011/2021

Question Booklet
A
Question Booklet
Alpha Code Serial Number

Total No. of Questions : 100 Time : 75 Minutes

Maximum : 100 Marks

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of
question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the
question booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in the Examination
Hall.
4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in the
seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your
question booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha
code.
6. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the
question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the question
booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not
have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator
and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
8. Blank sheets of paper is attached to the question booklet. These may be used for rough work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking
your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose
the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black
Ball-Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted.
No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without
handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator
has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed
his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of
malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.

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Total Marks : 100 Marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1. The true nerve of hearing which is the portion of auditory nerve.

(A) Abducens (B) Cochlear nerve
(C) Vestibular nerve (D) Trochlear nerve
2. The average life span of RBC
(A) 130 days (B) 7 – 14 days
(C) 120 days (D) 30 days
3. The organ in which the grey matter can be seen in the form of letter ‘H’.
(A) Spinal cord (B) Cerebrum
(C) Medulla oblongata (D) Cerebellum
4. The hormone that stimulates the formation of spermatozoa in testes of males.
(A) Luteinising hormone (B) Prolactin
(C) ACTH (D) FSH
5. The pacemaker of heart
(A) Chordae tendinae (B) S.A. Node
(C) Bundle of His (D) Papillary muscles
6. The specially altered sweat glands in the skin of ear
(A) Brunner’s gland (B) Sebaceous gland
(C) Meibomian gland (D) Ceruminous gland
7. The volume of air that can be passed in and out of lungs by forcible inspiration and
expiration.
(A) Tidal air (B) Cardiac impulse
(C) Vital capacity (D) Pulse pressure
8. The area which receives images and impressions for interpretation in the occipital lobe of
cerebrum
(A) Motor area (B) Auditory area
(C) Sensory area (D) Visual area
9. The insensible water loss which is a simple diffusion of water through skin
(A) Perspiration (B) Sweat
(C) Sebum (D) None of these
10. A person with blood group A can receive blood of the following blood groups.
(A) B & AB (B) A & AB
(C) B & O (D) A & O
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11. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Teeth-hygiene ?
(i) Periodontal disease is the commonest cause of tooth loss.
(ii) Enamel can repair by itself.
(iii) Dental plaque is protecting teeth from caries.
(iv) Halitosis is the term for bad breath.
(A) Only (i) & (ii) (B) Only (i) & (iv)
(C) Only (ii) & (iii) (D) Only (iii) & (iv)
12. The following are ‘essential’ amino acids, except
(i) Phenylalanine
(ii) Threonine
(iii) Methionine
(iv) Valine
(A) (i) (B) (ii)
(C) (iii) (D) None of the above
13. Which of the following statement is/are wrong about vitamins ?
(i) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency results in Beriberi.
(ii) Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency results in Pellagra.
(iii) Vitamin B12 deficiency results in Pernicious Anemia.
(iv) Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) is essential for wound healing.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii) (D) None of the above
14. Which of the following tests are used to assess the quality of pasteurized milk ?
(i) Phosphatase test
(ii) Standard plate count
(iii) Shick test
(iv) Coliform count
(A) Only (i), (ii) & (iv) (B) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(C) Only (i), (ii) & (iii) (D) All of the above
15. Which of the following bacteria are gram negative ?
(i) Pneumococci
(ii) Gonococci
(iii) Meningococci
(iv) Streptococci
(A) Only (i) & (ii) (B) Only (i) & (iv)
(C) Only (ii) & (iii) (D) All of the above
16. Which of the following methods of sterilization are working using the technique of dry
heat ?
(i) Hot air oven
(ii) Autoclave
(iii) Incinerator
(iv) Hospital sterilizer
(A) Only (i) & (iii) (B) Only (i) & (iv)
(C) Only (ii) & (iv) (D) Only (ii) & (iii)
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17. Which of the following statement is/are correct about functions of Sterile Supplies
Department (CSSD) in a hospital ?
(i) Supply of sterile linen for operation theatre
(ii) Supply of potable drinking water
(iii) Supply of oxygen gas for operation theatre
(iv) Disinfection of equipments such as ventilators
(A) Only (i) & (ii) (B) Only (i) & (iii)
(C) Only (ii) & (iii) (D) Only (i) & (iv)
18. Which of the following statements are wrong about different types of infection ?
(i) First infection by a parasite is known as primary infection.
(ii) The infection caused by a parasite in a patient suffering from a disease caused
by another parasite is known as cross infection.
(iii) Hospital Acquired infection is known as endogenous infection.
(iv) Infection in a particular organ is called focal infection.
(A) Only (i) & (iv) (B) Only (ii) & (iv)
(C) Only (ii) & (iii) (D) None of them
19. Which of the following is not a zoonotic disease ?
(A) Japanese Encephalitis (B) Kyasanur Forest Disease
(C) Brucellosis (D) Dracunculiasis
20. Which of the following drugs are used to treat Covid-19 ?
(i) Dexamethasone
(ii) Favipiravir
(iii) Remdesivir
(iv) Tocilizumab
(A) All of them (B) Only (ii) & (iii)
(C) Only (i) & (iii) (D) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
21. The state of semi unconsciousness in which casualty responds to external stimuli or loud
noise.
(A) Coma (B) Stupor
(C) Fainting (D) Somnolent
22. The condition in which the blood is coughed out mixed with air or sputum.
(A) Epistaxis (B) Malena
(C) Haemoptysis (D) Haemetemesis
23. When fever is present only for several hours during the day, it can be termed
(A) Continuous fever (B) Remittent fever
(C) Moderate fever (D) Intermittent fever
24. The first aid for fractures includes the following group :
(i) Avoid all unnecessary movements
(ii) Reduce the fracture and bring bones to normal position
(iii) Apply splints
(iv) Prevent infection
(A) (i), (iii), (iv) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iii), (iv)
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25. Expand OCHA.
(A) Office for Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs.
(B) Office for Coordination of Health Affairs.
(C) Organisation for Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs.
(D) Organisation for Coordination of Health Affairs.
26. A person who met a motor bike accident has a spinal fracture. He is unable to sit and
stand following injury. This inability can be termed as.
(A) Handicap (B) Disease
(C) Disability (D) Impairment
27. Rehabilitation in which restoration of capacity to earn livelihood is aimed.
(A) Vocational Rehabilitation (B) Medical Rehabilitation
(C) Social Rehabilitation (D) Psychological Rehabilitation
28. The World Disaster Reduction Day is observed on
(A) 2nd Wednesday of December (B) 2nd Wednesday of October
(C) 13th October (D) December 3rd
29. A victim of drowning is rescued. In order to drain out water from the body, the following
first aid measures should be taken, except
(A) Force out water from stomach
(B) Place the victim in prone position
(C) Raise the middle part of body
(D) Clear the airway and mouth
30. When a flood is over, the instruction to be followed is
(A) Can use all consumables
(B) Can use canned foods
(C) Wait until the water is declared safe before drinking
(D) The people should return to home immediately
31. Which is the right option regarding health problems associated with Obesity ?
I Obesity can lead to gall bladder diseases and sleep apnea
II It moderately increases the risk of osteoarthritis and gout
III There is slightly increased risk of breast, endometrial and colon cancers in
obese persons
(A) I and II correct, III incorrect (B) II and III correct, I incorrect
(C) I and III correct, II incorrect (D) I, II and III correct
32. Read the statements and choose the correct option regarding accidents and injury
prevention
I Safety helmets reduce the risk of head injury by 30% and fatalities by 40%
II There should be a basic reporting system of all accidents
III Drugs such as barbiturates, amphetamines and cannabis can improve the
driver's concentration ability
(A) I and II correct, III incorrect (B) II and III correct, I incorrect
(C) I and III correct, II incorrect (D) I, II and III correct
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33. Which is the correct option regarding causes of childhood blindness ?
I Leading causes are Xerophthalmia, Congenital cataract, and Congenital
glaucoma
II Other causes include uncorrected refractive errors, optic atrophy and
retinopathy due to prematurity
(A) I correct, II incorrect (B) II correct, I incorrect
(C) Both correct (D) Both incorrect

34. Pick the right option after reading the statements on geriatrics
I The 3 major ailments reported by elderly persons are visual impairment,
locomotive disorders and neurological complaints
II Biological age of an elderly person is identical with his chronological age
(A) I is correct, II is incorrect (B) II is correct, I incorrect
(C) Both incorrect (D) Both correct

35. Read the following statements about non modifiable risk factors of Hypertension :
I Blood pressure increases with age in both sexes.
II Children of hypertensive parents have 45% chance of developing
hypertension.
III Population studies have shown that blood pressure is higher in white ethnic
communities.
(A) I and II are incorrect, III is correct
(B) II and III are incorrect, I is correct
(C) III is incorrect, I and II are correct
(D) I and III are incorrect, II is correct

36. Which is the right option related to maternal diabetes ?

I Offsprings of diabetic pregnancies including gestational diabetes are often
small babies
II Offsprings of diabetic pregnancies including gestational diabetes often tend
to develop obesity in childhood
III Children born to mothers after they developed diabetes have a 3 fold higher
risk of developing diabetes than those born before
(A) I, II and III are correct (B) I incorrect, II and III correct
(C) II incorrect, I and III correct (D) III incorrect, I and II correct

37. Choose the correct option related to proper bio-medical waste management
I Waste items in yellow bag are treated by autoclaving
II Waste items in black bag are disposed in secured land fill
(A) I is correct, II incorrect (B) I and II correct
(C) I incorrect, II correct (D) I and II incorrect
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38. Regarding Stroke, which is correct ?
I Transient Ischemic attacks (TIA) are episodes of irreversible focal and
neurological deficit lasting for more than 24 hours
II First priority in stroke prevention goes to control of arterial hypertension
III Previously it was considered as an inevitable part of aging, focus is now on
primary prevention through community activation
(A) II and III are correct (B) I and III are correct
(C) I and II are correct (D) All are correct
39. Which is true considering tobacco use and cancers ?
I Worldwide, cigarette smoking is responsible for more than one million
premature deaths each year
II Tobacco use leads to cancer of larynx, bladder, pancreas
(A) I is true, II is false (B) II is true, I is false
(C) I and II are true (D) I and II are false
40. Which is the correct option ?
I According to WHO a healthy person aged 18 to 64 years should try to
achieve 50 minutes of moderate intensity aerobic physical activities every
week
II Physical activities also include leisure time activities like dancing, playing
and gardening
(A) I correct (B) II correct
(C) Both correct (D) Both incorrect
41. Public Health concept born in
(A) Japan (B) England
(C) America (D) China
42. Which of the following disease is caused by Bacteria ?
(A) Chicken pox (B) Measles
(C) Mumps (D) TB
43. The concept of Primary Health care came into lime light at a conference held at
(A) Alma Ata (B) New Delhi
(C) Rio de Janeiro (D) Vienna
44. Identify the correct combination below providing primary health care services in India.
(i) Sub Centres
(ii) Primary Health Centres
(iii) Community Health Centres
(iv) Rural Hospitals
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) & (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) & (iii) only
(D) All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
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45. Vasectomized persons should be advised not to lift heavy objects or ride bicycles for
_____ days after the operation.
(A) 5 (B) 15
(C) 25 (D) 35
46. The day on which the World Health Organization came into force.
(A) 6th March, 1947 (B) 7th April, 1948
th
(C) 8 May, 1949 (D) 9th June, 1950
47. The system of Registration of Births & Deaths in India is far from satisfactory due to –
(Identify the right combination below)
(i) Lack of Uniformity
(ii) Lack of Completeness
(iii) Lack of Accuracy
(iv) Ignorance of People
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (i) & (ii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) & (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
48. Eligible Couple means –
(A) Currently married couple where wife is in the age group of 15 to 50 years.
(B) Currently married couple where wife is in the age group of 15 to 45 years.
(C) Currently married couple where wife is in the age group of 18 to 50 years.
(D) Currently married couple where wife is in the age group of 18 to 45 years.
49. The Tag line of World Health Day 2020.
(A) Support Health Workers (B) Support Health System
(C) Support Nurses & Midwives (D) Support Doctors
50. Dosage of TT1 for a woman in early pregnancy is
(A) 0.05 ml (B) 0.01 ml
(C) 0.5 ml (D) 1 ml
51. In excreta disposal, Effluent forms in
(i) Septic Tank
(ii) Sewage treatment plant
(iii) Oxidation pond
(A) Only (i) & (ii) (B) Only (ii) & (iii)
(C) Only (i) & (iii) (D) (i), (ii) & (iii)
52. Average amount of sewage which flows through the sewage system in 24 hours
(i) Average scum flow
(ii) Average sewage flow
(iii) Dry weather flow
(A) Only (ii) (B) Only (i)
(C) Only (iii) (D) (i), (ii), & (iii)
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53. Back washing process introduced with
(i) Slow sand filter
(ii) Rapid sand filter
(iii) Grit chamber
(A) Only (i) & (ii) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (i) (D) Only (iii)
54. Heart of sewage treatment plant
(i) Sedimentation tank
(ii) Trickling filter
(iii) Aeration tank
(A) Only (i) & (ii) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (i) (D) Only (iii)
55. Method for refuse disposal
(i) Dumping
(ii) Sanitary land fill
(iii) Manure pits
(A) Only (iii) & (i) (B) Only (ii) & (i)
(C) Only (i) (D) (i), (ii) & (iii)
56. Estimated volume of water in one cubic metre of a well
(i) 1000 litres
(ii) 10000 litres
(iii) 100 litres
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii) (D) None of these
57. Different name of oxidation pond
(i) Waste stabilization pond
(ii) Redox pond
(iii) Sewage lagoons
(A) Only (ii) (B) Only (i)
(C) Only (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
58. Commonly using larvicides for chemical control
(i) Mineral oils
(ii) Malathion
(iii) Lindane
(A) Only (i) & (ii) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (i) (D) Only (iii)
59. Heart of the slow sand filter
(i) Vital layer
(ii) Zoogleal layer
(iii) Biological layer
(A) Only (iii) (B) Only (i) & (ii)
(C) Only (ii) & (iii) (D) (i), (ii) & (iii)
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60. The disease associated with rodents
(i) Salmonillosis
(ii) Plague
(iii) Leishmaniasis
(A) Only (ii) (B) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)
(C) Only (i) & (ii) (D) Only (ii) & (iii)
61. In communication “Technical Know-how” is
(A) Channel (B) Message
(C) Source (D) Feed back
62. Television is an example of
(A) Audio aid (B) Video aid
(C) Audio-video aid (D) All of the above
63. Cognitive level of communication is based on
(A) Attitude (B) Skill
(C) Psychomotor (D) Knowledge
64. Public Health Act is _____ approach in Health Education.
(A) Educational (B) Regulatory
(C) Service (D) None of these
65. The concept of ‘Microteaching’ put forward by
(A) W. Allen (B) Edgar Dale
(C) Maslow (D) Piaget
66. The process of ‘Sociometry’ was put forward by
(A) Skinner (B) J.L Moreno
(C) C.H. Coolle (D) Freud
67. ‘Individual Methods’ in health communication is
(A) Workshop (B) Exhibition
(C) Seminar (D) House visit
68. _____ consist of series of meetings.
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Role play (D) All of the above
69. Expand DAVP
(A) Department of Advertising and Visual Publicity
(B) Department of Audio Visual Publicity
(C) Directorate of Advertising and Visual Publicity
(D) None of these
70. In Communication “the Cone of Experience” theory put forward by
(A) Sigmund Freud (B) Charles McIntyre
(C) Skinner (D) Edgar Dale
71. Expand ‘MBO’.
(A) Management Behaviour Objectives (B) Management By Objectives
(C) Model Behaviour Organization (D) Management Behaviour Organization
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72. In “POSDCORB”, ‘D’ means
(A) Developing (B) Designing
(C) Directing (D) Deviating
73. “Determining what is to be done” is
(A) Organizing (B) Co-ordinating
(C) Monitoring (D) Planning
74. PERT is a _____ technique.
(A) Communication (B) Management
(C) Budgeting (D) Organizing
75. The Fourteen Principles of Management put forward by
(A) Maslow (B) Pearson
(C) Eric Erickson (D) Henry Fayol
76. Panchayathi Raj Bill adopted by Parliament in 1992 by _____ amendment.
(A) 73rd (B) 70th
(C) 72nd (D) 74th
77. Panchayathi Raj System initially introduced in
(A) Kerala (B) Sikkim
(C) Punjab (D) Rajasthan
78. In Covid-19 Awareness Campaign “SMS” means
(A) Safe Method Surveillance (B) Soap Mask Sanitizer
(C) Soap Mask Social Distance (D) Safety Mask Service
79. In India “The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act” enacted in
(A) 1961 (B) 1981
(C) 1971 (D) 1991
80. The Epidemic Disease Act, 1897 amended on
(A) April 2020 (B) May 2020
(C) June 2020 (D) July 2020
81. Name the Swiss Psychiatrist who divided personalities into two types extrovert and
introvert.
(A) Henry Dunant (B) Carl Jung
(C) Rock Feller (D) James Braid
82. Which of the following is obtained by dividing the mental age by chronological age and
multiplying by 100 ?
(A) Emotional Quotient (B) Spiritual Quotient
(C) Physical Quotient (D) Intelligence Quotient
83. Instead of accepting failure and correcting himself, the individual tries to make excuses
and justifies his behaviour. What is it ?
(A) Projection (B) Displacement
(C) Regression (D) Rationalization
84. To prepare couple for child birth and child rearing
(A) Adulthood (B) Childhood
(C) Parenthood (D) Elderly
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85. An individual is faced with problems, he employs certain ways to achieve health,
happiness or success.
(A) Habit formation (B) Learning
(C) Defence mechanism (D) Listening
86. The social group determined by geographical boundaries and/or common values and
interests
(A) Nation (B) Family
(C) State (D) Community
87. Condition in which the patient pre-occupied with fears of having serious disease
(A) Hypochondriasis (B) Phobia
(C) Generalised anxiety disorder (D) Dyspnoea
88. The family consists of the married couple and their children
(A) Three generation family (B) Joint family
(C) Broken family (D) Nuclear family
89. Mental Disease descend over from one generation to the other
(A) Stress (B) Schizophrenia
(C) Anorexia (D) Osteomalacia
90. Name the fundamental right that explains the child labour is an offence
(A) Right to Equality (B) Right to Liberty
(C) Cultural and Educational Right (D) Right Against Exploitation
91. Which is the correct statement ?
I In Hookworm infection, reservoir is man and source of infection is
contaminated soil.
II In Tetanus, reservoir and source are the same that is, soil.
(A) I correct and II incorrect (B) II correct and I incorrect
(C) Both correct (D) Both incorrect
92. Read the statements about types of vaccines:
I Hepatitis A Vaccine is a killed type vaccine
II Hepatitis B and HPV are Toxoid vaccines
III BCG and Rotavirus vaccines are Live attenuated vaccines
(A) I and II true, III false (B) II and III true, I is false
(C) I and III true, II is false (D) All are true
93. Regarding Fixed Dose combination, choose the right option:
I In DOTS, medicines are now prepared in fixed dose combinations that
reduces the number of tablets to be consumed
II Instead of alternate day regimen, TB patients taking FDC are switched to a
daily regimen
(A) I is correct, II incorrect (B) II correct, I incorrect
(C) Both incorrect (D) I and II correct
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94. Which is the correct statement regarding ORS ?
I Composition of Trisodium citrate dehydrate in reduced osmolarity ORS is
4.5 g/L
II At home it can be prepared by mixing 6 teaspoon of salt and one teaspoon of
sugar in one litre of water
III After each loose stool, children under 2 years of age should be given 50 to
100 ml of ORS
(A) I and II correct (B) II and III correct
(C) Only I correct (D) Only III correct
95. During the first visit of a 9 month old infant, if her mother permits only one injection,
which one should be given ?
(A) DPT vaccine with OPV and vitamin A
(B) BCG and OPV vaccine with vitamin A
(C) Measles vaccine and OPV with vitamin A
(D) Hepatitis B vaccine and OPV with vitamin A
96. Pick the correct option associated with H1N1 Influenza infection
I Inactivated vaccine is administered as a single dose intramuscular injection in
the upper arm
II Live attenuated vaccines are given via nasal spray
III Category A patients are at high risk as they have the most severe respiratory
symptoms
(A) I and III correct (B) I and II correct
(C) II and III correct (D) All are correct
97. Choose the correct option
I Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum
II Whooping cough is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi
III Lymphatic Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti
(A) I and II correct (B) II and III correct
(C) I and III correct (D) All are correct
98. Read and choose the correct option:
I Herd immunity can protect the individual in case of Tetanus
II Herd immunity is maintained and stepped up by immunization programme
(A) I is true and II is false (B) I is false and II is true
(C) Both are true (D) Both false
99. Which is the correct statement about acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) and polio ?
I Reporting of all cases of AFP in children under 5 years of age is mandatory
II Polio vaccine should be stored at sub-zero temperature to prevent inactivation
III Doses of OPV during PPI are extra doses which supplement and do not
replace the doses received during routine immunization service
(A) I and II correct (B) II and III correct
(C) I and III correct (D) All are correct
100. Which is the correct option related to IDSP ?
(A) It was launched in November 2010.
(B) Cough more than 1 week comes under IDSP surveillance.
(C) Classification of surveillance in IDSP is as syndromic diagnosis, presumptive
and confirmed diagnosis.
(D) IDSP does not involve private hospitals and labs.

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