GATE

AR 2019

GATE 2019
Section: General Aptitude
Q.1 The fisherman, _______ the flood victims owed their lives were rewarded by the government.
(A) whom (B) to which (C) to whom (D) that
Answer: (C) to whom

Q.2 Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusion is/are logically necessary?
1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.
2. No students were involved in the strike.
3. At least one student was involved in the strike.
4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2 and 3
Answer: (C) 4

Q.3 The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage increase in its volume is
_______.
(A) 17.1 (B) 21.0 (C) 33.1 (D) 72.8
Answer: (C) 33.1

Q.4 Five members 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following the directions
given below:
1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.
2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.
3. The middle number is exactly twice the right most number.
Which is second number from the right?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 10
Answer: (C) 7
According to given data the only possible arrangement is 10, 5, 4, 7, 2
So, second from right will be 7.

Q.5 Until Iran came along, India had never been ____________________in kabaddi
(A) defeated (B) defeating (C) defeat (D) defeatist
Answer: (A) defeated

Q.6 Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the reserve Bank of India, banking
institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small saving schemes. Finally, the
government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes to bring them on par
with fixed deposit interest rates.
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small saving schemes are
also reduced.
(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit interest rate.
(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demand of banking institutions before reducing
the interest rates on small saving schemes.
(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follows only after a reduction in repo rate by the
Reserve Bank of India.
Answer: (C)
The argument says that banking institutiions had been demanding for a reduction in interest rates for the last
one year. Finally the government decided to reduce the interest rates of small saving schemes thus implying
that the govt. does consider the demands of banking institutions before making any such policy decision

Q.7 In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phone. Among the mobile phone owners, only 294
million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half buy goods from e-commerce portals. What
is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

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(A) 10.50 (B) 14.70 (C) 15.00 (D) 50.00

Answer: (A) 10.50

Q.8 The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval period dhrupad
styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to refer to vocal and instrumental styles,
respectively. With the institutionalization of music education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana
originally referred to hereditary musicians from a particular linage, including disciples and grand disciples.
Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?
(A) Dhrupad, baani (B) Gayaki, vocal (C) Baaj, institution (D) Gharana, linage
Answer: (C) Baaj, institution

Q.9 Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of 80km/h and the
second train travelled south at a speed of 100km/h. The time at which they were 540km apart is _____AM.
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 11.30
Answer: (B) 10

Q.10 “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the number of taxes that it
was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of a head- hunter in his own community.”
Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon _______
(A) The prestige of the kingdom (B) The prestige of the heads
(C) The number of taxes he could levy (D) The number of heads he could gather
Answer: (D) The number of heads he could gather

Section: Architecture and Planning (one mark each)

Q.1 Which of the following commands in AUTOCAD is used to
create 3D solid between various cross sections?
(A) LOFT (B) MESH
(C) XEDGES (D) PFACE
Answer: (A) LOFT

Q.2 Name the architect who criticized ornament in useful objects in his
essay ‘Ornament and Crime’
(A) John Ruskin (B) H.P. Berlage (C) Adolf Loos (D) Walter Gropius
Answer: (C) Adolf Loos
 In the essay, Loos explains his philosophy, describing how ornamentation can
have the effect of causing objects to go out of style and thus become obsolete. It
struck him that it was a crime to waste the effort needed to add ornamentation,
when the ornamentation would cause the object to soon go out of style.

Q.3 A sanitary landfill is provided with High Density Poly Ethylene (HDPE) lining along the
ground surface. This is provided primarily to
prevent
(A) Bleaching (B) Leaching
(C) Rodents (D) Plant growth
Answer: (B) Leaching
 A leachate is any liquid that, in the course
of passing through matter, extracts soluble
or suspended solids, or any other
component of the material through which
it has passed.
 When landfill waste degrades and rain
water rinses the resulting products out,
leachate is formed. The black liquid
contains organic and inorganic chemicals,
heavy metals as well as pathogens; it can
pollute ground water.

Q.4 Super-elevation of a road with pre-determined radius of curvature is primarily dependent on

(A) Altitude (B) Soil bearing capacity (C) Traffic volume (D) Design traffic speed
Answer: (D) Design traffic speed
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Advantages of providing Super elevation:-

Super elevation is provided to achieve the higher
speed of vehicles.
 It increases the stability of fast-moving vehicles when
they pass through a horizontal curve, and it also
decreases the stresses on the foundation.
 In the absence of super elevation on the road along
curves, potholes are likely to occur at the outer edge of the road.
 IRC specifies a maximum super-elevation of 7 percent for plain and rolling terrain, while that of hilly terrain is 10
percent (snow clad) and urban road is 4 percent. The minimum super elevation is 2-4 percent for drainage purpose,
especially for large radius of the horizontal curve.

S. No Type of Road Super Elevation

In Ratio In Percentage
1 In Hilly and Snow fall area 1 in 10 10
2 In Plain and Rolling Terrain 1 in 15 7
3 Urban Roads 1 in 50 to 1 in 25 2-4

Q.5 In mono-centric urban model, land rent is expected to

(A) diminish as one moves towards the center
(B) diminish as one moves away from the center
(C) remain constant across the whole urban area
(D) be unrelated with distance from centre
Answer: (B) diminish as one moves away from the
center
 Land users, whether they be retail, office, or residential, all
compete for the most accessible land within the CBD. The
amount they are willing to pay is called bid rent. This can
generally be shown in a "bid rent curve", based on the
reasoning that the most accessible land, generally in the
centre, is the most expensive land.

Q.6 Fineness modulus of sand measures its

(A) Compressive strength (B) Grading according to
particle size
(C) Bulking of sand (D) Ratio of coarse and fine sand
Answer: (B) Grading according to particle size
 Fineness modulus of sand (fine aggregate) is S. No Type of sand Finess modulus range
an index number which represents the mean 1 Fine sand 2.2 - 2.6
size of the particles in sand 2 Medium sand 2.6 - 2.9
 Fine aggregate means the aggregate which 3 Coarse sand 2.9 - 3.2
passes through 4.75mm sieve. To find the
fineness modulus of fine aggregate we need sieve sizes of 4.75mm, 2.36mm, 1.18mm, 0.6mm, 0.3mm and 0.15mm.
(example)

Sieve Size Opening (mm) Wt. of material % retained Cumulative % % finer

retained (g) retained
No 4 4.76 0 0 0 100
No 8 2.36 1.3 0.26 0.26 99.74
No 16 1.18 2.4 0.48 0.74 99.26
No 30 0.6 4.3 0.86 1.6 98.4
No 50 0.3 164.6 32.88 34.68 65.52
No 100 0.15 259.6 51.86 86.34 13.66
Pan 68.4 13.66 100 0

Wt. of sample = 500gm and fineness modulus is 1.23

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Q.7 The spherical surface of the geodesic dome comprises of

(A) Equilateral triangles of various sizes
(B) Isosceles triangles of various sizes
(C) Equilateral triangles of uniform size
(D) Isosceles triangles of uniform size
Answer: (C) Equilateral triangles of uniform size
 Geodesic domes don't have one canonical form, but the most popular is
based on an icosahedron whose triangular faces are then subdivided into
smaller triangles. Each triangles are equilateral triangles.

Q.8 The abrupt change or junction between two ecological zones is

termed as
(A) Ecological niche (B) Ecosystem
(C) Ecotype (D) Ecotone
Answer: (D) Ecotone
 An ecological niche describes how a species interacts with,
and lives in, its habitat. Ecological niches have specific
characteristics, such as availability of nutrients,
temperature, terrain, sunlight and predators, which dictate
how, and how well, a species survives and reproduces. A
species carves out a niche for itself in a habitat by being able
to adapt and diverge from other species.
 Ecosystem: a biological community of
interacting organisms and their physical
environment.
 Ecotype: a distinct form or race of a plant or
animal species occupying a particular habitat.
 Ecotone: abrupt change or junction between
two ecological zones.

Q.9 Complementary colours in a Munsell pigment colour wheel refers to

(A) Colours in alternate positions (B) Colours opposite to one another
(C) Colours adjacent to each another (D) A pair of secondary colours
Answer: (B) Colours opposite to one another

S. No Colour Composition Position on colour wheel Examples

1 Complementary Opposite to one another Green Red

2 Analogous Neighbours Red Orange- Orange- Yellow Orange

3 Split Complementary Neighbours of complementary Yellow Orange Yellow Green
Purple

4 Triad Three Colours at an angle of 120º Yellow- Red -Blue

from Centre of colour wheel
5 Tetrad Four Colours at an angle of 90º Yellow- Red orange- Purple- Blue
from Centre of colour wheel green
[Refer: GATE 2018(Q1), 2015(Q25), 2009(Q3), 2006(Q58), 2005(Q47), 2002(Q2.3), 1995(Q1,iii), 1994(Q1,iv)]
[Refer:UPSC 2016(Q13, 2015(Q29)] [Refer ISRO 2015(Q8)] [Refer KCET 2013(Q58)]

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Q.10 The closing syntax, for an executable command line in C or C++ program, is
(A) : (B) , (C) ; (D) ,
Answer: (C) ;

Q.11 The term ‘Necropolis’ refers to

(A) Organically growing settlement (B) Origin of a settlement
(C) A dead settlement (D) Merging of two settlements
Answer: (C) A dead settlement
Necropolis: The city in the worst stage and unfit for dwelling.
Patrick Geddes Classification of towns
S. No Types of settlement Characteristics
1 Primary Agricultural Village
2 Secondary Marketing town
3 Tertiary Residential, Educational and Recreational

Lewis Mumford Classification of Cities

S. No Types of settlement Characteristics
1 Eopolis Town grows as entire unit. Its economy is based on agriculture
2 Polis Town grows into a small urban unit of self contained community.
It has commerce and industry.
3 Metropolis City grows with full strature. High population density and large
potentialities.Water supply, drainage, Electricity, transport,
commerce and industries.
4 Megapolis Overgrown cities with mess with expansion of industries, multi
track roads, mass housing, mass transportation, city starts decaying
5 Tyrannopolis City shows further decay
6 Necropolis Worst stage and unfit for dwelling, Dead city

Doxiadis Ekistic Unit

S. Types of settlement Population Settlement Classification Description
No Scale (Four Types)
1 Anthropos 1 Elementary units, man,
2 Room 2 Minor Shells room, dwelling
3 Dwelling 5
4 Dwelling group 40 Units smaller than, or as
5 Small Neighbourhood 250 small as, the traditional
6 Neighbourhood 1500 town where people used
Micro Settlements
7 Small polis (town) 10,000 to and still do achieve
interconnection by
walking
8 Polis 75,000 Between the traditional
9 Small Metropolis 5,00,000 town and conurbation
10 Metropolis 4 million Meso Settlement within which one can
11 Small Megalopolis/ 25 million commute daily
Conurbation
12 Megalopolis 150 million From the Megalopolis to
13 Small Eperopolis 750 million the largest possible
14 Eperopolis 7500 million expression of
Macro settlement Ecumenopolis

15 Ecumenopolis 50,000 million

Classification of large cities in India

Classification of large cities Remarks
Cities (Class I UA/ town) Population more than 1,00,000
Million plus UA/Town UA/ Towns with Population more than 1 million (10,00,000)
Mega Cities UA/ Cities having more than 10 million population (1 crore)
Classification of Area in India:

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Types of Classification Definition Remarks

Settlement
Statutory All places with a Municipality,
Town corporation, cantonment board or
notified town area committee
declared by state law.
Census Town Places that satisfy the following Classification Population
criteria Class I 1,00,000 and above
(a) A minimum Population of Class II 50,000-99,999
5000 Class III 20,000-49,999
(b) Atleast 75% of male working Class IV 10,000-19,999
population engaged in non Class V 5000-9999
agricultural pursuits
Urban
(c) A density of population of
atleast 400 person/ square km.
Outgrowth A viable unit such as a village or a Outgrowths are Railway colonies,
part of village that is contiguous to University Campus, Port areas that may
a statutory town and possess the come up near a city or statutory town
urban feature in terms of outside the statutory unit but within the
infrastructure and amenities such revenue limit of a village or villages
as pucca roads, electricity, taps, contiguous to the town or city
drainage system, education
institutions, post offices, medical
facilities, banks.
Rural All area other than urban Basic Unit is Revenue village

DDA (Settlement hierarchy)

Nomenclature Population Major Facilities

1 Housing 5000 totlot
2 Neighbourhood 10,000 Primary School, Senior Secondary School, 11 KVA substation
3 Community 1,00,000 Hospital, Auditorium, 33 KVA substation, Community Centre
4 District 5,00,000 Hospital, Vetinary Hospital, School for special need,220 KVA
substation
5 Zone/Sub City 10,00,000 Medical College, Whole sale market, Head Post Office
6 City More than 25,00,000 Police Line, District Jail, ISBT

 (UA):An urban agglomeration is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining
outgrowths (OGs), or two or more physically contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths of
such towns. An Urban Agglomeration must consist of at least a statutory town and its total population
(i.e. all the constituents put together) should not be less than 20,000 as per the 2001 Census. In
varying local conditions, there were similar other combinations which have been treated as urban
agglomerations satisfying the basic condition of contiguity. Examples: Greater Mumbai UA, Delhi UA,
etc.

Q.12 Which of the following projection types is adopted in Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM)?
(A) Spherical (B) Conical (C) Planar (D) Cylindrical

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Answer: (D) Cylindrical

 A map projection is a systematic transformation of the latitudes and longitudes of locations from the
surface of a sphere or an ellipsoid into locations on a plane.
 Maps cannot be created without map projections.
 All map projections necessarily distort the surface

Common types of map projections are cylindrical, conic, and azimuthal.

Cylindrical map projections are rectangles, but

are called cylindrical because they can be rolled up
and their edges mapped in a tube, or cylinder.
Distortion- The disadvantage of cylindrical map
projections are that they are severely distorted at the
poles. While the areas near the Equator are the most
likely to be accurate compared to the actual Earth.
Advanatages: Cylindrical map projections are good
for comparing latitudes to each other and are useful
for teaching and visualizing the world as a whole.

Types of cylindrical map projections include the

popular Mercator projection, Cassini, Gauss-
Kruger, Miller, Behrmann, Hobo- Dyer, and Gall-
Peters.

Conic map projections are designed to be able to be

wrapped around a cone on top of a sphere (globe), but
aren’t supposed to be geometrically accurate.
Conic map projections are best suited for use as
regional or hemispheric maps, but rarely for a
complete world map. The distortion in a conic map
makes it inappropriate for use as a visual of the entire
Earth but does make it great for use visualizing
temperate regions, weather maps, climate projections,
and more.

Azimuthal map projection is angular- given three

points on a map (A, B, and C) the azimuth from Point
B to Point C dictates the angle someone would have
to look or travel in order to get to A. These angular
relationships are more commonly known as great
circle arcs or geodesic arcs. The main features of
azimuthal map projections are straight meridian lines,
radiating out from a central point, parallels that are
circular around the central point, and equidistant
parallel spacing. Light paths in three different
categories (orthographic, stereographic, and
gnomonic) can also be used. Azimuthal maps are
beneficial for finding direction from any point on the
Earth using the central point as a reference.

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Q.13 The ingredient to be added to produce Aerated Cement Concrete, is

(A) Aluminium (B) Calcium chloride
(C) Gypsum (D) Sulphur
Answer: (A) Aluminium
o Autoclaved aerated concrete (AAC) is made with fine
aggregates, cement, and an expansion agent that causes
the fresh mixture to rise like bread dough. In fact, this
type of concrete contains 80 percent air.
o Manufacturing Process: several ingredients are blended
into a slurry: cement, lime, water, finely ground sand,
and often, fly ash. An expansion agent like aluminum
powder is added and the fluid mixture is cast into a large
billet. As the slurry reacts with the expansion agent to generate air bubbles, the mixture expands. After its
initial set, the resulting “cake” is wire cut into precisely sized blocks or panels and then baked (autoclaved).
The heat helps the material to cure faster so that blocks and panels maintain their dimensions.

Q.14 The cause of short column effect, during seismic occurrence, is due to
(A) Centralized rupture of the column
(B) Tearing of reinforcement bars
(C) Buckling of columns
(D) Stress concentration
Answer: (D) Stress concentration
The distribution of seismic forces is critical
when all columns are not of all the same
height. In this case shorter columns, although with
the same cross section will receive increased
seismic load due to higher overall stiffness. The
stiffness of a column is inversely proportional to
the column length cubed (L³). Thus , the column
which is half of other column’s length is in fact eight times stiffer.

Q.15 The solar protection system consisting of fixed slates or grids, outside a building façade in front of openings,
is known as
(A) Brise-soleil (B) Solarium (C) Malqaf (D) Trombe wall
Answer: (A) Brise-soleil
 Brise soleil systems use a series of horizontal or vertical blades to control the amount of light and solar
heat that enters a building.
 Solarium: a room in which you can tan (= make brown) your skin using either light from the sun or
special equipment.

Fig: Brise Soleil Fig: Solarium

 Malqaf: A windtower (wind catcher) is a traditional Iranian architectural element to create natural
ventilation in buildings.

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 Trombe Wall-A Trombe wall is a passive solar building design where a wall is built on the winter sun
side of a building with a glass external layer and a high heat capacity internal layer separated by a layer
of air.

Fig: Trombe Wall Fig: Malqaf

Q.16 The Indian property inscribed by UNESCO on the World Heritage List in the year 2018 is
(A) Mattanchery Palace, Emakulam (B) The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai
(C) Ancient Buddhist Site, Sarnath (D) Mughal Gardens in Kashmir
Answer: (B) The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai

Year of
S No. Name of Cultural World Heritage Site State
Notification
1 Agra Fort Uttar Pradesh 1983
2 Ajanta Caves Maharashtra 1983
3 Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi Madhya Pradesh 1989
4 Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park Gujarat 2004
Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (Formerly
5 Maharashtra 2004
Victoria Terminus)
6 Churches and Convents of Goa Goa 1986
7 Elephanta Caves Maharashtra 1987
8 Ellora Caves Maharashtra 1983
9 Fatehpur Sikri Uttar Pradesh 1986
10 Great Living Chola Temples Tamil Nadu 1987
11 Group of Monuments at Hampi Karnataka 1986
12 Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram Tamil Nadu 1984
13 Group of Monuments at Pattadakal Karnataka 1987
Rajasthan (Chittorgarh,
14 Hill Forts of Rajasthan 2013
Kumbhalgarh,

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Year of
S No. Name of Cultural World Heritage Site State
Notification
Ranthambhore, Amber
Sub-Cluster, Jaisalmer,
Gagron)
15 Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi Delhi 1993
16 Khajuraho Group of Monuments Madhya Pradesh 1986
17 Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya Bihar 2002
18 Mountain Railways of India Tamil Nadu 1999
19 Qutb Minar and its Monuments, Delhi Delhi 1993
Rani-Ki-Van (the Queen’s Stepwell) at
20 Gujarat 2014
Patan, Gujarat
21 Red Fort Complex Delhi 2007
22 Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka Madhya Pradesh 2003
23 Sun Temple, Konarak Orissa 1984
24 Taj Mahal Uttar Pradesh 1983
25 The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur Rajasthan 2010
Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara
26. Bihar 2016
(Nalanda University) at Nalanda
The Architectural Work of Le Corbusier, an
27. Outstanding Contribution to the Modern Chandigarh 2016
Movement
Ahmedabad, Gujarat,
28. Historic City of Ahmedabad 2017
India
The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco
29. Mumbai 2018
Ensembles of Mumbai
30. Walled City of Jaipur Rajasthan 2019

Q.17 Typical features of Buddhist architecture are

(A) Mandapa, Chattri, Amalaka, Torana (B) Stambha, Torana, Vimana, Harmika
(C) Vedika, Chattri, Torana, Harmika (D) Vedika, Stupa, Chaitya, Vimana
Answer: (C) Vedika, Chattri, Torana, Harmika

Q.18 Identify the Queen closer

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

Answer: (A)

Q.19 Identify the role of Vermiculate in vertical landscapes

(A) Fertilizer (B) Holding material
(C) Binder material (D) Water retention element
Answer: Marks to all
(it is vermiculite !)
Perlite and vermiculite are two different substances used for a common purpose, that
is for moisture retention and aeration in soil. That means to hold water within soil for
plants and also to improve air circulation or aeration of potting mix.
Actual soil is not used for Potting Plants. It contains a mix of peat moss, vermiculite,
perlite, sand, and shredded bark or compost.
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o Peat Moss- Decayed, dried sphagnum moss has the name of peat or peat moss. This is used as a soil
conditioner which increases the soil's capacity to hold water and nutrients by increasing capillary forces
and cation exchange capacity. Moss is (काई )
o Vermiculite- Vermiculite is the name of a group of hydrated laminar minerals (aluminum-iron
magnesium silicates) which look like mica. Horticultural vermiculite is processed with massive heat that
expands it into accordion shaped pellets composed of multiple layers of thin plates.
o Perlite- Perlite is an amorphous volcanic glass that has a relatively high water content

Q.20 Which of the following parameters is essential to estimate the Envelope Performance Factor (EPF) of a building as
per the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC), 2011?
(A) Building Type (B) Maximum humidity
(C) Maximum and minimum monthly temperature (D) Building occupancy duration
Answer: (D) Building occupancy duration

Day Time Occupancy 24- Hour Occupancy

U- factor SHGC U- factor SHGC
Mass Walls 6.01 - 13.85 -
Curtain Walls, Others 15.72 - 20.48 -
Roofs 11.93 - 24.67 -
North Windows -1.75 40.65 -4.56 58.15
Non- North Windows -1.25 54.51 0.68 86.57
Skylights -96.35 311.71 -294.66 918.77
Source: Envelope Performance Factor Coefficients-Composite Climate (under review) ECBC User Guide 2011. (Appendix D)
EPF calculation through Trade off Factor
=

= ∑

Where =A coefficient for the “Roof” class of construction

= The U-factor for the envelope component referenced by the subscript “s”
= The Area of a specific envelope component referenced by the subscript “s”

Similarly EPF (Envelope Performance Factor) of wall and fenestration can be calculated. All will sum up to give
EPF of building
(For more information refer ECBC User Guide)

Q.21 The illumination level of a room is 300 lux and the efficacy of the lamps is 60. The Light Power Density (LPD)
of the room in Watt/m² is _________.
Answer: 5 Watt/m²
Efficacy of a lamp source is lumens per watt. Given here is 60 that means 60 lumens/watt.
The illumination level of Room is 300 lux= 300 lumens/m² (Technically Lux is lemens/m²)
After consuming 1 watt, the lamp can give only 60 lumens.
Consider 1 square m of area in a room. To get 300 lumens for this area total wattage needed is

= 5 watt
/
Light Power Density (LPD) = 5 Watt/m²
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[Light Power Density (LPD) was asked for the first time in GATE AR]

Q.22 The load on a RCC column is 150 kN. The soil bearing capacity is 80 kN/m². Assuming a factor of safety of
1.2, the side of the square column footing is ______ meter (rounded off to one decimal place).
Answer: 1.5 m
Soln: Soil bearing capacity is 80kN/m².
Factor of safety to be taken as 1.2 , it means soil bearing capacity mut not
exceed = 66.67 kN/m².
.
1 sqm of soil can take 66.67 kN, so in order to take 150 kN= = 2.25 sqm
.
Since it is a square footing the side of square will be √2.25 sq m = 1.5 m

Q.23 A room is separated by a partition wall. The average intensities of sound in the source and receiving sides across
the partition are 10 W/m² and 10 W/m² respectively. The transmission loss (TL) of the partition wall is
_______dB.
Answer: 30 dB
Sound Pressure Level (dB) and Intensity formula
(dB) = 10 ( where .
/ ²
Sound Pressure Level at the source where intensity is 10 W/m²
/ ²
(dB) = 10 (
/ ²
= 10 10
= 10 × 8 × 10
= 80 dB
Similarly Sound Pressure Level at the receiving side where intensity is 10 W/m²
/ ²
(dB) = 10 (
/ ²
= 10 10
= 10 × 5 × 10
= 50 dB
Transmission Loss = 80-50 = 30 dB

Q.24 The purchase price of 2BHK flat rises 10 percent, the demand for such flats is observed to decrease by 8
percent. The given elasticity of the housing demand for 2BHK flats is _____ (rounded off to one decimal
place).
Answer: 0.8
Price elasticity of demand is measured by using the formula:
∆

Price Elasticity of demand (PED) = = ∆

= = =0.8
There are four types of elasticity, each one measuring the relationship between two significant economic
variables. They are:
 Price elasticity of demand (PED), which measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a
change in price. PED can be mmeasured over a price range, called arc elasticity, or at one point, called
point elasticity.
 Price elasticity of supply (PES), which measures the responsiveness of the quantity supplied to a change
in price.
 Cross elasticity of demand (XED), which measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of one
good, good X, to a change in the price of another good, good Y.
 Income elasticity of demand (YED), which measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a
change in consumer incomes.

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Q.25 ‘Threshold enclosure’ created by vertical surface or series of vertical elements

in an urban plaza, represented by the ratio of height and distance, is given by
an angle of _____ degrees (rounded off to one decimal place)
Answer: 26 ͦ to 30º
Soln: Tan θ = (since =
0.5 26.6 ̊

S. No Type of enclosure Ratio Angle

(Ht/distance) (degrees)
1 Full Enclosure 1:1 45º
2 Threshold of Enclosure 1:2 30º
3 Minimum Enclosure 1:3 18º
4 Loss of Enclosure 1:4 14º
source: Architecture of Towns and Cities by Paul D. Sprieregen (page 75)

Section: Architecture and Planning (2 marks)

Q.26 Match the instruments in Column I with the various types of surveying in Column II and select the appropriate
option.
Column-I Column-II
P Cross staff 1 Indoor wall to wall
measurement
Q Alidade 2 Traversing
R Sextant 3 Chain survey
S Distomat 4 Plane table survey
5 Contour survey
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Answer: (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Cross Staff: The cross staff is used for finding out foot of the perpendicular from a given point to a line and
setting right angle at a given point on a line.
An alidade or a turning board is a device that allows one to sight a distant object and use the line of sight to
perform a task. This task can be, for example, to draw a line on a plane table in the direction of the object or to
measure the angle to the object from some reference point

Sextant: A sextant is a doubly reflecting navigation instrument that measures the angular distance between two
visible objects.
Distomat: Distance measuring instrument.

Fig: Distomat
Fig: Sextant

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Q.27 Match the characteristics of settlement systems in Column- I with their corresponding theory/rules in Column-
II and select appropriate option.
Column-I Column-II
P Primacy of settlements 1 Central Place Theory
Q Settlement size and location 2 Gravity Model
R Random componenets in location of 3 Rank size rule
settlements
S Interaction between settlements 4 Entropy of settlements
5 Core Peripheral Model
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
Answer: (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
Central Place Theory- Central place theory is a geographical theory that
seeks to explain the number, size and location of human settlements in a
residential system. The theory was created by the German geographer
Walter Christaller.
Gravity Model- The Gravity Model is a model used to estimate the
amount of interaction between two cities. It is based on Newton's
universal law of gravitation, which measured the attraction of two
objects based on their mass and distance.
Rank Size Rule- The rank-size rule (or rank-size distribution) of city
populations, is a commonly observed statistical relationship between the
population sizes and population ranks of a nation's cities. According to the
rank-size rule, if the largest city in a country has a population of 10,00,000, then
the fourth largest city in that country would have a population of approximately
2,50,000.
Core peripheral model: According to the centre–
periphery model, underdevelopment is not the result
of tradition, but is produced as part of the process
necessary for the development of capitalism in the
central capitalist countries—and its continued
reproduction on a world scale. The theory assumes a
central core of capitalist countries, in which the
economy is determined by market forces, there is a
high organic composition of capital, and wage-levels
are relatively high. In the peripheral countries, on the
other hand, there is a low organic composition of
capital and wage-levels do not meet the cost of
reproduction of labour.
Primacy of Settlement: The law of the primate city was first proposed by the geographer Mark Jefferson in 1939.
He defines a primate city as being "at least twice as large as the next largest city and more than twice as significant."
Aside from size and economic influence, a primate city will usually have precedence in all other aspects of its
country's society, such as being a center of politics, media, culture and education and receive most internal migration.

S. No Theory Propounded by
1 Central Place Theory Walter Christaller (1933)
2 Primate City Mark Jefferson (1939)
3 Rank Size Rule G.K. Zipf (1949)
4 Strategy of Unbalanced Growth Albert O. Hirshman(1950)
5 Input Out Analysis Wassily W. Leontief (1951)
6 Growth Pole Theory Francois Perroux (1955)
7 Export Base Theory Douglos C. North (1955)
8 Economic Base Theory Hans Blumenfeld (1955)
9 Circular Cumulative Causation Gunnar Myrdal (1956)
10 Stages of Economic Growth Walt Whitman Rostow (1960)
11 Core Periphery Model John Friedmann (1963)
Refer GATE 2008 (Q.27)

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Q.28 Match the architectural projects in Column I with the architect in Column II, and select the appropriate option.
Column-I Column-II
P India Habitat Centre, New Delhi 1 Christopher Charles Benninger
Q United World College (UWC), 2 Charles Correa
Mahindra College, Pune
R Brain and Cognitive Science 3 Joseph Allen Stein
Centre- MIT, Cambridge
S Habitat -67, Montreal 4 Norman Foster
5 Moshe Safdie
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-3 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5
Answer: (A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

India Habitat Centre, New Delhi UWC Mahindra College, Pune

Habitat- 67, Montreal

Brain and Cognitive Science Centre- MIT, Cambridge

Q.29 Match the Name of book provided in Column I with the corresponding author in Column II and select the
appropriate option.

Column-I Column-II
P Earthscape 1 Ian McHarg
Q Synthesis of Form 2 John O Simonds
R Design with Nature 3 Cristopher Alexander
S The City of Tomorrow and its Planning 4 Lewis Mumford
5 Le Corbusier
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (B) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
Answer: (A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

Q.30 Match the thermal properties in the Column- I and their respective units in Column- II and select the
appropriate option.
Column- I Column- II
P Thermal Resistance 1 J
Q Thermal Transmittance 2
R Specific Heat 3
S Thermal Conductivity 4
5 J
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Answer: (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
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 GATE AR 2019

Q.31 Match the application in the field of construction in the Column I and the respective itemsin Column II and
select appropriate option

Column-I Column-II
P Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) 1 Tendon
membrane
Q Isolated compression component inside 2 TMT
a network of continuous tensile member
R Cable used for pre-stressed concreting 3 Tensigrity
S Reinforcement bar used in RCC 4 TMD
construction
5 Teflon

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Answer: (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

PTFE Membrane is a material made by coating the superfine glass

fiber fabric with PTFE resin. Such membrane has good welding
performance, excellent ultraviolet resistance, anti- ageing
performance and flame retardation. In addition, it has the best anti-
dirt and self-cleaning performance among all building membranes, but
it is characterized by poor ductility, which results in the difficult
construction and surprisingly high cost. The processing method is
the fiber fabrics are placed quickly into Teflon melt for times, so
that both sides of the fabrics are uniformly applied with Teflon
coating.

A tendon is basically a steel cable or wire used in

Prestressed Concrete structural elements like beam, column etc. It
is a medium through which tensile stresses are induced into the
concrete. It maybe one single steel wire or a group of wires twisted
together to pass through required amount of tensile stresses.
o Tendons are made of individual units called strands.
o Ex: 19T15 means 15.2 mm strands ,total 19nos of
strands which will make a single tendon.

Tensigrity:
Term coined by
Sir Buckminster Fuller. Tensegrity, tensional integrity or floating
compression is a structural principle based on the use of isolated
components in compression inside a net of continuous tension, in
such a way that the compressed members (usually bars or struts) do
not touch each other and the prestressed tensioned members
(usually cables or tendons) delineate the system spatially

Teflon:
polytetrafluoroethene
(PTFE).Teflon is also used as the trade name for a polymer with similar
properties, perfluoroalkoxy polymer resin (PFA). :Teflon is the plastic
with the lowest coefficient of friction. It is also used as a non-stick coating
for pans and other cookware.

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 GATE AR 2019

TMT bars or Thermo-Mechanically Treated bars are high-strength reinforcement bars having a tough outer core
and a soft inner core. The very first step of the
manufacturing process involves passing the steel
wires through a rolling mill stand. Thereafter, these
rolled steel wires are again passed through the
Tempcore water cooling system. While passing the
wires through the water cooling system, the water
pressure is optimised. The sudden quenching and
drastic change in temperature toughen the outer layer
of the steel bar, thus making it super tough and
durable. Once this process is over, the TMT bars are
subject to atmospheric cooling. This is done in order
to equalise the temperature difference between the
soft inner core and the tough exterior. Once the TMT
bar cools down, it slowly turns into a ferrite-pearlite
mass. The inner core remains soft giving the TMT bar great tensile strength and elongation point. This design is
unique to the TMT bars and gives superior ductility to the bars. Also,
this unique manufacturing technique and the absence of Cold stress
make this bar corrosion-resistant and boost its weldability.

Q.32 Match the following types of masonry joints in Column I with their
respective corresponding description in Column II, and select the
appropriate option.
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-5
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5
Answer: (B) or (D) both correct
Pointing is the term given to the ‘finish’ that is between the bricks or
stone used to build your house. Depending on the age of the building,
the mortar used to lay the stone or brick will either be made from lime,
or more recently, cement. Incorrect pointing causes irreparable
damage to older buildings. It is essential to understand what the
mortar joints actually do for the fabric of the house.
The function of the mortar in the wall is to act as a bedding between
stones and varies from fine joints in ashlar stonework to larger joints
in rubble masonry walls. Joints are effectively reduced in size by
inserting small stones and ‘snecked’ pieces of stone. Whilst acting
as a bedding the mortar must also perform other functions:
Prevent water penetration through the joints by its physical presence
almost like a masonry‘ sponge’, yet it must allow the wall to breathe
and drain, porosity being a key factor in the choice of a repointing
mortar.

Q.33 Match the following in Column I with their suitable description in

Column II, and select the appropriate option.
Column-I Column-II
P Tolerance 1 100 mm
Q Precast concrete rings for well 2 Non modular dimension
R M 3 Acceptable variation
S Weather joints 4 3-D prefabricate
5 Resilient sealants
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5
Answer: (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Q.34 Match the units in Column I with their corresponding items in Column II and select the appropriate option.
Column-I Column-II
P dB 1 Sound Intensity
Q Phon 2 Absorption of sound

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R W/m² 3 Frequency of sound

S Sabine 4 Loudness
5 Sound Pressure level
(A) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2
Answer: (D) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Q.35 Match the scientific names of the trees provided in Column- I with the corresponding colour of their bloom in
Column II, and select the appropriate option.
Column-I Column-II
P Cassia fistula 1 White
Q Lagerstroemia flos-reginae 2 Red
R Cordia sebastena 3 Blue
S Piumeria alba 4 Yellow
5 Mauve
(A) P-4, Q-5, R-4, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1
Answer: (D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Cassia fistula Lagerstroemia flos-reginae

Piumeria alba
Cordia sebastena
Q.36 Match the items in Column- I and their respective location in building/site in Column- II, and select the
appropriate option.

Column-I Column-II
P Nahani Trap 1 Between waste water pipe and
main house drain
Q Gully Trap 2 Between Septic tank and soak pit
R Bottle Trap 3 Junction of house drain and sewer
S Intercepting Trap 4 Bathroom and kitchen floor
5 Below the wash basin

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2
Answer: (C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

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 GATE AR 2019

Nahani Trap

Q.37 As per the Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, CPWD – 2014, match the design guidelines in Column- I
with their appropriate standards in Column- II and select the appropriate option.

Column-I Column-II
P Minimum clear width of ramp 1 600 mm
Q Maximum height of wash basin 2 1500 mm
(rim) above the finished floor level
R Minimum length of grab rail 3 750 mm
S Minimum clear width for 4 900 mm
maneuvering space (wheel chair)
5 1800 mm

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-1
Answer: (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

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Q.38 Match the contemporary Urban Design Movements listed in Column- I with the corresponding principles listed
in Column- II and select the appropriate option.

Column-I Column-II
P Park Movement 1 Self-contained, self-sufficient community
surrounded by green belts
Q New Urbanism 2 Revival of the relationship between man and nature
R City Beautiful Movement 3 Relationship between work and living,
environment and sustainability
S Garden City and New 4 Unity, cohesion and balanced relationship between
Town Movement urban components and elements
5 Technical and socio economic process resulting in
growth, energy production and waste elimination.
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-2 (C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1
Answer: (A) or (D) both correct

Park Movement: It started in USA. The public park

movement, which started in the 1830s, sprang mainly out
of a desire to improve health in the over-crowded
conditions of the rapidly growing industrial towns. By the
end of the Victorian era the need for public open space had
become widely appreciated. Increasingly, parks
additionally became symbols of civic pride, providing
inhabitants and visitors alike with attractive surroundings
in which to enjoy their leisure time. In the minds of their
promoters they also assumed a social role as places of
betterment for the lower levels of society. In the United
States, the best known park advocate was Frederick Law
Olmsted, who, with his partner Calvert Vaux, conceived
of and promoted the construction of Central Park in New York City (1858) and the Emerald Necklace in Boston
(1878–80), as well as some of the most notable parks in other large cities in the United States.

New Urbanism is an urban design movement which promotes environmentally friendly habits by creating walkable
neighborhoods containing a wide range of housing and job types. It arose in the United States in the early 1980s, and
has gradually influenced many aspects of real estate development, urban planning, and municipal land-use strategies.
Principles of Urbanism
1. Walkability: Most things must be within a 10-minute walk of home and work. Pedestrian friendly street
design. Pedestrian streets free of cars in special cases.
2. Connectivity: Interconnected street
grid network disperses traffic and eases
walking. A hierarchy of narrow
streets, boulevards, and alleys. High-
quality pedestrian network and public
realm makes walking pleasurable.
3. Mix-Use and Diversity: Mix of shops,
offices, apartments, and homes on site.
Mixed-use within neighborhoods,
within blocks, and within buildings.
Diversity of people (of ages, income
levels, cultures, and races.)
4. Mixed Housing:A range of types, sizes
and prices in closer proximity.
5. Quality Architecture and Urban Design: Emphasis on beauty, aesthetics, human comfort, and creating a
sense of place. Human scale architecture and beautiful surroundings nourish the human spirit.
6. Traditional Neighborhood Structure: Discernible center and edge. Public space at center. Importance of
quality public realm; public open space designed as civic art. Contains a range of uses and densities
within 10-minute walk.

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 GATE AR 2019

7. Increased Density:ore buildings, residences, shops, and services closer together for ease of walking, to
enable a more efficient use of services and resources, and to create a more convenient, enjoyable place
to live.
8. Green Transportation: A network of high-quality trains connecting cities, towns, and neighborhoods
together. Pedestrian-friendly design that encourages a greater use of bicycles, rollerblades, scooters, and
walking as daily transportation.
9. Sustainability: Minimal environmental impact of development and its operations. Eco-friendly
technologies, respect for ecology and value of natural systems. Energy efficiency. Less use of finite fuels.
More local production. More walking, less driving.
10. Quality of life: Taken together these add up to a high quality of life well worth living, and create places
that enrich, uplift, and inspire the human spirit.

The City Beautiful Movement was a reform philosophy of North American architecture and urban planning that
flourished during the 1890s and 1900s with the intent of introducing beautification and monumental grandeur
in cities.

The New Town Movement was derived from the Garden City Movement, founded by Ebenezer Howard in the late
1800s, as an alternative to the overcrowded, polluted, chaotic and miserable industrial cities that had appeared in
Britain. Towards the end of World War I (1914-18) a group developed – the ‘New Townsmen’ – whose members
were Howard, F.J. Osborn, C.B. Purdom and W.G. Taylor. They began advocating the development of 100 new cities
to be built by the government.
New Town Movement started after World War II (1939- 45)

S. No Urban Planning Concept Propounded by

1 Satellite Town Concept Raymond Unwin
2 Linear City Concept Soriya Y. Mata (1882)
3 City Beautiful Movement Daniel Burnham (1893)
4 Garden City Concept Ebenezar Howard (1898)
5 Industrial City Tony Garnier (1918)
6 Concentric Zone Model Ernest Burgess (1925)
7 Neighbourhood Concept Clarence Perry (1929)
8 A town for the motor age- Radburn Plan Clarence Stein/Henry Ford (1929)
9 Broadacre City F. L. Wright (1932)
10 Sector Model Homer Hoytt (1939)
11 Multiple Nuclei Model Harris and Edward Ullman (1945)

Q.39 Match the figures of vault in Column- I with their corresponding types in Column- II and select the appropriate
option.
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5
Answer: (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

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Q.40 A colony of 50 people is served by a septic tank. The rate of water supply is 90 lpcd in the colony and 40% of
it is going to the septic tank. The retention period of the tank is 24 hours. The length of the septic tank is _____
meter (rounded off to two decimal places).
Assume, storage capacity/person = 0.085m³( 3 years)
Space for digestion = 0.0425m³/person
Depth of tank = 1.4m
Length: Width = 2:1
Answer: 3.4 m
Rate of water supply to septic tank (40% of 90 lpcd) = 36 lpcd
Amount of water to be retained for 24 hr in septic tank 36 × 50 = 1800 litres/ 24 hr= 1.8 m³
Space for storage for 3 years 0.085 m³ × 50 = 4.25 m³
Space for digestion 0.0425 × 50= 2.125 m³
Total volume required for septic tank (1.8 + 4.25+ 2.125) = 8.175 m³
. ³
Depth of tank = 1.4m (given) so surface area of tank = = 5.84 m²
. ²
Let one side of tank be ‘x’ m so other side = ‘2x’ m
x×2x = 5.84 m²
2x² = 5.84 m²
.
x= m²
= 1.7 m and 3.4 m

Q.41 A cone, with a base of 10cm diameter and axis of 12cm, is lying on Horizontal Plane (HP) along its generator.
The internal angle which the base of the cone makes with HP is ______ degrees.
Answer: 67.0 – 68.0
Tan θ=
Tan θ=2.4
θ= 2.4 10 12
= 67.3º θ
13

Q.42 A public utility building of 5000 m² was constructed 5 years before, on a site of 1 hectare. The present value of
open land in that location is Rs. 100/m² and present construction cost of such building is Rs. 2500/m². If the
value of the building is assumed to be depreciating at a constant rate of 6 percent per annum, then the present
value of the property using ‘Valuation by Cost Method’ is ______ (in Rs. Lakh) (rounded off to one decimal
place).
Answer: 101.2 lakh
Cost of land @ Rs 100 /m²= 10,000 × 100= 10,00,000 Rs
Cost of construction @ Rs 2500 /sqm= 5000 × 2500 = 1,25,00,000 (here we assume that the cost of const. 5 years
ago was this much)
Depreciated value of the building = 1,25,00,000 1 0.06
=1,25,00,000 (0.94
= 1,25,00,000 (0.73)
= 91,25,000 (value of building)
Value of Property = Value of land + value of building
10,00,000 + 91,25,000 = 1,01,25,000

Q.43 A residential area of 20 hectares is planned for three different types of plots of 500m², 300m² and 200m² with
numbers of plot in each category are 100, 120, 150 respectively. The rest of the area is allowed for roads and
facilities such as school, shops and parks. Each plot has one dwelling unit and the average household size is 5
persons. The net residential density of the area in person per hectare is ______.
Answer: 159.4 person/ ha
There are two terms Net Residential density and Gross Residential density
20 hectare= 2,00,000 sqm (since 1 ha = 100m ×100 m)

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 GATE AR 2019

Total area in hectare under Residential use Size of plot (m²) No. of plot Total area (sqm)
116000 sqm = 11.6 ha 1 500 100 50000
Population = Total Dwelling unit (DU) × 2 300 120 36000
avg. household size 3 200 150 30000
370 × 5= 1850 Total area 1,16,000

Net Residential density=
.
= 159.4 person/ha

Q.44 In a single lane road, traffic volume of 1000 vehicles/hr moving at 20Km/h, comes to halt due to an accident.
If jam density is 150 vehicle/km, the velocity of the shock wave generated (in absolute value) is _____ km/h.
Answer: 10 km/h (since absolute value is asked, otherwise -10 km/h)
The equation that is used to estimate the propagation velocity of shock waves is given below.

=

Where
= propagation velocity of shock wave (km/hour)
= flow prior to change in conditions (vehicles/hour)
= flow after change in conditions (vehicles/hour)
= traffic density prior to change in conditions (vehicles/km)
= traffic density after change in conditions (vehicles/km)

Here = 1000 vehicles /hr and = 0 vehicles/hr

= 50 vehicles/km and = 150 vehicles/km
To find , in one hr under nomal condition there are 1000 vehicles in a stretch of 20 km, so vehicles per
km can be found out
/
=
/
= - 10 km/hr
Note the magnitude and direction of the shock wave.
(+) Shock wave is travelling in same direction as traffic stream.
(-) Shock wave is traveling upstream or against the traffic stream.

Q.45 In a site map, a rectangular residential plot measures 150 mm x 40 mm, and the width of the front road in the
map measures 16 mm. Actual width of the road is 4m. If the permissible F.A.R is 1.2, the maximum built up
area for the residential building will be _____ m².
Answer: 450 sqm

Scale of the map = = = = = 1: 250

Actual size of plot = 150 mm × 250= 37,500 mm= 37.5 m

= 40 mm × 250 = 10,000 mm= 10 m
Size of plot 37.5 m × 10 m and area = 375 sqm
FAR = 1.2 so maximum built up area = 375 × 1.2= 450 sqm

Q.46 The internal dimension of a room is 10m x 10m x 4m (height). The total area of the doors and windows are
16m². Keeping the doors and windows closed, the reverberation time of the room becomes 1.2 second. Assume
all the interior surfaces including doors and windows have some absorption coefficient. If all doors and
windows of the room are kept fully open, the reverberation time will be _____ second (rounded of to one
decimal place).
Answer: 0.95 sec
Volume of Room 10× 10× 4= 400 m³
Surface area of room (total wall area + floor and ceiling area) = 4(10 × 4) + 2(10 ×10)
= 360 m²
0.16

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 GATE AR 2019

0.16 400
1.2
360
.

.
= 0.148
Case 2 ( when door and window of 16 m² is open)
0.16 400

344 0.148 16 1
=
.
= = 0.95 sec
.
(Note: Open fenestration has absorption coefficient of 1)

Q.47 A depressed portion of a land is identified by three closed contours, as shown in the figure below. The area
bound by three contour lines is 6m², 24m² and 96m² respectively. The contour interval is 1m. Using prismoidal
method, the volume of the earth needed to fill land depression is ________m³.
Answer: 66 m³
Soln:Prismoidal Volume formula
= [ 4 × Length
= (96 + 4(24) + 6) × 2
= × (198) × 2
= 66 m³

Q.48 Solar panels are proposed to be installed on a building roof top to generate electricity. The size of each solar panel
is 2m². The efficiency of each panel is 75%. The orientation of the solar panel and related solar data are given in the
table below.
Orientation No of panel Average daily solar Average solar hours per
radiation in W/m² day
South 10 400 4
West 5 300 2
As per above proposal ______ kWh solar power will be generated daily (rounded off to one decimal place).
Answer:
South Direction: Total size of solar panel 10 2 = 20 sqm
Total solar power received 400 W/m²× 20m² = 8000 W
total solar energy received in 4 hour 8000 × 4= 32,000 Watt.hr
Efficiency 75% therefore 32000× = 24,000 Watt. hr
= 24 KWh
North Direction: Total size of solar panel 5 2 = 10 sqm
Total solar power received in 300 W/m² × 10 m²= 3000 W
total solar energy received in 2 hour 3000 × 2 = 6000 Watt.hr
Efficiency 75% therefore 6000 × = 4500 Watt.hr
= 4.5 KWh
Total solar power generated 24 + 4.5= 28.5 KWh

Q.49 A power shovel is having 1.8m³ excavation output per batch of operation. The average cycle time of the batch
operation is 45 seconds. The lost time per hour of the excavation activity is 10 minutes. Assume six working
hours of operation per day. The amount of soil excavated by the power shovel per day is ____________ m³
(rounded of to one decimal place).
Answer: 720 m³
Lost time per hour = 10 min
In 6 hour it will loose 6 × 10 = 60 min (1 hour)
So effectively it will work for 5 hour = 5 hr × 60 = 300 min=
300 ×60 = 18000 sec
,
Avg. cycle time 45 seconds so no of cycles = 400
cycles

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 GATE AR 2019

Amount of excavation = 1.8 m³ × 400= 720 m³

Q.50 A room having dimension 12m x10m x 3.5m is required to be mechanically ventilated by air-conditioner. The
temperature difference outdoor ambient air and the supply air is 12 . Consider three air exchanges per hour.
The volumetric specific heat of the air is 1250J/m³ . Assume one ton of refrigeration (TR) is equal to
3.5kW. The capacity of the air-conditioner for the room in TR will be _______.
Answer: 1.5 Ton
Soln: Volume of Room = 12 m × 10 m × 3.5m = 420 m³
Total amount of air replaced in 1 hour 420 × 3= 1260 m³ (Since three air changes per hour)
Amount of heat transfer per hour = Vol × Specific heat × ∆T (where ∆T is temp difference)
= 1260 m³ × 1250 × 12
³

Amount of heat transfer per second = 5250 watt (Joules/sec= watt)
Tonnage of Refrigeration (TR) = 1.5 Ton

Q.51 A simply supported beam AB has a clear span of 7 meter. The bending
moment diagram (BMD) of the beam due to a single concentrated load is
shown in the figure below.
The magnitude of the concentrated load in kN is _________.
Answer: 21 kN

Moment =

36 kN-m=

² 3m 4m
36 kN-m=


P= = 21 kN
²

Q.52 For a symmetrical trapezoidal open drain in a landscape with grass and loose rock, surface, the velocity of flow
of water is ___m/sec, (round off to two decimal places), given the following data.
Answer: 0.425 m/s
Water edge width at the top = 750 mm
Water edge width at the bottom = 450 mm
Water depth = 600 mm
Manning’s coefficient of roughness = 0.05
Slope along the drain = 1 in 250
Answer:
Manning Formula for open drain

Where V= velocity or flow of liquid in m/s

n = Manning’s coefficient of roughness
R= Hydraulic Radius (area of cross section of fluid/ wetted perimeter)
S= channel slope

Calculation of hydraulic radius =

Area of cross section of fluid = (0.45 m ×0.6 m) + 0.15 0.6 ×2
= 0.27 + 0.09 m²
= 0.36 m²
Wetted Perimeter= 0.45m + 2 0.6 0. 15 ) m
= 0.45m + 1.24 m
= 1.69 m
. ²
Hydraulic Radius = 0.213 m
.

V= ×( . × (.
.
= 20 × 0.355 × 0.06
= 0.425 m/s

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 GATE AR 2019

Q.53 The stack pressure is created by 10m height of stack and 15 temperature difference. The
motive force due to the stack pressure over a cross section area of 2.5m² is _____N.
Answer: 15.75 N
The Stack Pressure ( ) can be calculated from the equation = 0.042 x h x ∆T
Where /
h = height of stack in m
∆T= difference in Temp (deg C)
(the constant is N/ deg
Stack pressure = 0.042 x 10 x 15 = 6.3 N/ sq.m
Motive Force= Stack pressure × cross-sectional area = 6.3 x 2.5 = 15.75 N

Q.54 An industrial building contains 3000 kg of combustible materials, in dry state, distributed over three rooms of
area 100m², 500m² and 300m² each, in a proportion of 30%, 50% and 20% of the contents, respectively.
Calorific value of the material is 4400kCal/kg. The total fire load of the rooms is equal to __________ kCal/m²
Answer: 14667 kCal/m² (Two ranges were given 61500 – 61700 and 14600- 14700)
Total Combustible material = 3000 kg @ 4400 kCal/kg
Total Energy in material 3000 kg × 4400 kCal/kg = 1,32,00,000 kCal
It is distributed over (100 + 500+ 300) = 900 m²
, ,
Total fire load = = 14667 kCal/m²

Q.55 A simple truss is shown in the figure below. The truss is loaded with horizontal and vertical force 15 kN and
25 kN respectively. The force in member AB wil be ____ kN.
Answer: 20 kN

Taking Moment about fixed end support 15(L) + 25(L) = (2L)

40 (L) = 2 (L)
= 20 kN
20

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