1.

What elected group's laws and regulations make laboratory safety a legal requirement in the
United States of America?
a) federal
b) county
c) local
d) state
e) all of the above

2. Which of the following describes some key elements of an appropriate safety training
program?
a) safety training should be an integral part of the daily activities of laboratory workers
b) formal safety education should be made as relevant as possible to actual work activities
c) informal safety training through collegial interactions are valuable ways to exchange
safety information, and sustain an atmosphere in which colleagues reinforce
each other's good work habits
d) safety training must be a continuing process
e) all of the above

3. To reduce the probability of accidents:

a) use personal protective equipment
b) practice the habit of accident prevention
c) when possible, substitute a less hazardous chemical for a more hazardous one
d) anticipate the possible consequences of the work you do
e) use the smallest quantity of material necessary
f) all of the above

4. Examples of personal protective equipment do NOT include:

a) goggles and long pants
b) long-sleeve shirts
c) lab coats
d) contact lenses
e) all of the above

5. An accident-prevention program must include:

a) regular safety inspections
b) regular monitoring
c) procedures that ensure proper disposal of waste chemicals
d) formal and regular procedures
e) all of the above

6. Regular inspection of safety equipment such as eye washes and safety showers must be
carried out
a) once a month
 b) every week
c) four times a year
d) yearly

7. Pollution prevention is an integral component of waste management practices. Which of the

following is not included in the hierarchy of pollution prevention techniques?
a) source reduction
b) recycling/reuse/recovery
c) treatment
d) land disposal
e) storing less material on-site
f) all of the above

SECTION 1. YOUR RESPONSIBILITIES

8. Safety in the instructional laboratory is

a) the responsibility of the professor only
b) the responsibility of the student only
c) a shared responsibility

9. Who is required to wear eye protection in the laboratory?

a) all visitors, unless they are present for less than one minute
b) everyone, but only when performing a chemical operation
c) students but not professors
d) everyone

10. Accidents often result from:

a) failure to use common sense
b) an indifferent attitude
c) making mistakes
d) failure to follow instructions
e) all of the above

11. General guidelines for preventing accidents include:

a) follow all safety instructions carefully
b) never play tricks or indulge in horseplay in the chemical laboratory
c) know where the safety equipment is
d) become familiar with the hazards of equipment to be used
e) become familiar with the hazards of the chemicals to be used
f) all of the above

12. True or false: Safety regulations require that contact lenses NOT be worn in the laboratory
a) true
b) false
13. When must special "blast shields" be utilized?
a) when any material is heated to above 350 oC
b) when working under reduced pressure
c) whenever students are enthusiastic
d) all of the above

14. Clothing worn in the laboratory should:

a) be easily removable in case of accident
b) be at least fire-resistant
c) offer protection from spashes and spills
d) all of the above

15. Jewelry is a potential safety issue because:

a) chemicals can be trapped under it, in contact with sensitive skin
b) it could be stolen
c) it can be damaged by chemical fumes and spills

16. Which of the following types of shoes are recommended by the American Chemical Society for
general laboratory work?
a) sandals
b) cloth-topped "tennis" or "running" shoes
c) high heels
d) woven leather shoes
e) steel-toed shoes
f) none of the above

17. When using gloves as personal protective equipment, which of the following procedures
should be followed?
a) inspect gloves for small holes or tears before use
b) remove gloves before handling objects such as doorknobs, telephones, pens, and
computer keyboards
c) wear gloves of a material known to be resistant to permeation by the substances in use
d) replace gloves periodically, depending on the frequency of use
e) decontaminate or wash gloves before removing them
f) all of the above

18. Latex gloves

a) may be reused only if they have not been permeated
b) may be reused as long as they are clean
c) should never be reused

19. Cloth or leather gloves are appropriate

a) when working around steam
 b) when working with hazardous chemicals
c) never in the laboratory

20. Four fundamental principles underlie all of the work practices in the chemical laboratory.
Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a) minimize chemical exposure
b) plan ahead
c) add ventilation to the lab by opening windows
d) do not underestimate risks
e) be prepared for accidents

21. Glass tubing should be removed from rubber stoppers

a) only when it is broken
b) only using extreme caution
c) with the help of soap and water
d) never

22. Cleaning glassware can be a safety issue

a) when using soap and water
b) when broken glassware is present
c) when using strong oxidants
d) always

23. Compound A has a boiling point of 200 oC, while compound B has a boiling point of 100 oC.
Which is more of a safety concern?
a) B because it has a higher vapor pressure
b) A, because it might burn faster
c) just knowing the boiling point is not enough to decide the answer to this question

24. Who's responsibility is it to be aware of chemical hazards?

a) only the professor
b) the student, but only after being informed by a professor
c) anyone involved in work in a laboratory

25. What is distillation?

a) Distillation is when material is heated to melting and then separated.
b) Distillation is when a substance is dissolved, heated, and then precipitated.
c) Distillation is when a liquid is evaporated and then recondensed in another container.

26. What is the singular most potentially dangerous aspect of distillation?

a) the reduced pressure required for the procedure
b) the use of flammable materials in the presence of heat
c) the exothermic nature of the reaction
27. What is extraction as practiced in the organic chemistry laboratory?
a) the removal of painful or impacted teeth
b) the separation of one substance from another based on solubility
c) the removal of one solid material from another

28. Why does extraction pose a potential safety problem?

a) hazardous organic solvents are always necessary
b) the equipment becomes pressurized and may suddenly pop open if not handled
properly, spraying hazardous chemicals into the air
c) the equipment becomes pressurized and often explodes

29. The primary danger of refrigerators in the laboratory is

a) most refrigerators in use in undergraduate laboratories are not explosion-proof
b) they are insecure
c) electricity may fail, leading to warming and loss of containment of hazardous materials

30. Material to be disposed of in the laboratory

a) must always be neutralized first
b) must always be handled in accordance with safety guidelines specific to that class of
compound
c) must always be diluted copiously with water first

31. Chemical reactions

a) may be left unattended overnight as long as secondary containment is present
b) may be left unattended overnight provided information is posted in plain sight
indicating what the reaction involves and who to contact (including phone
numbers) in case of emergency
c) must never be left unattended

SECTION 2. CHEMICAL HAZARDS

32. Major factors in toxicity include

a) the route of exposure
b) personal factors such as age and gender
c) dose
d) all of the above

33. The four routes by which toxic chemicals can enter the body include:
a) inhalation, indigestion, transmission of bodily fluids, and interjection
b) inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection
c) inhalation, constipation, instigation, and investigation

34. Acute poisoning

a) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years
 b) always has a sudden effect
c) is usually fatal
d) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance

35. Chronic poisoning

a) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance
b) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years
c) always has a sudden effect
d) is usually fatal

36. Synergy is
a) the effect of one substance making another less toxic
b) the effect of two substances in combination being more toxic than the effect predicted
based on the sum of the individual components
c) the result of allergens in the environment

37. Some toxic chemicals

a) can be assimilated directly through the skin unless proper protection is taken
b) can be ingested by transferance from hand to mouth after leaving the laboratory
c) can be inhaled even if the substance has a very high boiling point
d) all of the above

38. Allergic reactions

a) always require a second exposure
b) do not always involve the immune system
c) are examples of synergism

39. What does MSDS stand for?

a) Material Safety and Density Sheets
b) Material Safety and Data Sheets
c) Material Security and Data Sheets
d) Maternal Safety and Dada Sheets

40. Where can information regarding specific chemical safety be found?

a) OSHA Laboratory Standards
b) MSDSs
c) MERTKA

41. MSDSs
a) are written by government agencies only
b) are written in a defined format by contractors for OSHA
c) are written by manufacturers and government agencies

42. OSHA stands for

 a) the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
b) the Occupational Safety and Hazard Agency
c) Only Some Hazards are Actual ACS

43. OSHA is
a) a state organization
b) a private company contracted by the US government
c) a federal agency

44. The CAS registry number is

a) a unique identifying number for each chemical
b) a rating of toxicity
c) a rating of flammability

45. An LD50 of 20 in mice indicates that

a) 50% of a test population of 100-g mice would be expected to die within a certain time
period if exposed to 2 mg
b) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time
period if exposed to 20 g
c) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time
period if exposed to 20 ppm of the vapor

46. PEL stands for

a) permissible exposure time length
b) permissible exposure limit
c) personal exposure limit

47. A PEL of 10 ppm indicates that

a) 10 parts per million of this substance in the air is enough to kill you
b) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an adult worker
for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a year is 10 ppm
c) 10 parts per million of this substance in the water is safe for the average adult
d) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an average healthy
adult worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a working lifetime is 10 ppm

48. STEL refers to

a) the safe telecommuting exposure limit
b) the maximum allowable exposure on a short term basis after which the PEL or TLV is
considered violated
c) the standard task exposure limit

49. TWA, as regards to safety, stands for

a) Time-Weighted Average
b) Trans World Airlines
 c) Total Workplace Assessment

50. TLV refers to

a) Total Loss of Volition
b) Tender Loving Volatiles
c) Threshold Limit Value

51. The label DANGER on a chemical container most accurately signifies

a) that the hazards can cause serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical

52. The label WARNING on a chemical container most accurately signifies

a) that the hazards can cause serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical

53. The label CAUTION on a chemical container most accurately signifies

a) that the hazards can cause serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical

54. Labels on bottles containing hazardous chemicals must indicate

a) one of the signal words, Danger, Warning, or Caution
b) the principal foreseeable hazard when used in an industrial workplace
c) the precautionary measures that will protect users
d) the name of the chemical
e) first aid instructions
f) all of the above

55. The label CORROSIVE on a chemical container indicates

a) that the material is an oxidant
b) that contact destroys living tissue as well as equipment
c) that the material can degrade rapidly upon exposure to air

56. FLAMMABLE means

a) easily ignited and capable of burning rapidly
b) capable of autoignition at or only slightly above room temperature.
c) the opposite of "inflammable"

57. "Fatal if swallowed" indicates

a) that the substance will cause death if ingested
b) that the substance will cause death if a sufficient amount is ingested
c) that 50% of a population of test animals that ingested this substance died
58. teratogens
a) are substances that only pregnant women should be particularly concerned about
b) are substances that cause birth defects or fetal death
c) are naturally occurring pyrophoric poisons

59. Examples of oxidizing agents include

a) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
b) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4
c) NaCN, phenol

60. Examples of reducing agents include

a) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4
b) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
c) NaCN, phenol

61. Examples of corrosive chemicals include

a) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2
b) HCl, H3PO4, KOH, Cl2
c) NaCN, phenol

62. Examples of water-reactive chemicals include

a) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2
b) ethanol, n-hexane
c) acid/base pairs, redox pairs

63. Examples of air-reactive include

a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium
b) NaCN, phenol
c) ethanol, n-hexane

64. Examples of highly toxic chemicals include

a) ethanol, n-hexane
b) NaCN, phenol
c) acid/base pairs, redox pairs

65. Examples of less toxic chemicals include

a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) ethanol, n-hexane
c) NaCN, phenol

66. Examples of self-reactive chemicals include

a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium

 b) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2
c) NaCN, phenol

67. Examples of incompatible chemicals include

a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2
c) NaCN, phenol

68. Organic solvents are potential hazards because

a) most organic solvents absorb directly through the skin
b) most organic liquids burn
c) most organic solvents are volatile and flammable
d) all of the above

69. Solvents such as THF and ethyl ether are particularly hazardous because
a) they are flammable
b) they penetrate the skin
c) they form explosive peroxides when exposed to air
d) all of the above

70. Exposure to dilute aqueous hydrofluoric acid is indicated by

a) rapid reddening of the affected area
b) no immediate pain, but then, after several hours, excruciating pain
c) an immediate burning sensation

71. When diluting an acid with water,

a) do it quickly, so that a cool fountain of toxic material is ejected from the flask
b) do not stir the flask, because it might break
c) always add acid to water, not water to acid, so that the heat of reaction can be
controlled

72. Phosphoric acid

a) is a weak acid, so it is not toxic
b) should never be tasted
c) though a component of soft drinks, reacts vigorously with water when in concentrated
form

73. Nitric acid

a) is a strong oxidizing agent
b) is a reducing agent
c) causes skin irritation only in concentrated form

74. Perchloric acid

a) can react explosively with organic compounds
 b) is a very powerful oxidizing agent
c) should not be used by undergraduates unless they are closely supervised
d) all of the above

75. Spilled mercury

a) is an acute poison
b) is dangerous in liquid form, because it absorbs directly through the skin
c) is dangerous because its vapor can be inhaled, and it is a cumulative poison

76. True or false: Formaldehyde is an allergen as well as a suspected carcinogen

a) true
b) false

77. Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous

a) when heated
b) when concentrated
c) when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air and allowed to evaporate
d) all of the above

78. Examples of compounds that can form dangerous explosive peroxides include:
a) cyclooctene
b) decalin
c) para-dioxane
d) cyclohexene
e) ethyl ether
f) tetrahydrofuran
g) tetralin
h) isopropyl ether
i) all of the above

79. Cryogenic liquids are materials with boiling points of less than −73 oC (−100 oF). Liquid
nitrogen, helium, and argon, and slush mixtures of dry ice with isopropanol are the materials most
commonly used in cold traps to condense volatile vapors from a system. In addition, oxygen,
hydrogen, and helium are often used in the liquid state. The primary hazards of cryogenic liquids
include:
a) pressure buildup
b) embrittlement of structural materials
c) frostbite
d) asphyxiation
e) fire or explosion
f) all of the above
SECTION 3. RECOMMENDED LABORATORY TECHNIQUES

80. There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the laboratory. In
addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger emergency response personnel. Which of the
following housekeeping rules should not be adhered to?
a) never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment
b) properly label and store all chemicals
c) secure all compressed gas cylinders to walls or benches
d) store chemical containers on the floor
e) clean work areas, including floors, regularly

81. "Secondary Containment" refers to

a) keeping undergraduates away from donuts at seminars

b) holding high school students beyond the fourth year
c) an additional pan or some sort of equipment that will catch and contain a spill if the
primary vessel containing a hazardous material accidentally breaks

82. What quantity of liquid chemical describes the general transition between maximum amounts
to keep at workbenches and amounts to be stored?
a) 500 mL
b) 250 mL
c) 1.5 L
d) 1.0 L
e) 2.0 L

83. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and laboratories
should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary containers with carrying handle(s) are
commercially available in a variety of sizes. These containers may be made from which of the
following?
a) metal
b) plastic
c) rubber
d) any of the above

84. All containers or laboratory glassware having chemicals in them should be properly labeled.
When should you place a label on a container?
a) after adding a chemical to the container
b) during use of the chemical in the container
c) prior to adding a chemical to the container
d) after the container has been emptied

85. When Professor Hanson had to use his home kitchen fire extinguisher when sautéing onions,
it was because
 a) he failed to recognize the importance of the term "flash point"
b) he was smoking too close to the oil
c) he thought it would be a good way to test the extinguisher

86. Laboratory hoods are NOT to be relied upon for protection from
a) implosion
b) reducing exposure to harmful vapors
c) explosion

87. A simple Kimwipe taped to the bottom of a hood sash so that it can blow in the wind
a) is a reasonably good way to tell if the hood is working properly
b) cannot be relied upon as an indicator of airflow
c) though inexpensive, is a much more sensitive measure of airflow than most electronic
airflow indicators

88. The failure of a belt-driven roof-mounted hood motor is indicated by

a) the sounding of the hood alarm
b) reverse flow of air out of the hood
c) a disturbing noise from above
d) inordinate silence
e) loss of airflow into the hood
f) any of the above

89. On hoods where sashes open vertically, work with the hood sash in the _____ position.
a) lowest possible
b) most comfortable viewing
c) mid-point
d) highest possible

90. The proper person to notify in the case of a malfunctioning hood is

a) the laboratory supervisor
b) laboratory coworkers
c) facilities personnel
d) the stockroom manager
e) all of the above

91. Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is mixed with air in the appropriate
concentration. When handling flammable liquids you should
a) use adequately ventilated work areas
b) keep containers closed except during transfer of contents
c) ground metal lines and vessels to avoid static-generated sparks
d) avoid nearby sources of ignition
e) minimize the creation of flammable vapors
 f) all of the above

92. Hazardous electrical voltages may be as low as

a) 25 V AC
b) 5V DC
c) 25 V DC
d) 10 V AC

93. Centrifuges are particularly unsafe if

a) starting to walk off the table
b) not balanced
c) a clinking sound is heard
d) opened prior to coasting to a full stop
e) all of the above

94. High pressure air

a) is good for cleaning glassware
b) is good for evaporating organic compounds to dryness
c) can penetrate the skin without making any visible opening, causing it to balloon

95. Ultraviolet light should be considered dangerous if

a) it has a wavelength longer than 400 nm
b) it has a wavelength longer than 250 nm
c) it is seen to have a greenish glow
d) it has a wavelength shorter than 250 nm

96. When heating a reaction,

a) the equipment should be assembled in such a way that heat can be removed rapidly and
easily at any time
b) flames should be avoided
c) always be careful not to exceed the smoking temperature of the oil if an oil bath is used
d) all of the above

97. The best liquid for use in a dry-ice bath is

a) isopropyl alcohol
b) acetone
c) ethyl ether

98. When working at reduced pressure,

a) surround the apparatus with shielding
b) always be aware of the danger of implosion
c) be alert to bumping (sudden boiling)
d) place a cold trap between the apparatus and the vacuum pump
e) all of the above
SECTION 4. SAFETY EQUIPMENT AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

99. Before you help another person in an emergency,

a) evaluate the potential danger to yourself
b) reread the safety policies for the laboratory
c) act first, think later

100. When an emergency occurs:

a) report the nature of the emergency to your instructor and, if necessary, to the
appropriate fire or medical facility
b) tell others in the vicinity about the nature of the emergency
c) do not move any injured individuals unless they are in immediate danger
d) when calling 9911, stay on the line and follow the dispatcher's instructions. Be prepared
to tell them your location, phone number, where you will meet emergency
crews, general medical status of any hurt or trapped individuals, whether an explosion
has occurred, and whether there is a chemical or electrical fire
e) meet the ambulance or fire crew at the place indicated
f) stay off the phone once you hang up so that it is free for emergency crews to call you
g) all of the above

101. The best way to fight a fire

a) is to prevent it in the first place
b) is with a fire blanket

102. A small fire

a) often can be extinguished by suffocating it
b) can quickly grow to become a larger fire
c) can generally be dowsed with a wet towel to put it out
d) all of the above

103. The fire alarm should be pulled and the fire department should be called
a) if in your estimation it is important to do so
b) whenever there is a fire of any size whatsoever
c) only when a fire is out of control

104. The NFPA provides and advocates for scientifically-based consensus codes and standards,
research, training and education related to fire protection. NFPA 45 is the standard on fire protection
for laboratories using chemicals. NFPA stands for what?

a) National Fire Protection Agency

b) National Fire Procedures Advocates
c) National Fire and Programming Agency
d) National Fire Protection Association
105. All chemical laboratories be equipped with fire extinguishers. Which one of the four types of
extinguishers most commonly used should not be found in a chemical laboratory?
a) Water
b) Carbon Dioxide
c) Dry Chemical
d) Met-L-XNFPA

106. A "Class-A" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
c) electrical equipment
d) combustible metals

107. A "Class-B" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) electrical equipment
c) combustible metals
d) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)

108. A "Class-C" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) electrical equipment
c) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
d) combustible metals

109. A "Class-D" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) electrical equipment
c) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
d) combustible metals

110. Fire extinguishers have numerical and ABC ratings on them that look something like "1-A:10-
B:C". If an extinguisher has a "6-A:80-B:C" rating, it can put out ____ fire as a "3-A:40-B:C"
extinguisher.
a) half as much
b) twice as much
c) an equal amount of
d) three times more

111. When operating a fire extinguisher, remember the mnemonic PASS. PASS represents the steps
used to properly operate the extinguisher and it stands for which of the following?
a) Pin, Aim, See, Swing
b) Pull, Access, Seize, Sweep
c) Plan, Access, Squeeze, Swing
 d) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

112. True or false: A fire blanket is only useful prior to the fire being extinguished.
a) true
b) false

113. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and laboratories
should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary containers with carrying handle(s) are
commercially available in a variety of sizes. These containers may be made from which of the
following?
a) rubber
b) metal
c) plastic
d) any of the above

114. For small liquid spills that only affect a small area of skin, immediate flush with flowing water
for at least

a) 10 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 30 minutes

115. True or false: Solid chemicals that are spilled on the skin can usually be brushed off with no
adverse consequences.
a) true
b) false

116. Larger spills of a hazardous liquid on the skin

a) require immediate use of the safety shower
b) can usually be wiped off without serious problem
c) should be dealt with by taking off all the affected clothes immediately, then running to
the nearest shower

117. True or false: Kitty litter is often effective for cleaning up spilled liquids.
a) true (hey, it works for kitty!)
b) false (who are you trying to kit?)

118. A large cloud of "smoke" and a WHOOSHing noise in the NMR room indicates
a) it's time to get a new NMR
b) your sample is burning
c) it's time to hit the emergency ventilation button and leave the room immediately. Find
the nearest professor and tell them, "Better tell Bob that the NMR has
quenched."
 d) the NMR is on fire
119. The culture of laboratory safety depends ultimately on the working habits of individual
chemists and their sense of teamwork for the protection of what group?
a) co-workers
b) individual chemists
c) wider community
d) the environment
e) neighbors
f) all of the above