) Airborne Duplex Ethernet
c) Multiplexed Ethernet
d) Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The version which has been adapted for airborne applications is known as the
‘Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet’, which has been shortened to ‘AFDX Ethernet’
network. It meets the civil aircraft avionic system requirements in all aspects and its
commercially sourced components make it a very competitive system.
7. What type of cable does MIL STD 1553 use?
a) Coaxial cable
b) Single twisted pair cable with shielding
c) Single twisted pair cable without shielding
d) Fiber optic cable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The MIL STD 1533 bus is formed as a single twisted cable pair with one layer
of shielding and jacketing and with a maximum length of 100 m (328 ft). Although direct
coupling to the bus is allowed, this is generally not used in order to avoid the risk of one
terminal shorting out the bus. The bus connection is typically via a transformer coupled stub
so that shorting of the stub is isolated from the bus.
8. What property does data transmission in fiber optic cable exploit?
a) Refraction
b) Total internal reflection
c) Diffraction
d) Dispersion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The transmission of light signals along any optical fibre depends on the optical
property of total internal reflection. The transmitted light pulses get reflected by the cladding
in the fiber cable at the same time move in the forward direction. One main disadvantage of
fiber optic cable is that it cannot be easily bent.
9. Which one of the following is the major difference between single mode and multi mode
fibers?
a) Core material
b) Cladding material
c) Core diameter
d) Cladding diameter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The major difference between single mode fibre and multi-mode fibre is that
the core diameter of single mode fibre is of the same order of magnitude as the wavelength
of the light source (laser diode). Pulse dispersion is reduced in single mode fiber.
10. Avionics Full Duplex Switched Ethernet provides flexibility to manage any change in the
data communication between the connected systems without wiring modifications.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which one of the following is not a true with respect to integrated modular avionics
architecture?
a) Reduces weight
b) Easy maintenance
c) Hardware independent software
d) Increased life cycle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An integrated modular avionics architecture system reduces weight as the
processors are centralized and relatively fewer components are required. It is also easy for
maintenance as each component is a separate block which can be repaired or replaced
easily. Modular avionics architecture ensures that the software used is hardware
independent and can be updated in the future. However they do not ensure increased life
cycle of the components, the life cycle of a component is same if the architecture is modular
or any other type.
2. The architecture where each component had its own sensors, processing and display is
called as ________
a) Centralized architecture
b) Federated architecture
c) Disjoint or independent architecture
d) Open system architecture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Disjoint architecture is a First generation architecture where the avionics
systems were stand alone black boxes which had separate sensors, processors and
displays and were linked together by point to point wiring.
3. Which one of the following is not true with respect with centralized architecture?
a) Complex design
b) Software can be written easily
c) Requires long data buses
d) Computers are in readily accessible bay
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The centralized architecture is one where all the components are linked to a
single main frame computer for processing. The design is simple and software preparation
and update is easy as the computer is easily accessible but requires long data buses
running from the component to the computer which increases weight.
4. Which type of avionic architecture was the first to use DIAS?
a) Centralized architecture
b) Pave pillar architecture
c) Federated architecture
d) Open system architecture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Federated avionic architecture is a type of second generation architecture in
which the data from each avionic component was converted into digital information and sent
to the main frame computer. This technology was called the DIAS or Digital Avionics
Information System.
5. A time shared multiplex highway is used in Federated avionic architecture.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The reason why time division multiplexing is possible is that the data transfer
form the component to the computer is digital. This reduces a huge amount of wiring as the
data transfer is serial and also the error is not propagated.
6. What advantage does the concept of IS2 add to the pave pace avionic architecture?
a) Cost reduction
b) Better performance
c) Easy maintenance
d) Software compatibility
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The total cost of sensors used in avionic systems costs around 70% of the
total avionic system. IS2 is the concept of an integrated sensor system in which the sensors
are shared by different avionic components thus reducing the overall cost.
7. Which avionic architecture allows the existence of heavily armed single seat fighters with
a variety of weapons?
a) Federated architecture
b) Pave pillar architecture
c) Centralized architecture
d) Distributed architecture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a typical single seat fighter aircraft the pilot has to play the role of both
controlling the aircraft and weapons management as opposed to a twin seat aircraft where
the pilot flies the plane and the RIO or Radar Intercept Officer manages the weapons. Pave
pillar architecture allows the pilot to be the weapons system manager without which single
seat fighter aircraft like F-22 and the F-35 would not have been possible.
8. What type of avionic architecture is used in the JSF?
a) Pave pillar avionic architecture
b) Advanced integrated avionic architecture
c) Hierarchical avionic architecture
d) Centralized avionic architecture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Joint Strike Fighter’s sensors, communications, and flight-control systems
will blend together more tightly than any other combat aircraft in history, and will revolve
around high-speed fiber-optic data buses and powerful commercial off-the-shelf
microprocessors using advanced integrated avionic architecture.
9. What is the cost-effective solution for UAV displays?
a) HMDs
b) HUDs
c) HDDs
d) No display for UAV
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the UAV is unmanned it does not require HDD or HUD but since the pilot
is going to be on the ground controlling the UAV, HMDs are considered to be cost-effective
and also show good performance and situational awareness.
10. What is the failure probability for a UAV?
a) 10/hour
b) 102/hour
c) 10-3/hour
d) 10-5/hour
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the UAV is unmanned its failure would not be fatal, the failure probability
for a UAV is less than that of a normal aircraft with a figure of 10-5/hour. Although, a failure
might cause damage to the UAV and where it falls. The failure probability differs from
mission to mission.
11. Which one of the following is false with respect to TRN?
a) self contained
b) Unjammable
c) Low accuracy
d) No external systems needed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Terrain reference navigation, TRN, systems are used in cruise missiles and
aircraft. One of the major advantage in UAV/UCAV applications is that they are completely
self-contained and unjammable as well as of high accuracy. They are completely
independent of any external systems such as satellites or ground stations.
12. A flight management system is not necessary for simple UAVs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Although an FMS is needed for UAVs, for simple UAVs such as radio
controlled models does not require FMS. The FMS functions of many smaller UAVs are
carried in the ground station.
13. What is the altitude of HALE?
a) 20,000ft
b) 30,000ft
c) 40,000ft
d) 50,000ft
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: HALE corresponds to High Altitude and Long Endurance aircraft. It has a
service ceiling of 50,000ft and an endurance greater than 20hrs.
14. What type of communication does the MQ-9 ‘reaper’ UCAV use?
a) Satellite
b) Radio
c) Infrared
d) Microwave
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Since the MQ-9 has an endurance of 28hrs and range of 3,200nm it needs a
communication system that is not affected by the curvature of the Earth. Satellite
communication system is best suited for this as a minimum of 3 satellites is enough to have
communication around the world using the technique of triangulation.
15. In a radio controlled UAV, FHSS technology has more advantage than DSSS
technology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Who discovered the radio waves?
a) Heinrich Hertz
b) Guglielmo Marconi
c) Thomas Edison
d) Alexander Bell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The German physicist, Heinrich Hertz, first applied the theory given by Maxwell
to prove the existence of radio waves in 1887. To honor him the unit of frequency is given
his name.
2. What is the component that converts an electrical signal into a signal suitable for
transmission in a given medium called?
a) Transmitter
b) Receiver
c) Amplifier
d) Duplexer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transmitter is an electronic component that converts the electric signals into
a signal that is suitable for transmission in any given medium. It could be wires, air, water,
land or even space.
3. What type of communication is used for underwater communication?
a) Radio communication
b) Microwave communication
c) SONAR
d) Satellite communication
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SONAR or SOund Navigation and Ranging is the transmission of information
using sound waves. Since seawater is saline, it shorts out the electrical field in the radio
waves and hence radio communication cannot be used.
4. Earth be considered as a communication medium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Earth can be considered as a communication medium as it can carry low
frequency sound waves as well as conduct electricity. Communication for some submarines
uses earth as a communication medium.
5. A device that can both transmit and receive is called as?
a) Transducer
b) Duplexer
c) Radar
d) Transceivers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A transceiver is a device that contains the necessary electronic components
for both transmission and receiving in the same medium. They have a common power
supply and a common antenna for transmitting and receiving.
6. Radio transmission is always the speed of light irrespective of the medium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Radio waves travel at the speed of light only in free space. Other all
communication medium attenuates the signal and lowers the speed of signal propagation.
7. What are the factors that affect signal propagation speed assuming no noise?
a) Wavelength of the signal
b) Frequency of the signal
c) Strength of electrical and magnetic fields
d) Permeability and permittivity of medium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the EM waves are made of electric and magnetic fields, the resistance
given by the medium to conduct electric and magnetic waves determine the speed of the
EM wave. This is given by the permeability and the permittivity of the medium.
8. Which of the following is not an example of simplex communication?
a) Radio broadcast
b) TV broadcast
c) UAV/drone control from ground
d) Walkie talkie
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A simplex communication is when signal is sent from one end and is received
at the other end. The communication in a walkie talkie is a two way communication.
9. What type of communication is used in a commercial walkie talkie?
a) Simplex
b) Full duplex
c) Half duplex
d) Multiplex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ia a walkie talkie the communication is two way but at a given time only one
way communication is allowed. This type of communication is called as half duplex
communication.
10. What type of communication is used between ATC and aircraft?
a) Simplex
b) Full duplex
c) Half duplex
d) Half simplex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The communication between an aircraft and an ATC is half duplex meaning
only one can speak at a time. The ATC asks or gives guidance for the aircraft, which the
pilot has to fully hear before he can respond. If he responds before, the signal is not
received by the ATC.
11. In what type of communication is time division multiplexing possible?
a) Analog
b) Digital
c) Duplex
d) Simplex
View Answer
Answer: b
1. The process of making the signal more compatible with the medium is called as?
a) Modulation
b) Transmission
c) Encrypting
d) Multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modulation is the process of making the information signal more compatible
with the medium. Modulation is the reason why we can have different channels on radio.
2. The information signal is otherwise referred to as ___________
a) Digital signal
b) Analog signal
c) Baseband signal
d) Broadband signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The information signal, regardless of analog or digital type, is referred to as
baseband signals. It could be voice, video or digital data and is modulated before
transmission. In some case, baseband signals can be transmitted without modulation.
3. Voice signals cannot be directly transmitted by radio.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Baseband signals are, in many cases, incompatible with the medium.
Theoretically, it is possible to transmit voice signals directly by radio, but due to the low
frequency of these waves the antenna size required form transmission is too big.
4. In frequency modulation, carrier frequency is always greater than baseband frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In frequency modulation, the baseband signal is overlapped or impressed in
the carrier signal. The carrier can never have a lower frequency than the baseband signal
as it would result in a huge data loss of the baseband signal.
5. Which one of the following is not a type of modulation?
a) Frequency modulation
b) Amplitude Modulation
c) Pulse modulation
d) Phase amplitude modulation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Modulation is of three types, frequency modulation, amplitude modulation and
phase modulation. Pulse modulation is a type of amplitude modulation.
6. In amplitude modulation, which of the following varies?
a) Frequency of the carrier
b) Frequency of the information signal
c) Amplitude of the carrier wave
d) Amplitude of the information signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the carrier wave is modulated with
respect to the information signal. The frequency and the phase of both the carrier and the
information signal remain constant.
7. You have 5 information signals and only one transmitter. What technique will help in
transmitting all the 5 signals?
a) Frequency modulation
b) Multiplexing
c) Amplification
d) Amplitude modulation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Multiplexing is the process of transmitting more than one signal via a common
transmitting medium. A device called a multiplexer is used for this purpose. The signal can
be demultiplexed at the receiver end to retrieve the original information.
8. What type of multiplexing is used in mobile phones?
a) Frequency division multiplexing
b) Time division multiplexing
c) Code division multiplexing
d) Phase multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In code-division multiplexing, the signals to be transmitted are converted to
digital data that is then uniquely coded with a faster binary code. The signals modulate a
carrier on the same frequency. All use the same communications channel simultaneously.
The unique coding is used at the receiver to select the desired signal.
9. Which one of the following is not true with respect to amplitude modulation?
a) Less noise
b) Longer range
c) Lower bandwidth
d) Less complex circuits
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Although AM is much simpler and has a wider range due to atmospheric
propagation, one of its major disadvantages is due to noise. Noise directly affects the
amplitude of the signal and its hard to retrieve the original information.
10. What type of multiplexing is used in serial buses?
a) Time division multiplexing
b) Code division multiplexing
c) Frequency division multiplexing
d) Phase multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Cps is the unit of what?
a) Frequency
b) Amplitude
c) Phase
d) Gain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cps or cycles per second is an alternative unit for the frequency of an EM
wave. The other unit for frequency is Hertz which is more commonly used around the world.
2. The range of electromagnetic signals encompassing all frequencies is referred to as?
a) EM waves
b) EM frequency
c) EM spectrum
d) EM radiation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The range of electromagnetic signals encompassing all frequencies is referred
to as Electromagnetic spectrum. It includes radio waves, microwaves, optical waves, x-rays,
gamma rays and cosmic waves.
3. The distance that the wave travels in one cycle is called as?
a) Displacement
b) Wavelength
c) Cycle length
d) Cycle amplitude
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The wavelength of a wave is the distance the wave travels in one cycle. The
wavelength of a signal is represented by the Greek letter λ (lambda) and has the same units
as length.
4. What is the wavelength of a signal with a frequency of 150Mhz?
a) 10m
b) 2m
c) 5m
d) 20m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
5. What is the frequency of the EM wave with a wavelength of 12cm?
a) 2.4Ghz
b) 2.5Ghz
c) 250 Mhz
d) 0.25Mhz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
6. A signal travels a distance of 75 ft in the time it takes to complete 1 cycle. What is its
frequency?
1 m 5 3.28 ft
a) 13Mhz
b) 13.12Mhz
c) 14Mhz
d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 1m=3.28ft
75/3.28=22.86m
Frequency= 300/22.86 =13.12Mhz.
7. The maximum peaks of an electromagnetic wave are separated by a distance of 8 in.
What is the frequency?
a) 256.4Khz
b) 1477.8Khz
c) 1477.8Mhz
d) 256.7Mhz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wavelength =8 in.= 0.203 m
Frequency = 300/0.203 = 1477.8Mhz.
8. SHF Em waves are used in?
a) Ground to ground communication
b) Satellite communication
c) Aircraft to ATC communication
d) Underwater communication
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SHFs or Super High Frequency EM waves are those which lie between the
frequency range of 3 to 30GHz range. These microwaves frequencies are widely used in
satellite communication and radar.
9. Which one of the following is not a source of infrared radiation?
a) Human bodies
b) Light bulbs
c) Sun
d) Books
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Infrared radiation is generally associated with heat. Infrared is produced by
light bulbs, human bodies, and basically any physical equipment that generates heat.
10. Which one of the following is not a reason for not using X-rays in communication?
a) Highly attenuated
b) High power is required
c) Stopped by ionizing effects
d) Ionizing radiation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: X-rays are not stopped by ionizing effects and that was the only reason they
were ever thought they could be used in communication. In re-entry vehicles, a temporary
communication cut off is experienced due to ionizing effects. X- rays were hard to modulate
and focus and hence gradually let down.
11. The portion of the electromagnetic spectrum occupied by a signal is called ________
a) Signal spectrum
b) Bandwidth
c) Frequency width
d) Signal strength
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bandwidth is that portion of the electromagnetic spectrum occupied by a
signal. It is also the frequency range over which a receiver or other electronic circuit
operates. More specifically, bandwidth is the difference between the upper and lower
frequency limits of the signal or the equipment operation range.
12. What is the bandwidth of a signal having 928Mhz and 902Mhz as its upper and lower
frequencies?
a) 26Mhz
b) 26Hz
c) 1830Hz
d) 1830Mhz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bandwidth = upper frequency – lower frequency = 928Mhz – 902Mhz =26Mhz.
13. What is the upper frequency of a signal with a bandwidth of 6Mhz, if the lower frequency
limit is 54Mhz?
a) 60Mhz
b) 48Mhz
c) 60Hz
d) 48Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bandwidth = upper frequency – lower frequency
Upper frequency = bandwidth + lower frequency = 54Mhz + 6Mhz = 60Mhz.
14. Higher frequencies can have more channels for a particular bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The benefit of using the higher frequencies for communication carriers is that a
signal of a given bandwidth represents a smaller percentage of the spectrum at the higher
frequencies than at the lower frequencies. It means that there can be more number of
channels with the same bandwidth in higher frequency than lower frequencies.
15. Which organization regulates international EM spectrum division?
a) ITU
b) FCC
c) NTIA
d) WCC
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the component in which the output voltage is higher than the input voltage?
a) Attenuator
b) Amplifier
c) Differential
d) Multiplexer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An amplifier is a component that increases the amplitude of the input signal.
The increase in amplitude is measured as gain. Gain is the ratio of the voltage of the input
signal vs output signal.
2. What is the gain of the signal if output and input voltages are 700V and 50mV
respectively?
a) 14000
b) 14
c) 71
d) 71400
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gain = output voltage/input voltage = 700/0.05 = 14000.
3. What is the output signal voltage for a gain of 20 and input voltage of 20mV?
a) 400V
b) 4V
c) 400mV
d) 10V
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gain = output signal voltage / input signal voltage
Output signal amplitude = 20 x 0.02 = 400mV.
4. The power output of an amplifier is 7 watts. The power gain is 80. What is the input
power?
a) 87.5mW
b) 87.5W
c) 13W
d) 13mW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gain = power out / power in
Power in = power out / gain = 7/80 = 87.5mW.
5. What is the total gain of amplifiers with a power gain of 6, 8, 5 when connected in series?
a) 24
b) 20
c) 19
d) 240
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total gain = product of individual gains = 6 x 8 x5 = 240.
6. A two-stage amplifier has an input power of 30μW and an output power of 1.5mW. One
stage has a gain of 3. What is the gain of the second stage?
a) 20
b) 16.6
c) 40
d) 22.36
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total gain = 1.5×10-3/30×10-6 = 50 = stage 1 gain x stage 2 gain
Stage 2 gain = 50 / 3 = 16.6.
7. What should be the value of R2 to have an attenuation of 0.5, if R1=200Ω?
a) 100Ω
b) 300Ω
c) 200Ω
d) 500Ω
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Attenuation =R2/(R2+R1) = 0.5
R2 = (0.5 X R2) + (0.5 X R1)
(0.5 X R2) = 100Ω
R2= 100/0.5 = 200Ω.
8. What should be the gain of an amplifier to have no voltage loss or gain?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 5
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An amplifier is usually used to increase the output voltage of a signal. Since
gain = output voltage/input voltage and the input voltage is equal to the output voltage, the
gain of the amplifier must be 1.
9. What should be the gain of an amplifier to have zero voltage loss if the signal is already
attenuated half that of the original signal?
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the signal to have zero voltage loss gain of the attenuator, amplifier
combination must be 1. Attenuation x gain =1. Gain = 1/attenuation = 1/(0.5) = 2.
10. What is the value of the total gain if A represent attenuation and G represent gain and
all are cascaded?
A1=0.5 G1=5
A2=0.035 G2=20
a) 24.465
b) 99.9825
c) 25.535
d) 1.75
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total gain = product of individual gains and attenuation = 5 X 20 X 0.5 X 0.035
= 1.75.
11. The unit decibel is a way of expressing the hearing response of the human ear.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gain or loss of a circuit is usually expressed in decibels (dB), a unit of
measurement that was originally created as a way of expressing the hearing response of
the human ear to various sound levels. A decibel is one-tenth of a bel.
12. What is the gain in decibels if the amplifier has an input of 3mV and output of 5V?
a) 54.4
b) 64
c) 64.4
d) 32
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: dB = 20 log(5/0.003) = 20 log 1666.67 = 20 x 3.22 =64.4.
13. When a decibel value is computed by comparing a power value to 1 mW it is called as?
a) dBm
b) dBc
c) dB
d) DB
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is reactance?
a) Resistance offered to ac current by resistor only
b) Resistance offered to dc current by resistor
c) Resistance offered to ac current by coil and capacitance
d) Resistance offered to dc current by coil and capacitance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Both coils and capacitors offer an opposition to alternating current flow known
as reactance, which is expressed in ohms. Like resistance, reactance is an opposition that
directly affects the amount of current in a circuit.
2. What happens to the current when it passes through a capacitor?
a) Phase of voltage leads the current
b) Phase of current leads the voltage
c) Phase of current and voltage cancel out each other
d) Phase of current and voltage gets added
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In addition to resistance of alternating current flow, a capacitor alters the phase
difference between the current and voltage. The capacitor lowers the phase of the voltage
and hence the current leads the voltage.
3. What happens to the voltage when it passes through an inductor/coil?
a) Phase of voltage leads the current
b) Phase of current leads the voltage
c) Phase of current and voltage cancel out each other
d) Phase of current and voltage gets added
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In addition to a resistance of alternating current flow, an inductor/coil alters the
phase difference between the current and voltage. The inductor/coil lowers the phase of the
current and hence the voltage leads the current.
4. A capacitor used in an ac circuit continually charges and discharges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an ac power supply the voltage increases and decreases with a particular
frequency. During the first half cycle, the capacitor gets charged and in the other half, it gets
discharged. The same process repeats throughout the wave.
5. What happens to capacitative reactance when operating frequency is increased?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) goes to infinite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Capacitative reactance is inversely proportional to the operating frequency and
is given by the formula Xc= 1/2πfC where C is the capacitance value in Farad.
6. Calculate the reactance of a 100-pF capacitor at an operating frequency of 2 MHz?
a) 200Ω
b) 700.16Ω
c) 796.2Ω
d) 2Ω
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: Capacitative reactance =Xc= 1/2πfC = 1/(2 x 3.14 x 2 x 106 x 100 x 10-12) =
796.2Ω.
7. Which one of the following is false with respect to stray capacitance?
a) Reduces with decrease in size of lead wires
b) Reduces when chip capacitors are used
c) Increases when lead wires a are lengthy
d) Increases with less capacitance value
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The lead wires of capacitors behave as a complex RLC circuit and generate
stray capacitance. This can be reduced by shortening the length of the lead wires or using
chip capacitors. However, decreasing or increasing the value of capacitance does not affect
stray capacitance.
8. What happens to inductive resistance when operating frequency is increased?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Goes to infinite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inductive reactance is directly proportional to the operating frequency and is
given by the formula Xf= 2πfL where L is the inductance value in Henry.
9. What is the inductive reactance of a 40-μH coil at 18 MHz?
a) 4000Ω
b) 4522Ω
c) 4522H
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductive reactance = XL=2πfL = 2 x 3.14 x 18 x 106 x 40 x 10-6 = 4522Ω.
10. What is the Q factor for a 3-μH inductor with a total resistance of 45Ω at 90 MHz?
a) 37.68
b) 37.68Ω
c) 29.22Ω
d) 32.75Ω
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality factor = Q = 2πfL/R = (2 x 3.14 x 90 x 106 x 3 x 10-6)/45 = 1695.6 / 45 =
37.68.
11. What is the resonant frequency of a 2.7-pF capacitor and a 33-nH inductor?
a) 512MHz
b) 720GHz
c) 250MHz
d) 533MHz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
12. What is the bandwidth of a resonant circuit with a frequency of 28 MHz and a Q of 80?
a) 350KHz
b) 30KHz
c) 42.7KHz
d) 57.05MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is a filter?
a) Frequency selective circuit
b) Amplitude selective circuit
c) Frequency damping circuit
d) Amplitude damping circuit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A filter is a frequency-selective circuit. Filters are designed to pass some
frequencies and reject others. Filters are used to reduce noise and increase selectivity.
2. What are filters created by using resistors and capacitors or inductors and capacitors
called?
a) Active filters
b) Passive filters
c) Continuous filters
d) Differential filters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Simple filters created by using resistors and capacitors or inductors and
capacitors are called passive filters because they use passive components that do not
amplify. In communication work, many filters are of the passive LC variety, although many
other types are used.
3. What type of filter produces a predictable phase shift characteristic in all frequencies?
a) Band pass filters
b) High pass filters
c) Low pass filters
d) All pass filters
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An all pass filter passes all frequencies equally well over its design range but
has a fixed or predictable phase shift characteristic. Filters normally attenuate the signal
applied for some values of frequency whereas an all pass filter retains the signal level at all
frequencies.
4. An RC coupling circuit is an example of what type of filter?
a) Low pass filter
b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
d) All pass filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An RC coupling circuit is an example of a high-pass filter because the AC
component of the input voltage is developed across R and the DC voltage is blocked by the
series capacitor. Furthermore, with higher frequencies in the AC component, more AC
voltage is coupled.
5. What is the type of filter shown in the figure?
a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
d) All pass filter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The simplest form of low-pass filter is the RC circuit shown in the figure. The
circuit forms a simple voltage divider with one frequency-sensitive component, in this case,
the capacitor. At very low frequencies, the capacitor has very high reactance compared to
the resistance and therefore the attenuation is minimum. Thus allowing lower frequencies to
pass through while attenuating higher frequency signals.
6. Find the cut off frequency for an RC low pass filter of R=8.2Ω and C=0.0033μF?
a) 6KHz
b) 5.88KHz
c) 4.26KHz
d) 7.91KHz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
7. What is the type of filter shown in the figure?
a) Low pass filter

b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
d) All pass filter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A low-pass filter can also be implemented with an inductor and a resistor. At
very low frequencies, the inductor has very low reactance compared to the resistance and
therefore the attenuation is minimum.Thus allowing lower frequencies to pass through while
attenuating higher frequency signals.The cutoff frequency is determined by using the
formula fco = R/2πL.
8. What is the value of resistor for a high pass RC filter to produce a cutoff frequency
of3.4KHz if C = 0.047μF?
a) 654Ω
b) 1000Ω
c) 996Ω
d) 752Ω
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
9. Notch filters and band reject filters are the same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Notch filters are also referred to as bandstop or band reject filters. Band-reject
filters are used to greatly attenuate a narrow range of frequencies around a center point.
Notch filters accomplish the same purpose, but for a single frequency.
10. What is the value of notch frequency if the values of resistance and capacitance are 100
kV and 0.02 μF?
a) 79.6Hz
b) 21.5Hz
c) 82.4Hz
d) 40Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:
11. What is the loss the filter introduces to the signals in the passband called?
a) passband loss
b) Insertion loss
c) Attenuation
d) Degradation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Insertion loss is the loss the filter introduces to the signals in the passband.
Passive filters introduce attenuation because of the resistive losses in the components.
Insertion loss is typically given in decibels.
12. The attenuation rate is also called?
a) Roll off
b) Roll in
c) Envelope delay
d) Ripple
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is not a source of noise in FM?
a) Weather
b) Electronic circuits
c) Lightning
d) Velocity of motion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lightning strikes, ignition systems, motors, electronic circuits and weather
create interference signals called noise. They are generally of high frequency and spikes of
voltages.
2. Which circuit in FM receivers cancels or filters out noise?
a) Filter circuits
b) Anti-noise circuits
c) Limiter circuits
d) delimiter circuits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The receivers in FM contain limiter circuits which restrict the amplitude of the
received signal. The noise which only affects the amplitude of the signal causes variations
in amplitude of the signal. The limiter circuit clips off any variation in amplitude to filter out
most of the noise.
3. Noise introduces a frequency variation into the signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The change in amplitude by the noise introduces a phase shift which is
reflected as a small frequency variation in the signal. These frequency variations changes
or distorts the signal.
4. What is the frequency deviation produced by noise if the signal to noise ratio is 3:1 and
modulating frequency is 800Hz?
a) 152.32Hz
b) 482.5Hz
c) 132.8Hz
d) 271.Hz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ɸ=sin-1(N/S)=sin-1(1/3)=sin-1(0.3333)=19.47°=0.34rad
δ=ɸ(fm)=0.34(800)=271.8Hz.
5. What is the noise to signal ratio if the phase shift introduced by noise is 0.75°?
a) 0.5
b) 0.966
c) 0.25
d) 1.75
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ɸ=sin-1(N/S)
(N/S)=sin(ɸ) =sin(75°)=0.966.
6. What is the frequency deviation produced by noise if the modulating frequency is 400Hz
and the phase difference introduced by noise is 0.43rad?
a) 124Hz
b) 163Hz
c) 172Hz
d) 200Hz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: δ=ɸ(fm)=0.43(400)=172Hz.
7. Calculate the phase difference by noise if the Signal to noise ratio is 7:2.
a) 15.366°
b) 17.5°
c) 13.65°
d) 8.21°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ɸ=sin-1(N/S)=sin-1(2/7)=sin-1(0.265)=15.366°.
8. What is the ratio of the shift produced by the noise to the maximum allowed deviation if
the modulating frequency is 300Hz and the phase shift by noise is 25° and the maximum
allowable deviation is 5kHz?
a) 1.3
b) 0.530
c) 0.153
d) 0.0261
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: δ=ɸ(fm)= 0.436(300)=130.89Hz
Frequency deviation by noise / maximum deviation = 130.89/5000=0.0261.
9. What is the signal to noise ratio if the maximum allowable frequency deviation is 4kHz
and the frequency deviation by noise is 156.42Hz?
a) 0.0364
b) 0.0391
c) 25.75
d) 20.45
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: N/S = Frequency deviation by noise / maximum deviation = 156.42/4000
=0.0391
S/N = (N/S)-1=25.57.
10. What is the technique in which the high frequency components are amplified more than
the low frequency components in FM?
a) Garble
b) Preemphasis
c) Detoriation
d) Selective amplification
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Preemphasis is a technique in which the high frequency signals are amplified
more than the lower frequency signals to have better resistance to noise. It is usually used
to transmit sounds from musical instruments which have high frequency harmonics.
11. Which of the following pairs of resistors and capacitors can be used in high pass filters
for preemphasis circuits?
a) 100Ω and 0.075μF
b) 100Ω and 0.75μF
c) 150Ω and 0.75μF
d) 16Ω and 0.75μF
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The time constant for a high pass filter to be used in the preemphasis circuit is
75μs. R x C = 75μs. Thus when R is 100Ω and C is 0.75μF, R x C = 75μs.
12. Find the frequency at which the signal enhancement flattens out in preemphasis circuit if
R1=50Ω ,R2=70Ω and C=0.45μF.
a) 12126.09Hz
b) 550Hz
c) 10036..52Hz
d) 9004.56Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is false with respect to digital data transmission?
a) LAN is a digital data transmission
b) Can transmit binary data
c) Only restricted to communication between computers
d) Can transmit analog data
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Digital data communication was only restricted to communication between
computers. Since analog signals can now be easily converted into digital signals using
analog to digital converter, digital transmission can now transmit voice, video and other
analog signals in digital form.
2. Why is digital data not easily affected by noise?
a) High power transmission
b) Cannot easily change binary 1 to 0
c) High frequency transmission
d) Low frequency transmission
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise is inevitable in a signal transmission. In a digital transmission the
amplitude of the noise must be higher than the amplitude of the signal at binary ’1’, which is
generally not the case, and vice versa. The receiver can differentiate between binary ‘1’ and
‘0’ with a significant amount of noise.
3. What is the process of digital communication where a threshold value is set at the
receiver to reduce noise?
a) Signal threshold
b) Data regeneration
c) Signal regeneration
d) Signal cut off
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the process of signal regeneration a cut off value or threshold value is set in
the receiver so that the noise can be clipped off. When the values are set properly only the
binary data would pass through the circuit. This produces a clean output pulse.
4. What is the number of error bits that occur for a given number of bits transmitted called?
a) Bit error
b) Error rate
c) Bit error rate
d) Error bit rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bit rate error(BER) is the number of error bits that are present for a given
number of bits transmitted. It depends on several factors like the environment, equipment
and other considerations. BER is calculated for a particular set of conditions.
5. Data is transmitted in 512 bytes. What is the average number of errors expected if the
system BER is 2:10,000?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 0.542
d) 0.819
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total number of bits = 512 x 8 = 4096 bits
Average number of errors = (2/10,000) x 4096 = 0.819.
6. Why can Digital data use time division multiplexing?
a) Less power
b) High power
c) Discrete data
d) Continuous data
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Digital data is discrete and hence can be transmitted via time division
multiplexing, whereas analog data is continuous and can only be transmitted as a whole.
However, analog data can be converted into digital by analog to digital converters and then
be transmitted via time division multiplexing. Time division multiplexing is one of the biggest
advantages of digital communication.
7. Speed of transmission is increased by channel encoding.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of transmission is reduced when data is channel encoded. For
example, to transmit 1 byte of data, the encoding process may add 3 extra bits for a total of
11 bits. If the bit time is 100 ns, then it takes 800 ns to send the data bits but 1100 ns to
send the encoded data.
8. Which of the following bit has an error if odd parity is used?
data Parity bit
A 1000 0
B 1001 0
C 1100 1
D 1111 1
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the main role of an ADC?
a) Amplify
b) Convert analog to digital
c) Reduce noise
d) Increase range
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ADC corresponds to Analog to Digital Converter which is used to convert an
analog signal into a digital. Digital signal can be processed and manipulated.
2. The process of converting a continuous analog signal to a discrete digital signal is called?
a) Discretisation
b) Sampling
c) Preemphasis
d) Reduction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An analog signal is continuous and hence contains an infinite number of
points. The process in which this continuous signal is discretized is called as sampling. The
sampling period determines the accuracy of conversion.
3. What is the minimum frequency of sampling so that the analog waveform is adequately
expressed?
a) Minimum sampling rate
b) Minimum sampling frequency
c) Nyquist frequency
d) Conversion rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum frequency at which an analog wave should be sampled is given
by Nyquist frequency. If the sampling frequency is below this limit then the analog waveform
is not fully represented and leads to data loss.
4. What is the minimum rate at which an analog signal of frequency 6000Hz is sampled?
a) 6000Hz
b) 60Hz
c) 120Hz
d) 12000Hz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Minimum sampling frequency= Nyquist frequency = 2x(frequency of analog
waveform)
= 2x 6000Hz = 12000Hz.
5. What is the number of voltage increments that can be represented in an 8-bit system?
a) 255
b) 256
c) 215
d) 126
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The number of voltage increments that can be in an N bit system is given by
2N-1 = 28-1 =255.
6. What is the error that occurs when the number of bits is not sufficient enough to
represent the analog voltages?
a) Data error
b) Sampling error
c) Acquisition error
d) Quantization error
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the number of bits is not sufficient enough to represent the analog
voltage levels, quantization error occurs. The greater the number of bits, the greater the
number of increments over the analog range and the smaller the quantizing error.
7. What is the maximum amount of quantization error that can occur in a 10bit system in the
input analog voltage is from 0V to 6V?
a) 10mV
b) 6mV
c) 0.5mV
d) 1mV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum voltage step input is 6/(2N-1) = 6/1023 =5.865mV ≈6mV. This is
the maximum error that can occur during the conversion process.
8. What is the rms noise voltage if the weight of the LSB is 0.005865?
a) 5mV
b) 1mV
c) 1.7mV
d) 0.7mV
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
9. What is the signal frequency if the rectangular digital wave has a time period of 71.4μs?
a) 14,006Hz
b) 15,036Hz
c) 14Hz
d) 21,436Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Signal frequency = 1/ time period of the wave = 1/71.4μs = 14,006Hz.
10. What is the 5th harmonic of the rectangular digital wave if the frequency is 14kHz?
a) 21kHz
b) 45kHz
c) 25kHz
d) 70kHz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fifth harmonic = 5 x signal frequency = 5 x 14kHz = 70kHz.
11. What is the output of a digital to analog converter?
a) Smooth continuous wave
b) Stairstep wave
c) Triangular waves
d) Circular waves
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is not an advantage of undersampling?
a) Slower ADC
b) Less power
c) Fast microprocessors
d) Low memory capacity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since in undersampling the time period between samples is sufficiently large,
this allows slower processors to be used for ADC. This also allows low memory capacity for
storage and less power consumption.
2. Pick the odd one out?
a) R-2R converters
b) String converters
c) Weighted current source converters
d) Flash conversion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: R-2R, string and weighted current source converters are Digital to analog
conversion methods whereas flash conversion is an analog to digital conversion method.
Flash converter uses a voltage ladder along with a comparator to compare the reference
voltage with the input voltages.
3. Which of the following does not belong to the R-2R converter?
a) Reference regulators
b) Resistor network
c) Electronic switches
d) Input amplifiers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The R-2R Digital to analog converter consists of four major parts. They are
Reference regulators, Resistor network, Electronic switches, and output amplifiers. An
output amplifier is used to scale the output voltage of the signal to any desired level.
4. What is the resolution of a sting DAC if the reference voltage is 10V and the number of
input bits is 3?
a) 1.25V
b) 1.75V
c) 1.23V
d) 0.25V
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resolution = reference voltage / 2N = 10/23 = 1.25V.
5. What is the alias produced when a signal of 15 MHz is sampled at a rate of 28 MHz?
a) 10MHz
b) 11MHz
c) 12MHz
d) 13MHz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Frequency of alias signal = f a = fs – fm = 28-15 = 13MHz.
6. Settling time is the time taken to convert one binary data into analog.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Settling time is the amount of time it takes for the output voltage of a DAC,
after a change in binary input, to stabilize to within a specific voltage range. The output is
thus not an accurate representation of the binary input; it is not usable until it settles down.
7. What is the maximum operation frequency that can be used if the settling time is 100ns?
a) 10MHz
b) 11MHz
c) 12MHz
d) 13MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Operational frequency = 1 / (100 x 10-9)= 10MHz. Operational frequencies
higher than this would produce errors.
8. During the sample mode the sample and hold circuit passes the analog signal
unchanged.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During its sampling mode, a sample-and-hold (S/H) circuit accepts the analog
signal and passes it unchanged. In the hold mode, the amplifier remembers a particular
voltage level at the instant of sampling.
9. Which of the following is the fastest type of ADC?
a) Successive approximation conversion
b) Flash conversion
c) Delta encoded conversion
d) Pipelined conversion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flash converter produces an output as fast as the comparators can switch
and the signals can be translated to binary levels by the logic circuits. Comparator switching
and logic propagation delays are extremely short. Thus, flash converters are the fastest
type of A/D converter.
10. Find the resolution of an ADC which uses 14 bit numbers and have a voltage range of -
6V to +6V?
a) 845.65μV
b) 3.56μV
c) 0.00154μV
d) 732.5μV
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
11. What is the dynamic range of a 12 bit converter?
a) 81.5dB
b) 72.24dB
c) 62.35dB
d) 10.254dB
View Answer
Answer: b
1. The process of using a pulse signal to represent information is called _______
a) Pulse modulation
b) Frequency modulation
c) Amplitude modulation
d) Phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In pulse modulation, the information to be transmitted is represented by a
series of binary pulses. Since the pulse information is binary in nature analog signal shave
to be converted to digital before transmitting.
2. Which of the following is false with respect to pulse modulation?
a) Less power consumption
b) Low noise
c) Degraded signal can be regenerated
d) Can transmit analog as well as digital waves
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Analog values cannot be transmitted as such by pulse modulation since it can
only transmit binary data. However, the analog signal can be converted into digital using an
ADC and then transmitted via pulse modulation.
3. Which of the following is not a form of pulse modulation?
a) Pulse amplitude modulation
b) Pulse width modulation
c) Pulse position modulation
d) Pulse frequency modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are four basic forms of pulse modulation. They are: pulse amplitude
modulation, pulse width modulation, pulse position modulation pulse code modulation. In
any form of pulse modulation, the frequency of the signal is not changed.
4. How many voltage levels are present in a PWM signal?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The amplitude of PWM is binary in nature meaning that it has only two levels.
The amplitude of the modulating signals varies the width of the pulses generated.
5. Power consumption is low in pulse modulation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In pulse modulation, the carrier is not transmitted continuously but in pulses
whose width is determined by the amplitude of the modulating signal. The duty cycle is
made in such a way that the carrier is off for a longer time than it bursts hence the average
power consumption is low.
6. Which pulse modulation technique is least expensive?
d) Pulse code modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Out of all the pulse modulation techniques, Pulse amplitude modulation is the
least expensive and simplest to implement. In pulse amplitude modulation, the amplitude of
the pulse varies with the amplitude of the modulating signal.
7. Which of the following is false with respect to pulse position modulation?
a) Can be transmitted in broadband
b) Modulates a high frequency carrier
c) Pulse is narrow
d) Pulse width changes in accordance with the amplitude of modulating signal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In PPM, the pulses change position according to the amplitude of the analog
signal. The pulses are very narrow. These pulse signals may be transmitted in a baseband
form, but in most applications, they modulate a high-frequency radio carrier.
8. Pulse modulation is not used in which of the following?
a) Telemetry systems
b) Remote control models
c) Switch power modes
d) Communication of airplane with ATC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse modulation is used in telemetry systems to monitor spacecraft or missile,
RC models, for switching power supplies like regulators and also as audio switching power
amplifiers. Communication of airplane with ATC is amplitude modulated waves.
9. The process of signal compression and expansion used to reduce distortion and noise is
called _____
a) Amplification
b) Companding
c) Compressing
d) Modulating
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To reduce the effects of noise and distortion in pulse modulation, a process
called companding is done. Companding is a process of signal compression and expansion.
10. What type of digital modulation is widely used for digital data transmission?
d) Pulse code modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The most widely used technique for digitizing information signals for electronic
data transmission is pulse code modulation. It has uniform transmission quality and also
can be used when the signal traffic is high.
11. What is the output voltage if the input voltage of a compander with a maximum voltage
range of 1 V and a μ of 255 is 0.25?
a) 0V
b) 0.25V
c) 0.5V
d) 0.75V
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation:
12. What is the output voltage if the input voltage of a compander with a maximum voltage
range of 1 V and a μ of 255 is 0.8V0?
a) 0.08V
b) 0.458V
c) 1.02V
d) 1.54V
View Answer
Answer: c
1. The transmission of data by dots and dashes is an example of ___________
a) Amplitude modulation
b) Frequency modulation
c) Continuous wave transmission
d) Discrete signal transmission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The oscillator generates the carrier and can be switched off and on by a
telegraph key to produce the dots and dashes of the International Morse code. Information
transmitted in this way is referred to as continuous-wave (CW) transmission. Such a
transmitter is rarely used today.
2. What device is used to prevent power from the transmitter from going to the receiver
side?
a) Multiplexer
b) Duplexer
c) Monoplexer
d) Filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A duplexer is a device that is placed just before the antenna in a transducer
system. It is basically a switch which allows both transmission and reception but only one at
a time.
3. What generates the final carrier frequency?
a) Oscillator
b) Modulator
c) Antenna
d) Power source
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An oscillator, in most applications a crystal oscillator, generates the final carrier
frequency. A modulator simply adds the information signal and an antenna transmits the
signal.
4. Frequency multiplier multiplies the frequency deviation produced by the modulator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
5. ______ is used to provide continuous tuning over the desired range?
a) Variable frequency oscillator
b) Frequency synthesizer
c) Variable Frequency producer
d) Frequency multiplier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A variable frequency oscillator (VFO) is used to provide continuous tuning over
a desired range. Using VFO different carrier frequencies can be generated.
6. What is the only oscillator capable of meeting the precision and stability demanded by the
FCC?
a) Armstrong Oscillator
b) Crystal Oscillator
c) Hartley oscillator
d) RC Phase Shift Oscillator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The transmitter must remain on the assigned frequency. It must not drift off or
wander from its assigned value despite the many operating conditions, such as wide
temperature variations and changes in power supply voltage, that affect frequency. The only
oscillator capable of meeting the precision and stability demanded by the FCC is a crystal
oscillator.
7. The device that maintains controlled temperature for crystal oscillators are called
__________
a) Crystal stove
b) Crystal ovens
c) Crystal chamber
d) Temperature chamber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: greater stability of crystal frequency can be achieved by mounting the crystal in
sealed, temperature-controlled chambers known as crystal ovens. These devices maintain
an absolute constant temperature, ensuring a stable output frequency.
8. What is the maximum frequency of a 16-MHz crystal with a stability of 200 ppm?
a) 1,60,03,200Hz
b) 2,14,65,400Hz
c) 1,36,12,500Hz
d) 4,56,42,863Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The frequency can vary as much as 200 Hz for every 1 MHz of frequency or
200×16=3200Hz.
The maximum frequency is 1,60,00,000 + 3200 = 1,60,03,200 Hz.
9. Calculate the transmitter output frequency if the transmitter uses a crystal oscillator with a
frequency of 14.9 MHz and a frequency multiplier chain with factors of 2, 3, and 3.
a) 1.564MHz
b) 268.2MHz
c) 264.3MHz
d) 265.6MHz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total frequency multiplication factor 2 x 3 x 3 = 18
Transmitter output frequency = 14.9 MHz x 18 = 268.2 MHz.
10. Calculate the frequency for maximum drift of crystal if The crystal has a stability of 6300
ppm and an output frequency of 268.2MHz and frequency multiplier chain with factors of 2,
3, and 3.
a) 123.5MHz
b) 423.2MHz
c) 269.65MHz
d) 235.1MHz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Variation = 300ppm = 0.03%
This variation is multiplied by the frequency multiplier chain, yielding
0.03 percent x 18 =60.54 percent. Now, 268.2 MHz x 0.0054 = 1.45 MHz.
Thus, the frequency of the transmitter output is 268.2 + 1.45 MHz. The maximum frequency
is
268.2 + 1.45 = 269.65 MHz.
11. What is the minimum frequency of a 16-MHz crystal with a stability of 200 ppm?
a) 1,60,03,200Hz
b) 2,14,65,400Hz
c) 1,59,96,800Hz
d) 4,56,42,863Hz
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Which of the following are the two main characteristics of receivers?
a) Selectivity and sensitivity
b) Gain and attenuation
c) Modulation and demodulation
d) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A communication receiver must be able to identify and select the desired
signal from thousands of others present in the frequency spectrum (selectivity) and to
provide sufficient amplification to recover the modulating signal (sensitivity). A receiver with
good selectivity will isolate the desired signal in the RF spectrum and eliminate or at least
greatly attenuate all other signals.
2. What circuit provides the initial selectivity in a receiver?
a) Amplifier
b) Attenuator
c) Multiplexer
d) LC tuned circuits
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Initial selectivity in a receiver is normally obtained by using LC tuned circuits.
By carefully controlling the Q of the resonant circuit, we can set the desired selectivity.
3. The ability to pick up week signals by a receiver is called _________
a) Gain
b) Amplification
c) Sensitivity
d) Selectivity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A communication receiver’s sensitivity, or ability to pick up weak signals, is
mainly a function of overall gain, the factor by which an input signal is multiplied to produce
the output signal. In general, the higher the gain of a receiver, the better its sensitivity.
4. What is the input signal level that is approximately equal to the average internally
generated noise value called?
a) MDS
b) MBS
c) MMD
d) MSD
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The MDS or Minimum Discernible Signal is the input signal level that is
approximately equal to the average internally generated noise value. This noise value is
called the noise floor of the receiver. MDS is the amount of signal that would produce the
same audio power output as the noise floor signal. The MDS is usually expressed in dBm.
5. Analog signals : Signal to noise ratio:: Digital signals _________
a) Signal Attenuation
b) Bit error rate
c) Error rate
d) Digital noise ratio
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For analog signals, the signal-to-noise ratio is the main consideration in analog
signals. For digital signal transmission, the bit error rate (BER) is the main consideration.
BER is the number of errors made in the transmission of many serial data bits.
6. A sensitive and selective receiver can be made using only amplifiers, selective filters, and
a demodulator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A sensitive and selective receiver can be made using only amplifiers, selective
filters and a demodulator. This is called a tuned radio frequency or TRF receiver. Early
radios used this design. However, such a receiver does not usually deliver the kind of
performance expected in modern communications applications.
7. What type of receivers converts all incoming frequency into a lower frequency for better
selectivity and sensitivity?
a) Analogous receivers
b) Superheterodyne receivers
c) Digital receiver
d) Crystal receiver
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Superheterodyne receivers convert all incoming signals to a lower frequency,
known as the intermediate frequency (IF), at which a single set of amplifiers and filters is
used to provide a fixed level of sensitivity and selectivity. Most of the gain and selectivity in
a superheterodyne receiver are obtained in the IF amplifiers.
8. What is the output of a mixer circuit?
a) Sum of frequencies
b) Difference of frequencies
c) Sum and difference of frequencies
d) Multiplication of frequencies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The key circuit is the mixer, which acts as a simple amplitude modulator to
produce sum and difference frequencies. The incoming signal is mixed with a local oscillator
signal to produce this conversion.
9. What is connected between the antenna and the mixer to avoid oscillator radiation?
a) LNA
b) Attenuator
c) Duplexer
d) Power amplifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LNA or low noise amplifier is placed in between the antenna and the mixer.
The oscillator signal is relatively strong and some of it can leak through and appear at the
input of the mixer. The RF amplifier between the mixer and the antenna isolates the two,
significantly reducing any local oscillator radiation.
10. Which of the following is not an advantage of using RF amplifiers in the initial stage of
signal selection?
a) Low noise
b) Reduced oscillator radiation
c) Better selectivity
d) Less power consumption
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The use of RF amplifiers in the initial stage of signal selection reduces the
effect of noise.RF amplifiers improve sensitivity, because of the extra gain; improve
selectivity, because of the added tuned circuits; and improve the S/N ratio. Further, spurious
signals are more effectively rejected, minimizing unwanted signal generation in the mixer.
11. The LNA of a transducer has failed during the transmission of a signal. Which
component’s failure has caused this?
a) Duplexer
b) RF amplifier
c) Antenna
d) Mixer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A duplexer is a device which acts as a switch and stops the high power
transmission signals from entering into the receiver, which is tuned to handle very low
power for better sensitivity. When the duplexer fails, the high power signals enter the
receiver where the Low noise amplifier is damaged.
12. What type of oscillators are used to input a wide range of frequencies to the IF
amplifier?
a) LC oscillators
b) Crystal oscillators
c) Variable frequency oscillators
d) Diode oscillators
View Answer
Answer: c
1. Multiplexing increases the number of communication channels for transmission.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiplexing is the process of simultaneously transmitting two or more
individual signals over a single communication channel, cable or wireless. In effect, it
increases the number of communication channels so that more information can be
transmitted.
2. In which of the following systems multiplexing is not necessary?
a) Telemetry
b) TV broadcasting
c) Satellites
d) Continuous wave transmission
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Continuous wave transmission such as morse code, multiplexing is not
necessary since only two voltage levels are present and each bit is sent one by one. Also,
only one information signal is transmitted whereas in telemetry, TV and satellite
communications numerous information is transmitted hence multiplexing is required.
3. Time division multiplexing: Digital signal:: Frequency division multiplexing:?
a) Pulse code modulated signal
b) Continuous wave signals
c) Analog signal
d) Pulse position modulated signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two most common types of multiplexing are frequency-division
multiplexing (FDM) and time-division multiplexing (TDM). Two variations of these basic
methods are frequency-division multiple access (FDMA) and time-division multiple access
(TDMA). In general, FDM systems are used for analog information and TDM systems are
used for digital information.
4. What type of multiplexing is widely used in cellphones?
b) Frequency division multiplexing
d) Spatial multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Another form of multiple accesses is known as code-division multiple access
(CDMA). It is widely used in cell phone systems to allow many cell phone subscribers to use
a common bandwidth at the same time. This system uses special codes assigned to each
user that can be identified. CDMA uses a technique called spread spectrum to make this
type of multiplexing possible.
5. The transmission of multiple signals in a common frequency without interference is called
_______
b) Frequency division multiplexing
d) Spatial multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Spatial multiplexing is the term used to describe the transmission of multiple
wireless signals on a common frequency in such a way that they do not interfere with one
another. One way of doing this is to use low-power transmissions so that the signals do not
interfere with one another. When very low power is used, the signals do not travel very far.
The transmission distance is a function of the power level, frequency, and antenna height.
6. For frequency division multiplexing who defines the channel bandwidth?
a) FCC
b) ARNIC
c) FAA
d) CCA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bandwidths of radio channels vary, and are usually determined by FCC
regulations and the type of radio service involved. Regardless of the type of channel, a wide
bandwidth can be shared for the purpose of transmitting many signals at the same time.
7. What is the individual carrier frequency of each signal called?
a) Subcarrier
b) Frequency carrier
c) Modulated carrier
d) Coded carrier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each signal to be transmitted feeds a modulator circuit. The carrier for each
modulator (fc) is on a different frequency. The carrier frequencies are usually equally spaced
from one another over a specific frequency range. These carriers are referred to as
subcarriers.
8. Which circuit does the actual multiplexing process in frequency division multiplexing?
a) Linear mixer
b) Oscillator
c) RF amplifier
d) Duplexer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The modulator outputs containing the sideband information are added
algebraically in a linear mixer; no modulation or generation of sidebands takes place. The
resulting output signal is a composite of all the modulated subcarriers. This signal can be
used to modulate a radio transmitter or can itself be transmitted over the single
communication channel. Alternatively, the composite signal can become one input to
another multiplexed system.
9. Which of the following device is used to demultiplex the received signal?
a) Allpass filters
b) Bandpass filters
c) Bandstop filters
d) Differential filters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A receiver picks up the signal and demodulates it, recovering the composite
signal. This is sent to a group of bandpass filters, each centered on one of the carrier
frequencies. Each filter passes only its channel and rejects all others. A channel
demodulator then recovers each original input signal.
10. The system which uses FM for the subcarriers is called _____
a) FM II system
b) FM/FM system
c) FM/AM system
d) 2 stage FM system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the individual signals which require multiplexing are frequency
modulated. These signals are then added up by the mixer and the resulting output signal is
again frequency modulated before transmission.
11. A cable TV service uses a single coaxial cable with a bandwidth of 860 MHz to transmit
multiple TV signals to subscribers. Each TV signal is 6 MHz wide. How many channels can
be carried?
a) 143
b) 123
c) 100
d) 150
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Frequency division multiplexing:Frequency slots::time division multiplexing:?
a) Time slots
b) Coded information
c) Pulsed information
d) Band slots
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In FDM, multiple signals are transmitted over a single channel, each signal
being allocated a portion of the spectrum within that bandwidth. In time-division multiplexing
(TDM), each signal occupies the entire bandwidth of the channel. However, each signal is
transmitted for only a brief time. In other words, multiple signals take turns transmitting over
the single channel.
2. Serial transmission is not possible without time division multiplexing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In serial transmission, the data is sent via a single cable. When a clock pulse is
applied to the shift register it transmits the information bit by bit in allocated time slots.
3. What device is used to demodulate a time division multiplexed analog wave?
a) High pass filter
b) Low pass filter
c) Band stop filter
d) Attenuator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: the analog signal is converted to a series of constant-width pulses whose
amplitude follows the shape of the analog signal. The original analog signal is recovered by
passing it through a low-pass filter. In TDM using PAM, a circuit called a multiplexer (MUX
or MPX) samples multiple analog signal sources; the resulting pulses are interleaved and
then transmitted over a single channel.
4. Which of the following device was used in early TDM/PAM telemetry systems?
a) Commuter
b) Linear switch
c) Logic gates
d) DSP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiplexers in early TDM/PAM telemetry systems used a form of rotary switch
known as a commutator. Multiple switch segments were attached to the various incoming
signals while a high-speed brush rotated by a dc motor rapidly sampled the signals as it
passed over the contacts.
5. What is the time allocated for each channel if the number of samples per frame is 4 and
the frame rate is 100frames/sec?
a) 1.2ms
b) 3ms
c) 2.5ms
d) 0.54ms
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Time period for one frame = 1/100 = 0.01s = 10ms. During that 10-ms frame
period, each of the four channels is sampled once. Each channel is thus allotted 10/4 = 2.5
ms.
6. What is the purpose of one shot multivibrator?
a) Trigger all AND gates at clock frequency
b) Trigger all OR gates at clock frequency
c) Trigger all AND gates at signal frequency
d) Trigger all OR gates at signal frequency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The one-shot multivibrator is used to trigger all the decoder AND gates at the
clock frequency. It produces an output pulse whose duration has been set to the desired
sampling interval.
7. The circuit used to regenerate clock pulses from the transmitted PAM signals is called
____
a) Clock demodulator circuits
b) Timer circuits
c) Clock receiving circuits
d) Clock recovery circuits
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Instead of using a free-running clock oscillator set to the identical frequency of
the transmitter system clock, the clock for the demultiplexer is derived from the received
PAM signal itself. A circuit called the clock recovery circuits are typical of those used to
generate the demultiplexer clock pulses.
8. What are used to reduce or stop synchronization problems while receiving?
a) Clock recovery circuits
b) Demodulators
c) Synchronizer
d) Band pass filter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Clock recovery circuits are used to remedy the synchronization problem
encountered in demultiplexing. The clock pulse is derived from the transmitted signal so that
synchronization errors are reduced.
9. In a four channel system, all four signals transmitted contain information.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After clock pulses of the proper frequency have been obtained, it is necessary
to synchronize the multiplexed channels. This is usually done with a special synchronizing
(sync) pulse applied to one of the input channels at the transmitter. In the four-channel
system discussed previously, only three actual signals are transmitted. The fourth channel
is used to transmit a special pulse whose characteristics are unique in some way so that it
can be easily recognized.
10. Which of the following is not an advantage of time division multiplexing?
a) Signal interference is less
b) More flexible
c) Full channel can be used for every signal
d) Fast data transfer
View Answer
Answer: d
1. All EM waves propagate at the speed of light irrespective of medium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The speed of light depends on the medium through which it travels and it the
same for EM waves as light can be thought of an EM wave. The speed of EM waves is
maximum in a vacuum.
2. In a current carrying conductor, what happens to the magnetic field produced if the
supplied voltage is increased and current is maintained constant?
a) Field strength increases
b) Field radius increases
c) Filed strength decreases
d) Does not change
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The magnetic field produced by a current carrying conductor is only influenced
by the current and not the voltage. Since the current is maintained constant, there is no
change in the magnetic field strength or radius.
3. Which of the following is the most necessary for an electric field to exist?
a) Current
b) Potential difference
c) Dielectric material
d) Metal conductor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most important thing for an electric field to exist is a potential difference
between two conductors. It is not that only metal conductors can produce an electric field,
potential difference between fluids also produces electric fields.
4. What happens to the electric field between two conductors when the permeability of the
material between the plates is increased?
a) Field strength increases
b) Field radius decreases
c) Field strength decreases
d) Nothing happens
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The permeability of a material only affects the magnetic field and not the
electric field. Electric field depends upon permittivity of the material between the two
conductors.
5. Which of the following is not true?
a) A conductor carrying alternating current radiates
b) A transmission line must not radiate energy
c) Antennas are transmission lines which are made to radiate energy
d) A parallel wire transmission, when left open, does not radiate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a parallel-wire transmission line is left open, the electric and magnetic fields
escape from the end of the line and radiate into space. This radiation, however, is inefficient
and unsuitable for reliable transmission or reception.
6. The radiation from an open line can be increased by bending to which of the following
angle?
a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 90°
d) 53.76°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The radiation from a transmission line can be greatly improved by bending the
transmission line conductors so that they are at a right angle to the transmission line. The
magnetic fields no longer cancel and, in fact, aid one another. The electric field spreads out
from conductor to conductor. The result is an antenna.
7. What is the ratio of the electric field strength of a radiated wave to the magnetic field
strength called?
a) Impedance of space
b) Dielectric constant
c) Permittivity
d) Permeability
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of the electric field strength of a radiated wave to the magnetic field
strength is a constant. It is called the impedance of space, or the wave impedance.
8. The fields in the Fresnel zone are radio waves that contain the information transmitted.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The near field describes the region directly around the antenna where the
electric and magnetic fields are distinct. These fields are not the radio wave, but they do
indeed contain any information transmitted. The near field is also referred to as the Fresnel
zone.
9. At what distance from the antenna does the far field start?
a) 2 wavelengths
b) 5 wavelengths
c) 10 wavelengths
d) 25 wavelengths
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The far field that is approximately 10 wavelengths from the antenna is the
radio wave with the composite electric and magnetic fields. For example, at 2.4 GHz, one
wavelength is 984/2400 = 0.41 feet. The far field is 10 times that, or 4.1 ft or beyond.
10. The Far field is also known as ______________
a) Fresnel zone
b) Fraunhofer zone
c) Maxwell zone
d) Marconi zone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The far field is also called the Fraunhofer zone. It is named after the Bavarian
physicist Joseph Ritter von Fraunhofer.
11. An Em wave is said to be vertically polarized when the angle between the electrical field
and earth is _______
a) 50°
b) 20°
c) 90°
d) 180°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Polarization refers to the orientation of magnetic and electric fields with respect
to the earth. If an electric field is parallel to the earth, the electromagnetic wave is said to be
horizontally polarized; if the electric field is perpendicular to the earth, the wave is vertically
polarized.
a) Right circular polarized antennas can pick up left circular polarized waves due to
propagation effects
b) Circular polarization has lesser attenuation in free space
c) Circular polarized wave can follow the curvature of earth
d) In circular polarization the electric and magnetic fields rotate as they leave the antenna
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In circular polarized wave the polarization angle of the electric field and the
earth is continuously changing. This does not affect the transmission direction and hence
circular polarized waves cannot bend with the curvature of earth, like any other EM wave.
13. What happens when a vertical or horizontal polarized antenna receives a circular
polarized wave?
a) Gain increases
b) Signal strength increases
c) Signal strength reduces
d) Cannot receive circular polarized waves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A vertical or horizontal antenna can receive circular polarized signals, but the
signal strength is reduced. When circular polarization is used at both transmitter and
receiver, both must use either left- or right-hand polarization if the signal is to be received.
14. Which of the following devices assist in using the same antenna for transmission and
receiving?
a) Monoplexer
b) Multiplexer
c) Duplexer
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
1. A dipole antenna is also called as?
a) Marconi antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Bidirectional antenna
d) Hertz antenna
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One of the most widely used antenna types is the half-wave dipole antenna.
This antenna is also formally known as the Hertz antenna after Heinrich Hertz, who first
demonstrated the existence of electromagnetic waves.
2. The impedance at the center of the antenna is known as?
a) Characteristic impedance
b) Radiation resistance
c) Transmission impedance
d) Recovery resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The transmission line is connected at the center. The dipole has an impedance
of 73 V at its center, which is the radiation resistance. At the resonant frequency, the
antenna appears to be a pure resistance of 73 V.
3. What happens when the radiation resistance of the antenna matches the characteristic
impedance of the transmission line?
a) No transmission occurs
b) No reception occurs
c) SWR is maximum
d) SWR is minimum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the radiation resistance of the antenna matches the characteristic
impedance of the transmission line, the SWR is minimum and maximum power reaches the
antenna. This allows maximum power to be transmitted.
4. The type of dipole antenna that has a higher band width is called as?
a) Conical antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Marconi antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A common way to increase bandwidth in the antenna is to use a version of the
dipole antenna known as the conical antenna. The overall length of the antenna is 0.73λ or
0.73(984)/f = 718.32/f. This is longer than the traditional one-half wavelength of a dipole
antenna, but the physical shape changes the necessary dimensions for resonance.
5. The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole has the shape of a ______
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radiation pattern of any antenna is the shape of the electromagnetic
energy radiated from or received by that antenna. Typically that radiation is concentrated in
a pattern that has a recognizable geometric shape. The radiation pattern of a half-wave
dipole has the shape of a doughnut.
6. What is the beam width for a half wave dipole antenna?
a) 90°
b) 180°
c) 50°
d) 250°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam width is measured between the points on the radiation curve that
are 3 dB down from the maximum amplitude of the curve. The maximum amplitude of the
pattern occurs at 0° and 180°. The 3-dB down points are 70.7 percent of the maximum. The
angle formed with two lines extending from the center of the curve to these 3-dB points is
the beam width. The beam width is 90°. The smaller the beam width angle, the more
directional the antenna.
7. What does the beam width of an antenna tell us?
a) Signal strength
b) Signal power
c) Directivity
d) Degradation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The measure of an antenna’s directivity is beam width, the angle of the
radiation pattern over which a transmitter’s energy is directed or received. Beam width is
measured on an antenna’s radiation pattern.
8. What is the power radiated by the antenna with gain called as?
a) Critical power
b) Transverse power
c) Effective radiated power
d) Transmitted power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The power radiated by an antenna with directivity and therefore gain is called
the effective radiated power (ERP). The ERP is calculated by multiplying the transmitter
power fed to the antenna Pt by the power gain Ap of the antenna.
9. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator?
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An isotropic radiator is a theoretical point source of electromagnetic energy.
The E and H fields radiate out in all directions from the point source, and at any given
distance from the point source, the fields form a sphere.
10. What is the impedance of the folded dipole antenna?
a) 50Ω
b) 100Ω
c) 300Ω
d) 20Ω
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A popular variation of the half-wave dipole is the folded dipole. Like the
standard dipole, it is one-half wavelength long. However, it consists of two parallel
conductors connected at the ends with one side open at the center for connection to the
transmission line. The impedance of this popular antenna is 300 V, making it an excellent
match for the widely available 300-V twin lead.
11. Which of the following antennas produce a vertical radiation pattern?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna
View Answer
Answer: c
1. What is the use of loading coil?
a) Correcting resonance to a desired frequency
b) Increasing the antenna gain
c) Sideband suppression
d) Increasing the range of the antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a vertical antenna is made less than one-quarter wavelength, the
practical effect is a decreased inductance. The antenna no longer resonates at the desired
operating frequency, but at a higher frequency. To compensate for this, a series inductor,
called a loading coil, is connected in series with the antenna coil. The loading coil brings the
antenna back into resonance at the desired frequency.
2. Why is top hat added to antennas?
a) To increase capacitance
b) Increasing the antenna gain
c) Sideband suppression
d) Increasing the range of the antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A top hat is a structure that increases the capacitance to surrounding items,
bringing the antenna back into resonance. Obviously, such an arrangement is too top-heavy
and inconvenient for portable and mobile antennas. However, it is sometimes used in larger
fixed antennas at lower frequencies.
3. In a parasitic array antenna, the conductors that are not connected to the transmission
line is called as?
a) Driven element
b) Parasitic elements
c) Extra elements
d) Array elements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A parasitic array consists of a basic antenna connected to a transmission line
plus one or more additional conductors that are not connected to the transmission line.
These extra conductors are referred to as parasitic elements, and the antenna itself is
referred to as the driven element.
4. In a parasitic array the elements are shorted if they are connected to a conducting beam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The boom does not have to be an insulator. Because there is a voltage null at
the center of a one-half wavelength conductor at the resonant frequency, there is no
potential difference between the elements and so they can all be connected to a conducting
boom with no undesirable effect. In other words, the elements are not “shorted together.”
5. Parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than the half-wave dipole-driven
element is called _______
a) Array element
b) Director element
c) Reflector element
d) Driven element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reflector, a parasitic element that is typically about 5 percent longer than
the half-wave dipole-driven element, is spaced from the driven element by a distance of
0.15λ to 0.25λ. When the signal radiated from the dipole reaches the reflector, it induces a
voltage into the reflector and the reflector produces some radiation of its own creating a
highly focused beam in the direction of the driven element.
6. Why is the boom of the yagi antenna connected to a metal mast and electrical ground?
a) Better signal directivity
b) Increased bandwidth
c) Lightning protection
d) To avoid short circuiting
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The centers of the parasitic elements are neutral electrically; these elements
can be connected directly to the boom. For the best lightning protection, the boom can then
be connected to a metal mast and electrical ground.
7. Which of the following is not one of the types of driven array antenna?
a) Rectilinear antenna
b) Broadside antenna
c) End fire antenna
d) log periodic antenna
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: Each element in a driven array antenna receives RF energy from the
transmission line, and different arrangements of the elements produce different degrees of
directivity and gain. The three basic types of driven arrays are the collinear, the broadside,
and the end-i re. A fourth type is the wide-bandwidth log-periodic antenna.
8. What is the length of the shortest element in the yagi antenna?
a) One quarter the wavelength of the highest frequency
b) One quarter the wavelength of the lowest frequency
c) One half the wavelength of the highest frequency
d) One half the wavelength of the lowest frequency
View Answer
Answer: c
Continue to orbit the earth
b) Fall back
c) Overshoots the altitude and moves at a constant speed
d) Stays where it was released
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If a satellite were launched vertically from the earth and then released, it would
fall back to earth because of gravity. For the satellite to go into orbit around the earth, it
must have some forward motion. For that reason, when the satellite is launched, it is given
both vertical and forward motion.
2. The satellite is accelerating as it orbits the earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Although the speed of the satellite is constant its direction keeps on changing
as the orbit is circular or elliptical. The rate of change of velocity vector is acceleration and
hence its direction changes, the satellite is under acceleration.
3. Why does the orbit take the shape of an ellipse or circle?
a) Position can be easily determined
b) Consume less fuel
c) Most efficient geometry
d) Better coverage on earth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A satellite rotates about the earth in either a circular or an elliptical path.
Circles and ellipses are geometric figures that can be accurately described mathematically.
Because the orbit is either circular or elliptical, it is possible to calculate the position of a
satellite at any given time.
4. The direction of orbit in the same direction of earth rotation is called ______
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction of satellite rotation may be either in the same direction as the
earth’s rotation or against the direction of earth’s rotation. In the former case, the orbit is
said to be posigrade, and in the latter case, retrograde. Most orbits are posigrade.
5. When is the speed of the satellite maximum in an elliptical orbit?
a) Retrograde
b) Posigrade
c) Perigee
d) Apogee
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In an elliptical orbit, the speed changes depending upon the height of the
satellite above the earth. Naturally, the speed of the satellite is greater when it is close to
the earth than when it is far away. The closest point is called the perigee.
6. Satellites closer to the earth travel at lower speeds than satellites that are far away from
earth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Satellites that are near earth have to move at higher speeds to sustain their
orbit since the gravitational pull is much higher. Since the effect of gravity is less at higher
altitudes, satellites that far away require less speeds.
7. The time period taken by the satellite to complete one orbit is called ________
a) Lapsed time
b) Time period
c) Sidereal period
d) Unit frequency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The period is the time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit. It is also
called the sidereal period. A sidereal orbit uses some external fixed or apparently
motionless object such as the sun or star for reference in determining a sidereal period.
8. The period of time that elapses between the successive passes of the satellite over a
given meridian of earth longitude is called as _____________
a) synodic period
b) Lapsed time
c) Time period
d) Sidereal period
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Another method of expressing the time for one orbit is the revolution or synodic
period. One revolution (1 r) is the period of time that elapses between the successive
passes of the satellite over a given meridian of earth longitude. Naturally, the synodic and
sidereal periods differ from each other because of the earth’s rotation.
9. What is the angle of inclination for a satellite following an equatorial orbit?
a) 0°
b) 180°
c) 45°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Another definition of inclination is the angle between the equatorial plane and
the satellite orbital plane as the satellite enters the northern hemisphere. When the angle of
inclination is 0°, the satellite is directly above the equator. Orbits with 0° inclination are
generally called equatorial orbits.
10. The angle between the line from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line
between the earth station’s antenna and the earth’s horizon is called as ___________
a) Angle of inclination
b) Angle of elevation
c) Apogee angle
d) LOS angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle of elevation of a satellite is the angle that appears between the line
from the earth station’s antenna to the satellite and the line between the earth station’s
antenna and the earth’s horizon. If the angle of elevation is too small, the signals between
the earth station and the satellite have to pass through much more of the earth’s
atmosphere. Because of the very low powers used and the high absorption of the earth’s
atmosphere.
11. To use a satellite for communication relay or repeater purposes what type of orbit will be
the best?
a) Circular orbit
b) Elliptical orbit
c) Geosynchronous orbit
d) Triangular orbit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The best solution is to launch a synchronous or geostationary satellite. In a
geosynchronous earth orbit. Since the satellite remains apparently fixed, no special earth
station tracking antennas are required. The antenna is simply pointed at the satellite and
remains in a fixed position. With this arrangement, continuous communication is possible.
12. What percentage of the earth can communication satellites see?
a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 40
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most communication satellites in use today are of the geosynchronous variety.
Approximately 40 percent of the earth’s surface can be “seen” or accessed from such a
satellite. Users inside that area can use the satellite for communication.
13. What is the point on the surface of the earth that is directly below the satellite called?
a) Satellite point
b) Subsatellite point
c) Supersatellite point
d) Overhead point
View Answer
Answer:b
1. The satellite that is used as a relay to extend communication distance is called as
__________
a) Relay satellites
b) Communication satellites
c) Repeater satellites
d) Geosynchronous satellites
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Communication satellites are not originators of information to be transmitted. If
a transmitting station cannot communicate directly with one or more receiving stations
because of line-of-sight restrictions, a satellite can be used. The transmitting station sends
the information to the satellite, which in turn re-transmits it to the receiving stations.
2. The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a _______
a) Relay
b) Repeater
c) Transponder
d) Duplexer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The transmitter-receiver combination in the satellite is known as a transponder.
The basic functions of a transponder are amplification and frequency translation. The
reason for frequency translation is that the transponder cannot transmit and receive on the
same frequency.
3. The downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The original signal being transmitted from the earth station to the satellite is
called the uplink, and the re-transmitted signal from the satellite to the receiving stations is
called the downlink. Usually, the downlink frequency is lower than the uplink frequency. A
typical uplink frequency is 6 GHz, and a common downlink frequency is 4 GHz.
4. What is the reason for carrying multiple transponders in a satellite?
a) More number of operating channel
b) Better reception
c) More gain
d) Redundancy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To be economically feasible, a satellite must be capable of handling several
channels. As a result, most satellites contain multiple transponders, each operating at a
different frequency. Each transponder represents an individual communication channel.
5. Why are VHF, UHF, and microwave signals used in satellite communication?
a) More bandwidth
b) More spectrum space
c) Are not diffracted by the ionosphere
d) Economically viable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: VHF, UHF, and microwave signals penetrate the ionosphere with little or no
attenuation and are not refracted to earth. Lower frequencies undergo total internal
refraction and get reflected back to earth.
6. What is the reason for shifting from c band to ku band in satellite communication?
a) Lesser attenuation
b) Less power requirements
c) More bandwidth
d) Overcrowding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Most new communication satellites will operate in the Ku band. This upward
shift in frequency is happening because the C band is overcrowded. Many communication
satellites are in orbit now, most of them operating in the C band. However, there is some
difficulty with interference because of the heavy usage. The only way this interference will
be minimized is to shift all future satellite communication to higher frequencies.
7. Which of the following bands cannot be used for satellite communication?
a) MF
b) Ku
c) X
d) C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MF is a lower frequency band than Ku, C and X bands and does not lie in the
microwave spectrum. Microwaves are used for satellite communication since the lower
bands get reflected by the ionosphere.
8. What is the maximum theoretical data rate if a transponder is used for binary
transmission and has a bandwidth of 36MHz?
a) 32Mpbs
b) 72Mpbs
c) 36Mpbs
d) 12Mpbs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For binary transmission, the maximum theoretical data rate or channel
capacity C for a given bandwidth B is C = 2B = 2(36) =72Mpbs.
9. Why are techniques like frequency reuse and spatial isolation carried out?
a) Reduce traffic load
b) More gain
c) High speed
d) Error detection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: at times there is more traffic than there are transponders to handle it. For that
reason, numerous techniques have been developed to effectively increase the bandwidth
and signal-carrying capacity of the satellite. Two of these techniques are known as
frequency reuse and spatial isolation.
10. Which technique uses two different antennas to reduce traffic on the same frequency?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the frequency reuse technique two systems use the same frequency,
although operating on exactly the same frequencies, they are isolated from each other by
the use of special antenna techniques. For example, a vertically polarized antenna will not
respond to a horizontally polarized signal and vice versa. Or a left-hand circularly polarized
(LHCP) antenna will not respond to a right-hand circularly polarized (RHCP) signal and vice
versa.
11. Which technique uses spot beam antennas to divide the area covered by the satellite
into smaller segments?
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By using narrow beam or spot beam antennas, the area on the earth covered
by the satellite can be divided up into smaller segments. Earth stations in each segment
may actually use the same frequency, but because of the very narrow beam widths of the
antennas, there is no interference between adjacent segments.
12. Spatial-division multiple access (SDMA) depends on satellite location and not
frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem?
a) Ground station
b) Power system
c) Telemetry tracking
d) Communication subsystem
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The communication subsystem is the most important part of the satellite. It
requires varies additional systems like the power system, propulsion system, telemetry
system for its proper functioning. The ground system however is not one of the satellite
subsystem and is independent of the satellite. It is just a transponder to monitor and
command the satellite.
2. Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite?
a) Gyroscope
b) Jet thruster
c) AKM
d) Fuel control system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The propulsion subsystem consists of the AKM(Apogee kick motor), jet
thruster and the fuel control system. Gyroscopes and other attitude systems fall under the
attitude control subsystem.
3. Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground
station?
a) Navigational data, computer data, video
b) Computer data, navigational data, voice
c) Voice, video, computer data
d) Computer data
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An earth station takes the signals to be transmitted, known as baseband
signals, and modulates a microwave carrier. The three most common baseband signals are
voice, video, and computer data.
4. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and re-
transmits the signal in a satellite?
a) Repeater
b) Relay
c) Transponder
d) Transducer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The uplink signals from earth are amplified, translated in frequency, and re-
transmitted on the downlink to one or more earth stations. The component that performs
this function is known as a transponder.
5. Why is there a huge spectrum space between the transmitted and received signal in
satellite communication?
a) Reduce interference
b) Maximum efficiency
c) Less attenuation
d) To reduce space occupied by filters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Because of the close proximity of the transmitter and the receiver in the
satellite, the high transmitter output power for the downlink is picked up by that satellite
receiver. Naturally, the uplink signal is totally obliterated. Furthermore, the transmitter output
fed back into the receiver input causes oscillation. To avoid this problem, the receiver and
transmitter in the satellite transponder are designed to operate at separate frequencies. In
this way, they will not interfere with each other.
6. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink signal using two
mixers
a) Single conversion transponders
b) Dual conversion transponders
c) Regenerative transponders
d) Dual mixer transponder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency translation in two steps
with two mixers. No demodulation occurs.
7. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again before
transmission.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after the frequency is
translated to some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered baseband signal is then
used to modulate the downlink signal.
8. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency and
frequency reuse is implemented?
a) 12
b) 6
c) 24
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice the numbers of
transponders are also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for each frequency.
9. Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and mixer
circuits?
a) Heavy attenuation
b) High power output over wideband is not possible
c) Economically not profitable
d) Weight of the system increases five fold
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: it is generally not possible to generate very high output power over such wide
bandwidth. The fact is that no components and circuits can do this well. The high-power
amplifiers in most transponders are traveling-wave tubes that inherently have limited
bandwidth. They operate well over a small range but cannot deal with the entire 500-MHz
bandwidth allocated to a satellite.
a) Battery is only used as a back up
b) When in orbit, solar power is always available
c) Battery is used for initial satellite orientation and stabilization
d) The batteries are charged using solar power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a satellite goes into an eclipse or when the solar panels are not properly
positioned, there is a temporary cut in solar power supply. In situations like this the batteries
take over temporarily and keep the satellite operating. The batteries are not large enough to
power the satellite for a long time; they are used as a backup system for eclipses, initial
satellite orientation and stabilization, or emergency conditions.
11. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station to monitor
and control conditions in the satellite.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the primary use of communication satellites?
a) Telephone service
b) Surveillance
c) Research
d) GPS
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary use of communication satellites is in long-distance telephone
service. Satellites greatly simplify long-distance calls not only within countries but also
worldwide.
2. Which of the following is not a reason for redistributing TV signals through satellites
rather than skywaves or spacewaves?
a) High frequency signal
b) Long distance communication
c) Economically feasible
d) Power requirements
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: TV signals are being transmitted through satellites for redistribution. Because
of the very high-frequency signals involved in TV transmission, other long-distance
transmission methods are not technically or economically feasible.
3. What type of satellite TV service uses compressed data transmission to beam signals
directly to every home?
a) Direct broadcast satellite
b) Mobile satellite service
c) Broadcasting satellite service
d) Fixed satellite service
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The direct broadcast satellite (DBS) system is an all-digital system. Data
compression techniques are used to reduce the data rate in order to produce high-quality
picture and sound. They uses special broad coverage satellites with high power to transmit
cable-TV-like services direct to homes equipped with the special DBS receivers.
4. Which frequency band does the direct broadcast satellite system use?
a) C band
b) X band
c) Ku band
d) MF band
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The DBS satellite uses the Ku band with a frequency range of 11 to 14 GHz.
Uplink signals are usually in the 14- to 14.5-GHz range, and the downlink usually covers the
range of 10.95 to 12.75 GHz.
5. What technique does DSP use to double the number of channels by using helical
antennas?
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The digital signal is transmitted from the satellite to the receivers using circular
polarization. The DBS satellites have right-hand and left-hand circularly polarized (RHCP
and LHCP) helical antennas. By transmitting both polarities of signal, frequency reuse can
be incorporated to double the channel capacity.
6. What is the number of satellites present in the Iridium system?
a) 72
b) 51
c) 66
d) 32
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The satellite systems use low-earth-orbit satellites to perform the relay
services to the main telephone system or to make a connection directly between any two
cellular telephones using the system. One of the oldest and most widely used is the Iridium
system. It uses a constellation of 66 satellites in six polar orbits with 11 satellites per orbit
420 mi above the earth.
7. Which frequency band is used for connecting the satellite system with the public switched
telephone network?
a) L band
b) Ku band
c) C band
d) Ka band
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The satellites communicate with ground stations called gateways that connect
the system to the public switched telephone network. The satellites also communicate
among themselves. Both gateway and intersatellite communication takes place over Ka
band frequencies.
8. What provides the sufficient drive to the final power amplifier?
a) Intermediate-power amplifier
b) Operational amplifier
c) Power driver circuit
d) Up converter
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the number of components of the vector that describes the translational motion of
the vehicle?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The three components of position and the three components of velocity make
up a six component state vector that fully describes the translational motion of the vehicle.
2. What is the process called when the state vector is calculated on board the vehicle?
a) Navigation
b) Guidance
c) Surveillance
d) Position location
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the state vector is measured and calculated on board, the process is
called navigation. When it is calculated outside the vehicle, the process is called
surveillance or position location.
3. Which type of navigation measure the state vector without regard to the path travelled by
the vehicle in the past?
a) Dead reckoning
b) Positioning
c) Direct reckoning
d) AHRS
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Navigation systems can be categorized as positioning or dead reckoning.
Positioning systems measure the state vector without regard to the path travelled by the
vehicle in the past.
4. Which one of the following does not fall under the positioning system?
a) Radio systems
b) Celestial systems
c) AHRS
d) Mapping navigation systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of positioning systems radio systems, celestial systems
and mapping navigation systems. AHRS or Attitude Heading Reference System use
accelerometer and gyroscope and hence fall under the dead reckoning navigation system.
5. Dead reckoning systems must be re-initialized as errors accumulate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dead reckoning systems use gyroscope and accelerometer whose readings
suffer from drift error as time progresses. Thus it is necessary to reinitialize after a particular
time interval as errors accumulate and if the electrical power is lost.
6. Which of the following navigational systems is most stealthy?
a) Secondary surveillance radar
b) VOR
c) Celestial navigation
d) SONAR
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In celestial navigation, the position is computed by measuring the elevation
and azimuth of celestial bodies relative to the navigational coordinate frame at precisely
known times. Since it is a completely passive system, it is considered to be stealthy and is
used in special purpose high altitude aircraft in conjunction with an inertial navigator.
7. How is the velocity of an aircraft measured by passive radio systems?
a) Doppler shift
b) Velocity data is transmitted by the aircraft and received by the station
c) Secondary surveillance method
d) Satellite mapping
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The aircraft’s velocity is measured from the Doppler shift of the transmission or
from a sequence of position measurements. Since the aircraft is continuously moving, each
interrogation pulse when it is received will have different phase shift which corresponds to
the aircraft’s velocity.
8. Any type of dead reckoning system is independent of radio waves.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
The navigation equations are used by the on-board computer to calculate position velocity
and altitude.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The navigation equations how the sensor outputs are processed in the on-
board computer in order ti calculate the position, velocity and attitude of the aircraft. The
navigation equations contain instructions and data and are part of the airborne software that
also includes moding, display drivers, failure detection and an operating system.
2. Which one of the following is not an input utilized by the aircraft navigation system?
a) Sonar
b) Radio aids
c) Dead reckoning data
d) Celestial measurements
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The navigation system utilizes three types of sensor information: position data
from radio aids, radar and satellites; Dead reckoning data from inertial sensors; Line of sight
direction to stars or celestial measurements.
3. What is the angle between the normal to the reference ellipsoid and the equatorial plane
at a point called?
a) Geodetic angle
b) Correction factor
c) Geodetic latitude
d) Earth angle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Geodetic latitude of a point is the angle between the normal to the reference
ellipsoid and the equatorial plane. Geodetic latitude is our usual understanding of map
latitude.
4. Which of the following is false with respect to Earth centered inertial coordinate system?
a) Accuracy is 10-5/hr
b) Newton’s laws are not valid
c) Angular coordinates of stars are conventionally tabulated in ECI
d) Used in mechanizing inertial navigators
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Earth centered coordinate system has three navigational functions. First,
Newton’s laws are valid in any ECI coordinate frame, Second, the angular coordinates of
stars are conventionally tabulated in ECI. Third, they are used in mechanizing inertial
navigators.
5. Which coordinate system is used in satellite based radio navigation?
a) Earth centered, Earth fixed
b) Earth centered inertial
c) Geodetic spherical coordinates
d) Geodetic wander azimuth
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Satellite based radio navigation system uses ECEF coordinated to calculate
satellite and aircraft position. The origin is at the mass center of the earth and its axis lies
along the earth’s spin axis.
6. Geocentric spherical coordinates are used for short range dead reckoning navigation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Geocentric coordinates are sometimes mechanized in short range dead
reckoning systems using spherical earth approximation. These are the spherical
coordinates of the radius vector R.
7. What is the technique of calculating position from measurements of velocity called?
a) Dead reckoning
b) Doppler radar
c) Secondary surveillance
d) Celestial navigation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dead reckoning is the technique of calculating position from the
measurements of velocity. It is the means of navigation in the absence of position fixes and
consists in calculating the position by extrapolating measured ground speed.
8. The angle of arrival, relative to the airframe, of a radio signal from an external transmitter
is called _________
a) Bearing
b) Heading
c) Phase
d) Approach angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of arrival, relative to the airframe, of a radio signal from an external
transmitter is called bearing. Bearing is measured by the difference in phase or time of
arrival at multiple antennas on the airframe.
9. ________ related ranging errors to the dispersion in measured position?
a) GEOP
b) GDCP
c) GDOP
d) APEG
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: GDOP or Geometric Dilution of Precision relates ranging errors to the
dispersion in measured position. If three range measurements are made in the orthogonal
direction, the standard deviation in the aircraft’s position error is the same as those of the
three range sensors.
10. What is TDOP?
a) Time Dilution of pseudorange
b) Time Dilution of position
c) Time Dilution of pressure
d) Time Distortion of position
View Answer
Answer: b
. How does troposphere affect the satellite signals?
a) Reduces velocity
b) Reflects the signals
c) Refracts the signal
d) Bit inversion occurs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major sources of errors are when the signal pass through the atmosphere.
The troposphere causes the propagation velocity of the signal to be slowed, compressing
the signal wavelength.
2. Which of the following makes the existence of ionosphere possible?
a) Rotation of the Earth
b) Ultraviolet radiation from sun
c) Solar flares
d) Radiation from distant stars
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ionosphere owes its existence to the ultraviolet radiation from the sun. The
photons possess a certain amount of energy which is enough to break down electrons from
their parent atom. The result is a large number of free, negatively charged, electrons and
positively charged atoms and molecules called ions.
3. Satellite signals are refracted by the ionosphere.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Below 30MHz frequency the ionosphere almost acts like a mirror reflecting the
signal back to Earth. At higher frequencies, such as those used in satellite communication,
radio waves pass through the atmosphere.
4. What happens to the satellite signals as the density of the ionosphere is high?
a) Velocity increases
b) Velocity decreases
c) Signal strength increases
d) Frequency reduces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity of the carrier, the pure sinusoidal wave, is increased in the
presence of electrons. Thus the greater the density of electrons in the ionosphere greater
the velocity of the signal.
5. What is the increase in velocity of the signal by the ionosphere termed as?
a) Differential velocity
b) Velocity advance
c) Phase advance
d) Signal advance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The result of satellite signal travelling through ionosphere is that a particular
phase of the signal arrives at the receiver earlier than it would have had if the signal
travelled in a complete vacuum. This early arrival is termed as phase advance.
6. TEC in the ionosphere is a function of solar radiation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TEC or the total electron content in the ionosphere is a function of solar
radiation. As more radiation falls on Earth, more number of molecules are ionized and
hence TEC is more in the daytime than at the night.
7. Which of the following is true with respect to ionospheric scintillation effects?
a) It causes signal fading
b) Occurs at the equatorial and polar regions
c) Occurs mostly at day
d) Occurs when high solar activity is present
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ionospheric scintillation causes signal fading and effects in the equatorial and
the Polar Regions. Strong scintillation effects are rare localized at certain times during the
night, and usually occurs during periods of high solar activity.
8. The refractivity of the troposphere is not a function of ________
a) Frequency
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Partial pressure of water vapour
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What does the accelerometer measure?
a) Mass
b) Acceleration
c) Velocity
d) Distance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The accelerometer is a type of inertial instrument that measures the
acceleration in any given axes. The measured acceleration can be integrated over time to
obtain velocity and distance.
2. What is the output given by an accelerometer if the instrument is accelerated upward with
an acceleration of 7g?
a) 5g
b) 8g
c) 6g
d) 6.5g
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Accelerometer is used to measure acceleration of the vehicle and thus must
be corrected for the Earth’s gravitational effect. If the accelerometer is being accelerated
upward with an acceleration of 7g, then (a-G) = 7g – (-1g), and the instrument reads 8g.
3. Which accelerometer uses torquer coil and pick off supported by a flexure to measure
acceleration?
a) MEMS accelerometer
b) Flexure pivot accelerometer
c) Vibrating beam accelerometer
d) Mechanical accelerometer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flexure pivot accelerometer is the most commonly used in aircraft
systems. The sensitive element consists of a pendulum with a torquer coil and a pick off
supported by torsional spring or flexure.
4. In flexure pivot accelerometer, the torque current is a measure of acceleration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The torquer coil in the accelerometer restore the pendulum to null, the torquer
current being a measure of the restoring torque and, hence, of the acceleration.
5. Why do accelerometers that include fluid damping exhibit reduced damping?
a) State of fluid
b) Density
c) Pressure
d) Thermal characters
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Accelerometers that include fluid damping exhibit reduced bandwidth and
additional thermal sensitivity due to changes in fluid characteristics. Thus flexure pivoted
accelerometers are better than floated instruments.
6. An accelerometer can only measure acceleration in one direction?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An accelerometer can only measure acceleration in one axes. In navigational
systems comprising of accelerometers, three separate accelerometers are places with each
on the three body axes of the aircraft.
7. Which of the following is true with respect to flexure pivot accelerometers?
a) Flexure must provide maximum resistance in the direction of input axis
b) Flexure must provide maximum resistance in the direction other than input axis
c) Torquer coil current measures the acceleration
d) Unbalanced accelerometer type
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pivot or flexure supporting the pendulum must provide minimal restraint for
the pendulum in the direction of the input axis while exhibiting high stiffness in the other two
directions. The spring constant of the flexure or pivot generates a restoring force that
reduces the gain of the electronic restoring loop.
8. Which of the following conditions cause rectification of vibration inputs?
a) Heating
b) Low voltage
c) High voltage
d) Low current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Heating of torquer coil due to rebalance current can lead to rectification of
vibration inputs and must often be compensated. A pulse rebalance torquer maintains
constant heating.
9. What does silicon accelerometers use for proof mass sensing and for rebalancing?
a) Pivot
b) Flexure
c) Metalised wafers
d) Single crystal silicon frame
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The frame, proof mass and hinges are made with single crystal silicon.
Metalised wafers are used to enclose this and also serve as electrodes for sensing proof
mass and rebalancing.
10. Which type of rebalancing technique use voltage applied to pendulum and electrode for
correction?
a) Charge forcing
b) Voltage forcing
c) Current forcing
d) Potential forcing
View Answer
Answer: b
1. What is the purpose of a gyro in an inertial navigation system?
a) Space-stabilize the accelerometer
b) Angle of rotation
c) Measure rotation rate
d) Calculate velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of gyroscope or gyro in an inertial navigation system is to space
stabilize the accelerometers. In gimballed platforms, the gyros measure the rotation of the
platform, which is angularly isolated from the vehicle’s motion.
2. What is the range of an order of angular rate magnitude that gyros used in military planes
need?
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 7.1
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A gyroscope on a military aircraft must sense angular rates as low as 0.005
deg/hr and as high as 400deg/sec, a range of 8.5 orders of magnitude. Strapdown gyros in
civil aircraft need only sense an 8 order of magnitude range of angular rates.
3. Why are unfloated instruments with ball bearings not suitable for air navigation?
a) Weight restrictions
b) High drift rate
c) Low drift rate
d) Power restrictions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gyroscopes are used as heading references. The spinning wheel, large angle,
unfloated instruments with ball bearings that have drift rates on the order of 50deg/hr . and
hence are useless for navigation.
4. Which of the following is false with respect to SDF floated gyros?
a) Wheel is floated at neutral buoyancy
b) Used in launch vehicles
c) Three gimbals are used
d) Magnetic pickoff used to sense rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In SDF floated gyros or single degree of freedom floated gyros, a spinning
wheels were mounted inside a single gimbal that was floated at neutral buoyancy. A
magnetic pickoff was used to sense rotation and they were primarily used in space launch
vehicles.
5. Which of the following spinning wheel gyro has an accuracy of 0.001 deg/hr?
a) Floated TDF gyro
b) Electrostatically suspended TDF gyro
c) Floated SDF gyro
d) Unfloated ball bearing gyro
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In electrostatically suspended TDF gyro, the spinning wheel is suspended
electrostatically hence reducing friction and achieving 0.001 deg/hr accuracy but at costs
orders of magnitude higher than the floated TDF gyros.
6. The input, output and spin axes of a gyro are always perpendicular to each other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The input, output and spin axes of a gyro are always perpendicular to each
other regardless of the motion of the gyro or the platform in which it is fixed. If a gyro is used
for heading reference, then the gyro’s spin axes are mounted perpendicular horizontally to
the platform.
7. Which of the following is false with respect to spinning rotor gyros?
a) Mechanically complex
b) High probability of failure
c) Low run up time
d) High power consumption
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The major disadvantage of spinning wheel or spinning rotor gyros is that they
are mechanically complex and have a high probability of failure due to the moving
components. They also require high powers and have high run up time. Run up time is the
time taken for the gyro to start spinning at the required RPM after engine start.
8. What is the basic principle under which MEMS gyro work?
a) Sagnag effect
b) Coriolis effect
c) Angular momentum conservation
d) Mass conservation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MEMS Micro Electro Mechanical System gyro exploit the effects of Coriolis
force. Coriolis force is experienced when a vibrating mass is subjected to a rate of rotation
about an axis in the plane of vibration.
9. Which part of the insects acts as gyros?
a) Wings
b) Halteres
c) Thorax
d) Legs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Every flying object needs to maintain its orientation and insects that fly use
halteres. Halteres work in the same principle as MEMS gyro, the vibrate and use Coriolis
force to know their orientation.
10. Which of the following is false with respect to MEMS gyro?
a) Low failure rate
b) Low cost
c) High maintenance
d) Less power consumption
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Micro machined vibrating mass rate gyros exploit semiconductor
manufacturing technology for mass production. They are extremely reliable and rugged
devices with low power consumption and offer the major advantage of relatively low cost.
They also do not require the very high maintenance that spinning rotor gyros require.
11. Gyros are used as feedback sensors in FBW.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. Which of the following systems do not use MEMS gyro?
a) Space launch vehicles
b) Flight control systems
c) Missile guidance
d) Car stability systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MEMS gyros are being exploited not only in avionic applications such as flight
control, standby attitude and heading reference systems, and missile mid-course guidance
but also in the automobile industry in car stability enhancement systems. Space launch
vehicles use ring laser gyros which are more accurate.
2. Why is a tuning fork gyro better than the vibrating cylinder type gyro?
a) Reduce base motion
b) Low power consumption
c) Easy to manufacture
d) Low run up time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The vibrating mass rate gyro is a simple instrument suffers from the
unacceptable characteristic that the smallest linear motions applied to its base cause
unacceptably large errors. To overcome the effect of base motion, it is necessary to use
balanced oscillations in which the oscillations of one mass are counter-balanced by equal
and opposite motion of a second equal mass as in the case of tuning fork gyro.
3. Which type of gyros works by calculating the difference in time taken by light to travel in a
closed circle?
a) Ring laser gyro
b) MEMS gyro
c) Floated gyro
d) Dry tuned gyro
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical gyroscopes such as the ring laser gyro and the fibre optic gyro
measure angular rate of rotation by sensing the resulting difference in the transit times for
laser light waves travelling around a closed path in opposite directions.
4. What is the basic principle by which laser gyros work?
a) Coriolis effect
b) Conservation of momentum
c) Sagnac effect
d) Mass conservation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Sagnac effect is a relativistic phenomena of light in a rotating reference
system. When laser beams circulate in a closed path that is rotating in an inertial space, the
optical length seen by the co-rotating beam appears longer than that seen by counter
rotating beam.
5. Which of the following type of gyro works by counting the nodes of standing waves of
laser beams?
a) Ring laser gyro
b) Optical fiber gyro
c) Dry tuned gyro
d) Floated gyro
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Ring laser gyro, the counterpropagating beams form resonant nodes
within the gyro cavity and create an electromagnetic standing wave that remains fixed with
inertial space. When the housing of the gyro rotates, a detector can count nodes of the
standing waves, each of which represents an angle.
6. A fiber optic gyro measures rotation using the _______ of the two beams?
a) Intensity difference
b) Resonance
c) Interference intensity
d) Wavelength difference
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a fiber optic gyro, The counterpropagating beams are launched into an
optical path and are recombined as they exit. The interference generated by the
recombination depends on the optical phase difference between the two beams and
therefore provides a measure of rotation.
7. In two mode RLGs, only linearly polarized modes can be resonant in the cavity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two mode RLGs are planar by design so that only linearly polarized modes
can be resonant in the cavity. Suppression of one of the two modes of polarization ensures
stable operation.
8. The emission of photons by the gas medium that fills the RLG cavity is called as?
a) Laser discharge
b) Spontaneous discharge
c) Spontaneous emission
d) Laser emission
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The gas medium that supplies the gain for the laser also occasionally emits
photons which are unrelated to the laser signal. This is known as spontaneous emissions
are leads to noise and random walk in the RLG angle output.
9. What is the cause of lock-in phenomena in RLG?
a) Backscatter
b) Low intensity
c) High intensity
d) Low standing wave ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lock-in phenomenon leads makes the RLG insensitive to low angular rates.
The cause of the lock-in phenomenon is backscatter within the cavity, usually resulting from
imperfections in or particulates in the mirror surfaces.
10. Which method uses a turntable in RLG to reduce lock-in errors?
a) Intensity control
b) Rate biasing
c) Using mechanical dither
d) Random rate fixing
View Answer
Answer: b
1. In which type of inertial navigation system are the gyro and accelerometer rigidly
mounted to the body?
a) Gimballed system
b) Fixed system
c) Strapdown system
d) Void system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a strapdown navigator, Gyroscopes and accelerometers are rigidly mounted
to a sensor assembly that is usually mounted to the vehicle on a set of strap mounts. The
gyroscopes track the rotation of the body and compute the orientation of the body.
2. What the gyro act as in a strapdown system?
a) Angular rate sensors
b) Null sensors
c) Angle indicators
d) Orientation indicators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a strapdown system, the gyros do not act as null sensors as in a gimballed
system but act as inertial angular rate sensors. Angle and orientation are computed from
the measured angular rates by the algorithms that calculate heading and orientation.
3. Which one of the following is not a purpose of strapdown calculations?
a) Calculate vehicle’s attitude
b) Transform accelerometer measurements into navigational coordinates
c) Perform dead-reckoning computations
d) Provide inputs to air data computer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The purpose of strapdown computations are to calculate the vehicle’s attitude
relative to the navigational coordinates using the gyro measurements, to transform the
accelerometer measurements from vehicle axes into navigational coordinates, and to
perform the dead-reckoning computations. Air data computer is independent of inertial
navigation system.
4. Which of the following is a four element entity consisting of a scalar and a vector and is
used to describe strapdown system rotation?
a) Directional cosines
b) Directional sines
c) Quaternion
d) Triternion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Describing rotation motion in the strapdown system employ more than the
minimum three parameters. A quaternion is a four element entity ting of a scalar part and a
vector part. It defines the instantaneous axis of rotation.
5. What does the quaternion integration algorithm use to control error?
a) Linearization constraint
b) Normalization constraint
c) Differential constraint
d) Integral constraints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Quaternion integration algorithms usually make use of the normalization
constraint to control error growth in the computations. The sum of the squares of the
quaternion elements are subtracted from unity to yield the normalization error.
6. What type of error occurs if the axis of rotation is moving in space?
a) Linearization errors
b) Control error
c) Coning error
d) Differential error
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coning refers to a motion in which the axis of rotation is itself moving in space.
In this type of motion, the axes of the body trace a cone in space.
7. Pre-processing algorithms are also called as _________
a) Coning algorithm
b) Error control algorithm
c) Differential algorithm
d) Resolution algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pre-processing the gyro data at a higher rate than the quaternion iteration
improves the approximation in the vector change in angle in order to follow the actual
motion of the rotation axis closely. The pre-processing algorithm is also called as coning
algorithms.
8. Why is the gyro and accelerometers shock mounted to the body?
a) Impact protection
b) Reduce drift error
c) Prevent voltage surges
d) Limit vibration errors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The gyros and accelerometers are rigidly mounted on a block with temperature
sensors. The block is usually shock mounted to the vehicle to control the bandwidth of the
motion sensed at the instruments. Shock mounting limits vibration rectification errors within
the errors themselves.
9. Sculling errors occur when rotation and acceleration are combined.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the presence of rotation and acceleration know as sculling, this
approximation leads to errors referred to as sculling errors. It can be avoided by executing
the velocity transformation at least four times faster than the anticipated frequency of
vibration.
10. Which of the following is false with respect to gimballed platform?
a) Orients the accelerometers into a coordinate frame relative to Earth
b) Euler angles are not easily readable from the gimbals
c) Protect the instruments from large angular motion
d) Protection from vibration, temperature and magnetic effects.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the main purposes of gimballed system is to provide a convenient
readout of vehicle attitude by reading each of the gimbals angles separately, thereby
yielding convenient Euler angle outputs.
11. When does a gimbal lock occur on a three axis platform?
a) Inner gimbal approaches 90°
b) Inner gimbal approaches 0°
c) Outer gimbal approaches 90°
d) Middle gimbal approaches 90°
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The condition in which the middle gimbal angle approaches 90° is called
gimbal lock. In this condition, the innermost and outermost axis coincide, thus depriving the
platform one of its degrees of freedom.
12. Which of the following factors affect the ability of a stable element to remain non-rotating
relative to space?
a) Drift rate of the reference gyro
b) Accuracy of gyro torquer
c) Linear motion of the vehicle
d) Orthogonality of the components on the platform
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ability of stable element to remain non-rotating relative to a space or Earth
coordinate frame depends on drift rate of the reference gyros, accuracy of gyro torquers,
linear motion of the vehicle, orthogonality of the components on the platform.
13. In any order of gimbal, the innermost gimbal has unlimited freedom.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the temperature of the air surrounding the aircraft called as?
a) Stagnation temperature
b) Static temperature
c) Total temperature
d) Overall temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The outside air temperature is also called the static air temperature and is
necessary for computing various parameters such as true airspeed, air density and for fire
control aiming solutions.
2. What is the temperature measured by a probe on the exterior of a moving aircraft?
a) Static temperature
b) Stagnation temperature
c) Free stream temperature
d) Constant temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature measured by the temperature probe on the exterior of a
moving aircraft is called the stagnation temperature. It is always higher than the static
temperature due to the heating effects of compressing air at higher speeds.
3. Why is a hole required at the rear end of the temperature probe?
a) Dual measurements
b) Redundancy
c) Reduce time lag
d) Convective cooling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To avoid time lags in the temperature measurements, a leakage hole at the
rear end of the probe allows for rapid exchange. For redundancy, multiple temperature
probes are placed in different parts of the aircraft.
4. Which is the optimum place for a temperature probe?
a) Landing gear
b) Inside cockpit
c) Exit of engine
d) Tip of vertical tail
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Probes may be mounted on the wing tips, vertical tail, forward fuselage or
other areas where the local mach number is the same as the free stream mach number for
all expected flight altitudes and speeds.
5. The recovery factor for computing the static temperature does not account for _____
a) Friction heating
b) Re-radiation
c) Nonisentropic compression
d) Isentropic compression
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The recovery factor of the probe corrects the original measured temperature
readings for frictional heating in the skin, re-radiation from the aircraft to the flow, and
nonisentropic compression of air. It is given by η and is measured empirically.
6. The temperature is probe is actually an electric coil whose resistance varies with
temperature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The temperature probe mounted on the outside of the aircraft is usually a small
coil of wire whose resistance varies with temperature. Electric heaters used for deicing must
be isolated from thermometer element.
7. What error will a 10°C error in temperature shown in true airspeed?
a) 10 Knots
b) 20 Knots
c) 0.2 Knots
d) Greater than 1 Knot
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A 10°C error in the temperature will result in a true airspeed greater than 1
knot at a typical transport aircraft flight conditions.
8. The angle between the relative wind and the longitudinal datum line on the fuselage is
called as?
a) Flight path angle
b) Glide angle
c) Relative angle
d) Angle of attack
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Angle of attack is the angle, in the normally vertical plane of symmetry of the
aircraft, at which the relative wind meets an arbitrary longitudinal datum line on the
fuselage. Angle of attack, is important as it corresponds to the amount of lift produced and
the dangerous condition of stall.
9. Which flight critical system is the angle of attack indicator a part of?
a) Stall warning system
b) Airspeed indicator system
c) Landing system
d) Rate of climb indicator system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When angle of attack sensors are installed on an aircraft they are usually apart
of an independent stall warning or stall control system. Since such systems are flight critical,
redundant sensors are usually installed.
10. Sideslip sensors are only used in experimental aircraft and not in general aviation or
commercial aircraft.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. ______ is used for setting stabilizer position and high speed performance boundaries?
a) Mach number
b) True airspeed
c) Calibrated airspeed
d) Altitude
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mach number is used for programming stabilizer position for speed stability,
defining high speed performance boundaries such as flutter onset, and for defining optimal
cruise paths.
2. Which of the following does not come under air data computer?
a) Pressure ports
b) Pressure transducers
c) Computer
d) Output drivers for interfacing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A typical central air data computer is a box containing: the pressure
transducers, associated excitation circuitry, and signal conditioning circuitry, the computer,
and the output drivers that are compatible with interfacing subsystems.
3. An air data computer can be used in multiple aircraft.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The CADC includes program pin status which is designated connector pins
that allow a standard CADC to serve in more than one aircraft. Thus, pin i could recognize
that the installation is in the aircraft I, thereby activating its own pitot correction algorithm.
4. Which one of the following is not a part of the processor subassembly?
a) CPU
b) Volatile RAM
c) Non volatile RAM
d) Non erasable ROM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The air data equations are solved in the processor assembly, which contains
the CPU, memory for the operational flight program which can be electrically erased or
EEPROM, data storage memory( usually a volatile RAM), and non volatile RAM.
5. Which of the following includes A/D conversions and packing of discrete signals into
logical words?
a) Input processing
b) Output processing
c) Signal processing
d) Mainframe processor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Input processing usually involves A/D conversion and packing of discrete
signals into logic words, plus implementation of special serial data interfaces.
6. Which system has replaced the CADC by using smaller and cheaper microprocessors?
a) Navigational system
b) Distributed air data system
c) FADEC
d) Inertial system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With the advent of smaller and cheaper microprocessors, it became possible
to pack them with probes and transducers. The result is a distributed air data system that
replaces the CADC. A key feature is the packing of signal processing units with or adjacent
to the probes.
7. A distributed air data system uses a centralized flight control computer for calculations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A distributed air data system provides corrected pressure, temperature, and
angle of attack data to a centralized flight control computer that computes altitude, mach,
calibrated and true airspeed.
8. Which of the following is not an advantage of distributed air data system?
a) Elimination of pneumatic plumbing
b) Reliability
c) Easy maintenance
d) Better accuracy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Accuracy is independent of the architecture used. The accuracy of a CADC is
same as that of a distributed air data system but might suffer from lags occurring from long
lengths of tubing.
9. Distributed air data system reduces the overall weight of the aircraft.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CADC uses long tubing from the probes to the CADC for the transfer of
pressure data whereas distributed air data system transmits the data via electric wires.
Electric wiring weighs less than tubing and the electrical transmission of pressure
information eliminate lags.
10. Which one of the following is not an advantage of centralized architecture?
a) Simple design
b) Software is easily coded
c) Computer is readily accessible
d) Software is flexible
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Why is the radio altimeter placed in the tail of aircraft?
a) Can be placed anywhere
b) When landing tail is closer to the ground
c) When landing nose is closer to the ground
d) Weight balance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When an aircraft lands it has to do the flare maneuver where the pilot pitches
the aircraft’s nose up to slow down the plane. Radio altimeter measures precise distance
from the ground and since the tail is closer to the ground than the nose, to measure the
minimum distance it is placed in the tail.
2. What is the maximum altitude that can be measured using a radio altimeter?
a) 100ft
b) 500ft
c) 50 ft
d) 5000ft
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radio altimeters are generally used for measuring altitude during landing or
take off. A radio altimeter gives the distance between the aircraft and the ground and not
the pressure altitude. Maximum range of a radio altimeter is 5000ft but is usually switched
to at 2500ft.
3. Altimeters that are specifically designed to provide mark signals at specific altitudes for
automatic operations are called as _________
a) Radar altimeter
b) Pressure altimeter
c) Altitude marking radar
d) Mark altimeter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Altitude marking radar are generally low altitude altimeter designed specifically
to provide mark signals at specific altitudes for initiation of an automatic operation such as
fuze triggering on submunitions or chute opening on lunar landing systems.
4. What is the function leading edge range tracker servo loop?
a) Provide range to the nearest return
b) Speed measurements
c) Vertical speed measurement
d) Automatic ground navigation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To provide a range to the nearest return within the bounds of the antenna
beam, many modern radar altimeters incorporate the gate in a pulse modulated radar or a
filter in a frequency modulated radar over the leading edge of the return.
5. What is the frequency designated to radar altimeters?
a) 4.2 to 4.4 GHz
b) 2.4 to 4.2 GHz
c) 500 to 1 GHz
d) 13 to 14 GHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The frequency band of 4.2 to 4.4 GHz is assigned to radar altimeters. This
frequency band is high enough to result in a reasonable small sized antenna to produce 40°
to 50° beam but significantly low so that attenuation by rain is minimum.
6. Which of the following is true with respect with solid state transmitters in pulsed radar
altimeters?
a) Input power is around 100W
b) Use receiver pre-amplifiers
c) High reliability
d) Small size
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The early pulsed radars were evolved to 5W solid state transmitters
incorporating receiver pre-amplifiers. They also provided a high degree of reliability, low
probability of intercept, small size, and high accuracy.
7. Which of the following is responsible for the reduced use of transmitter power in radar
altimeter?
a) Low range
b) Interference with other bands
c) Receiver low noise amplifier
d) Radome
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The transmitter power depends on the sensitivity of the receiver. The receiver
low noise amplifier typically has a 2 to 3 dB noise figure, resulting in a sensitivity level that
allows relatively low transmitter power.
8. What type of waveform must be transmitted to reduce Doppler shit errors?
a) Square
b) Triangular
c) Sine
d) Cosine
View Answer
Answer: b
1. Auto land system is a must for _________ and above?
a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Category IV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Air carrier aircraft that are authorized for precision approach below Category II
must have an automatic landing system. Auto land systems use information from various
landing systems like ILS Tacan and at some cases even GPS to safely land the aircraft.
2. The reduction of glide slope gain is called as________
a) Auto throttle
b) Auto gain
c) Auto attenuation
d) Gain scheduling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During the final approach the glide slope gain in the auto land system is
reduced in a programmed fashion and is called gain scheduling. Supplementary sensors
must supply the vertical guidance below 100ft.
3. What is the nominal accuracy of radar altimeters below 100ft?
a) 5 ft
b) 10 ft
c) 20 ft
d) 1.5 ft
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Low range radar altimeters have a nominal accuracy of 1.5 ft below 100ft
altitude and 2% of full scale at higher altitude. They have a low noise output that allows the
derivation of vertical rate information.
4. Accurate calculation of aircraft height using the glide path deviations and distance
information is not practical.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ILS cannot develop similar information as radar altimeter since the glide
slope receiver provides from the zero DDM glide path which is not at a constant height
across the width of the localizer course. Therefore, accurate calculation of aircraft height
using the glide path deviations and distance information is not practical.
5. What is the wheel height where flare command is initiated?
a) 75ft
b) 100ft
c) 25ft
d) 5ft
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flare command is initiated at a wheel height of about 75ft, well before the
runway threshold. However, the radar altimeter may not be used prior to threshold due to
uneven terrain or tidal variations.
6. __________ is the exponential path tangent to a horizontal plane several feet below the
runway?
a) Flare
b) Ground roll
c) Taxi
d) Tide
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flare is an exponential path tangent to a horizontal plane several feet
below the runway, which ensures a positive touchdown.
7. What is done to reduce the error in localizer as the runway is approached?
a) Gain scheduling
b) Reduce speed
c) Increase angle of attack
d) Flare
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The localizer gain must be scheduled to decrease as the runway is
approached because the surfaces of constant DDM coverage to make the error signal more
sensitive to distant displacement.
8. British Trident and U.S. L-1011 aircraft was certified for category III A operations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
. Which of the following systems use a collection of radio transmitting stations to guide an
aircraft to a particular runway?
a) ILS
b) GPS
c) VOR
d) RADAR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The instrument landing system or ILS is a collection of radio transmitting
stations used to guide aircraft to a specific airport runway, especially during times of limited
visibility.
2. How many ILS systems does an airport require?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Depends upon aircraft size
d) Depends upon density of traffic on the airspace
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: High density airports where a lots of planes land and take off typically have
more than one runways with multiple ILS systems. Chicago’s O’Hare airport had an ILS
installed on 12 runways in 1996.
3. _______ standardized the signal in space for the ILS ground transmitting equipment?
a) ISRO
b) FAA
c) ICAO standards and recommended practices
d) NASA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices for the ILS, subscribed by
the180 member states, standardize the signal in space for the ILS ground transmitting
equipment, no matter where they are manufactured to maintain international standards.
4. Where is the localizer antenna placed?
a) Beyond the stop end of the runway
b) Start of the runway
c) Along the runway
d) Air traffic control
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The localizer antenna is centered on the runway beyond the stop end to
provide lateral guidance. The glide slope is located beside the runway near the threshold to
provide vertical guidance.
5. Which of the following is used to detect the failure in an ILS?
a) Fail safe ILS
b) Radiation monitors
c) ILS detector
d) ILS failure system is not used anywhere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Radiation monitors are used to detect ILS failure. They are placed at a
particular distance away from the runway to check for errors in ILS transmission or drift in
the frequency of radiation.
6. What is the type of polarization is used in ILS systems?
a) Horizontal polarization
b) Vertical polarization
c) Circular polarization
d) No polarization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Every transmitter in the ILS including the glide slope transmitter, localizer and
the marker beacons radiate continuous wave, horizontally polarized, radio frequency energy
which can be received by the on-board receiver.
7. What is the frequency at which the marker beacons operate?
a) 65 MHZ
b) 50 MHZ
c) 150 MHZ
d) 75 MHz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the marker beacons, all around the world, operate on a single frequency of
75MHz.
8. Localizer, Glide slope and DME frequencies are paired to each other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the type of receiver used for marker beacon?
a) Heterodyne
b) Super Heterodyne
c) Capacitative pick off
d) Crystal controlled
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The marker beacon receiver is a dedicated crystal controlled receiver fixed
tuned to 75 MHz. This is because all marker beacons use the same frequency.
2. Which of the following cause multi path signals?
a) Low transmission power
b) Ground reflection
c) Low frequency transmission
d) High frequency transmission
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: Mulit path Signals are created when a part of the original signal take a different
path than LOS to reach the receiver. Thus a signal with same information reaches the
receiver at multiple times. Multi path signals are created when the actual signal gets
reflected from the ground and reaches the receiver.
3. Which of the following transmits an audio Morse code?
a) Localizer
b) Glide slope transmitter
c) DME
d) Marker beacons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An audible Morse code identification signal is transmitted on the localizer
frequency. A voice channel from the control tower may also be provided.
4. ______________ provides deviation when the aircraft is displaced laterally from the
vertical plane of the runway?
a) Localizer
b) Glide slope transmitter
c) DME
d) Marker beacons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The localizer establishes a radiation pattern in space the provides a deviation
signal in the aircraft when the aircraft is displaced laterally from the vertical plane containing
the runway center line.
5. What is the signal that are added to the localizer signal, if the beam is narrow, to provide
signal coverage?
a) Localizer plus
b) Difference signal
c) Sum signal
d) Clearance signal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the localizer CSB pattern is narrow, to reduce reflections from buildings
and other aircraft, the system requires the addition of “clearance” signals to provide 35°
coverage in both directions.
6. What type of antenna is used in the localizer?
a) Long periodic antenna
b) Helical antenna
c) Dipole antenna
d) Parabolic antenna
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Almost all of the localizer antenna is long periodic antenna. It provides
unidirectional radiation, can be installed without guy cables and has good broadband
characteristics.
7. Clearance signals can be transmitted from the same array antenna as the localizer
signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clearance Signals, when required, can be provided by a separate array
antenna specifically for clearance signals. In some designs, both clearance signals and
localizer signals are transmitted from different elements of the same array. Nevertheless,
the same antenna cannot be used.
8. What is the type of glide slope that depends on the reflection of signals by the ground?
a) Reflection slope
b) Refraction glide slope
c) Image glide slope
d) Direct glide slope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Image array glide slope systems depend on reflections from the ground in the
direction of approaching aircraft to form the radiation pattern.
9. What is the radiation pattern of the marker beacons?
a) Triangle
b) Circle
c) Square
d) Fan shape
View Answer
Answer: d

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1. How many types of transducers are there?

7. What is in for a heading control system?

a) Flight Management System

a) Low pass filter

a) Low pass filter

data Parity bit

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