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TEST CODE 02207010

FORM TP 2020173 MAY JUNE 2020

CARIB BEAN EXAMINATION S CoUNCIL

CARIBBEAN ADVANCED PROFIcIENCY EX:AMINATION

BIOLOGY

UNIT 2- Paper 01

1 hour 30 minutes

11 JUNE 2020 (a.m.)

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY.

1. This test consists of 45 items. You will have l hour and 30 minutes to answer them.

In addition to this test booklet. you should have an answer sheet.

Do not be concemed that the answer sheet provides spaces for more answers than there are items
3.
in this test.
Each item in this test has four suggested answers lettered (A). (B). (C). (D). Read each item you
are about to answer and decide which choice is best.

On your answer sheet, find the number which corresponds to your item and shade the space having
the same letter as the answer you have chosen. Look at the sample item below.

Sample Item
Which of the following is NOT a form of
Sample Answer
energy storage?

(A) ATP BCD

(B) Lipid
(C) Alcohol
(D) Lactic acid

The best answer to this item is *ATP". so (A) has been shaded.

it completely before you fill in your new choice.

6. If you want to change your answer. erase

When you are told to begin, turn the page and work as quickly and as carefully as you can. Ifyou
7. cannot answer an item, g0 on to the next one. You may return to that item later.

8. You may do any rough work in this booklet.

9. are not necessarily drawn to scale.

Figures

10. The use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Copyright © 2018 Caribbean Examinations Council.

All rights reserved.
 2

section through a dicotyledonous leaf

iem] refers to the following diagram of a longitudinal

its importance in photosynthesis

1. Which ofthe following combinationscorrectly identifies Cell Xand

Cell X Importance in Photosynthesis

(A) Spongy Contains numerous chloroplasts

(B) Palisade Contains photosynthetic pigments

(C)Spongy Contains photosynthetic pigments

(D) Palisade Contains numerous mitochondria

non-cyclic photophosphorylation. photolysis

occurs,oxygen is released and hydrogen is taken
2. In
molecules accepts hydrogen in this process?
molecule. Which of the following
up by an acceptor

(A) FAD
(B) NAD
(C) RuBP
(D) NADP

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 3

Item3 refers to the following diagram which outlines the events of the Calvin cycle.

Carbon dioxide

X Glucose | Starch

Ribulose
bisphosphate

3. Which of the following correctly identifies the compounds X and Y?

X Y
(A) Triose phosphate Phosphoglyceric acid
(B) Phosphoglyceric acid Triose phosphate
(C) Acetyl CoA Succinic acid
(D) Simple sugars Proteins

Item 4 refers to the following schematic diagram which summarizes the main steps in glycolysis.

Glucose

Fructose -6 - phosphate

Triose phosphate Triose phosphate

IV

Pyruvate

At what stage does substrate level phosphorylation occur?

(A)
(B)
(C) III
(D) IV

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 4

In anaerobic respiration, the maximum number of ATP molecules that may be produced from a
.
molecule of glucose is

(A)
(B)
C) 34
(D) 38

section through mitochondrion.

Item6 refers to the following diagram of a a

III

IV

Which of the structures labelled I, I, II and IV represents the region where ATPase is located?

(A)
(B) II
(C)
(D) IV

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 refers to the following diagram
Lten Zrefers to the following graph which Ltem 8
shows the etfects of increasing light showing an experimental set-up.
intensity on the rate of photosynthesis.

Pipettetip

IV

Light intensity
Germinating
peas Dry peas
1. Atwhich ofthe labelled stagesabove would Dry non-absorbent
light be a limiting factor? cotton
Beads-

Absorbent cotton
(A) soaked with KOH
(B)
(C) Apparatus I Apparatus II
(D) IV

8. A possible reason for setting up Apparatuss

Il is to

measure the amount of carbon

(A)
dioxide being evolved by dry peas
(B) verify that oxygen gas is being
consumed only by germinating
peas

(C) compare the amount of carbon

dioxide used by peas in both tubes
(D) control the amount ofoxygen being
consumed by germinating peas in
Apparatus I

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 - 6-

12. Which of the following entities is NOT

9. In anaerobic respiration, pyruvate does not
recycled in ecosystems?
enter the Krebs cycle but instead undergoes
fermentation'. Which of the following is
NOT a possible product of this process? (A) Energy
(B) Sulfur
(A) Ethanol (C) Nitrogen
(B) Lactic acid (D) Phosphorus
(C) Oxidized NAD
(D) Reduced NAD
13. Which of the following statements
concerning a food web is INcORRECT?
10. Which of the following pairs of statements
correctly distinguishes between energy flow (A) Food webs show how much energy
and nutrient cycling in ecosystems? flows through an ecosystem.
(B) The complexity of food webs in
Energy Flow Nutrient Cycling | most ecosystems makes them
very stable.
| (A) |Occurs through | Occurs within an (C) Food webs have more than one
anecosystem ecosystem organism feeding at different
(B) Driven by | Driven by trophic levels.
photosynthesis |respiration (D) Food webs can be used to predict
(C) |Driven by Driven by the results of disturbances in the
respiration photosynthesis community.
(D) Occurs within Occurs through
anecosystem an ecosystem
14. Which of the following contributes the
MOST electrons to the electron transport
11. Which ofthe followingrepresent limitations chain?
of using pyramids of energy to describe
relationships between trophic levels in (A) Fermentation
ecosystems? (B) Calvin cycle
C) Krebs eycle
. A single grass plant has the same (D) Glycolysis
status as a tree.
II. It requires combustion of repre-
sentative samples which may be 15. Which of the following is NOT a
time-consuming. conservation method used to maintain
It may be difficult to assign a biodiversity?
species to one trophic level, for
example, omnivores. (A) Sperm bank
(B) Botanic garden
(A) I and II only (C) Protected reserve
(B) I and lIl only (D) Genetic engineering
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and IlI

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16. The tunica externa found in the walls of arteries and veins is made up of MAINLY

(A) elastic fibres

(B) collagen fibres
(C) smooth muscle
(D) squamous epithelium

Item17 refers to the following diagram of a longitudinal section of a mammalian heart.

17. Which of the following is true for the structure labelled X?

(A) Delays impulses for a fraction of a second before they travel down into the ventricles
Receives impulses from the brain to initiate contraction of the atria
(B)
Conducts impulses very rapidly to the base of the ventricles
(C)
(D) Separates the right ventricle from the left ventricle

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p ad pl
 tem 20 refers to the following diagram which shows a representation of an electron micrograph
of a transverse section of two cells in the phloem tissue of the stem of a plant

Nucleus

20. The cell labelled I is a

(A) sieve tube element

(B) parenchyma cell
(C) companion cell
(D) fibre cell

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 - 10

refers to the following diagram Item 22 refers to the following diagram on

Item 21 a neurone in the human nervous system.
which shows a type of vascular tissue.

Which of the following types of neurones

22.
is represented in the diagram?

Inter-neurone
(A)
(B) Motor neurone

(C) Sensory neurone

(D) Relay neurone

23. A normal pulse is due to

(A) arterial diastole

(B) arterial systole
(C) ventricular diastole
21. Which ofthe following would MOSTlikely ventricular systole
result ifthe structure labelled I is damaged?
(D)

(A) Sucrose would enter the xylem Which of the following structures must be
24.
vessels.
stimulated to increase heart rate?
(B) Hydrostatic pressure would be lost
in II.
(A) Vena cava
(C) Active transport of sucrose would
(B) Sinoatrial node
occur faster.
(C) Cardiac muscle
(D) Large quantities of sucrose would
(D) Atrioventricular node
diffuse into II.

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 - 11

tem25 refers to the following graph which shows the oxygen dissociation curves of haemoglobin
at three ditferent
partial pressures of carbon dioxide.

Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (mm Hg)

A.

80
40 70
60
40

20

20 40 60 80 100
Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)

25. From the graph, it can be deduced that at

(A) high partial pressures of oxygen, the rate of release ofoxygen from haemoglobin increases
(B) low partial pressures of oxygen, the rate of release of oxygen from haemoglobin decreases
(C) low partial pressures of carbon dioxide, the rate of release of oxygen from haemoglobin
increases
(D) high partial pressures of carbon dioxide, the rate of release of oxygen from haemoglobin
increases

26. Which of the following statements BEST explains the significance of the control centre in
homeostasis?

(A) lt acts as a stimulus to send information towards the effector.

(B) It stimulates both the detector and the effector to produce a response.
(C) It acts as a reference point to determine the mode of action by the effector.
(D) It stimulates the detector to measure the incoming information in the system.

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 - 12

mammalian nephron and its associato.

following diagram which shows the
fem 27 refers to the
blood vessels.

IV

Which region has cells with numerous mitochondria and microvilli lining its lumens?
27.

(A)
(B) II
(C)
(D) IV

The target cells of the antidiuretic hormone 29. Which of the follow ing are functions ofa
28.
are cells of the mammalian synapse?

Passes impulses in both directions

(A) loop of Henlé and distal convoluted .
tubule II. Filters out low-level stimuli
(B) glomerular capillary and renal Acts as a junction
capsule
proximal convoluted tubule and (A) I and II only
(C)
collecting duct (B) I and Ill only
(D) collecting duct and distal (C) II and I only
convoluted tubule (D) I, II and II

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 - 13

tem 30 refers to the following diagram which shows a synapse. The numbered arrows represent
the movement of substances across the neurone membranes.

IV

Presynaptic neurone
Postsynaptic neurone

Direction of transmission of action potential

30. Which of the following correctly identifies the substances moving across the membranes at Points
I, II, III and IV?

(A) K Ca Ca Na

(B) K Na Acetylcholine Ca,

(C) Na Ca, Acetylcholine

(D) Na Ca, Acetylcholine Na

31. Which of the following BEST describes 33. Which of the following is NOT an
antigens? appropriate definition of the immune
response?
(A) Cell surface proteins that trigger an
immune response Involves specific and non-specific
(A)
(B) Proteins in the cytoplasm that trigger responses which attempt to
an immune response destroy an invading pathogen
(C) Substances produced by pathogens (B) Any response of the immune
that trigger an immune response system to an antigenic stimulus
(D) Substances produced by the body (C) Adverse effects on the functioning
in response to an infection of the immune system due to
allergens
(D) Involves responses that allow the
32. A highly malignant tumour linked to body to distinguish self from
ultraviolet radiation is a non-self

(A) sarcoma

(B) papilloma
(C) melanoma
(D) lymphoma

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 - 14 -

does
37. Which of the following procedures
34. Which type ofresponsewould MOSTlikely NOT involve the
use of monoclonal

be involved in producing immunoglobulins? antibodies?

(A) Cell-mediated response

(A) Tissue typing
(B) Humoral response Diabetes test
Physical immune response (B)
(C) Pregnancy test
(D) Non-specific immune response (C)
Cancer treatment
(D)

T-lymphocytes mature in the is true

35. Which of the following
statements
38.
for mast cells?
(A) thymus
(B) spleen found in lymph nodes
lymph nodes (A) They are
(C) only.
D) bone marrow
They are the smallest circulating
(B)
granulocytes.
which
The presence of a hormone is used as the (C) They are large granulocytes
36.
engulf pathogens.
basis for a pregnancy test. Which of the
(D) They contain many granules rich
following hormones is present in the urine in histamine and heparin.
of a pregnant woman?

(A) Oestrogen
(B) Progesterone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
C)
Human chorionic gonadotropin
(D)

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 - 15 -

Item 32 refers to the following diagram showing clonal selection and expansion as seen in the
immune response.

O
IOTO

39. During which of the stages labelled I, II, III and IV are cytokines involved?

(A) I
(B) II
(C)
(D) IV

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 -16-

ltem 40 refers to ie following diagram 2. The formula for body mass index (BM) is
which shows the structure of the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Mass (kg)
Height (m)

What is the BMI for an individual whose

weight is l130 kg and height 170 cem?
P

(A) 0.0045
(B) 0.0222
(C) 45
Q 76
(D)

40. The parts labelled P and Q are

Items4344 refer to the following types of
P immunity.
Q
(A)reverse transcriptase | RNA Natural passive immunity
(A)
(B)reverse transcriptase DNA (B) Natural active immunity
(C)RNA polymerase RNA (C) Artificial passive immunity
(D) Artificial active immunity
D) RNA polymerase DNA
In answering Items 43-44. mateh each itenm
with one of the options above. Each option
Item41 refers to the following table which may be used once, more than once or not
summarizes statistical data recorded for
HIV infections in Country X during the t all.
period 2004 to 2005.
The type of immunity acquired
Number of
Population 43. from the injection of an attenuated antigen
Year
Number
People Living into the body
with HIV

2004 456 600 5000 44. as a result of an infection such as chicken

2005 456 600 5600
pox

41. What is the incidence rate of HIV during

the period 2004 to 2005?

(A) 0.012%
(B) 0.13%
(C) 12%
(D) 13%

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 17-

45. Compared to non-smokers, smokers are at a greater risk of suffering from a stroke MOST likely
because of an increase in the

(A) levels of dopamine in parts of the brain

(B) probability of blood clots forming inappropriately because the blood is more viscous
(C) rate of cell division in the lung tissue leading to a greater risk of tumour development
(D) deterioration of the lung tissue due to the breakdown of the walls of many alveoli

END OF TEST

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

02207010/MJ/CAPE 2020