Program: BE Computer Engineering

Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016

Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: CSC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering
Time: 1hour Max. Marks: 50
==============================================================================
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
=============================================================================

Q1. How does Kanban prevent work over capacity?

Option A: By using Work In Progress (WIP) Limit.
Option B: By setting a robust Kanban workflow.
Option C: By having daily meetings about work in progress.
Option D: By defining explicit policies.

Q2. Process model that emphasizes on a short development cycle is

Option A: Incremental model
Option B: Rapid Application Development model
Option C: Spiral model
Option D: Prototyping model

Q3. Software engineering approach is used to achieve:

Option A: Better performance of hardware
Option B: Error free software
Option C: Reusable software
Option D: Quality software product

Q4. Project risk factor is considered in which model?

Option A: Spiral model.
Option B: Waterfall model.
Option C: Prototyping model
Option D: Incremental Model

Q5. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?

Option A: elicitation
Option B: design
Option C: analysis
Option D: documentation

Q6. FAST stands for

1|Page
Option A: Functional Application Specification Technique
Option B: Fast Application Specification Technique
Option C: Facilitated Application Specification Technique
Option D: Frequency Assisted standing Technique

Q7. Which of the following is not a desirable Characteristics of SRS document

Option A: Concise
Option B: Unambiguous
Option C: Traceable
Option D: Verifiable

Q8. Which UML diagram is time oriented?

Option A: Activity Diagram
Option B: Sequence diagram
Option C: Collaboration Diagram
Option D: Deployment Diagram

Q9. COCOMO stands for

Option A: Constructive cost model
Option B: Comprehensive cost model
Option C: Constructive cost estimation model
Option D: Complete cost estimation model

Q10. LOC is which kind of measure

Option A: Direct measure
Option B: Indirect measure
Option C: Software quality measure
Option D: Reliability measure

Q11. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

Option A: FP = [count- total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
Option B: FP = count-total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
Option C: FP = [count+ total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
Option D: FP = [count+ total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

Q12. If the sizeof project is 200 KLOC then what is E(efforts applied)using organic
method of cost estimation?
Option A: 626 staff month
Option B: 1133 staff month
Option C: 2077 staff month
Option D: 1456 staff month

Q13. Which of the following definition explains layered architecture?

Option A: Data store resides at the center and accessed frequently by other components.
Option B: Group of outer components service user interface operations, group of inner
components perform operating system interfacing.

2|Page
Option C: Input data are transformed through series of computation to output data.
Option D: Components have main program accessing sub programs.

Q14. _________ defines the properties of a data object and take on one of the three
different characteristics.
Option A: data object
Option B: attributes
Option C: relationships
Option D: data object and attributes

Q15. The worst type of coupling is _____________.

Option A: Data Coupling
Option B: Control Coupling
Option C: Stamp Coupling
Option D: Content Coupling

Q16. Which DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?

Option A: Transform
Option B: Data Store
Option C: Function
Option D: Conditional testing

Q17. Use of global data areas or global variables may lead to ___________.
Option A: Stamp Coupling
Option B: Common Coupling
Option C: Content Coupling
Option D: Control Coupling

Q18. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of

the software?
Option A: design model
Option B: user's model
Option C: mental image
Option D: system image

Q19. Which of the following activity is not associated with user interface design
process?
Option A: cost estimation
Option B: interface validation
Option C: user and task analysis
Option D: interface construction

Q20. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected?
Option A: Product risk
Option B: Project risk

3|Page
Option C: Business risk
Option D: Programming risk

Q21. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a
change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
Option A: Staff turnover
Option B: Technology change
Option C: Management change
Option D: Product competition

Q22. Black box testing focuses on __________.

Option A: logical decisions
Option B: independents paths
Option C: inputs deriving outputs
Option D: internal data structures

Q23. Which of following is Control structure testing type?

Option A: Condition testing
Option B: Beta testing
Option C: Equivalence Partitioning
Option D: Orthogonal Array testing

Q24. ________ is a black box testing method .

Option A: Boundary value analysis
Option B: Basic path testing
Option C: Code path analysis
Option D: integration test

Q25. What is the main purpose of integration testing?

Option A: Design errors
Option B: Interface errors
Option C: Procedure errors
Option D: Syntax errors

4|Page
 These are sample MCQs to indicate pattern, may or
may not appear in examination.

G.M. VEDAK INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

Program: BE_Computer Engineering

Curriculum Scheme: Rev2012
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: CPC602 and Course Name: Software Engineering
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
Q1. Identify the disadvantage of the Spiral Model.
Option A: Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
Option B: The high amount of risk analysis
Option C: Strong approval and documentation control
Option D: Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

Q2. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?

Option A: Productivity
Option B: Portability
Option C: Timeliness
Option D: Visibility

Q3. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software
processes in software engineering?
Option A: Software Verification
Option B: Software Validation
Option C: Software design and implementation
Option D: Software evolution

Q4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?

Option A: Efficiency
Option B: Cost
Option C: Effort Applied
Option D: Quality

Q5. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tool?

Option A: Predicting staffing levels
Option B: Predicting software cost
Option C: Predicting software schedules
Option D: Predicting clients demands

Q6. What is associated with product risk?

Option A: Control of test item
Option B: Negative consequences
Option C: non-availability of the test environment
Option D: Test object

Q7. The Criteria used to assess the quality of Architectural design should be
based on the system?
Option A: Accessibility
Option B: Data
Option C: Implementation
Option D: Flow

Q8. Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that

may need to be integrated into the software architecture?
Option A: Communication Componant
Option B: Database components
Option C: Interface components
Option D: Memory Management Components

Q9. Which of these is not one of the elements of design patterns?

Option A: Context
Option B: Environment
Option C: Problem
Option D: Solution

Q10. When two modules share the same global data is called as----.
Option A: Common Coupling
Option B: Control Coupling
Option C: Message coupling
Option D: External Coupling

Q11. The Diagram that shows The configuration of Run time processing nodes &
the components that live on them is named as
Option A: Deployment Diagram
Option B: Object Diagram
Option C: Class Diagram
Option D: Object-Oriented Diagram

Q12. Which of the following is an example of Configuration Items?

Option A: CM procedures
Option B: Source code
Option C: Software design descriptions
Option D: All of the mentioned

Q13. What information is required to process a change to a baseline?

Option A: Reasons for making the changes
Option B: A description of the proposed changes
Option C: List of other items affected by the changes
Option D: All of the mentioned

Q14. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of

Option A: Analysis Model
Option B: Testing
Option C: Design Model
Option D: Source Code

Q15. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

Option A: FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
Option B: FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
Option C: FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Option D: FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Q16. The percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of

Option A: Product Metrics
Option B: Process Metrics
Option C: Project Metrics
Option D: All of the mentioned

Q17. Which of the following is not categorized under the Product Operation of
McCall’s Software Quality Factors?
Option A: Flexibility
Option B: Reliability
Option C: Usability
Option D: Integrity

Q18. Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a

system?
Option A: Checking requirements
Option B: Recovery requirements
Option C: Redundancy requirements
Option D: Ambiguous requirements

Q19. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as

Option A: BCWS
Option B: EVA
Option C: BAC
Option D: CBSE

Q20. Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as

Option A: alpha testing
Option B: beta testing
Option C: regression testing
Option D: none of the mentioned
Q21. Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) is
Option A: Strongly Coupled
Option B: Loosely Coupled
Option C: Strongly Cohesive
Option D: Loosely Cohesive

Q22. Which architecture will be built on top of a SOA ?

Option A: The Application Architecture
b) c)
d)
Option B: The Service Architecture
Option C: The Component Architecture
Option D: None of the mentioned

Q23. Which of the following statements are incorrect with reference to web-
based systems? Web-based systems
Option A: should be unscalable
Option B: must be able to cope with uncertain, random heavy demands on services
Option C: must be secure
Option D: are subject to assorted legal, social, and ethical scrutiny

Q24. Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware

reliability?
Option A: Useful Life
b)c) d)
Option B: Burn-in
Option C: Wear-out
Option D: Time

Q25. How many levels are present in CMM?

Option A: three
Option B: four
Option C: five
Option D: six
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Terna Engineering College

University of Mumbai
Examination 2020
Program: Computer Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year/ Semester V
Course Code:CAC601 and Course Name: Software Engineering
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
=====================================================================
NOTE
For the students: - All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 2
=====================================================================

Q1. A UML diagram that facilitates requirements gathering and interacts between
system and external users, is called as

Option A: Flowchart diagram

Option B: Sequence diagram
Option C: Use case diagram
Option D: Data flow diagram

Q2. Which of the following is not UML diagram used for system analysis?
Option A: Class Diagram
Option B: Sequence Diagram
Option C: Activity diagram
Option D: Data flow diagram

Q3. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
Option A: Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
Option B: Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
Option C: Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
Option D: All of the mentioned

Q4. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the
planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering
tasks?
Option A: Software Macroscopic schedule
Option B: Software Project scheduling
Option C: Software Detailed schedule
Option D: None of the mentioned

Q5. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to
software development?(
1|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Option A: PERT
Option B: CPM
Option C: CMM
Option D: Both PERT and CPM

Q6. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

Option A: Client
Option B: Investor
Option C: Production team
Option D: Project manager

Q7. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected?
Option A: Product risk
Option B: Project risk
Option C: Business risk
Option D: Programming risk

Q8. Which of the following is / are the output of the Software Process?
Option A: Computer programs
Option B: Documents that describe the computer programs
Option C: Data (contained within the program or external to it)
Option D: Computer programs- Documents- Data

Q9. Which of the following is / are Software Configuration items?

Option A: Software Requirements
Option B: Design Specification
Option C: Source Code
Option D: Software Requirements- Design Specification- Source Code

Q10. What is the meaning of Functional Cohesion?

Option A: Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in same procedures
Option B: All operations that access the same data are defined within one class
Option C: All operations that access the data from outside the module
Option D: None of the above

Q11. Which is the worst type of coupling?

Option A: Control coupling
Option B: Data coupling
Option C: Content coupling
Option D: Stamp coupling

Q12. Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design,
1. Place the user in control.
2. Reduce the user’s memory load.

2|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

3. Make the interface consistent.

These rules are called as ……………
Option A: Golden Rule
Option B: Silver Rule
Option C: User Rule
Option D: Interface rule

Q13. Which is the most desirable form of cohesion?

Option A: Logical cohesion
Option B: Functional cohesion
Option C: Procedural cohesion
Option D: Communicational cohesion

Q14. A good software design must have the following attribute

Option A: High module coupling, high module cohesion
Option B: High module coupling, low module cohesion
Option C: Low module coupling, high module cohesion
Option D: Low module coupling, low module cohesion

Q15. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
Option A: Hardware
Option B: Software
Option C: Programmers
Option D: Technical

Q16. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the
software?
Option A: Project manager
Option B: Project team
Option C: SQA group
Option D: Project manager- Project team- SQA group

Q17. Testing beyond normal operational capacity is ……………….

Option A: Load testing
Option B: Performance testing
Option C: Stress testing
Option D: Alpha testing

Q18. A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement
for a certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of
values, at that time tester is performing ……………
Option A: White-box Testing
Option B: Black-box Testing
Option C: Load Testing
Option D: Regression Testing

3|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Q19. Independence of module is assessed using two qualitative criteria. What are those
criteria?
Option A: Cohesion and coupling
Option B: Module and modularity
Option C: Cyclomatic complexity and modularity
Option D: Inheritance

Q20. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find ……… during the
process so that they do not become defects after release of the software
Option A: errors
Option B: equivalent faults
Option C: failure cause
Option D: Customer issues

Q21. Test cases are created in which phase?

Option A: Test Specification
Option B: Test Planning
Option C: Test Requirement
Option D: Test Configuration

Q22. Which of the following is not a UML diagram

Option A: Sequence diagram
Option B: Object diagram
Option C: Deployment diagram
Option D: E-R diagram

Q23. In the Model-View-Controller (MVC) architecture, the view corresponds to the

…………..
Option A: Data access layer
Option B: Interface layer
Option C: Domain object layer
Option D: Business logic layer

Q24. Which of the following UML Diagram is used to model source code?
Option A: Component diagram
Option B: Deployment diagram
Option C: Use case diagram
Option D: E-R diagram

Q25. Which of the following architectural style refers to applications that expose and
consume functionality of a service using contracts and messages?
Option A: 3-Tier Architecture
Option B: Message Bus
Option C: Mainframe

4|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Option D: Service Oriented Architecture (SOA)

Principal

5|Page
 Program: _Information Technology_ Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: ITC601 and Course Name:Software Engineering and Project Management
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
=====================================================================
For the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. What is considered as Bedrock that supports Software Engineering?
Option A: Tools
Option B: Methods
Option C: Process
Option D: Quality Focus

Q2. Which of the following is not a type of umbrella activity?

Option A: Risk Management
Option B: Reusability Management
Option C: Software Quality Assurance
Option D: Planning

Q3. A high speed adaptation of Linear Sequential Model

Option A: RAD Mode
Option B: Waterfall Model
Option C: Prototyping Model
Option D: Evolutionary Model

Q4. Keypad Control for Microwave Oven is an example of which type of Software ?
Option A: Embedded Software
Option B: Product Line Software
Option C: Web Application Software
Option D: Scientific Software

Q5. Component based development is a type of which Process Model ?

Option A: Incremental Process Model
Option B: Prescriptive Process Model
Option C: Evolutionary Process Model
Option D: Specialized Process Model

Q6. What is NOT an Agile methodology?

Option A: Extreme programming (XP)
Option B: Scrum
Option C: Crystal
Option D: PMBOK

Q7. Which of the following is responsible for sprint meeting

Option A: Scrum team

1 | Page
Option B: Scrum master
Option C: Product Owner
Option D: Product team

Q8. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system
?
Option A: Context Model
Option B: Behavioral Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Object Model

Q9. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
Option A: Behavioral Model
Option B: Context Model
Option C: Data Model
Option D: Structural Model

Q10. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

Option A: Can be written more compactly
Option B: Focuses on just one thing
Option C: Is able to complete its functions in timely manner
Option D: Is connected to other modules and the outside world

Q11. Which design model is used to depict the model of information represented from
users view
Option A: Architectural design
Option B: Component level design
Option C: Data design
Option D: Interface design

Q12. Which one is not part of the PMBOK Knowledge Area ?

Option A: Project Integration Management
Option B: Project Scope Management
Option C: Project Evaluation Management
Option D: Project Procurement Management

Q13. The best way to conduct a requirement validation review is to

Option A: Examine system model for errors
Option B: Have the customer look over the requirements
Option C: Send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns
Option D: Use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement

Q14. Which of the following is not a step of requirement engineering

Option A: Elicitation
Option B: Design
Option C: analysis
Option D: documentation

2 | Page
 Q15. White Box techniques are also known as
Option A: Design based testing
Option B: Structural Testing
Option C: Error guessing technique
Option D: Logical Testing

Q16. Alpha testing is done at

Option A: User’s end
Option B: Developers end
Option C: Both the ends
Option D: Third party

Q17. Bottom-up integration Testing has a major advantage that

Option A: Major decision points are tested early
Option B: No drivers need to be written
Option C: No stubs need to be written
Option D: Regression testing is not required

Q18. Which of the following is the advantage of using LOC (Line of Code) as size
oriented metrics
Option A: LOC is easily computed
Option B: LOC is language dependent measure
Option C: LOC is language independent measure
Option D: LOC can be computed before a design is completed

Q19. The intent of project metrics is:

Option A: minimization of development schedule
Option B: for strategic purposes
Option C: assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Option D: minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on
ongoing basis

Q20. Which one of the following is not the part of Project Integration management?

Option A: Project Plan Development

Option B: Project Plan Execution

Option C: Request for Proposal (RPF) Development

Option D: Project Change Control

Q21. What assesses the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when
you learn more about the risk?

3 | Page
Option A: Risk monitoring
Option B: Risk planning
Option C: Risk analysis
Option D: Risk identification

Q22. A ____________ is the most effective filter from a quality assurance standpoint.

Option A: FTR
Option B: Brainstorming
Option C: Questionnaire
Option D: Interview

Q23. WBS should not be

Option A: Deliverables oriented
Option B: Support Project MOV
Option C: support Planning and Control
Option D: Test Oriented

Q24. Which of the following task is not a part of software configuration management
Option A: Change control
Option B: Reporting
Option C: Statistical quality control
Option D: Version Control

Q25. Scope Control is not concern with

Option A: Scope grope
Option B: scope creep
Option C: scope leap
Option D: scope definition

4 | Page