1. The IPSec VPN forwards the protected data flows through the IPSec tunnel.

Resp  FALSE

2. Huawei network devices allow multiple users to log in to the system through the console port at the
same time.
Resp  FALSE

3. The ARG3 series routers support the configuration of the authentication scheme and accounting
scheme
Resp  FALSE

4. Link backup can be used in manual load balancing mode link aggregation.
Resp  FALSE

5. When the default route is configured, the destination network address is 255.255.255.255
Resp  FALSE

6. When configuring PPPoE run ‘the dialer bundle’ command to specify the Dialer bundle used by the
dialer interface.
Resp  TRUE

7. After the root brigde is faulty, other switches are elected as the root bridge. After the original root
bridge recovers the network does not change.
Resp  FALSE

8. After the ‘interface loopback 0’ command is run the physical layer of the loopback 0 interface is UP
and the protocol layer Down.
Resp  FALSE

9. The port cost is the total cost of the path to the root bridge, and the root path cost is the cost of the
switch port.
Resp  FALSE

10. The subnet mask is used to distinguish the types of IP addresses

Resp  FALSE

11. What is OSPFv3 used to uniquely identify a router?

Resp  A ROUTER ID.
12. Which ports are supported by the FTP control plane channel by default??
Resp  21

13. Which of the following routing table parameters indicates the priority of a route?
Resp  A Preference

14. What is the first step when a terminal device receives a data frame?
Resp  Check the destination MAC address

15. Which field in the MPLS header identifies the stack bottom label?
a) Exp
b) Label
c) TTL
d) $

16. What is the function of the TTL field in the IP packet header??
a) Prevent mac address flapping.
b) Limit the lifetime and discard the packets that cannot reach the destination
c) Record the path information that the packet passes through
d) Prevent broadcast storm

17. How many packets need to be exchanged in CHAP authentication mode?

a. 3 packets
b. 5 packets
c. 2 packets
d. 4 packets

18. Which field in an Ethernet data frame determines the upper-layer protocol of a network device?
a. Type
b. $ MAC
c. FCS
d. D.MAC

19. What is the function of synchronization in the P/A mechanism?

a. Run the spanning tree protocol in multi-instance scenarios
b. Avoid the generation of temporary loops
c. Determine the switch role
d. Determine the port role.

20. Which of the following transmission media is used when Gigabit Ethernete is deployed on an
enterprise network?
a. Optical Fiber
b. Twisted pair cable
c. Serial port cable
 d. Coaxial cable

21. What are the functions and feature of NAPT?

a. Only one-to-one mapping between private addresses and public addresses can be implemented.
b. Allow external users access internal servers.
c. NAPT allows multiple internal addresses to be mapped to different ports of the same public
address
d. NAPT is Port based transl ation.

22.What are the possible operations if a router receives broadcast packets from hosts on the network

a. Saved on the local

b. Forwarding to other broadcast domains
c. Discard
d. Response part packet if necessary.

23. Which of the following packet filed can be used for advanced ACL rules ??
a. TCP flag
b. Source/Destination IP address
c. Source/Destination port number
d. Protocol Type

24. What is the VRP Version Used by Huawei Datacom Devices?

a. VRP8
b. VRP5
c. VRP4
d. VRP2

25. Which of the following parameters are used by the router to select the optimal route?
a. Priority of route
b. Metric
c. Next Hop Address
d. Outbound interface

26. After the VRP is upgraded and restarted, how can the administrator confirm that the upgrade is
successful?
a. Run the ‘display version’ command.
b. Run the ‘display current configuration’ command
c. Run the ‘compare configuration’ command.
d. Run the ‘display startup’ command.

27. Which types of ICMP messages are used for ping?

a. Error packet
b. Echo Reply
c. Echo Request
d. Redirect

28. Which of the following flags are involved in TCP three-way handshake?
a. Fin
b. SYN
c. ACK
d. Seq
29. Which IP addresses are reserved in the address pool?
a. IP address reserved for a specific host
b. Gateway IP address
c. Interface IP address of the DHCP server
d. IP address assigned to the server.

30. Which of the following parameters can be defined for IPSec peers by Security Association?
a. Encryption algorithm
b. Data Encapsulation mode
c. Authentication algorithm
d. Charging Mode

31. The first four bits of a multicast IP address are fixed as 1110 and are mapped to the high 25 bits of a
multicast MAC addresss. Among the last 28 bits of a multicast IP address, only 23 bits are mapped to a
multicast MAC address, and information about the other 5 bits is lost. As a result, 32 multicast IP
addresses are mapped to the same MAC address.
. True
. False

32. If the number of checked goods is different from the number of goods on the packing list, you can unpack
and inspect goods and the contact the vendor to handle the inconsistency.
o True
o False

33. IGMPv1 defines a mechanism to select a querier when there are multiple routers on a shared network.
o True
o False

34. Each DD packet has a DD sequence number, which is used for DD packet acknowledgement. DD
contains complete link state information.
o True
o False

35. After add interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 is configured in the trust zone view of the USG series
firewall, GigabitEthern0/0/1 does not belong to the local zone anymore.
o True
o False

36. Which of the following statements regarding MUX VLAN is true?

a. The MUX VLAN function must be enabled on an interface so that it can take effect.
b. You don not need to configure the principal VLAN and subordinate VLAN in sequence.
c. The principal VLAN and the subordinate VLAN of the MUX VLAN can be the same VLAN.
d. The MUX VLAN can contain only one subordinate group VLAN.

37. For interzone packet filtering which traffic is belong to transmitted to outbound direction?
a. Untrusted zone -> Trusted zone
b. Trusted zone -> Local zone
c. Trusted zone -> Untrusted zone
d. Unstrusted zone -> DMZ

38. Which of the following statement regarding stub area configuration notes is true?
a. An ASBR can belong to a stub area.
b. The backbone are can be configured as a stub area
c. A virtual link can pass through a stub area
d. If an area is configured as a stub area, all the routers within this area must have stub area attibutes
configured.

39. Which of the following events represent the end of the network planning stagge?
a. Preliminary project acceptance
b. Bid release
c. Project initation
d. Contract signing

40. During MSTP troubleshooting the display current-configuration command is executed to obtain the
configuration file of the device. Which of the following statement is false ?
a. Check whether the interface is added to the correct VLAN
b. The port connected to a user device has MSTP disabled or is configured as the edge port.
c. Check the port configuration to verify that the MSTP-enabled port is configured ( for example, using
the bpdu enable command ) to send protocol packets.
d. The BPDU tunnel configuration has no impact on MSTP.

41. On a network running RSTP, some devices use STP. When RSTP-enabled switches detect a
topology change, which method is used by the RSTP-enabled switches to notify STP-enabled
switches of the topology change?
a. STP BPDUs with the TCA are used.
b. RSTP BPDUs with the TC are used.
c. STP BPDUs with the TC are used.
d. RSTP BPDUs with the TCA are used.

42. What is the Origin attribute of the routes injected into BGP using the network command?
a. IGP
b. EGP
c. Inclomplete
d. Unknown

43. Which of the following statement regarding an SPT switchover after RPT setup is false ??
a. An STP has the sortest path and provides higher forwarding performance than an RPT.
b. A RPT cannot be used to forward high volumens of traffics.
c. An RPT cannot provide multicast forwarding for a long time.
d. Because all multicast traffics passess through an RP router, the RP router may become the data
forwarding bottleneck.

44. Which information of labels is used for simple traffic classification?

a. DSCP priority
b. IP precedence
c. 802.1p priority
d. MPLS EXP priority

45. If a fault is located on a router that works in redundancy mode with another router, which of the
following methods is the most appropriate for subsequent troubleshooting?
a. Configuration comparison
b. Bottom-up
 c. Service traffic path check
d. Top-Down

46. In the SDN network architechture which device is used to calculate the path and deliver the flow
table?
a. Device
b. Aplication server
c. Orchestrator
d. Controler

47. MPLS VPN is used to solve some limitations of traditional VPN technology. Which are the major
limitation that MPLS VPN solve
a. Bandwith resources cannot be fully used
b. The address space is overlapping
c. Leased lines are expensive
d. Private routes cannot communicate with each other.

48. Port isolation provides secure and flexible networking solutions for users. Which of the following
statements regarding port isolation is false ?
a. Port isolation can be used form configuring Layer 2 isolation.
b. By default interfaces are isolated at Layer 2 but can communicate at Layer 3.
c. The port-isolate enable command can run in the system view.
d. Before the port isolation function takes effect on an interface, the port isolation function must be
enabled.

49. Which of the following statements regarding VRRP is false?

a. When two routers with the same priority preempt to be the master router, the IP addresses of
interfaces are compared. The router with a larger IP address of the interface is selected as the master
router.
b. VRRP determines the device role in the virtual router bases on device priorities.
c. Even if there is the master router, the backup router will preempt to be the master router.
d. If the backup router works in non-preemtion mode, the backup router with a higher priority does not
become the master router as long as the master router does not fail.

50. Which command is used to enable association between BFD and VRRP=
a. VRRP VRID 1 track bfd-session session-name 1 reduced 100
b. Track VRRP VRID 1 bfd-session session-name 1 reduced 100
c. Bfd-session vrrp vrid 1 track session-name 1 reduced 100
d. VRRP VRID 1 track bfd-session-name 1 reduced 100

51. Which of the following LSP are established in Downstream Unsolicited (DU) label advertisement
mode and ordered label distribution control mode?
a. After receiving a label mapping message, the LSR adds the corresponding entry to the label
forwarding table.
b. If the egress node has available labels for distribution, it allocates labels for the FEC and sends a
label mapping message to the upstream node.
c. And LSP is established by binding an FEC to a label and advertising the binding relationship to the
neighboring LSR.
d. When the edge node finds a new destination address in its routing table that does not belong to any
existing FEC, the edge node does not create a new FEC for the destination address.

52. Which of the following cabling modes are commonly used in a data center ?
a. EOR
b. NSF
 c. DOD
d. TOR
e. PHP

53. Which of the following statements regarding terminal security management of the Agile Controller are
true.
a. supports one-click restoration to reduce maintenance costs of terminals.
b. Forces installation of clients meeting security requirements and prevents terminal data leaking
c. Prohibits installation of non-standart software to reduce the virus infection risks.
d. Allows installation of only standard software, implementing desktop office standardization.

54. What are the mainly methods of data collection?

a. Centralized collection by NMS
b. Collection through port mirroring
c. Automatic collection
d. Collection by physical optical splitter

55. Which of the following contents are included in a migration project solution?
a. Migration preparation
b. Contingency plan
c. Migration implementation
d. Rollback solution.

56. Which of the following tasks need to be completed during the planning stage of a project?
a. Make clear the requirements of a project
b. Work out the technical design
c. Know the project background
d. Determine the model of network devices in the project.

56. Which of the following statement regarding the MED value are true ??
a. The default MED value of BGP route is 0.
b. According to BGP route selection rules, the MED value has a lower priority than AS_Path,
Preferred-Value, Local-Preference, and Origin.
c. By default if there is no MED value routes, the value 0 is used. If the bestroute med-none-as-
maximun command is configured. The maximum MED value 4294967295 is used.
d. By default BGP can compare the MED values of routes from different Ass.

57. In VAR application scenario, which functions of the AR Router can be virtualized on a server ?
a. VPN
b. VoIP
c. NAT
d. Firewall

58. Which of the following statements regarding the device software upgrade necessity are true?
a. The new software version continuously improves usability
b. You are advised to immediately upgrade the system software to the latest version.
c. The new software version continuously improves stability.
d. The new software version continuously increases new functions.

59. During follow-up operations of the structured network troubleshooting process, which of the following
parties does not require advertisement of information?
a. Parties affected by the fault
b. Authorization parties in each phase of troubleshooting
c. Other vendors and service providers
d. Users who are interested in the root cause for the fault.
 60. Which of the following descriptions regarding eSight is not correct?

 A. eSight is used to monitor and manage enterprise networks.

 B. eSight supports only Huawei devices.
 C. eSight supports WLAN management and monitoring of hotspot coverage.
 D. eSight supports the backup of configuration files and network traffic analysis.

61. What of the following statements is correct regarding access control list types and
ranges?

 A. A basic ACL value ranges from 1000-2999

 B. An advanced ACL value ranges from 3000-4000
 C. A layer 2 ACL value ranges from 4000-4999
 D. An interface ACL value ranges 1000-2000

62. Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?

 A. Source interface
 B. Destination port number
 C. Protocol number
 D. Time-range

63. Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements regarding ACL
2001 is correct?

 A. Packets from network 10.0.1.0/24 network will be denied.

 B. Packets from network 10.0.1.0/24 network will be permitted.
 C. Packets destined for network 10.0.1.0/24 will be denied.
 D. Packets destined for network 10.0.1.0/24 will be permitted.

64. Refer to the configuration output. A network administrator configured the ACL on
router RTA, as shown. Which of the following statements regarding the rule order are
correct? (Choose two).

 A. The rule-number of the first rule is 1

 B. The rule-number of the first rule is 5
 C. The rule-number of the second rule is 2
 D. The rule-number of the second rule is 10

65. Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator discovered that the
configuration in one of the enterprise routers had been changed.
What actions can be taken by the administrator to prevent further changes? (Choose
three)

 A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to 0.
 B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.
 C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to manage the
router.
 D. The administrator should configure port-security on the router.

66. Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
the configuration of the ACL on RTA?

 A. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be denied.

 B. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be permitted.
 C. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be denied.
 D. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be permitted.

67. Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
the configuration of the ACL on RTA? (Choose two).

 A. Packets from network 172.16.1.1/32 will be denied.

 B. Packets from network 172.16.1.0/24 will be denied.
 C. Packets from network 172.17.1.0/24 will be denied.
 D. Packets from network 172.18.0.0/16 will be denied.
68. The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission,
what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two)

 A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station.

 B. Link the end stations together using a switch.
 C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station.
 D. Link the end stations together using a hub.

69. On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex mode
as "auto negotiation"? (Choose two)

 A. duplex negotiation auto

 B. duplex auto-negotiation
 C. duplex auto
 D. undo duplex

70. The network administrator wishes to transmit data between two end stations. The network
interface cards of both devices operates at 100Mbps however one supports half duplex
while the other uses full duplex mode.
What will occur as a result?

 A. The end stations cannot communicate.

 B. The end stations can communicate, but data may be lost during transmission of large
amounts of traffic.
 C. The end stations will operate normally
 D. The end stations can communicate, but speed is different during transmission of large
amounts of traffic.

71. An Ethernet port can work one of three duplex modes, whereas an Optical Ethernet port
only supports one single mode.
Which of the following represents this mode?
 A. Full-duplex
 B. Half-duplex
 C. Auto-negotiation
 D. Simplex

72. While inspecting packets in the network, a network administrator discovers a frame with
the destination MAC address of 01-00-5E-A0-B1-C3.
What can the administrator determine from this?

 A. The MAC address is a unicast address.

 B. The MAC address is a broadcast address
 C. The MAC address is a multicast address.
 D. The MAC address is incorrect.

73. According to OSI reference model, which layer is responsible for end to end error
checking and flow control?

 A. Physical layer
 B. Data link layer
 C. Network layer
 D. Transport layer

74. Which of the following mechanisms are used for flow control? (Choose three)

 A. Acknowledgement
 B. Buffering
 C. Source quench messages
 D. Windowin

75. Refer to the capture output. The administrator has captured three packets in the network.
Which statement regarding the captured packets is incorrect?

 A. This packets represent a TCP three-way handshake process.

 B. 10.0.12.1 is the telnet server, while 10.0.12.2 is the telnet client.
 C. The three packets contain no application data.
 D. 10.0.12.1 uses port 50190 to buid the telnet connection.
 76. An Ethernet frame is captured by network protocol analyzer tool and the value of
Type/Length field is 0x0800.
Which of the following statements about the frame are correct? (Choose two)

 A. The frame structure of the frame is Ethernet_II

 B. The frame structure of the frame is 802.3
 C. Its upper layer protocol is IP
 D. Its upper layer protocol is IPX

77. Which of the following descriptions regarding the TTL field of the IP packet is correct?

 A. The TTL defines how many packets the source can send.
 B. The TTL defines the duration during which the source can send packets.
 C. The TTL value will decrement by 1 each time the packet is routed.
 D. The TTL value will increment by 1 each time the packet is routed.

78. Which of the following statements are correct about TTL field in IP packet? (Choose two)

 A. The maximum value of TTL is 65535.

 B. Normally, it's impossible for a router to receive a packet whose TTL is zero.
 C. The main purpose of TTL is to prevent IP packets from circulating endlessly in a network
which can consume a lot of bandwidth.
 D. TTL value will be decremented as a packet is passed through the network devices such
as hub, LAN switch and router.

79. In the case of Huawei router, what is the "-i" parameter in a Ping command issued on a
VRP operating system used to set?

 A. Interface for sending an Echo Request packet

 B. Source IP address for sending an Echo Request packet
 C. Interface for receiving an Echo Reply packet
 D. Destination IP address for receiving an Echo Reply packet

80. To provide the information about the IP addresses that a user packet traverses along the
path to the destination, which of the following does Tracert record in each expired ICMP
TTL packet?

 A. Destination port
 B. Source port
 C. Destination IP address
 D. Source IP address

81. Which of the following statements regarding the verification of IP connectivity are false?
(Choose three)

 A. The ping 127.0.0.1 command can be used to check whether the network cable is
correctly inserted into the host's Ethernet port.
 B. The ping command with the host IP address as the destination can be used to verify that
the TCP/IP protocol suite is functioning correctly.
 C. The ping command can be used to verify connectivity between the host and the local
gateway.
 D. The command "ipconfig /release" can be used to check connectivity problems between
the host and the local gateway.

82. A network administrator uses the ping command to check for points of failure in the
network.
Which protocols will be used during this process? (Choose two)

 A. ICMP
 B. TCP
 C. ARP
 D. UDP

83. A network administrator recently used tracert to trace the path to the destination IP
address of an external website, however the trace path displayed only a timeout result.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the reason for this? (Choose two)

 A. The source router had shutdown the ICMP function.

 B. This destination IP address does not exist.
 C. The gateway cannot find a route to the destination.
 D. This is a normal phenomenon.

……….

84. A network administrator uses the ping command to test connectivity to the destination
10.0.0.2 on a Huawei AR series router.
Which statement regarding the output is correct?

 A. The network administrator used the command ping -c 2 -s 800 10.0.0.2

 B. The network administrator used the command ping -a 2 -v 800 10.0.0.2
 C. The path between the source and destination is not OK.
 D. The network administrator changed the default TTL value.

85. Which of the following statements explains the behavior of the ICMP redirect function?
(Choose two)
 A. When a router receives data on the interface via which the same data needs to be
forwarded, and the source is on the same segment as the next hop, an ICMP redirect message will
be sent by the router to the source.
 B. When a router receives data on an interface, and the router's IP address matches the
destination IP of the data, an ICMP redirect message will be sent by the router to the source.
 C. When a router receives data on the interface via which the same data needs to be
forwarded, and the source is on the same segment as the next hop, an ICMP Redirect message will
be sent by the source to the router.
 D. When a router receives data on the interface via which the same data needs to be
forwarded, and the source is on a different segment from the next hop, an ICMP redirect message
will be sent by the router to the source

. Host A wishes to send

data to host C, and generates an ARP request to obtain the destination MAC address.
86. Which statement is true?

 A. The destination IP address of the ARP request is Host C.

 B. The destination MAC address of this ARP request is Host C.
 C. The destination IP address for the ARP request is a broadcast IP address.
 D. The destination MAC address of this frame is the MAC address of G0/0/0 on RTA.

87. An ARP request is sent by host A to obtain the destination MAC address of host D.
Which statement is true about regarding the ARP reply?

 A. The destination MAC address of this frame is the MAC address of Switch A.
 B. The destination IP address of this packet is the VLANIF1 IP address of Switch A.
 C. The destination MAC address of this frame is the MAC address of Host A.
 D. The destination IP address of this packet is a broadcast IP address.

88. Which of the following applications can be used to detect the path along which the data
packets are transmitted from the source to the destination?

 A. Route
 B. Netstat
 C. Tracert
 D. Send

89. How many probe packets are sent for each TTL value by default when "tracert" is used to
detect the path along which packet is sent from source to destination?

 A. 3
 B. 4
 C. 6
 D. 8

90. Which of the following types can ICMP packets be classified into? (Choose two)

 A. ICMP transport packet

 B. ICMP error reporting packet
 C. ICMP query packet
 D. ICMP application packet

91. On VRP platform, which of the following parameters can be used together with the
"ping" command to specify the source address of an echo request message?

 A. -a
 B. -s
 C. -d
 D. -n

92. A router functioning as a Proxy receives an ARP request packet, but finds that the
destination address in the packet is not intended for itself. In this case, what will the
router do? (Choose two)

 A. Discard the packet.

 B. Check for a route that matches the destination address.
 C. Forward its MAC address to the ARP request sender after finding that a route to the
destination address is available.
 D. Broadcast the ARP request packet.

93. Two end stations in a point-to-point network perform address resolution.

Which of the following statements is correct?

 A. The destination address of an ARP request from each station will be a unicast MAC
address.
 B. The destination address of an ARP request from each station will be a broadcast IP
address.
 C. The destination address of an ARP reply from each station will be a unicast MAC
address.
 D. The destination address of an ARP reply from each station will be a broadcast MAC
address.
 94. What will the destination MAC address be at the moment a frame is transmitted by the
host, when the router is the IP destination?

 A. The MAC address of the switch.

 B. The MAC address of the router interface G0/0/0.
 C. The MAC address of the host.
 D. The destination MAC address will be a broadcast MAC address.

95. UDP is connectionless oriented, which of the following must be used in order to ensure
reliability?

 A. Internet Protocol
 B. Application Layer Protocol
 C. Network Layer Protocol
 D. Transmission Control Protoco

96. The administrator has configured an IP address for Host A and Host B, but had forgotten
to configure a default gateway.
What effect will this have on the hosts?

 A. Neither host will be affected, and therefore will be able to communicate with the peer.
 B. Host A will be unable to connect to the router's G0/0/0 interface.
 C. Hosts will be unable to communicate unless arp-proxy is enabled on the router.
 D. The host will be unable to reach neither the local nor remote network destinations.
 97. A host has established a telnet connection with the router attached to interface G0/0/0.
Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose all that apply.)

 A. The destination MAC address of a frame sent by the host will be the MAC address of the
router interface G0/0/0.
 B. The destination MAC address of a frame sent by the host will be the MAC address of the
switch.
 C. The destination port number in a segment header will have a value of 80.
 D. The destination IP address of a packet will be the IP address of the Router interface
G0/0/0.

98. When R2 forwards data to R3 from R1, which of the following items will change?
(Choose two)

 A. The source MAC address

 B. The destination MAC address
 C. The source IP address
 D. The destination IP address

99. If Host B also configured the IP address as "192.168.1.1/24", an IP address conflict will
occur.
What will happen as a result?

 A. Host B will send an ICMP request to the destination with the configured IP address. If a
reply is received, the host will notify of an address conflict.
 B. Host A will send a gratuitous ARP request to resolve the MAC address of the destination
192.168.1.1, for which Host B will reply.
 C. Host B will send a gratuitous ARP request to resolve the MAC address of the destination
192.168.1.1, for which Host A will reply.
 D. Host A will ignore any received ARP request intended for destination 192.168.1.1.

100. Refer to the graphic. A switch attempts to forward a frame to the MAC destination
5489-98ec-f011. What operation will occur on the switch?

 A. The switch will send a request to obtain the MAC address of 5489-98ec-f011.
 B. The switch will report that the destination is unreachable and report this to the source.
 C. The switch will flood the frame via all ports, with exception of the port on which the frame
was received.
 D. The switch will drop the frame because it does not have an entry in its MAC address
table.

101. An administrator connects two switches together in a local enterprise network. The
ports of one switch support Fast Ethernet, while the ports of the other switch support
Gigabit Ethernet. Hosts connected to one switch are able to communicate, however
communication between the two switches fails.
What is the possible reason for this?

 A. The ports have disabled auto-negotiation.

 B. One port is supporting auto-negotiation, while auto-negotiation is disabled on the port of
the other switch.
 C. The port of one switch is operating using half duplex mode, while the port of the other
switch is using full duplex mode.
 D. A Fast Ethernet port cannot communicate directly with a Gigabit Ethernet port.

102. Which of the following problems are caused by routing loops? (Choose three)

 A. Slow convergence
 B. Packets circulate between routers
 C. Router restarting
 D. Inconsistency of routing information

103. On the interface serial 1/0/1 of RTA, the command "ip address unnumbered
interface loopback 0" has been configured.
 108 Which following statements are correct? (Choose two).

 A. The IP address of interface serial 1/0/1 is 10.1.1.1/24

 B. The IP address of interface serial 1/0/1 is 10.1.1.1/32
 C. The route entry 10.1.1.0/24 exists in RTA's routing-table
 D. The route entry 10.1.1.0/24 does not exist in RTA's routing-table

104. Refer to the configuration output. The administrator configured the device
using the commands in the configuration output. Regarding these commands,
which statement is false?

 A. The administrator wishes to enable management through the console

interface.
 B. Following configuration, the administrator cannot manage the device
remotely.
 C. A user that logs-in through the console interface is assigned the highest
privilege level.
 D. The password of a user logged in through console is "˜cipher
huawei2012'.

105. How does Ethernet determine the protocol to which a processed should be
delivered?
Data link layer frame contain a TYPE field that references the next protocol to which data contained within
the frame should be forwarded. Common examples of forwarding protocols include IP (0x0800) and ARP
(0x0806)

106.How is it determined whether a frame should be processed or discarded upon being received by an
end device ?
The destination MAC address contained within the frame header is analyzed by the receiving end station and
compared to the MAC address associated with the interface on which the frame was received. If the
destination MAC address and interface MAC address do not match, the frame is discarded.
 107. ¿Cual es el IP de Mascara de subnet utilizado??
La mascara de subred IP es un valor de 32 que describe la división lógica entre los valores de bits de una
dirección IP. La dirección IP se divide como tal en dos partes para las cuales los valores de bits representan
una red o sub-red y el host dentro de una sub-red determinada.

108.What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header??

Los paquete IP no pueden llegar a la red deseada son susceptibles de ser reenviados indefinidamente entre
redes en un intento de descubrir su detino final. La función del TTL se utiliza para garantizar que se aplique
una vida útil a todos los paquetes IP, a fin de garantizar que, en caso de que un paquete IP no pueda llegar a
su destino eventualmente se terminará. El valor del TTL puede varias según la fuente original.

109. How are gateways used in an IP network??

Los gateways representan puntos de acceso entre redes IP a las que se puede redirigir o enrutar el trafico en
caso de que la red de destino prevista difiera de la red en la que se originó el paquete.

110.Which two ICMP messages types are used as part of a successful Ping?
El Ping utiliza el mensaje de solicitud de eco de tipo 8 para intentar descubrir el destino. Un mensaje de
respuesta de eco separado definido por un campo de tipo 0 se devuelve a la fuente original en función de la
dirección IP de origen en el campo de encabezado.

111.In the event that the TTL value in the IP header of a datagram reaches zero, what action will be
taken by the receiving gateway??
En caso de que el valor TTL de un datagrama IP alcance 0 antes de que el datagrama pueda llegar al destino
previsto, el dispositivo de puerta de enlace que recibe el datagrama procederá a descartarlo y devolverá un
mensaje ICMP a la fuente para notificar que el datagrama en cuestión no pudo llegar al destino previsto. La
razón especifica estará definida por el valor del código para reflejar, por ejemplo, si la falla se debió a una
falla en la detección del host un puerto en el host o si el servicio para un protocolo determinado no fue
compatible.

112.Prior to generating an ARP request, what action must be taken by an end station??
El Host debe determinar inicialmente si ya conoce una dirección de reenvió de la capa de enlace dentro de su
propia cache ARP (tabla de direcciones MAC) Si se descubre una entrada, el sistema final es capaz de crear la
trama para reenviar sin la ayuda del protocolo de resolución de direcciones. Sin embargo, sino se puede
encontrar una entrada, se iniciará el proceso ARP y se transmitirá una solicitud ARP en la red local.

113.When are gratuitous ARP messages generated and propagated on the local network??
Los mensajes ARP gratuitos se generan comúnmente en el punto en el que se configure o cambia una
dirección IP para un dispositivo conectado a la red y en cualquier momento en que un dispositivo esta
físicamente conectado a la red. En ambos casos, el proceso ARP GRATUITO debe garantizar que la
dirección IP que se utiliza siga siendo única.

114.What is the purpose of the acknowledgement field in the TCP header??

El campo de acuse de recibo en el encabezado TCP confirma la recepción del segmento recibido por el
proceso TCP en el destino. El número de secuencia en el encabezado TCP del datagrama IP recibido se toma
y se incrementa en 1. Este valor se convierte en el número de acuse de recibo en el encabezado TCP devuelto
y se utiliza para confirmar la recepción de todos los datos, antes de que se reenvíen junto con el conjunto de
bits del código ACK a 1 al remitente original.

115.WHICH TCP code bits are involved in a TCP three-way handshake??

El protocol de enlace de 3 vias implica bit de código SYN y ACK para establecer y confirmar la conexión
entre los dos sistemas finales, entre los cuales se producirá la transmisión de datagramas.

116.What information is required before data can encapsulated??

Antes de encapsular y reenviar los datos, una fuente debe tener conocimiento del destino IP o una dirección
de reenvío equivalente, como una dirección predeterminada a la que se pueden reenviar los datos. Además, es
 necesario que la dirección de reenvío esté asociada con un salto siguiente físico al que se pueden reenviar los
datos dentro de la red local.
117.What happens when a frame is forwarded to a destination to which it is not intended?
Cualquier trama que es recibida por una puerta de enlace o un sistema final (host) al que no está destinada, se
descarta posteriormente, luego de inspeccionar la dirección MAC de destino en el encabezado de la trama.

118.How does the data in the frame ultimately reach the application it is intended for?
La entrega de datos se basa en el número de puerto de destino en los encabezados TCP y UDP para identificar
la aplicación a la que están destinados los datos. Tras el análisis de este valor por el protocolo TCP o UDP, los
datos se envían.

119.When multiple sessions of the same application are active (e.g multiple web browsers) how does the
return data reach the correct session.
El puerto de origen del encabezado TCP para el tráfico HTTP distingue entre las diferentes sesiones de
aplicación que están activas. El tráfico HTTP de retorno del servidor HTTP puede identificar cada sesión
individual del navegador web en función de este número de puerto de origen. Por ejemplo, el puerto de origen
de dos solicitudes separadas de tráfico HTTP que se originan en la fuente IP 10.1.1.1 puede originarse en los
puertos de origen 1028 y 1035, sin embargo, el puerto de destino en ambos casos permanece como el puerto
80, el servidor HTTP.

120. I fan Ethernet broadcast occurs such as in the case or ARP to wich the destination is local
what will the response of the gateway be??

Cualquier transmisión generada por un sistema final dentro de una red local se reenviará a todos los destinos.
Una vez que una trama se transmite a un enrutador o dispositivo que actúa como puerta de enlace para la red,
la trama se analizará y, si se determina que el destino es para un host definido localmente que no sea la puerta
de enlace, la trama se eliminará. Esto, como tal, define el límite de cualquier dominio de difusión.

121. How many users are able to connect via the console interface at any given time?

La interfaz de la consola es capaz de admitir un solo usuario en un momento dado; esto está representado por
la vista de la interfaz de usuario de la consola 0.

122.What if the state of the loopback interface 0 when the command loopback interface 0 is used¿??

La interfaz de bucle invertido representa una interfaz lógica que no está presente en un enrutador hasta que se
crea. Una vez creada, la interfaz de bucle invertido se considera activa. Sin embargo, en los dispositivos
ARG3, las interfaces de bucle invertido se pueden apagar.

123. What should be configure don the client in order to establish a connection with an FTP
server==

Un dispositivo cliente debe tener la capacidad de llegar al servidor FTP a través de IP, requiriendo que se
configure una dirección IP en la interfaz a través de la cual se pueda acceder al servidor FTP. Esto permitirá
validar una ruta al servidor FTP en la capa de red, si existe.

124.How can a user confirm that changes to the startup software have taken effect after a reboot of the
device.

El usuario puede ejecutar el comando de configuración de inicio de pantalla para validar que el software del
sistema de inicio actual (VRP) está activo, identificado por la extensión.
125.In the event that a root bridge (switch) temporarily fails in the STP network, the next viable switch
will take over as the root bridge. What will occur once the failed root bridge once again becomes
active in the network.
Tras la falla del puente raíz para una red de árbol de expansión, el siguiente mejor candidato será elegido
como puente raíz. En el caso de que el puente raíz original vuelva a estar activo en la red, se volverá a
producir el proceso de elección para el puesto de puente raíz. Esto provoca efectivamente un tiempo de
inactividad de la red en la red de conmutación a medida que avanza la convergencia.

126. What is the difference between Path Cost and Root Path Cost?
El costo de la ruta raíz es el costo asociado con la ruta de regreso al puente raíz, mientras que el costo de la
ruta se refiere al valor de costo definido para una interfaz en un conmutador, que se agrega al costo de la ruta
raíz, para definir el costo de la ruta raíz. para el interruptor de abajo.

127. What is the purpose of the sync that occurs during the RSTP proposal and agreement process?
La sincronización es una etapa en el proceso de convergencia que implica el bloqueo de puertos designados
mientras se transmiten RST BPDU que contienen mensajes de propuesta y acuerdo para hacer converger el
segmento del conmutador. El proceso está diseñado para garantizar que todas las interfaces estén de acuerdo
en cuanto a sus funciones de puerto, a fin de garantizar que no se produzcan bucles de conmutación una vez
que se desbloquee el puerto designado a cualquier conmutador descendente.

128. What is the order in which routing decision are made?

Cuando el enrutador elige la mejor ruta, primero, coloque las rutas con el valor de preferencia más pequeño
en la tabla de enrutamiento IP; si la prioridad es igual, compara valores métricos para decidir qué rutas poner
en la tabla de enrutamiento; finalmente, al buscar la tabla de enrutamiento, elige los elementos de ruta para
guiar el reenvío de paquetes de datos de acuerdo con el principio de coincidencia de máscara más larga.

129.What does the preference represent?

 The preference is typically used to denote the reliability of a route over routes that may be considered less
reliable. Vendors of routing equipment may however assign different preference values for protocols that are
supported within each vendors own product. The preference values of some common routing protocols
supported by Huawei routing devices can be found within this section.

130.What should be altered to enabled a static route to become a floating static route ?
Se puede implementar una ruta estática flotante ajustando el valor de preferencia de una ruta estática donde
dos rutas estáticas admiten el equilibrio de carga.

131.Which network address should be defined to allow a default static route to be implemented in the
routing table?

Se puede implementar una ruta estática predeterminada en la tabla de enrutamiento especificando la dirección
de 'cualquier red' de 0.0.0.0 como dirección de destino junto con una dirección del siguiente salto de la
interfaz a la que se deben enviar los paquetes capturados por esta ruta estática predeterminada. reenviado.

132.What is the purpose of the dead interval in the OSPF header??

El intervalo muerto es un valor de temporizador que se utiliza para determinar si ha cesado la propagación de
los paquetes de saludo OSPF. Este valor es equivalente a cuatro veces el intervalo de saludo, o 40 segundos
de forma predeterminada en las redes de transmisión. En el caso de que el intervalo muerto llegue a cero, la
relación de vecino OSPF terminará.

133. In a broadcast network, what is the multicast address that is used by the Designated Router
(DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR) for listening for link state update information??
El DR y BDR usan la dirección de multidifusión 224.0.0.6 para escuchar las actualizaciones del estado del
enlace cuando el tipo de red OSPF se define como transmisión.

134.Which IP addresses should generally be excluded from the address pool?

 Direcciones IP que se utilizan para la asignación de servidores, como cualquier servidor DNS local, para
evitar conflictos de direcciones.

135.What is the default IP address lease period?

El período de concesión predeterminado para las direcciones IP asignadas por DHCP se establece en un
período igual a un día.

136.Which ports are required to be open in order to allow the FTP service to operate?
Para que la conexión de control y la conexión de datos del servicio FTP se establezcan correctamente, los
puertos TCP 20 y 21 deben estar habilitados.

137.A user is considered to have no authority to Access any working directory. What steps are required
to resolve this?
Cuando se considera que un usuario no tiene autoridad para acceder a ningún directorio de trabajo, es
necesario definir un directorio FTP predeterminado. Esto se hace usando el comando set default ftp-directory
<ubicación del directorio>, donde el nombre del directorio puede ser, por ejemplo, el flash del sistema.

138.If the telnet service has been enabled, but a user is unable to establish a telnet connection, what are
the posible reasons for this?

Si un usuario no puede establecer una conexión telnet, el usuario debe verificar que el dispositivo que admite
el servicio telnet sea accesible. Si se puede acceder al dispositivo, se debe verificar la contraseña. Si se
considera que la contraseña es correcta, se debe verificar la cantidad de usuarios que actualmente acceden al
dispositivo a través de telnet. Si es necesario ampliar el número de usuarios que acceden al dispositivo a
través de telnet, se debe utilizar el comando user-interface maximum-vty <0-15>, donde 0-15 indica el
número de usuarios admitidos.

139.I fan administrator attempts to add a Gigabit Ethernet and Fast Ethernet interface to the same Eth-
trunk interface, what will ocurr?
No se pueden agregar una interfaz Fast Ethernet y una interfaz Gigabit Ethernet a la misma interfaz Eth-trunk,
cualquier intento de establecer enlaces de miembros de diferentes tipos dará como resultado un error que
especifica que el tronco ha agregado un miembro de otro tipo de puerto. Cabe señalar que el conmutador de la
serie S5700 solo admite interfaces Gigabit Ethernet; sin embargo, este comportamiento se puede aplicar a
otros modelos, incluido el conmutador S3700.

140.In ordder to establish backup member links, which mode of link aggregation should be used??
Solo el modo LACP es capaz de admitir enlaces de miembros de respaldo y, por lo tanto, debe usarse si se
requieren enlaces de respaldo.

141.If a trunk link has a PVID of 6 and the command port trunk allow-pass vlan 2 3 is used, which VLAN
traffic will be carried over the trunk?
El PVID en un enlace troncal define solo el comportamiento de etiquetado que se aplicará en la interfaz
troncal. Si se utiliza el comando port trunk allow-pass vlan 2 3, solo las tramas asociadas con VLAN 2 y
VLAN 3 se reenviarán a través del enlace troncal.

142.What action will be taken by an Access port with a PVID of 2 when receiving an untagged frame??
Un puerto de acceso configurado con un PVID de 2 etiquetará todas las tramas sin etiquetar recibidas con una
etiqueta VLAN 2. Esto será utilizado por el conmutador para determinar si una trama puede reenviarse a
través de otras interfaces de acceso o transportarse a través de un enlace troncal.

143.What is the purpose of the dot 1q termination vid <valn-id> command?

El comando dot1q termination vid <vlan-id> se utiliza para realizar dos funciones específicas. Cuando un
puerto recibe un paquete VLAN, inicialmente eliminará la etiqueta VLAN de la trama y reenviará este
paquete a través del enrutamiento de capa 3. Para los paquetes que se envían, el puerto agrega una etiqueta al
 paquete antes de enviarlo, de acuerdo con las respectivas configuraciones de VLAN e IP para la interfaz
lógica del enrutador.

144.What is required to be configured on the switch to allow VLAN traffic to be forwarded to the
configured sub-interfaces??

El conmutador debe estar configurado para permitir que las tramas transportadas por el medio del conmutador
/ enrutador sean etiquetadas, ya sea mediante el uso del comando troncal o mediante interfaces híbridas
etiquetadas. Además, se debe permitir el tráfico de VLAN a través de este enlace mediante el comando port
trunk allow-pass vlan <vlan> o el comando port hybrid tagged vlan <vlan>.

145.Following a Configure-Request, what packet type is expected to be received before the PPP link layer
can be successfully established?
 A Configure-Ack packet is required in order to allow the link layer to be successfully established when
using PPP as the link layer encapsulation mode.

150. Which protocol is used to perform the negotiation of IP addresses, and during which phase is this
negotiated?
El Protocolo de control de protocolo de Internet (IPCP) se utiliza para negociar los módulos de protocolo IP
como parte del proceso de negociación de NCP. Esto ocurre durante la fase de red del establecimiento de
PPP.

151. Why is it necessary to reduce the MTU/MRU size of PPPoE packets??

Los paquetes IP tienen un tamaño máximo de carga útil de 1500 bytes, sin embargo, cuando se usan junto con
PPPoE, requieren 6 bytes adicionales, así como otros 2 bytes para el ID del protocolo PPP, lo que hace que el
tamaño del paquete supere el máximo admitido. tamaño de carga útil. Como tal, la MRU negociada por LCP
de un paquete que admite PPPoE no debe tener más de 1492 bytes.

152. What is the purpose of the dialer bundle command when establishing the PPPoE connection??
El comando dialer bundle vincula la interfaz física a la interfaz del marcador que se utiliza para establecer la
conexión PPPoE.

153. Which form of translation will allow a server in a DMZ to be accessed from both an external and an
internal network??
La configuración del servidor interno de NAT permitirá que se asocie una dirección pública única con un
destino de servidor de red privada, permitiendo el flujo de tráfico entrante desde la red externa después de la
traducción. Los usuarios internos pueden llegar a la ubicación del servidor basándose en la dirección privada
del servidor.

154. What is the function of the PAT feature??

La función PAT realizará la traducción según el número de puerto y las direcciones IP. Se utiliza como una
forma de conservación de direcciones cuando la cantidad de direcciones públicas disponibles para traducción
es limitada o insuficiente para soportar la cantidad de direcciones privadas que requieren una posible
traducción.

155. The advanced Access control list is capable of filtering traffic base don which attributes??
Las ACL avanzadas pueden filtrar en función de la IP de origen y destino, los números de puerto de origen y
destino, los protocolos de la capa de red y de transporte y los parámetros que se encuentran dentro de cada
capa, como los clasificadores de tráfico IP y los valores de las banderas TCP (SYN | ACK | FIN etc.).
156. Once an ACL rule is matched to a condition, what action is taken??
Una vez que se encuentre una regla que coincida en la lista de control de acceso con una condición probada,
la acción de la regla se implementará y el proceso de ACL restante no continuará.

157. Which two AAA schemes are supported when configuring VRP to support the local mode??
La configuración de VRP en modo local admitirá esquemas de autenticación y autorización, el esquema de
contabilidad requiere el soporte de administración remota a través de un servidor HWTACACS o RADIUS.

158. If no domain is defined for users, what action is taken??

Si se crea un usuario sin definir el dominio al que pertenece, el usuario se asociará automáticamente con el
dominio predeterminado, llamado default.

159. What is meant by a Security Association (SA)?

Una asociación de seguridad puede entenderse como una conexión unidireccional o construcción de gestión
que define los servicios que se utilizarán para negociar el establecimiento de la conexión. La conexión se basa
en hacer coincidir SA en ambas direcciones para establecer con éxito una comunicación bidireccional segura.

160. What are the three possible actions that may be applied to IPSEC filtered traffic?

Todo el tráfico destinado a ser reenviado a través de la interfaz de salida en la que se establece IPSec se
someterá en primer lugar a un filtrado a través de una base de datos de políticas de seguridad (SPD). Por lo
general, se trata de una ACL que determinará si el tráfico debe descartarse (Descartar), reenviarse
normalmente (Omitir) o reenviarse a través de un límite IPSec seguro (Proteger).

161. What is the primary application for using GRE??

GRE proporciona un medio para establecer enrutamiento dinámico entre redes remotas que comúnmente
pertenecen a un solo dominio administrativo, como en el caso de las sucursales. IPSec VPN se usa
generalmente para proporcionar un túnel privado de sitio a sitio sobre el cual la información dinámica de
enrutamiento puede desear ser transmitida; sin embargo, los túneles IPSec VPN no admitirán el reenvío de
actualizaciones de enrutamiento a través de IPSec directamente, por lo que se implementa GRE.

162. What is the difference between the Internet Address and the Tunnel source in the display interface
tunnel command?

La dirección de Internet representa una dirección de red de túnel virtual sobre la que se establece el GRE,
mientras que la fuente del túnel hace referencia al punto de entrada en el que se establece el túnel.

163. Which versión(s) of SNMP is/are enabled by default??

En el enrutador de la serie Huawei AR2200, todas las versiones de SNMP (SNMPv1, SNMPv2c y SNMPv3)
están habilitadas de forma predeterminada.

164. What is the destination port number that is used by an agent to forward traps to a Network
Management Station??
El agente reenvía mensajes trampa a la Network Management Station (NMS) mediante el puerto de destino
UDP 162.

165. When a router enabled with Proxy ARP function receives an ARP packet and finds that the requested IP
address is not its own, what actions are perfomed?
 If there is a route to the destination address, send its own MAC address to the ARP requester.
 Find is there is a route to the destination address or not.
166. Which of the following storage media are commonly used by Huawei routers?
  SDRAM
 FLASH
 HARD DISK
 SD Card

167. The VRP operating System commands are divides into four levels: access level, monitoring level,
configuration level, and management level. Which level can run varios business configuration commands
but cannot operate the file system?
 Configuration level

168. On the VRP interface, you cannot use the command delete or unreserved vrpcfg.zip to delete files. You
must empty them in the recycle bin to delete files completely.
 FALSE

169. The switch MAC address table is existing as follows, which of the following statement is correct?
 The MAC address 5489-9811-0b49 is manually configured by the administrator.

170. As shown in the figure below, the switch starts the STP protocol. When the network is stable, which
of the following statements are correct?

 SWA is the root bridge in this network

 BOTH ports of SWB are in forwarding state.

171. The STP protocol is enabled on both switches shown in the figure below. An engineer made the following
conclusions on this network. Do you think what is the correct conclusion?
a. The G0/0/2 port of SWB is stable in the Forwarding state.
b. The G0/0/2 port of SWA is stable in the Forwarding state.
c. The G0/0/3 port of SWA is statble in the forwarding state.
d. Both ports of SWA are designated ports.
172. Compare to STP protocol, which kind of port role is added in RSTP protocol?
a. Alternate port
b. Backup port

173. As shown in the figure, the two switches use the default parameters to run STP. ON Switch A, the
configuration command STP root primary is used. On the switch B, the configuration command STP
priority 0 is used. Which of the following ports will be blocked?

. A G0/0/2 of switch A.

174. Which of the following parameters does not the configuration BPDU packet of the STP protocol?
 VLAN ID

175. By default, how many seconds are the FORWARD delay of STP protocol?
 15 second.

176. Which of the following parameters are used in the switched network that runs the STP protocol when
performing spanning tree calculations?
 Root path cost
 Port ID
 Bridge ID

177. In the STP protocol, assume that all switches are configured with the same priority. The MAC address of
switch 1 is: 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, address of switch 2 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, the MAC address of switch 3 is
00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and the MAC address of switch 4 is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80, then the root switch should be:
 Switch 2
178. The network shown in the figure below, the MAC address of the switch has been marked. Enter the
command stp root secondary on the SWD switch. Which of the following switches will become the root
bridge of this network.
  SWD

179. Both the two switches shown in the following figure have STP enabled. Which port will eventually be in
the Blocking state.

 G0/0/3 PORT OF SWB

180. The network as shown in the following figure, after the OSPF protocol is stable, what is the neighbor status
of Router A and Router B?
Respuesta:
C. FULL

181.
  Router A: ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.2
Router B: ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.1
 Router A: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.2
Router B: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.1

182. The network as shown in the following figure, the following configurations exist on the router A. Which of
the following statements are correct?
Ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
Ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.21.2 preference 70

 The nextHop that reaches 10.0.2.2 in the routing table of Router A is 10.0.12.2
 IF the G0/0/1 port is Down, the route that Router A reaches 10.0.0.2 is changed to 10.0.21.2

183. Which of the following OSPF versions are suitable for IPV6?
 OSPF v3

184. The network as shown in the following figure, which of the following commands can enable Router A to
forward a packet with the destination IP address of 10.0.0.3
  Ip route-static 10.0.3.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
 Ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
Ip route-static 10.0.3.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.2.2
 Ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.12.2

185. Which of the following about the statement of static routing are incorrect?
 Inter-route information needs to be exchanged between routers.

186. Which of the following commands can be used to check OSPF has correctly established neighbor
relationships?
 Display osfp peer

187. For multiple paths to the same destination network, the router needs to select by comparing the size of the
Cost value. If the value of the Cost is the same then select according to the size of the Preference value.
 FALSE
188. As shown in the figure below, Host A and Host B cannot communicate.
  TRUE

189. For multiple paths to the same destination network, the router needs to select by comparing the size of the
preference value. If the preference is the same, then select according to the size of the Cost Value.
 TRUE

190. The routing table consists of multiple elements. What is wrong with the following statement?

 Next Hop shows the local interface address of this route.

191. The correct descriptions of the following is:

 Routes obtained through different routing protocols have different priorities.
 The metrics defined by different routing protocols are not comparable.

192. Ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2 preference 20, about this command which is the correct
statement?
 The route can guide the data packets forwarding with the destination IP address of 10.0.2.2
 The priority of the route is 20
 The NextHop of the route is 10.0.12.2

193. The network as shown in the following figure, when the network administrator performs traffic
planning, it is expected that the packets sent by Host A to Host B will be connected to G0/0/3 interface
between the routers. The packets sent by Host B to Host A go pass the G0/0/4 interface between routers.
Which of the following command can implement this requirement?
  Router A: ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.2
Router B: ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.5
 Router A: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.2
Router B: 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.5

194. If the IP address requested by the DHCP client is already occupied, which packet will the DHCP server use
as response?
 DHCP NAK

195. The DHCP request message must be sent in broadcast form.

 FALSE

196. Which DHCP message does the DHCP client send when it wants to leave the network?
 DHCP RELEASE

197. Huawei devices can be managed using the Telnet protocol. Which of the following statement is correct
about this management function??
 Telnet must enable the VTY interface, and the maximum is 15

198. As shown, the topology and the configuration on the switch interconnect port, you can determine that the
data frame labeled as VLAN 10 can be forwarded normally between the two switches.
  FALSE

199. The output information of a port of the switch is as follows. What is wrong with the following statement?

 If the data frame carries a VLAN TAG of 200, the switch strips the VLAN TAG and send out.

200. Which information of the data frame is judged by the VLANIF interface to perform Layer 2 forwarding or
Layer 3 forwarding?
 DESTINATION MAC

201. The tracert diagnostic tool records the of each ICMP TTL, timeout message so that the user can be provided
with the IP address of the packet when it arrives at the destination.
 Source IP address

202. the pwd and dir commands in the VRP operating platform can view the file information in the current
directory.
 FALSE

203. The output information of a router is as follows. Which of the following statement is correct??
 The currently used VRP version file is the same as the VRP file used for the next startup.
 The currently used configuration file is different from the one used for the next startup.
204. for a switch running STP, the port can be directly converted to the Disabled state in any state.
 TRUE

205. which of the following MAC addresses will not age

 Black hole MAC address
 Static MAC address

206. How many bits of the Port ID total length in the spanning tree protocol?
 16

207. A network consisting of switches does not have STP enabled. A layer 2 loop must occur.
 False.

208. When a port running the standard STP protocol receives a suboptimal BPDU, it immediately sends its
own configuration BPDU from this port.
 TRUE.

209. Which of the following about the default route is correct?

 In the routing table, the default route appears as a route to the network 0.0.0.0 (the mask is also
0.0.0.0)
 If the destination address of the packet cannot match any destination address of the routing table, the
packet will be forwarded by selecting the default route.

210. When configuring a static route on a broadcasts interface, you can configure a static route by specifying
the next hop address or outbound interface.
 False

211. What are the roles of OSPF DR and BDR?

 Reduce the number of adjacencies
 Reduce the number of exchanges of link state information

212 in the network shown in the figure, ther correct description of the following is:

The network between SWA and SWC is

the same broadcast domain.
The network between SWA and SWC is
the same collision domain.

213. Based on ACL rules, which of the following types can an ACL be classified into?
 Layer2 ACL
 Advanced ACL
 Basic ACL

214. the management Information Base MIB is a virtual database that is stores on the NMS.
 False

215. The ACL on the AR G3 series router support two matching sequences; configuration order and
automatic sorting.
 TRUE
216. MASCARAS DE RED

217. which of the following statement about the transport layer protocol is correct?
 Well-known port number range is 0-1023
  The establishment of a TCP connection is a three way handshake process, and the termination of a
TCP connection is subject to a four-way handshake.

218. The administrator wants to update the VRP of the AR2200 router. The correct method is .
 The administrator configures the AR2200 as a TFTP client to transmit VRP software through TFTP.
 The administrator configures the AR2200 as an FTP server to transfer VRP software through FTP.
 The administrator configures the AR2200 as an FTP client to transfer VRP software through FTP.

219. In the RSTP protocol, the edge port loose the edge port attribute when it receives the configuration
BPDU message.
 TRUE.

220. which of the following statement about the role of the STP protocol Forward delay is correct?
 Preventing temporary loops.

221. What is the correct statement about the static MAC address table?
 The user is manually configured and delivered to each interface board. The entries cannot be aged.

222. What is the role of the port trunk allow-pass vlan all command?
 Allow all data frames of the VLAN to pass through the port.

223. The Hybrid port can connect to both the user host and other switches.
 TRUE

224. which field of the IPV6 header can be used for QoS?
 Traffic Class

225. Which packest is sent by the DHCPv6 client, requesting the DHCPv6 server to assign an IPV6 address
and network configuration parameters to it?
 Solicit

226. Segment routing (SR) is a protocol based on what idea to design for forwarding packets on the network?
 Source routing

227. An IPV4 packet header length field is 20B, and the total field is 1500B, then what is the packet
payload??
 1480B

228. There are multiple Next Hops in the routing table that reach the same destination network. These routes
are called?
 Equivalent routing

229.

230.
231.

232. Which of the following parameters does the OSPF protocol use for the master-slave relationship
election??
 Router ID

233. According to the following DHCP flowchart, which statement are true?

 In step 2, unicast packet are sent.

 In step 3, broadcast packets are sent.
 In setp 4, unicast packets are sent.

234. a Trunk port can send both tagged data frames and unlabeled data frames.
 TRUE

235. Which of the following statements about one-arm routing is correct?

  On the switch, configure the port connected to the router as a trunk port and allow the frames of the
relevant VLAN to pass
 Need to create a sub-interface on the router
 Only one physical link is used between the switch and the router.

236. NAPT uses the same public IP address but different port numbers to translate private IP addresses.
Which statement regarding the port number is correct??
 An access control list is needed to assign port numbers.

237.

238.

239. The following about IPV6 stateless address autoconfiguration and DHCPV6, which is correct??
 IPV6 stateless address autoconfiguration uses RA and RS messages
 DHCPv6 is more manageable than stateless autoconfiguration.
 DHCPv6 can be divided into DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration and DHCPv6 stateless
autoconfiguration.
Answer: Las 3 son correctas

240. Which of the following is the value of the IPV6 multicast address flag field indicates that the multicast
address is a temporary multicast address?
 1

241. Which of the following is the value of the IPV6 multicast address flag field indicates that the multicast
address is permanet multicast address?
 0

242.
243. Which of the following flow control methods can be used in the transport layer of the OSI reference
model?

244. A network engineer prompts the following message when entering the command line: Error:
Unrecognized command found at ‘^’ position. Which is correct about this prompt message?

245. In which state does OSPF determine the master-slave relationship of DD packets??

246. Which of the following VRP command can be used to enter area 0 view?
247. On Huawei devices, which of the following methods can be used in OSPF router ID selection??

248. Which of the following are the basic elements of configuring a static route?

249. VRP operating platform, which of the following command can view the routing table?
 Display ip routing-table

250. The maximum number of VTY user interfaces determines how many users can log in to the device
through Telnet or Stelnet.
 TRUE

251. Which of the following network parameters can the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol DHCP
assign??

252. What is the value of the flag field in the PPP frame format?
 0x7E

253. What is the destination port number of the DHCPv6 request packet sent by the DHCPv6 client?
 547

254. If the transport layer protocol is UDP, the network layer Protocol field takes a value of 6.
FALSE is 17
255. Which of the following statement about gratuitous ARP (ARP no solicitado) are true??

256.

257. A network engineer prompt the following message when entering the command line. “Error.
Unrecognized command found at ‘^’, position.
Which is correct about this prompt messages?

B.NO KEYWORDS (palabra clave) found.

258. In which state does OSPF determine the master-slave relationship of DD packets??
C. ExStart

259. VRP operating platform, which of the following command can view the routing table??
Display ip routing-table

260 Equal-cost routes are routes to the same destination network that have the same mask, preference and
metric.
.FALSE

261. A greater preference value of a routing protocol indicates a higher preference.

.FALSE

262. iF NO OSPFv3 router ID is configured, the sytem selects a router ID using rules similar to those used in
OSPFv2.
.FALSE

263 Before sending an IPV6 packet out, an interface performs the following operations in this order: address,
configuration, address resolution, and duplicate address detection (DAD)
.FALSE

263. Which of the following statements about the STP process is true??
A root bridge is elected. A root port is elected for each non-root switch. A designated port is elected for each
network segmente, and non-root and non-designated ports are blocked.

264. If the network address is 10.1.1.0/30 then the corresponding broadcast address is?
10.1.1.3

265. Which of the following statement about layer 3 switches is false?

To enable communication between two VLAN, a switch only needs to be configured with one VLANIF
interface.

266. Which of the following statements is false about optimal route selection on a router?
If a static route and an OSPF route to the same destination network have the same preference, the router can
determine the optimal route by comparing their metric values.
267.The following is the display vlan command output on a switch:
THE PVID of GE1/0/1 is VLAN 10

268. As shown in the following figure, OSPF runs on the interfaces connecting R1,R2, and R3. The
bandwidth reference values on the three routers are all set to 1000 Mbit/s. With these configurations, what is
the cost of the OSPF route learned by R3??
.11

269. Refer to the following ACL configuration on a device. Which of the following statement is true?
This ACL is an advanced ACL according to the ACL classification rules.

270. As shown in the following figure, the interfaces interconnecting R1,R2,R3 and R4 run OSPF and all
belong to area 0. With these configuration, which of the following statements is false ??

There are two equal-cost routes from the router R1 to the 10.0.34.0/24 network segment.

271. In STP mode, after a non-root switch receives a BPDU with the TC bit set to 1 from the root swith, wich
of the following ports will the non-root switch use to forward the BPDU out?
Designated port

272. OSPFv3 is the OSPF version that supports IPv6. Which of the following statements about OSPF is
false??
r
OSPFv3 provides the authentication function.

273. SNMPv2c adds some protocol operations that are not specified in SNMPv1. Which of the following
operations is newly added in SNMPv2c?
GetBulk

274. Which of the following technologies enhances device security by converting the MAC addresses
dynamically learned by a port into secure MAC addresses?
Port Security.

275. Which of the statement about the TRUNK port are false?
In normal situations, all the four member interfaces of the ETH-TRUNK interfaces can forward data.

276 During TCP connection termination, Host A sends a FIN-ACK segment with the sequence number a and
the acknowledgment number b, known as (FIN, ACK(seq=a,ack=b)), to server B. Server B replies with a
segment containin an ACK flag as an acknowledgement of the FIN packet from HOST A. Which of the
following statements about the ACK segment is true.

ACK(seq=b,ack=a+1)

277. As shown in the following figure, all switches run STP, so the root bridges is?
SW4

278. DHCP can be used to dynamically allocate network parameters, such as IP addresses, so as to reduce the
workload of network administrators and avoid potential address conflicts caused by manual network
parameter configuration. Which of the following statements about DHCP is true??

DHCP Discover packet must be a broadcast packet.

279.Before sending a Request messages to a DHCPv6 server, a DHCPv6 client sends a messages. After
receiving this message, the routers on the same link as the client will reply with a messages?

RS,RA

279. On a companys network, hosts are connected to switches. Which of the following VLAN assignment
modes can be used to prevent VLAN assignment from being affected by the changes of host locations

MAC address-based assignment.

280. sEGMENT ROUTING SR is a key technology in SDN, which of the following is not a basic segment in
SR??

Suffix Segment.

281. An IPV6 address is 128 bits long. For convenience, IPV6 addresses can be abbreviated For the IPV6
ADDRESS: 2001:0DB8:0000:1234:FB00:0000:5000:45FF, which of the following comply the IPV6
abbreviation rules??

282. Which of the following statements about DR/BDR election in OSPF are false?
283. Which of the following statement about inter-VLAN communication are true??
 Inter-Vlan communication can be implemented through one-armed routing.
 Inter-Vlan communication can be implemented through a Layer 3 switch.
 By default VLAN are isolated from each other, and hosts in different VLANs cannot communicate
with each other.

284. Refer to the following AAA configuration on a device. Which of the following statement are false=?
 The Huawei user can run the display current-configuration command
 The Huawei user can log in to the device through SSH.
 The authorization scheme is default and the authorization mode is non-authorization.

285. Which of the following statements are true about ACLs configured on Huawei devices?
 The same ACL can be applied to multiple interfaces.
 An ACL can use TCP/UDP port number as a matching criterion.

286. Which of the following parameters can be used for traffic filtering in an advanced ACL deployed on a
Huaei device?

287 TCP is located at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model. It is a connection-oriented end-to-end protocol.
A TCP data segment consist of a TCP header and a TCP data section Which of the following fields are
include in the TCP header?
 Source port number
 Destination port number
 Window Size

288. ICMP is used to transmit error and control information between network devices. ICMP defines
multiple types of messages, including?
 Network Unreachable
 Echo Reply
 Echo Request
 Host Unreachable

289. Assuming that the following error messages is displayed when a user is configuring an IPv6 link local
address for a Huawei router interface, which of the following statement are true??
  The link-local address does not support a 98-bit mask.
 The link-local address of an interface can be automatically configured using the IPv6 address auto
link-local command.
 If the mask configuration is deleted from the entered command by running the IPv6 address
FE80::2020:2020:1 link-local command on the interface. This error message will not be displayed

290. Which of the following statement about STP port states are true?

291. Which of the following parameters affect STP root port election?
 Path cost from the port to the root bridge
 Port priority
 Port ID
 Duplex mode of the port.

292. FTP is a protocol for transferring files. Which of the following statements about FTP are true??
 When FTP is used to transmit data, two connections are established between the server and client.
 By default, FTP transfer mode is ASCII
 The FTP server uses TCP port 21 to set up a control connection with the client.

293. IPV6 has many advantages over IPV4. Which of the following statements about these advantages are
true??
 Simplifies the packet header and supports new apllications using extension headers.
 Provides a larger address space due to being 128 bits in length.
 Supports the configuration of stateless address auto configuration (SLAAC) addresses.

294. IPV6 ADDRESSES can be classified into three types bases on IPV6 address prefixes. Which of the
following are the three IPV6 address types??
 295. Routing preference is an indicator used by a router to compare routes of different routing protocols.
Which of the following statement about routing protocol preference is false?

296. What problems may Layer 2 network loops cause??

 Broadcast storm
 MAC address table flapping
 Duplicate data frames
 Sharp increase in CPU usage

297. Link aggregation, also known as Eth-trunk, bundles multiples physical links into a logical link to
increase link bandwidth without having to upgrade hardware. Which of the following statement about link
aggregation are true??

 If the rates of ETH-trunk member interfaces are different, interfaces with lower rates may become
congested, possibly leading to packets being dropped.
 An ETH-trunk interface learns MAC addresses, and its member interfaces do not.

146. Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)

 A. Password authentication
 B. AAA local authentication
 C. MD5 authentication
 D. No authentication
 Correct Answer: ABD

147. On Huawei AR G3 Series routers, which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose
all that apply.)

 A. None
 B. Local
 C. Radius
 D. 802.1X

Correct Answer: ABC

148. Refer to the configuration output. RTA has been configured using AAA as shown, and
associated with the "huawei" domain. For users in the huawei domain, which authentication-scheme will
be used?

 A. au1
 B. au2
 C. au1 will be used. When au1 is deleted, users will use au2
 D. au2 will be used. When au2 is deleted, users will use au1

149. A user accesses a server supporting AAA, for which the authorization mode on the
AAA server has been configured using the command "authorization-mode hwtacacs if-
authenticated".
Which of the following statements regarding this command are true? (Choose three).

 A. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using local
authentication.
 B. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using remote
authentication.
 C. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will bypass authentication.
 D. The hwtacacs server will authorize the user.

298. In asynchronous transmission, data is transmitted byte by byte. Therefore, it is less efficient than
synchronous transmission.
TRUE

299. IPv6 unicast addresses are classified into global unicast addresses and link-local addresses. The prefix of
global unicast addresses is 2000::/3
TRUE.

300.A Layer 2 switch builds a MAC address table by reading the destination MAC addresses in data packets.
FALSE
301. The IPv4 address space is divided into five classes: A,B,C,D, and E. Class D IP addresses are multicast
addresses ranging from 221.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.
FALSE

302. In RSTP, neither alternate ports nor backup ports can forward user traffic, but they both can receive and
send BPDUs.
TRUE

303. In STP, all ports on a root bridge are root ports.

FALSE

304.The address segment FF00::/8 is an IPv6 unique local address.

FALSE

305. Serial links are commontly used in WANs. Two data transmission modes are defined for serial links:
TRUE

306. An IPv6 packet consists of three parts: an IPv6 basic header, one or more IPv6 extension headers, and
an upper-layer protocol data unit (PDU).
TRUE

307. DHCPv6 uses the client/server model. It is designed for IPv6 addressing and is used to allocate IPv6
addresses and other network configuration parameters to hosts. Which of the following statements about
DHCPv6 is false??

In DHCPv6, a client needs to be configured with the IPv6 address of a DHCPv6 server.

308. Which of the following is the default preference of static routes on Huawei devices?

60

309. Which of the following operations is not performed on a data packet when being forwarded based on
MPLS labels?.
PUT

310. Which of the following statements is true about the intervals for sending OSPF Hello packets and the
dead time for an OSPF neighbor relationship?

The intervals at which OSPF neighbors send Hello packets to each other must be the same, and the dead time
for the OSPF neighbor relationship must also be the same.

311. An IPv6 unicast address consists of a network prefix and an interface identifier…. Which of the
following… and interface identifier for an IPv6 address??

Stateless address Auto-configuration.

312. Which of the following statements is false about the funcions of gratuitous ARP packets??

Ensure that the connection between a host and the gateway remains active when the host is idle.

313. LCP belongs to the PPP protocol suite. LCP defines four types of packets for parameter negotiation.
Which of the following packets is not an LCP packet??

CONFIGURE-FAIL
314. Routers R1 and R2 are connected over an Ethernet, and their connecting interfaces run OSPF,the router
ID of the OSPF process on R1 is 1.1.1.1 and that on R2 is 2.2.2.2 Which of the following statement is false?

R1 IS THE DR, and R2 is the BDR

315. PPP is a link-layer protocol used to transmit data over full-duplex synchronous and asynchronous point-
to-point links. Which of the following statements about PPP is false??

PPP provides the LCP protocol for negotiating network layer parameters.

316. An IPv6 packet may carry zero, one, or more extension headers. A sender adds one or more extgension
headers to a packet only when the packet requires special handling from the intermediate routers or
destination device. Which of the following headers is not a valid IPv6 extension header??

FLOW CONTROL HEADER

317. The configuration files and VRP system files of Huawei network devices … Which of the following
statements about VRP commands and functions is false??

The cat command is used to view the detailed contents of a text file.

318. On a broadcast network, 10 routers are interconnected using OSPF. How many adjacencies will be
established between them ??

17

319. Data transmission is a complex process. For example, data needs to be encapsulated and decapsulated
during forwarding. Which of the following stat is false??

Data frames must comply with the IEEE 802.3 standard when encapsulated at the link layer.

320. Assume that OSPF is enabled on a router and the IP address of interface GE0/0/1 is 10.1.1.1./24. To
enable OSPF on this interface, which of the following commands can be run in the OSPF area view??

Network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Network 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0

321. MPLS introduces connection-oriented label switching to connectionless IP network, which combines the
flexibility of IP routing with the simplicity of Layer 2 switching. Which of the following statements about the
MPLS packet header are true??

The label field is used to forward packets.

The TTL field is used to prevent packet loops
The S Field is used to identify the bottom of a label stack, indicating whether the laber is the last one.
The length of the MPLS packet header is 32 bits.

322. SNMP is a standards-based network management protocol widely used on TCP-IP . . . Which of the
following are the components of a SNMP system?
NMS
AGENT
MANAGEMENT INFORMATION BASE (MIB)
MANAGED OBJECT.

323. Which of the following are multicast MAC addresses?

01-80-c2-00-00-01
33-33-00-00-00-01

324. Refer to the following OSPF configuration on a router. Which of the following statement are true?

325. IPsec is a protocol suite defined by IETF, in which the communication parties ensure . . . Which of the
following protocols are include in the IPsec protocol suite?
 AH
 IKE
 ESP

326. Which of the following statements about PPP are true?

PPP supports asynchronous links to the physical layer.

PPP supports cleartext and ciphertext auth
PPP supports multiple network-layer protocols
PPP supports the bundling of multiple physical links…

327. DHCPv6 uses the client/server model. It is designed for IPv6 addressing and is used to allocate IPv6
addresses and other network configuration parameters to hosts. Which of the following statements about
DHCPv6 is true??
328. Which of the following statements about ICMP packets are true??
 ICMP is a network layer protocol.
 An ICMP packet is encapsulated in an IP data packet and is not encapsulated at the transport layer.

329. Which of the following must be specified when configuring a static route on an Ethernet network?

Destination network segment

Next-Hop IP address
Mask for the destination network segment.

330. Which of the following network types are defined in OSPF

 Broadcast network
 Point-to-point network
 Non-broadcast multiple access network
 Point-to-multipoint network.

331. FTP and TFTP can be used to updated the system file on Huawei routers. Which of the following
statements are correct?
 Huawei router can be configured as FTP client.
 Huawei router can be configured as FTP server.
 Huawei router can be configured as TFTP Client

332.An administrator discovered he/she was unable to use TFTP to transfer files to the router.
Which of the following describes the likely reason for this?

 C. UDP port 69 of the server had been blocked.

333. When using VRP, which of the following commands is used to configure the data link layer
encapsulation type of a serial interface as HDLC?
 B. link-protocol hdlc

334. If AH and ESP are both required to protect data streams between IPsec peers, how many Security
Associations (SA) are required in total?
 D. 4

335. Two routers establish an IPsec tunnel, which of the following does not need to be the same on both
peering devices?
 C. Proposal name
336. In a small network supporting IPv6, a network administrator wishes implement RIPng.Which of the
following commands should be used to enable this protocol?
 A. [RTA-GigabitEthernet0/0/0]ripng 1 enable

337. In a network supporting IPv6, OSPF no longer supports which feature?

 C. authentication

338. The network administrator has decided to configure link aggregation in the enterprise network.Which of
the following represent advantages of link aggregation? (Choose three)

 A. Load balancing.
 B. Improved bandwidth.
 C. Enhanced reliability.

339. In port aggregation, "multiple" ports are aggregated to form a port aggregation group so that all the
member ports in the group share the outgoing/incoming load.At which layer is port aggregation implemented?

 Data Link Layer

340. What benefits does port aggregation yield? (Choose three)

A. Improves link bandwidth

B. Implements load sharing
C. Improves network reliability
D. Facilitates data copy for analysis

341. What is the maximum number of member interfaces supported by a single Eth-Trunk?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

342.