Evolution Test: Multiple Choice

Evolution test
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations
a. in England. b. in North America. c. on the Galápagos Islands. d. in Asia.
2. The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural
adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a. similarities of the birds’ embryos. b. birds’ different-shaped beaks. c. length of the birds’ necks.
d. number of eggs in each bird’s nest.
3. Based on the adaptations Charles Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galápagos, he wondered
a. if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species. b. if finches and tortoises
had originated from the same ancestral species. c. if all birds on the different islands were finches. d. why
all tortoises on the different islands were identical.
4. Darwin began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after
a. experimentation with animals. b. observations of many species and their geographical location. c. reading
the writings of Wallace. d. agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution.
5. Which is a major concept included in Lamarck’s theory of evolution?
a. Change is the result of survival of the fittest. b. Body structure can change according to the actions of the
organism. c. Population size decreases the rate of evolution. d. Artificial selection is the basis for evolution.
6. Lamarck’s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of
a. continual increases in population size. b. the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body
structures. c. an unchanging local environment. d. the natural variations already present within the
population of organisms.
7. In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled
a. Principles of Geology. b. Essay on the Principle of Population. c. Evolution in Malaysia. d. On the
Origin of Species.
8. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their
environment. Their survival is due to the
a. possession of adaptations developed through use. b. possession of inherited adaptations that maximize
fitness. c. lack of competition within the species. d. choices made by plant and animal breeders.
9. An adaptation is an inherited characteristic that can be
a. physical or behavioral. b. physical or geographical. c. acquired during the organism’s lifetime. d. the
result of artificial selection.
10. When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s
concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?
a. acquired characteristics b. reproductive isolation c. survival of the fittest d. descent with modification
11. Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is consistent with the
theory of natural selection?
a. They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring. b. They tend to produce fewer
offspring than others in the population. c. They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their
environment. d. They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species.
12. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most
biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of
a. the needs of the organisms. b. a common ancestor. c. the struggle for existence. d. the inheritance of
acquired traits.
14. Which statement is in agreement with Darwin’s theory of evolution?

a. More offspring are produced than can possibly survive. b. The organisms that are the fittest are always
largest and strongest. c. The number of offspring is not related to fitness. d. Acquired characteristics that
are inherited are the cause of evolution.
15. The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population is the population’s
a. relative frequency. b. phenotype. c. genotype. d. gene pool.
16. The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called
a. temporal isolation. b. geographic isolation. c. behavioral isolation. d. genetic equilibrium.
17. The geographic isolation of two populations of a species tends to increase differences between their gene
pools because it
a. prevents interbreeding between the populations. b. prevents interbreeding within each population.
c. causes temporal isolation of the two populations. d. increases differences in courtship behavior.
19. The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to each
other is called
a. convergent evolution. b. adaptive radiation. c. coevolution. d. punctuated equilibrium.
20. A single species that has evolved into several different forms that live in different ways has undergone
a. adaptive radiation. b. coevolution. c. punctuated equilibrium. d. mass extinction.
21. A pattern in which species experience long, stable periods interrupted by brief periods of rapid evolutionary
change is called
a. convergent evolution. b. coevolution. c. adaptive radiation. d. punctuated equilibrium.
22. When individuals at only one end of a bell curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is
a. directional selection. b. stabilizing selection. c. disruptive selection. d. genetic drift.
23. When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a. not predictable. b. disruptive selection. c. directional selection. d. stabilizing selection.
24. In a population of finches in which one group of birds has a short, parrotlike beak and another group has a
long, narrow beak, what process has probably occurred?
a. directional selection b. disruptive selection c. stabilizing selection d. genetic drift
25. The situation in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant is called
a. evolution. b. genetic drift. c. genetic equilibrium. d. natural selection.
26. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, genetic equilibrium would be more likely in a population of mice
if
a. the population size rapidly decreases. b. mutation rates within the population rise. c. no natural selection
takes place. d. there is frequent movement into and out of the population.
27. The Galápagos finch species is an excellent example of
a. speciation. b. genetic equilibrium. c. stabilizing selection. d. selection on single-gene traits.
28. Structures that have a similar embryological origin and structure but are adapted for different purposes, such
as a bat wing and a human arm, are called _____.
a. embryological structures b. analogous structures c. homologous structures d. homozygous structures
29. Natural selection can best be defined as the _____.
a. survival of the biggest and strongest organisms in a population b. elimination of the smallest organisms by
the biggest organisms c. survival and reproduction of the organisms that occupy the largest area d. survival
and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted to the environment
30. A pattern of evolution that results when two unrelated species begin to appear similar because of
environmental conditions is _____.
a. disruptive selection b. convergent evolution c. directional selection d. divergent evolution
34. What is the movement of genes into and out of a gene pool called?
a. random mating b. nonrandom mating c. migration d. direct evolution
35. Which answer BEST shows an animal's adaptation to the tropical rain forest?
a. camouflage in a tree frog b. the long neck of a giraffe c. an elephant's long trunk d. migration of birds in
winter
36. Upon close examination of the skeleton of an adult python, a pelvic girdle and leg bones can be observed.
These features are an example of _____.
a. artificial selection b. homologous structures c. vestigial structures d. comparative embryology
Hardy Weinberg Problems

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 and p + q = 1
p = frequency of the dominant allele in the population
q = frequency of the recessive allele in the population
p2 = percentage of homozygous dominant individuals
q2 = percentage of homozygous recessive individuals
2pq = percentage of heterozygous individuals
You have sampled a population in which you know that the percentage of the homozygous
recessive genotype (aa) is 36%. Using that 36%, calculate the following:
37. The frequency of the "aa" genotype.
38. The frequency of the "a" allele.
39. The frequency of the "A" allele.

40. The frequencies of the genotypes "AA" and "Aa."

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Evolution test

14. Which statement is in agreement with Darwin’s theory of evolution?

Hardy Weinberg Problems

37. The frequency of the "aa" genotype.

38. The frequency of the "a" allele.

39. The frequency of the "A" allele.

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