Final Exam (90 Questions) Date: June 14, 2021 Course: Cell Biology (1) : Chapter 13 Part 2 and Chapters 14-16 NAME: - STUDENT #

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Final Exam (90 questions)

Date: June 14, 2021


Course: Cell Biology (1): Chapter 13 part 2 and Chapters 14-16
NAME: _______________________
STUDENT #: ___________________

Please answer in English. Some of answers are more than one word (NO half
point).

1) ___________ directs proteins to the cell nucleus.


a) NLS
b) Y complex
c) Hydrophobic FG repeat region
d) Digitonin

2) Mitochondrial protein import requires outer-membrane receptors and ___________


in both membranes.

3) Two ________ residues at the N-terminus of the thylakoid-targeting sequence and a


pH gradient across the inner membrane are required for transport of the folded protein
into the thylakoid lumen.

4) In the nucleoplasm, Ran GTP binds to the _________, causing a conformational


change that decreases its affinity for the NLS and releasing the cargo.

5) Which of followings is correct about cisternal maturation?


a) Nonvesicular process of anterograde transport
b) Vesicular process of anterograde transport
c) Nonvesicular process of retrograde transport
d) Vesicular process of retrograde transport

6) The specific joining of ___________________________ in the vesicle membrane


with cognate t-SNAREs in the target membrane to which the vesicle is docked brings
the membranes into close apposition, allowing the two bilayers to fuse.

7) __________ vesicles transport proteins from the ER to the Golgi.

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8) _______ vesicles mainly transport proteins in the retrograde direction between Golgi
cisternae and from the cis -Golgi back to the ER.
9) ______ vesicles transport proteins from the plasma membrane (cell surface) and the
trans -Golgi network to late endosomes.
10-11) In the GTP-bound form of Sar1, its hydrophobic N-terminus extends outward
from the protein’s surface and anchors Sar1 to the ___ membrane. Sar1 attached to the
membrane serves as a binding site for the _____________ coat protein complex.
12) ______ (name of GTPases) control docking of vesicles on target membranes.
13) Dissociation of SNARE complexes after membrane fusion is driven by ______
hydrolysis.
14) The KDEL receptor, located mainly in the cis -Golgi network and in both COPII and
COPI vesicles, binds proteins bearing the KDEL sorting signal and returns them to the
________.
15) ER luminal proteins bear a C-terminal __________________sequence that
allows them to be retrieved.

16) Which of followings is not a characteristic of patients with I-cell disease?


a) Large inclusions in lysosome
b) Lack of GlcNAc phosphotransferase
c) Secretion of lysosomal enzymes
d) Mannose 6-phosphate residue on lysosomal enzymes

17) Vesicles coated with ______ and/or adapter proteins mediate transport from the
trans–Golgi.
18) ______-catalyzed hydrolysis of GTP leads to release of clathrin/AP-coated
vesicle from the donor membrane.
19) __________________________ residues target soluble proteins to lysosomes.
20) A ___________ within late endosomes usually removes the phosphate from M6P
residues on lysosomal enzymes, preventing any rebinding to the M6P receptor.

21) A variety of mutations in the gene encoding the ______________ can cause familial
hypercholesterolemia, a hereditary disease that is marked by elevated plasma LDL
cholesterol.

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22) The ____ pH of late endosomes causes most receptor-ligand complexes to
dissociate.
23) Cholesterol travels in the blood in particles called
___________________________, each a complex of lipids and a protein.
24) In endosomal budding, __________________________ Hrs on the endosomal
membrane directs loading of specific membrane cargo proteins into vesicle buds and
then recruits cytosolic ESCRT proteins to the membrane.
25) The autophagic pathway delivers cytosolic proteins or entire organelles to
______________.

26) Which of followings does not involve in termination of rhodopsin signal


transduction?
a) Transducin
b) Rhodopsin kinase
c) Guanylate cyclase
d) Arrestin

27) Only eight amino acids on growth hormone contribute for binding with two
_____________ amino acid residues in the growth hormone receptor.
28-29) Ligand binding triggers a conformational change in the receptor, leading to
activation of the appended kinase. The kinase then phosphorylates the monomeric,
inactive form of a specific transcription factor, leading to its dimerization and movement
from the cytosol into the __________, where it activates transcription of target genes. A
___________ in the nucleus will remove the phosphate group from the transcription
factor, causing it to form the inactive monomer and then move back into the cytosol.
30) The G protein is active when it has bound GTP and inactive when it has bound
______. Conversion of the active into the inactive form by hydrolysis of the bound GTP.
31-32) A second messenger, _____, activates PKA whereas_____, also known as a
second messenger, activates PKG.
33) ______, known as a second messenger, opens Ca2+ channels in the endoplasmic
reticulum.
34) _________-coupled receptors (GPCRs) are the largest family of cell-surface
receptors.
35) G protein functions as a _______ enzyme—in other words, it hydrolyzes its bound
GTP to GDP.

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36-37) Acetylcholine receptors in the heart muscle activate a G protein that opens ____
channels, which leads to ______________ of the membrane causing a reduced
frequency of muscle contraction.
38) _________activates G protein–coupled rhodopsins in rod cells of the eye.
39) In dark-adapted rod cells, a high level of _______ keeps nucleotide-gated
nonselective cation channels open, leading to depolarization of the plasma membrane
and neurotransmitter release.
40-41) Light absorption generates activated rhodopsin, R*, which binds inactive GDP-
bound Gαt protein and mediates replacement of GDP with _______. The free Gαt •GTP
generated then activates ___________________________ by binding to its inhibitory γ
subunits.
42) GPCRs are a large and diverse family with a common structure of seven
membrane spanning ______ helices.

43) ___________________ is the photosensitive GPCR in rod cells.

44-45) Ligand binding causes a conformational change in GPCR, allowing it to bind to


and function as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for its coupled G protein,
catalyzing dissociation of _________ and allowing _____________ to bind.

46) The cardiac muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is a GPCR whose effector protein
is a ________________

47) The effector protein in the rhodopsin pathway is __________________________.

48) Binding of _______ to phosphorylated rhodopsin inhibits activation of transducin.

49) Activation of rhodopsin by light leads to closing of _________-gated ion channels.

50) A receptor for nitric oxide has __________ activity.


a) Guanylyl cyclase
b) GTPase
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP phosphodiesterase

51-52) In glycogen metabolism, incorporation of glucose from UDP-glucose into


glycogen is catalyzed by ___________________, whereas removal of glucose units
from glycogen is catalyzed by _______________________.

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53-54) Ligand binding to Gαs –coupled receptors causes _________ of adenylyl cyclase
in adipose cells, whereas ligand binding to Gαi -coupled receptors causes _________ of
the enzyme.

55-56) Synthesis and hydrolysis of cAMP are catalyzed by ______________ and


______________, respectively.

57-58) Binding of a single epinephrine molecule to one G protein–coupled receptor


molecule induces activation of _____________, the enzyme that catalyzes the
synthesis of cyclic AMP, and the cAMP activate __________________ that
phosphorylates and activates multiple target proteins.

59) A transcription factor, _________, links cAMP and PKA to activation of gene
transcription.

60) CRE-target genes contain a cis-acting DNA sequence, ______-response element


(CRE).

61) In heart muscle cells, AKAP 15 anchored PKA to cytosolic face of plasma
membrane next to __________ channels.

62) A small rise of cytosolic ____ induces a variety of cellular responses such as
hormone secretion by endocrine cells, secretion of digestive enzymes by pancreatic
exocrine cells and contraction of muscle.

63) Cleavage of PIP2 by ____________ yields IP3 and DAG.

64-65) IP3 elevates the cytosolic Ca2+ level (released from ___) and DAG activates
_______________.

66) PKC involved in regulation of glycogen metabolism in liver by


phosphorylation/Inactivation of ____________________.

67-68) Nitric oxide (NO) activates an intracellular NO receptor with ______________


activity to synthesize cGMP. The resulting increase in cGMP leads to activation of
_______________, which triggers a pathway resulting in muscle relaxation and
vasodilation.

69) In about 25 percent of breast cancers, the tumor cells produce elevated levels of
one particular EGF receptor called _________.

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70) ___________ has been used for over a century as a treatment for the intense
chest pain of angina. It was known to slowly decompose in the body to nitric oxide
(NO), which causes relaxation of the smooth muscle cells surrounding the blood
vessels that “feed” the heart muscle itself, thereby increasing the diameter of the
blood vessels and increasing the flow of oxygen-bearing blood to the heart muscle.

71) Injection of ______, a ligand for GPCRs, into the brain ventricles caused animals
to eat more, and expression of the gene increased markedly during fasting.

72) In _________ signaling, the signaling molecules are synthesized and secreted by
signaling cells, transported through the circulatory system of the organism, and finally
act on target cells distant from their site of synthesis.

73) Which of followings is not correct?


a) Cytosolic domains of RTKs are tightly associated with cytosolic kinases.
b) JAK kinases activate STAT transcription factors.
c) Dimerization of STAT involves conformational changes that expose the nuclear-
localization signal.
d) Signals pass from activated Ras to a cascade of protein kinases, ending with
MAP Kinase.

74) Binding of ligand promotes ____________ of an RTK and leads to activation of its
intrinsic kinase.

75) In the absence of _______________, erythroid progenitor cells undergo apoptosis.

76) Cytosolic proteins with SH2 or PTB domains can bind to ____________ residues
in activated RTKs.

77) Examples of GEFs (guanine nucleotide exchange factors) are G protein-coupled


receptors and _______. The 2nd example links between GRB2 and inactive Ras.

78) The ___________ isoform of PLC enzyme is activated by many RTKs and cytokine
receptors.

79) Signaling pathways involve as intermediates special phosphorylated phospholipids


derived from phosphatidyl inositol. These membrane-bound lipids are collectively
referred to as ________________.

80) __________________ domain binds to PI 3,4-bipphosphate or PIP3.

81) The PI-3 Kinase pathway is negatively regulated by ________ phosphatase.

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82) Which of following signal pathways is not controlled by ubiquitination?
a) Hedgehog
b) Wnt
c) NF-κB
d) TGF-β

83) __________ signaling generally inhibits cell proliferation.

84) __________ disrupts the normal interaction between Smad3 and Smad4.

85) Receptor serine kinase activates ________ transcription factors.

86) Wnt signaling triggers release of ______ transcription factor from a cytosolic protein
complex.

87) In mammals, _____________ signaling is restricted to the primary cilium that


protrudes from the cell surface.

88) Notch cleavage by __________________ releases the cytosolic segment of Notch.

89) SREBP (SRE-binding protein) is a _________-dependent transcription factor in ER


membrane.

90) Activated ___________ phosphorylates and inhibits two repressors of PPARγ gene.

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