Software Testing Life Cycle

Software Testing Life Cycle Dumps Consolidated

Dumps Count : 388

Consolidated & Edited By

A.J.Justin Balan
1) The modules to be tested will be included in the Scope Inclusion. True
2) Documentation testing does the verification of installation procedures and deployment
checklists.
“Non - Functional Testing
1. Browser compatibility testing
2. Usability testing.
3. Scalability testing
4. Reliability Testing”

3) Baseline is a quantitative measure of current level of performance.

4) TCP is Test Case Point
5) UCP is Use Case Point
6) FP is Function Point
7) The following are the suspension criteria
a) Non availability of the application
b) Non availability of the test environment
c) Urgent defects are not fixed
d) Application fails sanity test
e) All of the above
8) Test Scenario is a powerful tool for test design.
“Test scenarios represent a powerful tool for test design, and defines the events that
occur during is testing session. In general scenario defines an own model of target
system, called the testing model. The test constructed from such a scenario executes
the stated sequence and checks the verdict”

9) Statement coverage is not a black box testing. (it’s a white box testing)
10) The objective of ranking test conditions is:
a) Determine which test conditions must be tested first
b) To determine the amount of resources allocated
c) Both
“Ranking can be used for two purposes:
1. To determine which conditions should be tested first
2. To determine the amount of resources allocated to each of the test conditions.”

11) The correct processing results for each test situation must be determined. True
12) Finalization describes actions to be done after test case is performed.
13) The following are the test case components:
a) Test case name
b) Test case prerequisite
c) Test case execution order
d) Test procedures
 e) Input values
f) Expected Results
g) Test Data sources

14) The following are the characteristics of a good test case:

a) High probability to find errors
b) Discover more information
c) Written for valid and expected results as well as invalid and unexpected results
d) Should not be redundant not simple or too complex
e) Test case will be complex if there is more than one expected result.

15) Test objective tells the tasks that the tester is required to accomplish.

16) The first stage of any recognized development project is data preparation.

17) Preparation of data can help to focus the business where requirements are vague. True

18) Test data preparation techniques are:

a) Permutations
b) Partitions
19) RTM is the tool that is used right from the requirement study till the defect analysis in the
testing life cycle.
20) The main tasks of SCM activities are:
a) Identifying and organizing the software configurable items
b) Maintaining change requests and systematically controlling changes to
configurable items.
c) Tracking the status of configurable items
d) Review and Audit of SCM activities
21) There can be only One SCM coordinator.
22) If softcopies of the work product is lost, then you should contact the NSS team.
23) Prerequisite of Test Execution Phase:
a) All test cases signed off by the client
b) Test Bed setup complete
24) When a risk/issue be escalated?
a) When a risk/issue foreseen will have an impact on testing
25) Incident Report is a document reporting on any event that occurs during testing which
requires investigation.
26) A Defect Report is a case against a product.
27) The following are the Defect analysis tools:
a) Pareto Charts
b) Fishbone diagram/ Ishikawa diagram
c) Defect Containment Matrix
28) Deferred defect will be an enhancement.
29) Defect Resolution ensures that all defects were reviewed and resolved efficiently.
“Will track every single issue and discrepancy in the project”
30) Test Results can be stored in Test Runs. True
“The test data is also embedded with the test cases and also test results can be
stored in the Test Runs”

31) Quality Center can also be used as a defect tracking tool. True
32) The following are test coverage analysis tools;
a) McCabe
b) Battle Map
33) Test Coverage is ensured through test scenarios. True
“Test Scenarios helps in ensuring that all testable requirements are covered. The test
scenarios are then translated to test cases, thus ensuring complete coverage. ”

34) The system is treated as a “Black Box” in use case modeling. True
35) Checklist is very important in verification phase.
36) The Driver function will call the Stub.
37) Test Data is also important to non functional testing. True
38) Setup data tells the system about the business rules.
1. Environmental Data
a. Communication address
b. Directory trees
c. Paths
d. Environment variables
e. Date and Time
2. Setup Data
a. Business rules
b. Offer new intangible products without developing new functionality
3. Input Data
a. FixedAvailable before start and as a part of Test Conditions
b. ConsumableConsumable i/p qualify data after system started to use it
4. Transitional Only within the pgm during i/p processing
5. Output dataResult of processing
a. Files
b. Transmissions
c. Reports
d. DB updates
e. Test Measurements
39) Partitioning of data helps in:
a) Allows controlled and reliable data reducing data corruption/change
b) Can reduce the need for exclusive access to environment/machines.
40) SCM coordinator and Project leader has delete access to the files.
41) Usable Version of SCI item will always reside in Baseline library.
42) If document needs to be changed, it must be checked out from VSS. True
43) Quality center is a Test Management Tools
44) Test scenarios are derived from SRS
45) Minimum number of scenarios u can write from the use case is equal to
Number of alternative flows +main flow
“Each combination of main and alternate flow will identify a scenario”
46) Hypo story characteristics
MotivatingStake holder pushes failed pgm
Credibleprobability of happening
Complex use of the program, environment or set of data
Test results  easy to evaluate
47) Outcome of Test cases
o Revised Test Plan
o Test Procedures for each Test Cases
o Updated RTM
o Procedures for test set up, test execution and restoration
o Test Cases for each application function (requirement) described in the test
plan
48) Who will create Test plan?
Test Lead [If test lead not given means Tester]

49) PACE is Process, Activity, Component, Element

50) In Ace model, components are equal to

Activity  Test scenarios
[Unit of Business necessary to perform transaction]
Components  Test Condition
[Components  Modules or functions interconnects activities using basic elements]
ElementsTest Data
[Non divisible parameters that make up a component]
“ACE Workflow based tool which increases ones productivity and competitive
position through support, automation and reengineering of business process
Useful in identifying test objectives and translating to test scenarios”
51) Test Condition is defined as an item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases

52) Tools used for test coverage analysis?

McCabe, Battle Map
53) JUNIT is Java Unit Testing Tool
54) Characteristics of test case?
 Has a high probability to find an error
 Helps to discover information
 Written for invalid and valid condition
 No redundant, not too simple or too complex
 Complex if there are more than one expected result

55) Test results are recorded in Test Log

56) Testing Environment /configuration

Information about configuration of hardware or software
Initialization
It describes actions, which must be performed before test case execution is
started.
Finalization
It describes actions, which must be performed after test case execution is
performed.
Actions
Step by step to be done to complete test.
Input data description

57) Components of the test case?

 Test Case Names
 Test Case Pre-requisites
 Test Case Execution Order
 Test Procedures
 Input Values
 Expected Results
 Test Data Resources

58) Name the Test Data Preparation Techniques.

Permutation, Partitioning
59) Smoke Testing means
a) To find whether the hardware burns out
b)Same as build verification test
c) To find that software is stable
d) None of the above

60) How can it be known when to stop testing?

a) When no more bugs can be found

b) When the time allocated is over

c) When the quality goals set up for testing have been achieved

d) All of the above

“1. TM Confident about the system functionality

2. Fulfillment of quality goals set at the beginning

3. % of coverage achieved by the tests

4. Number of open defects and their severity levels

5. Risk of moving and not moving the product into production”

61) Which type of test would you perform to accept a build for testing?
a) Beta test
b) Smoke test
c) system test
d) User acceptance test

62) _______________ improves the testing quality

a) Finding all the critical defects
b) Finding the defects during deployment
c) Finding the defects during the design phase
d) Finding the defects in the production environment
e) All the above

63) ETVX stands for

a) Entry, Task, Verification, Exit
b) Entry, Test, Verification, Exit
c) Entry, Task, Validation, Exit
 d) None of the above

64) Test condition is defined as an item or event that could be verified by one or more test
cases.

65) How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required? (Choose 2)
a) Time allocated by client
b) Metrics collected from previous similar projects
c) Discussions with the development team
d) Time allocated for regression testing
e) Based on the availability of resources

66) Confirmation testing is formally called as

a) Regression testing
b) User acceptance testing
c) Retesting
d) Build verification test

67) While executing the test cases, a high priority test case crashes database & u can’t proceed
further. What tester should do? (Choose 3)
a) Inform to the test lead
b) Tester should restore the database before executing other test cases
c) Log as a defect
d) Execute remaining test cases in other test environment
e) Communicate with developer
f) Inform to the database team

68) A configuration management system would NOT normally provide

a) Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers
b) Facilities to compare current results with previous versions test results
c) Restricted access to the source code library
d) Communicating to all the resources when changes made

69) What type of testing will you perform on Internet banking solution?
a) System integration testing
b) Sanity testing
c) Non functional testing
d) Regression testing
 e) Usability testing
f) Security testing

70) If an expected result is not specified then:

a. We cannot run the test

b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs
71) Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1, 3, 4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1, 2, 3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure
72) Pareto charts commonly known as
a) 70 - 30%
b) Scatter plots
c) Check sheet
d) 80 - 20%

73) Post Mortems Review is a Process Review. Say True/ False

74) Without preparation of a test plan, at an earlier testing phase, tests may be __________
a) Economical
b) ineffective
c) None of the listed options
d) Effective
e) Time saving & effective

75) Which among the following is the quantitative measure of the current level of performance?
a) Affinity diagram
b) Pareto analysis
c) Benchmarking
d) Baseline
76) Testing that may involve intentionally causing the system to fail so that recovery procedures
can be tested is called
a) Stress testing
b) Recovery testing
c) Disaster testing
d) Security testing
77) Quality center is a _______________? (Choose 2)
a) Automation testing tool
b) Test Management tool
c) Defect tracking tool
d) Coverage tool
e) All the above

78) _____________ is a quick test done to ensure that the major functions of a piece of software
work
a) Sanity test
b) Agile test
c) Smoke test
d) Gorilla test

79) Defect tracking tool?

a) Bugzilla
b) Prolite
c) Jira
d) e-tracker
e) Win runner
f) QTP
a & c- true, b, d, e, f are false
a, c –True, b, d, e, f – False
a, b, c, d - true – e, f- false
a, b, c- true, d, e, f- false

80) Identify the odd man out

a. Sanity testing
b. Mutation testing
c. Adhoc testing
d. Bench Marking
e. Beta Testing

81) To test a function, the programmer has to write a ________, which calls the function to be
tested and passes its test data.
a. Stub,
b. Driver,
c. Proxy,
d. None of the above.

82) Pick the best definition of quality

 a. Quality is job one,
b. Zero defects,
c. Conformance to requirements,
d. Work as designed.

83) Independent Verification & Validation is

a. Done by the Developer,
b. Done by the Test Engineers,
c. Done By Management,
d. Done by an Entity outside the Project’s sphere of influence.

84) Regression testing should be performed:

i. Every week,
ii. After the software has changed,
iii. As often as possible,
iv. When the environment has changed,
v. When the requirement changed.

a. I and ii are true, iii, iv, v are false,

b. ii, iii and iv are true, I and v are false,
c. ii and iv are true, I, iii and v are false,
d. ii is true, I, iii, iv, v are false,
e. v is true; I, ii, iii and iv are false.

85) Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a. State transition testing,
b. LCSAJ,
c. Syntax testing,
d. Boundary value analysis.

86) Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Inspection is the most formal review process,
b. Inspections should be led by a trained leader,
c. Managers can perform inspections on management documents,
d. Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents.

87) A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Calculating expected outputs
b. Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c. Recording test inputs
d. Reading test values from a data file

88) Expected results are:

a. Only important in system testing
b. Only used in component testing
c. Most useful when specified in advance
d. Derived from the code
89) The cost of fixing a fault:
a. Is not important
b. Increases the later a fault is found
c. Decreases the later a fault is found
d. Can never be determined

90) Match the following:

1. Test Estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. Measures of tracking process
b. Effort required to perform activities
c. Reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c,
B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b,
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c,
D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a.

91) Identify which is NOT a Defect tracking tool?

a. Bugzilla
b. Quick test Professional
c. JIRA
d. Quality Center

92) What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing?
a. Technical risk
b. Business risk
c. Project constraints
d. Product documentation

A) a & b are true, c & d are false

B) c is true, a, b, d are false
C) a,b & d are true, c is false
D) a, b, c are true, d is false

93) Who often performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively?
a) Senior programmers & professional testers
b) Technical system testers & potential customers
c) Independent test team & users of the system
d) Development team & customers of the system

94) Say True or False?

Maximum number of scenarios can be derived from the use case is the sum of the primary
flow & the alternative flow.

95) Who creates Test plan?

a) Project manager
b) Tester “Test Engineer”
 c) Developer
d) Configuration Manager
96) Find out the Clarification Status
a. New
b. Rejected
c. Reopen
d. Fixed
“Open, closed, in progress, Re open”
97) __________ testing verifies the Manual installation procedures & the deployment checklists
a. Installation
b. Intrusive
c. Documentation ” Verification of Installation Manual, Operation Procedures,
Deployment Checklists (if it is the responsibility of the System Testing
Group)”
d. Environment
98) Complexity of the testing can be decided based on the
a. Functionality which is tested
b. Functionality & performance of the application is tested
c. Resource used for testing
d. Time taken to perform the test
99) Choose the test deliverables (Choose 3)
a. Test Plan
b. Test Scenarios
c. Execution log
d. Test strategy
e. Traceability matrix
“Test Plan
Test Scenarios
Test Cases and results
Defects Report
Test Coverage Matrix
Defect Metrics Report
QA Summary Report
QA cycle status report
Test execution Log“

100) Choose the configuration management tool? (Choose 3)

a. Panvalet
b. Clear Quest
c. Changeman
d. Visual Source Safe
e. Test Director
101) Which test levels are usually included in the V-Model?
Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, regression testing
Component testing, integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing
Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, acceptance testing
Alpha testing, beta testing, white box testing, black box testing

102) Identify the Miscellaneous items or non configurable items(Choose 2)

a. Test Strategy
b. Test Cases document
c. Test Log(not sure)
d. Requirement Traceability Matrix (RTM)
e. MOM
“Daily, Weekly status report, Execution summary report, MOM”

103) ____________ refers to the period for which the project items are going to retained
after project closure
a. Archival frequency
b. Retention period
c. Back up frequency
d. All the above

104) In SCM team, who is having the control to delete the folders/ library structure? (Choose
2)
a. Management
b. Client
c. Project lead
d. Team members
e. SCM coordinator

105) Steps involved in Configuration management?

a. Form SCM team, create user groups, and create project library structure, Audit
b. Form SCM team, create user groups & access control, and create project library
structure, Audit
c. Form SCM team, create project library structure, create user groups Access
control and Audit
d. Create user groups, Create library structure, and Give access control, Audit

106) ________________ describes actions to be done after test case is performed

a. Finalization
 b. Initialization
c. Test Execution
d. None of the above

107) In ACE model, the components & activities are equivalent to which of the following?
a. Test Scenarios & test data
b. Test Scenarios & Test conditions
c. Test Data & Test Scenarios
d. None of the above
“Condition & Scenario”
108) Characteristics of a good test case
a. Help us discover information
b. High probability to find an error
c. Written for valid, invalid & unexpected cases
d. All the above

109) Identify the tool used for traceability

a. Spreadsheets
b. Test director
c. Quality center
d. All the above

110) __________________ is a document reporting on any event that occurs during the
testing which requires investigation
a. Investigation report
b. Test log
c. Incident report
d. None of the above

111) Entry point for test Execution is (Choose 2)

a. All the test cases are reviewed
b. After test bed set up complete
c. All the test cases are signed off by the client
d. After test data prepared
e. All the above

112) Tools used for analyzing the defects

a. Pareto charts
 b. ishikawa diagram
c. Cause & effect diagram
d. All the above
113) Who will prepare the test plan
a) Test engineer
b) SME coordinator
c) Project manager
d) None of the above

114) Maximum no of scenario = sum of alternative flow + main flow – True or False

115) Which of the following is updated or revised after test case design
a) RTM
b) Test log
c) Test plan
d) Test plan + RTM
e) Test input

116) Test objective is derived from ______________ requirement study. – Testable

requirement

117) When to start test execution –

After approval of project manager
After approval or requested by test lead
Environmental set up
“All test cases signed off by the client”
“Test bed setup complete”

118) Test estimation starts from which phase

a) Requirement phase
b) Test case design

119) how will u test requirement test covered

a) Test coverage tool
b) RTM
c) Both
d) None of above

120) Find the test coverage tool

 a) Statement coverage
b) Branch coverage
c) McCabe

121) Which is not a black box testing Test statement coverage

122) ----- testing is done after tester done test case

a) Adhoc
b) Dynamic
c) Formal

123) -------represent the ability to follow the requirement by using forward and backward
testing
a) Bidirectional
b) Traceability
c) None of the above

124) Defect lack of clarity what is the next step

a) Defect has to close
b) Defect has to fix by developer
c) Defect needs to send back to tester for more clarification

125) Different types of input data

a) Permutation
b) Partition
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
“Fixed, Consumable”
126) Test case design component(template)
a) Test case description
b) Test case Id
c) Expected result
d) Status
e) Defect id
f) Severity
“Test case documentation standards, Naming Standards, Approved test plan,
Business process doc, Business process overflow, Test condition”
127) Where is your test case execution result stored
a) Quality center
b) Test log
c) Defect report
d) Status report

128) Which is non configurable item

a) Test plan
b) Defect report
c) Test case report
d) Status report

129) Who has the right to delete project report

a) PM
b) SCM coordinator Project leader(Not sure)
c) clients
130) The primary objective of testing is

a. To show that the program works

b. To provide a detailed indication of quality
c. To find errors
d. To protect the end user.

131) Equivalence partitioning is a black box testing methods that

a. Look for equivalent data values in the program

b. Looks for classes of output
c. Focuses on output errors
d. Defines classes of input

132) At a minimum, white box case design requires that you have

a. Source Code
b. An operational program
c. A detailed procedural design
d. The program architecture

133) Alpha testing is differentiated from beta testing by

 a. The location where the tests are conducted
b. The types of tests conducted
c. The people doing testing
d. The degree to which white box techniques are used.

134) The testing that ensures that no unwanted changes were introduced is

a. Unit Testing
b. System Testing
c. Acceptance Testing
d. Regression Testing

135) Unit testing is predominantly

a. White box oriented

b. black box oriented
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

136) In general, unit testing is performed by

a. An independent test group

b. The software engineer
c. SQA
d. The customer

137) The document that describes the expected output as well as input is

a. Test Case
b. Test Plan
c. Test Log
d. Test Harness

138) A series of test data that is logically tested together is

a. Test Specification.
b. Test Result
c. Test Case.
d. Test Script
139) Defect is defined as (not sure)
a. S/w problem that requires corrective action
b. Unexpected error / event that needs investigation
c. Temporary problem that is not related to the s/w
d. All the above

140) The following is NOT a defect management activity

a. Logging a defect
b. Tracking a defect to a closure
c. Finding the person who introduced the defect
d. Preventing defects

141) It is used to measure the complexity of an application and an estimation technique to

calculate the size and effort of a testing project

a. BCP
b. TCP
c. TCP/IP
d. None of the above

142) Contents of a test report

a. Executive summary
b. Application overview
c. Testing Scope
d. Test Approach and environment
e. All the above

143) Testing the software for the required specifications on the intended hardware is called

a. System testing
b. Regression Testing
c. Alpha Testing
d. Beta Testing
e. All the above

144) It ensures all defects are reviewed and resolved efficiently

a. Defect Resolution
 b. Defect density
c. Defect leakage
d. None of the above

145) Which one of these is a Non Configurable item in Configuration Management

a. Test Strategy document

b. Test plan document
c. Test case document
d. RTM
e. Minutes of Meeting[MOM]

146) Identify which is a configuration management tool of choices given below.

a. Visual Studio Team System [VSTS]

b. Rational Clear Case [RCC]
c. Virtual Source Safe [VSS]

147) Configuration Management activities are

a. Identifying and organizing the s/w configuration items

b. Maintaining change requests and systematically controlling changes of configurable items.
c. Tracking the status of the configurable items
d. Review and audit of the software config management activities
e. All the above.

148) Coverage goal is ……….

a. goal to detect maximum errors or bugs in the program
b. goal to rectify all the errors detected in the program
c. amount of code that must be executed for application
d. all of the above

149) Which of the method is not used to define & measure test coverage?
a. Basis path
b. Global data coverage
c. Redundant data coverage
d. None of the above
“Statement coverage, Branch coverage, Integration subtree coverage,
Modified decision coverage, User specified data coverage”

150) Ranking of test cases is based on …….

a. Valid transaction performance
 b. Most frequent transaction performance
c. A & B
d. None of the above
“In payroll Application”

151) Ranking of test cases is used to …….

a. Determine which conditions should be tested first.
b. Amount of resources allocated to each of test conditions.
c. A & B
d. None of the above

152) Which of the following is not an outcome of test case design?

a. Revised test plan
b. Test procedure
c. UTP
d. Updated RTM

153) Data partitions help because

a. It allows controlled & reliable data, reducing data corruption problems
b. it is used to reduce the need for exclusive access to environment & machines
c. all of the above
d. None of the above
“Reducing uncontrolled changes in data”
“Setup 3 environments shared by users”
154) Which is not the format of test cases?
a. step by step
b. matrix
c. recommended script
d. automated script

155) A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests is known as…
a. test suit
b. test harness
c. test log
d. test plan

156) The data which exists only within the program during processing of input data is known
as…..
a. set up data
b. input data
c. environmental data
d. transitional data
e. None of the above
157) Which of the following is not true about test runs?
a. Defining test execution flow
b. Setting the test properties
c. Defining the hierarchy of test cases
d. Requirement traceability
“Create test logs, prioritize test cases, group test cases”
158) An example test coverage tool is ……
a. McCabe
b. Eventum
c. TSL
d. None of the above
“Battle Maps”

159) Data cannot be loaded into a test system by…..

a. using the system you are trying to test
b. using an existing loaded data into test system
c. using a data load tool

160) Which of the point does not summarize the actions that can influence the quality of data
& effectiveness of usage?
a. know your data
b. use the data to improve understanding throughout testing and business
c. plan data for maintenance and flexibility
d. removal of redundant data
“Test setup data as you would test functionality”
“Know your data and make its structure and content transparent”

161) Benefits of Bi-directional requirement traceability include ability to….

a. assess current status of requirement
b. analyze the impact of a change
c. all of the above
d. None of the above
“Identify missing requirements”
“All work products impacted by change”
“All requirements affected by change or defect”
“ForwardBusiness requirements to test requirements to design or strategy to
test that validates above”
“Backwardtest to associated requirement to its source”
162) RTM is used to translate test requirement to scenario & test cases
a. true
b. false

163) Test data is important to non functional testing.

 a. TRUE
b. FALSE

164) Using which technique we can have a complete pair wise coverage for Test data
preparation.
A) Permutation
B) Partitioning
C) Both
D) None of the above.

165) Components that we are mapping using the RTM are

A) Test Requirement
B) Test plan
C) ACE model
D) Defect id

166) Data existing within the program is known as

A) Environmental Data
B) Setup data
C) Input data
D) Transitional data

167) Test coverage can be measured using the code coverage method
A) True
B) False

168) ___________ is a documentation specifying inputs, predicted results, and a set of

execution conditions for a test item.
A) Test Design
B) Test Condition
C) Test Case

169) State True or False low-ranked test conditions will not be tested
A) True
B) False

170) Directory Tree is________

A) Set up data
B) transitional data
C) input Data
D) None of the above
“Environmental Data”
171) Traceability ensures following
 A)basis for Test planning
B)Test coverage
C)translates requirements to test cases
D)completeness
E)b&c
“Application under test behaves as per functional specs”
“Manage changes”
172) "Following tools allow to maintain traceability between requirements, test plan, test logs
and defects"
a. Test director
b. VSS
c. Quality centre
d. Both a & b

173) Which are the Components of Requirement Traceability?

a. Test manipulation
b. Defect ids
c. Test configuration
d. Test logs
“Test Requirement, Test Strategy, Test plan, Test scenario, Test case,
Test logs, Defect id’s”

174) A variety of requirement tests can be applied to ensure that

a. each requirement is relevant
b. Everyone has the same understanding of its meaning.
c. both
d. none

175) All stakeholders responsible for requirements should verify that requirements possess
the following attributes
a. Completeness
b. Consistency
c. Traceability
d. All of the above
“Correctness”
“Testability”
“Feasibility”
“Necessity”
“Prioritization”
“Unambiguousness”

176) Which of the requirement ensures that it can be implemented given the budget,
schedules, technology, and other resources available?
a. Feasibility
b. Completeness
c. Consistency
 d. Traceability

177) Which requirement type describes in detail:’ what needs to be tested in the application'?
a. Functional Requirements
b. Test requirement
c. Business Requirements
d. None of the above

178) Which document is verified by testing team?

a. Design document
b. Program structure
c. Requirement document
d. All
“Business requirement docs, Functional specs, technical specs, Product
specs, Use cases, business process maps, business logic”

179) Defect prevention is most effective during which phase

a. Test Design
b. Requirement Analysis
c. Unit Testing
d. System Testing

180) A requirement is said to be complete when

a. No necessary elements are missing from the requirement
b. Confirms that it is possible to create a test for the requirement
c. It can be implemented within the given budget
d. It can be implemented within the given schedule

181) What is the status of a clarification raised by a tester on a given requirement

a. New
b. In progress
c. Open
d. Closed

182) which document is a way to evaluate the understanding of testers on the overall system
requirements
a. System evaluation
b. System understanding
c. Requirement review
d. Requirement stability

183) _______ ensures that each requirement is identified in such a way that it can be
associated with all parts of the system where it is used.
a. Feasibility
b. Traceability
c. Unambiguousness
d. Consistency
184) Feasibility of a requirement ensures that it can be implemented given the
a. budget
b. technology
c. schedules
d. all

185) Testers involved from the beginning of the development life cycle, can help recognize?
a. omissions
b. discrepancies
c. ambiguities
d. all

186) _________ describe what the system, process, or product/service must do in order to
fulfill the business requirement(s).
a. Business Requirements
b. Functional Requirements
c. Test requirement
d. None

187) which statement is true about change management tool

a. avoid simultaneous editing by two people
b. it is change management tool
c. it maintain latest version of the document
d. all of the above

188) Select the CM tool for main frame platform

a. PVCS
b. SCCS
c. VSS
d. none of the above
“Changeman, Endeavour, Panvalet”

189) Access control of project lead is

a. read/write
b. write
c. read
d. full control

190) Project software configuration item document must have the following information for
the configurable items
a. base line
b. current version
c. status
d. change history

191) Project have the following types of folders

a. project folder
b. module folder
 c. stage folder
d. Other folder

192) They are responsible for Planning, Monitoring and Controlling all the SCM activities of the
project :
a. SCM Coordinator
b. Project Leader
c. Project Manager
d. SQAG

193) Select the CM Tools for PC Platform

a. Endeavor
b. VSS
c. SCCS
d. PVCS

194) Match the User Groups with access control:

USER GROUP ACCESS CONTROL

1. Management i. Full Control
2. SCM coordinator / PL ii. Read/Write
3. TL iii. Read / Write
4. Team Members iv) Read only
a) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
b) 1-(i), 2(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
c) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
d) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii),4-(iv)

195) The following are true about Change Management tools VSS
a. It is a Change Mgmt Tool
b. Full form is version source sequence
c. change log can be maintained using VSS
d. Documents loaded in the VSS cannot be deleted

196) They are responsible for Planning, Monitoring and Controlling all the SCM activities of the
project:
a. SCM Coordinator
b. Project Leader
c. Project Manager  Monitor above activities
d. SQAG

197) Select the CM Tools for PC Platform

a. Endeavor, change man, panvalet  Mainframe
b. VSS
c. SCCS  Unix
d. PVCS
e. Java  Visual age for Java
198) The following are the Advantages of the Configuration Tool
a. Keep Back up of your code or documents
b. Track which people changed what
c. Track which people changed when
d. Avoids simultaneous file editing by two people
e. Maintains the latest versions of the documents only
f. Unified location

199) "which of the following is used right from requirement study to defect analysis in STLC"
(not sure)
a. Test plan
b. Test scenario
c. RTM
d. HLD

200) Requirements Types are :

a.Business Requirements and Functional Requirements

b.Design Document
c.Test Requirements and Functional Requirements
d.None Of above
“Business  Broad outcomes the business requires”
“Functional  what system, process, or product/service fulfill”
“Test  what needs to be tested in application”
201) What are the entry criteria for system testing?

a. Integration testing should have been completed

b. Execution of all test cases and completion of testing.
c. The test environment should be ready
d. Test data should be available
“Controlled environment for testing to be made available”
“Review of system Tc’s”
“Test environment ready”
“Test data available”

202) What are the entry criteria for Integration testing

a. Unit testing should have been completed
b. Execution of all test cases and completion of testing.
c. The test environment should be ready
d. Test data should be available
“Controlled environment for testing to be made available”
“Review of system Tc’s”
“Test environment ready”
“Test data available”
“Approved build sequence”

203) Is Clear Quest is Defect Tracking Tool?

 a. Yes
b. NO

204) Test Estimation helps us to measure size and Complexity.

a. True
b. FALSE

205) Pre-requisite of Test Estimation (TCP)

a. Requirement document
b. Approved Test Plan
c. Internal Interface I/Ps, O/Ps
d. Both a and b
“Requirement document, S/w design specification document, Approved test
plan, Business process documentation, Business process flow”
206) Test estimation components
a. Template
b. Worksheet

207) Test Estimation Activity Involves

a. Requirement Analysis
b. Effort Break-up
c. Initialization
“Requirement analysis, Initialization, Finalization, Actions, Input data”

208) Verification item -GUI for Complex

a. 0-15
b. 10
c. >15

209) In Total Adjustment factor the external Factors are

a. Technical Knowledge
b. Environmental
c. Baseline Data

210) To calculate Total adjustment factor (TAF)(Write the formula)

“Technical complexity factor + environmental factors”

Use case point = unadjusted use case points * TAF

211) Use of TCP Estimation

“Accurate estimation of functional verification”
“Complexity of entire testing cycle”
“Translate test creation efforts to test execution efforts”
“Representing effort involved in the testing process”
 a. Identify Verification points
b. Determine the complexity of the verification points
c. TCP for test Case generation
d. TCP for manual execution
e. Determine total TCP
f. Verification item Database

212) Methods for Test Estimation

a. Requirement Point(RP)
b. Functional Point (FP)
c. Use case point (UCP)
d. Test case point (TCP)

213) Types of Testing in Scope

a. Functional Testing or System Testing

b. User Acceptance Testing
c. Compatibility Testing

214) What are the risks to the project with an emphasis on the testing process?

a. Lack of availability of required hardware, software, data or tools.

b. Complexities involved in testing the applications
c. Both a and b

d. Lack of personnel resources when testing is to begin.

e. Lack of availability of required hardware, software, data or tools.
f. Late delivery of the software, hardware or tools.
g. Delays in training on the application and/or tools.
h. Changes to the original requirements or designs.
i. Complexities involved in testing the applications

215) Following tools allow to maintain traceability between requirements, test plan, test logs
and defects

a. Test Director
b. VSS
c. Quality Center
d. Both a and b

216) is a documentation specifying inputs predicted results and a set of execution conditions
for a test item
a. test Design
b. Test condition
c. Test case

217) Documents that can be referenced as supporting document for test plan
 a. Detail design document.
b. Development and Test process standards.
c. Methodology
d. All of the above

218) Which is/are resumption criteria in testing life cycle?

a. Urgent defects are rectified
b. Stable environment up and running for testing
c. Sanity test passed applications
d. None of the above
“Availability of application”
“Show stopper rectified”
“Arrival of build with fixed defects”

219) Which is/are suspension criteria in testing life cycle?

a. Show stopper
b. Stable environment up and running for testing
c. Sanity test passed applications
d. None of the above
“Non Availability of application”
“Show stopper defects”
“Fixes for failed test cases have not arrived”

220) Test bed should be set prior to test planning.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

221) The major categories into which the requirements is broken down during TCP
Identification process
a. GUI, Functional, Database (SQL), Exceptional handling, Navigational
b. Database (SQL),
c. Exceptional handling,
d. Navigational

222) If more than 15 items or widgets need to be navigated to perform a Navigational check
for a particular requirement, then the test case for that Navigational Check should be
a. Critical
b. High
c. Medium

223) What are the Exit criteria For Integration Testing?

a. The test environment should be ready
b. "The status of all valid defects reported during the Integration Test is
“Closed” or “Deferred”.
c. Unit testing should have been completed
“EXEC of all test cases”
“All major and minor bugs including build errors”
224) What are the Exit criteria For System Testing?
a. The test environment should be ready
b. "The status of all valid defects reported during the Integration Test is
“Closed” or “Deferred”.
c. Unit testing should have been completed
“EXEC of all test cases”
225) Which one of the following is the correct definition for Policy?

a) The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met

b) The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance. The basis upon
which adherence to policies is measured
c) Policies provide direction; standards are the rules or measures
d) Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives)
or products (desired attributes)

226) The objective in Test design is to _____________.

a) minimize test maintenance costs

b) detect as many defects as possible
c) All of the listed options
d) minimize test execution cost

227) Testing for the existence or effectiveness of programmed controls requires using
___________.

a) Complex data
b) Valid data
c) Redundant data
d) Invalid data
228) Work Processes constitute the following EXCEPT:

a) Standard
b) Process
c) Procedure
d) Policy

229) Guidelines to Writing the Test Plans are EXCEPT:

a) Finish early
b) Calculate the planning effort
c) Start Early
d) Spend the time to do a complete Test Plan

230) Test tool to conduct a recovery test to determine that it can be performed within
required time frame is called ____________.

a) Disaster test
b) Tracing (maybe)
c) Confirmation or Examination
d) Recovery testing

231) Which among the following techniques is NOT used for negative testing?
 a) Equivalence Partitioning
b) Boundary Value Analysis
c) State Transition
d) Error Guessing

232) The largest cost of quality is from production failure. State True or False.
a. True

233) Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

a) 90 percent of all defects are caused by process problems

b) Reviews are generally greater than 65 percent efficient in finding defects
c) 60 percent of software defects originate in the requirements phase of the project
d) Over 50 percent of life cycle of software system is spent on requirements

234) Which among the following is an important attribute for test case?

a) Test Description & Expected Result

b) Test Description & Actual Result
c) Test Case ID & Expected Result
d) Expected Result and Actual Result

235) Without preparation of a test plan, at an earlier testing phase, tests may be
______________.

a) uneconomical and ineffective

b) None of the listed options
c) effective
d) economical

236) Regression analysis is used for the following EXCEPT:

a) Projecting performance based on multiple variables

b) Find the regression candidates
c) Probing to determine the cause of some unfavorable event
d) Cause and effect relationship of two variables

237) The process of generating test sets for structural testing based on use of complexity or
coverage metrics is called _________________.

a) Metric based test data generation

b) Regression testing
c) Cyclomatic complexity
d) Quality function deployment

238) Following are the valid Defect Severity EXCEPT:

a) Showstopper
b) Critical
c) Minor
d) Major

239) _______A_______ is the method of testing the maintainability of the application

system.
 a) Inspections
b) Code Walkthroughs
c) Reviews
d) Functional testing

240) Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?

a) Adopt a new philosophy

b) Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force
c) Create constancy of purpose
d) Mobility of management

241) Which among the following is a technique designed to ensure the process employed are
adequate to produce the desired result and process is being followed?

a) Quality Control
b) Testing Methodology
c) Quality Assurance
d) Testing Strategy

242) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Policies set directions

b) Policies are developed by senior managers
c) Policies defines the areas in which processes will be developed
d) Policies are required in all the areas

243) Given the following costs: User documentation - $ 1000 Rework - $ 1500 Design - $ 400
Review of User Documents - $ 800, Code review - $ 1200, The cost of Quality is

a) $4,000
b) $5,000
c) $2,400
d) $3,500

244) Defect Density is calculated by ______________.

a) Valid Defects/ Effort

b) Total no. of Defects/ Effort
c) Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects
d) Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect

245) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. State True or
False.
A) False
246) The effective Control environment strive for everything EXCEPT:

a) Attitude of integrity
b) Control consciousness and positive “tone at the top”
c) Competent people
d) Defect free product

247) Stage containment means _____________.

 a) creation of stage wise work breakdown structure
b) identifying defects within the phase where they originate
c) defect prevention
d) creating document containing activities of a particular stage

248) During software acceptance, the testing technique that is relied upon for more accurate
results (than any other testing techniques listed below) is __________.

a) White Box
b) Incremental
c) Black Box
d) Thread

249) ALE estimation stands for _____________.

a) Actual loss expectation

b) Annual Loss estimation
c) Annual loss expectation
d) Actual Loss estimation

250) Following are the guidelines to establish an organizational structure EXCEPT:

a) Establish a Process engineering committee

b) Let the standard Ad Hoc committees develop the technical standard
c) Process engineering committee
d) Process reengineering committee

251) Which of the following Software Factors correctly reflects-?

a. "Employee gross pay can be substantiated by supporting documentation.
b. Sales tax paid to a specific state can be substantiated by the supporting
invoices.
c. Payments made to vendors can be substantiated should the vendor disavow
receiving the payment."

a) File Integrity
b) Audit Trail
c) Authorization
d) Continuity of Process
e) Service Levels

252) Which of the following is an Informal Analysis of the program source code yielding
computer software ready for testing?

a) Code Walkthrough
b) Code Inspection
c) Code Verification
d) Functional Review

253) Which of the following statement about different risks type is correct?

a) Strategic risks are the high - level business risks faced by the software system.
b) Tactical risks are subsets at a higher level of the strategic risks.
c) It is not difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks.
254) Removing or reducing which of the following can help in diminishing the undesirable
behavior?

a) Promotion & Training

b) Incentive & Temptations
c) Training & Promotion
d) Incentive & Promotion

255) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis?

a) Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a
computer system or application. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can
trigger flaws.
b) Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its
existing controls, and its remaining organization and computer system
vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination
of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level
of damage in dollars or other assets.
c) Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting
from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized
modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but
incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis.
d) None of the listed options

256) Some organizations divide people into four categories when attempting to identify issues
EXCEPT:

a) People who will help the software system happen

b) People who will attempt to make the software system not happen
c) People who will hope the software system happens
d) People who will make the software system happen

257) _________ is used to verify processing of a single transaction can be reconstructed and
examine review trail to verify the appropriate information.

a) Correctness
b) Audit trail
c) Review trail
d) Authorization

258) Check for defects in process for the primary aim of correcting or establishing new
process. This is

a) Quality Control
b) Quality Assurance
c) Both Quality Control and Quality Assurance
d) None of the listed options

259) The following should be used to estimate ALE EXCEPT:

a) Calculate an ALE using the loss and frequency tables

b) Understanding of information services concepts and systems design
c) Make a preliminary assessment of the loss
d) Document the decision reached
260) Techniques for Reporting a defect may include _______________.

a) Computer forums, Electronic mails, help desk

b) Static
c) All of the listed options
d) Operational
261) The following entrance criteria are prerequisites to test plan EXCEPT:

a) People Issues
b) Test Objectives
c) KT document
d) Constraints

262) The concept of defensive code involves _______________.

a) adding a syntax checker in middle of cod

b) adding code to a program so that two parts of program must fail before a major
c) None of the listed options
d) adding throw() and catch()

263) Testing that attempts to find the level of processing at which, system can no longer
function effectively is called _______B_______.

a) Spike testing
b) Stress testing
c) Performance testing
d) Load testing

264) Decision to stop test execution should be based upon ___________________.

a) successful use of specific test case design methodologies

b) All of the listed options
c) a percentage of coverage for each coverage category
d) rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold

265) When conducting risk analysis, the following major components are taken into
consideration EXCEPT:

a) The probability of losing a customer.

b) The probability that the negative event will occur.
c) The potential loss or impact associated with the event.
d) None of the listed options

266) Which among the following is a way to leverage a dynamic analyzer during system
testing?

a) All of the listed options

b) Generate test cases based on black box test techniques
c) Spend time to do a complete test plan
d) Determine testing levels

267) Following lead to improper use of technology EXCEPT:

a) Early use of new hardware technology

 b) Detailed analysis of the technology
c) Early use of new software technology
d) Improper skill

268) Which of the following factor assures that data is processed in accordance with the
intents of management for processing of transactions?

a) Authorization
b) Maintainability
c) Access Control
d) Service Levels

269) When a defect is fixed in production rather than in requirement, how many times can
this be expensive?

a) 1000 times
b) 10 times
c) 1 times
d) 100 times

270) Test efficiency is always directly proportional to ______________.

a) Functional Coverage
b) Product Cost
c) Product Delivery (maybe)
d) Product Reliability

271) Which one of the following is NOT the part of the test process improvement model?

a) Derive new processes

b) Conduct Assessment
c) Initiate process improvement
d) Analyze assessment output

272) Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of good test case?

a) A good test case should be repeatable but not traceable to the requirements
b) It is not traceable to the requirements
c) Clear to execute
d) It should be repeatable

273) Due to a change in design, the requirements for an already coded critical software
component got modified in its entirety. The developer had to modify the code based on the new
requirements. Testing team is to choose the appropriate type of regression test to minimize the
impact to the project schedule. Which type of regression test would you choose?

a) Regional Regression Test

b) Full Regression Test
c) Unit Regression Test
d) System Testing

274) To log ‘incidents’ which of the following is used?

a) User Report
b) Defect tracking system
 c) Test log
d) Test script

275) Which among the following is the correct order in which Defect Resolution process
should follow?

a) Schedule fix, Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report resolution

b) Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report Resolution, Schedule fix
c) Prioritize fix, Schedule fix, fix defect, Report resolution

276) ______________________ is used to record data as it is gathered.

a) Check sheet
b) Certification
c) All of the listed options
d) Checkpoint

277) Steps involved in defect discovery are ________, _________ and __________.

a) Acknowledge, Find, Report

b) Find, Report, Acknowledge
c) Find, Acknowledge, Report

278) Test technique to simulate system disaster to verify manual procedures are adequate is
called __________.

a) Disaster testing
b) Volume testing (Maybe)
c) Security testing
d) Stress

279) Defect is anything that causes customer dissatisfaction and this view is called
__________.

a) usability
b) ease of use
c) fit for use

280) Amount of resources allocated to each test condition is determined by ______________.

a) Global data coverage

b) Both global data coverage and ranking
c) Battle map
d) Ranking

281) Walter Shewahart is known for his work on ______D_________.

a) Run chart
b) Control chart
c) Histogram
d) Scatter Plot Diagrams

282) Entering alphabetic characters when numeric characters are expected is not an example
of test using valid data. State True or False.
 a. True

283) What is incremental testing?

a) Testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the application

b) Testing the interfaces between the unit - tested programs as well as between
components
c) All of the listed options
d) Testing transaction flow, input validation and functional completeness in incremental
order
284) One of the most commonly identified weaknesses in software testing is
________________.

a) lack of time
b) lack of metrics
c) lack of defects count
d) lack of skilled resources

285) A set of Boolean conditions such that complete test sets for the conditions uncover the
same errors is ___________.

a) Correctness
b) Complete test set
c) Consistent condition set
d) Consistency

286) Pareto voting is used in conjunction with _____________.

a) Cause and effect (Fishbone)

b) Vital Few
c) 80-20
d) Statistical process control

287) Most common cause of defect is ________.

a) failure to estimate
b) failure to assess risks
c) ambiguous or incomplete requirements
d) weak communication

288) Following are the most effective way of communicating moral guidance EXCEPT:

a) Verbal communication
b) Lead by examples
c) Written code of conduct
d) CMM and ISO standards

289) The types of conditions that cause erroneous or falsified input data include
_____________.

a) Early use of new software technology

b) The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained
c) Detailed analysis of the technology
d) Records in one format may be interpreted according to a different format
290) Inability to Substantiate Processing includes the following EXCEPT:

a) The cost of substantiating processing exceeds the benefits derived from the process
b) The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained
c) Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details
d) Evidence is not retained long enough

291) Unit testing is conducted in the development environment. State True or False.
a. True

292) Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in successful software
testing process?

a) Specify requirements in a quantifiable manner

b) Consider using independent test terms
c) Conduct formal technical review prior to testing
d) All of the listed options

293) Testing on, above and below the edges of classes is called _____________.

a) Cause Effect Diagram

b) Boundary Value Analysis
c) Test Combinations
d) Equivalence Class Partitioning

294) A defect can be defined in ____________.

a) All of the listed options

b) Producer’s viewpoint and customer’s viewpoint
c) Producer’s viewpoint and tester’s viewpoint
d) Customer’s viewpoint

295) The functional testing that verifies the procedures to balance file function properly is
called ______________.

a) Compliance testing
b) Compatibility testing
c) File Integrity
d) Integration testing

296) Objective of integration testing is to _________________.

a) validate the application design and phase and prove application components can be
successfully integrated
b) All of the listed options
c) integrate all components
d) application integrated correctly into its environment

297) The process of verifying the consistency, completeness and correctness of software at
each stage of the development lifecycle is ______________.

a) All of the listed options

b) Management
c) Leadership
d) Lifecycle testing
298) Test team should investigate the following characteristics in order to evaluate the
potential magnitude of the risk EXCEPT:

a) Assess the severity of potential failures

b) Identify the components for the system
c) Evaluate contingency plans for this system and activities
d) Build the test plan

299) A _______________ is a software item that is an object of testing.

a) Both proof of correctness and test item

b) None of the listed options
c) Test item
d) Proof of correctness

300) Deliverable base lining involves _____________.

a) All of the listed options

b) risks and define standards for each deliverable
c) risks and identify key deliverables
d) identify key deliverables and define standards for each deliverable

301) ___________ is identifying defects in the stage in which they were created, rather than
in later testing stages.

a) Down stream
b) Stage Containment
c) Defect Validation
d) Risk Strategy

302) Which among the following is an example of functional testing?

a) Condition coverage
b) Branch Coverage
c) Decision coverage
d) Cause-Effect Graphing

303) Difficulties surrounding the introduction of tools can arise in the following areas EXCEPT:

a) Testers skills
b) Obstacles in the computer environment
c) Organizational obstacles
d) Problems arising from the tools

304) Which among the following are common items to focus on during Integration testing?

a) All of the listed options

b) Performance and load lists on individual application components
c) Output interface file accuracy
d) Validation of links between the client and server

305) The reason for decomposing the strategic risks into tactical risks is to create test
scenarios. State True or False. True
306) Testing that simulates problem in original environment so that an alternative processing
environment can be tested is _____________.

a) Performance testing
b) Compliance testing
c) Recovery testing
d) Disaster testing

307) _____________ testing verifies all the performance criteria have been achieved when
the system is placed into production.

a) Compliance testing
b) User acceptance testing
c) Security testing
d) System testing

308) Which of the following is not a category under tactical risks?

a) Size Risks
b) Resource Risks
c) Structural Risks
d) Technical Risks

309) A deliverable is subject to _________________ once it is base lined.

a) All of the listed options

b) Risk management
c) Defect Management
d) Configuration Management
e) Process Management

310) The following tasks are provided to help understand what is necessary to develop a good
test plan EXCEPT:

a) Analyze the test plan

b) Understand the characteristics of the software being developed
c) Build the test plan
d) Write the test plan

311) Most common reason for existence of large number of bugs in a software product is
___________.

a) error in code
b) incomplete testing
c) wrong use of tools and techniques
d) inadequate requirement analysis

312) When does Test Design begin in SDLC?

a) Low Level Design Phase

b) High Level Design Phase
c) Requirements Phase
d) Testing Phase

313) Verification methods include EXCEPT:

 a) Review
b) Test Execution
c) Walkthroughs
d) Static analyzers

314) Complexity can be measured by the following EXCEPT:

a) Documentation complexity
b) Business Complexity
c) Size of module / unit
d) Logic complexity

315) Which one of the following statement is true about defects?

a) Defects cannot be found in the supporting documentation

b) A defect has greater impact even if it does not affect customer and the operation of the
system
c) All of the listed options
d) A single defect can cause millions of failures

316) When we talk about analysis performed by executing the program code, we are talking
about ______________.

a) Formal analysis
b) Dynamic analysis
c) Force field analysis
d) None of the listed options

317) The test design details which of the following?

a) State of the application at the start of testing.

b) The types of tests that must be conducted.
c) Availability of test equipment.
d) Sequence and increments of code delivery.

318) How many No. Of requirement types available

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3 “Business, functional, Testable”
d. None of the above

319) Sequence of Test

a) Test plan, Test case, Test scenario, Test execution

b) Requirement, Test scenario, Test plan, Test case, Test execution
c) Test Scenario, Test case, Test execution, Defect tracking
d) None of the above

320) Checking the internal and external contradiction among the elements is called as
 a) Correctness
b) Consistency
c) Correctness and Consistency
d) None of the above

321) ACE stands for

a) Activity, Compound, Elements
b) Active, Component, Element
c) Activity, Complex, Elements
d) None of the above
“Activity, Component, Element”
322) Establishing common understanding of the requirement between all the stakeholders

a) Clarification Management(Not sure)

b) Analyze requirement
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

323) Which represents the scenario in ACE model

a) Test condition
b) Based on the elements
c) Based on the activity of the application
d) None of the above

324) Which document is a way to evaluate the understanding of testers on the overall
requirements

a. System Evaluation
b. System Understanding
c. Requirement review
d. Requirement stability

325) In use case model no. Of scenario based on

a) Alternative flow
b) Basic flow and Exceptional flow
c) Both a and b
d) Functionality
“Primary flow or happy flow, Alternate flow, Exception flow”
326) Test scenario will describe Test data required to test the conditions
a) True
b) False

327) Requirement is judged based on what the user wants

a) Completeness
b) Correctness
c) Consistency
d) All the above

328) Use case and ACE models are used to identify the
a) Test requirement, Test scenario, Test cases
b) Test requirement
c) Test scenario
d) All the above

329) What is the status of a Issue raised by a tester on a given requirement

a) In progress
b) Closed
c) Open
d) None of the above

330) Requirement which tells about the Business needs

a) System requirement
b) Functional requirement
c) Business requirement
d) Test requirement

331) What are the overall risk to the project

a) Lack of resources when testing is started
b) Lack of availability of hardware, software, data or tools.
c) Changes to original requirements or design
d) All the above

332) Ensures that no necessary elements are missing from the requirement
a) Consistency
b) Correctness
c) Completeness
d) None of the above

333) Which is an integral part of the "Test plan"

a. Business requirement
b. Data base testing
 c. Test schedule (not sure)
d. None of the above

334) Controlled Test Environment(CTE) is used for

a) Unit Testing
b) Unit and Integration testing
c) System Integration testing
d) All the above

335) In ACE model Element is equivalent to which of the following

a. Test scenario
b. Test condition
c. Test data
d. All the above

336) The other name for Functional requirement is

a. System requirement
b. Business requirement
c. Test requirement
d. None of the above

337) Checklist used by the tester during requirement phase contains

a. Correctness, completeness, Consistency, Testability, Necessity,

Feasibility
b. Correctness, Functionality, System, Testability, Feasibility
c. Business requirement, Functional requirement, Test requirement
d. None of the above
“Others include prioritization, unambiguousness, Traceability”
338) Defect prevention is most effective during which phase

a. System testing phase

b. Unit testing phase
c. Requirement analysis
d. None of the above

339) Advantages of Use case model

a. Allows testers to write issue tracking sheet

b. Provides a clear coding methodology
 c. Tester understands what the application suppose to do
d. All the above

340) Test bed setup should be set prior to test execution

a. True
b. False

341) Goal oriented set of interactions between external actors and system

a. Use case model

b. ACE model
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

342) Scope of testing is

a. To be tested
b. Not to be tested
c. To be and Not to be tested
d. None of the above

343) Business scenario type can represent

a. Simple situation
b. Exceptional situation
c. Simple and Exceptional situation
d. None of the above

344) A requirement is said to be completed when

a. No necessary elements are missing from the requirement

b. Confirms that it is possible to create a test for the requirement
c. It can be given within the budget
d. None of the above

345) Testing can concentrate on ensuring the quality of the

a. Requirement
 b. Application code
c. Design
d. None of the above

346) What are the Major Test Activities

a. Test case, Test scenario, Test execution, Defect tracking and reporting
b. Test Execution and Defect tracking
c. Test plan
d. None of the above

347) Identification of scenario aids to learn the

a. Requirement
b. Test case
c. Application
d. None of the above

348) The most effective testing programs start at the

a. End of the coding
b. Selection of the model
c. Beginning of the project
d. All the above

349) Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except (Testing artifacts)
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan

350) Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing artifacts)
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases

351) Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
a) deviations from standards,
b) requirement defects,
c) design defects,
d) Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
e) All of the above.

352) Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)

a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
 c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above

353) Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective –
a. Identifying defects.
b. Fixing defects.
c. and 2
d. None

354) Defect arrival rate curve:

a) Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
b) Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
c) Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
d) Any of these, depending on the company.

355) What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

356) We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
a) The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE
branch.
b) The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather
than on the program's flow of control.
c) Both A and B
d) We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.

357) Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing Test)
a) Test manager
b) Test engineer
c) both A & B
d) Project Manager

358) What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above

359) What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for world wide
web sites (Test Execution)
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
360) What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? (Test Mgmt)
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how requirements
might change so that alternate test plans and strategies can be worked out in
advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the project,
while moving more difficult new requirements into future versions of the
application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

361) The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above

362) Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

a) Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these
numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well
b) We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional)
and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
c) You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
d) All of the above.

363) What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test planning process)
a) No, the problem is not with testers
b) No, the software is not ready for production
c) Both a & b
d) none of the above

364) According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule
with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):
a. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing
to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
b. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the
project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved
doesn't alarm them.
c. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not
report bugs.
d. All of the above

365) Operations testing is (Performing Test)

a) compliance testing
b) disaster testing
c) verifying compliance to rules
d) functional testing
e) ease of operations
366) Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process)
a) functional automation tools
b) performance testing tools
c) configuration management tools
d) None of the above.

367) Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or
more answers):
a) We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
b) We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some
managers to argue for very little testing.
c) We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,
because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance
tasks.
d) All of the above.

368) Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a) Assess development plan and status
b) Develop the test plan
c) Test software design
d) Test software requirement

369) In the MASPAR case study:

a) Security failures were the result of untested parts of code.
b) The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but
missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
c) An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function
with almost every input value to find its two special-case failures.
d) All of the above.

370) Complete statement and branch coverage means:

a) That you have tested every statement in the program.
b) That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
c) That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
d) That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the
program

371) What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above

372) Security falls under (Performing Test)

a) compliance testing
b) disaster testing
c) verifying compliance to rules
 d) functional testing
e) ease of operations

373) Which is the best definition of complete testing:

a) You have discovered every bug in the program.
b) You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the
program.
c) You have completed every test in the test plan.
d) You have reached the scheduled ship date.

374) What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects
of that change show up in some test? (Testing concepts)
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations
375) Test coverage can be measured by EXCEPT ________________-

a) Traceability
b) Global data coverage
c) All of the listed options
d) User specified data coverage
e) Statement coverage

376) Exception condition in the use case represents in scenario – True or False

377) Scenario models are prepared based on

a) Design document
b) Domain knowledge
c) Requirement and Domain knowledge
d) None of the above

378) Test Data preparation is based on

a. Test scenario
b. Test Execution
c. Test Case and Execution
d. None of the above

379) Testers involve at requirement phase to understand better and more

a) Complete test plans
b) Test design
c) Procedures
d) All the above
380) Default groups available in QC
381) How to create a user defined field in QC with mandatory?
382) With which user access rights does user can create requirements in quality center?

a. Project Administrator
b. QA Tester
c. Developer
d. QA Test lead
e. None of the above

383) What will be the Scope of Testing of Tmm Application Note: Assume that u r Test Lead
For Tmm Application project

a. High
b. Medium
c. Low

384) If a requirement changes, what are all the docs to be changed?

o Test Schedule
o Test requirements document
o Risks & Mitigation
385) Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers &
which by an independent test team?
a) Dynamic analysis
b) Test Management
c) Performance testing
d) Static Analysis
Developers would typically use a & b, test team c & d
Developers would typically use a & d, test team c & b
Developers would typically use a & c test team b & d
Developers would typically use b & d, test team c & a
386) If requirement (functionality) changes frequently, what are all the documents need to be
changed? (Choose 4)

a) Test Schedule
b) Test requirements document
c) Risks & Mitigation
d) Test Schedule
e) Test environment
 f) Business process flow

387) Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase?

a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Severity classification
e) None of the above

388) Which of the following is NOT included in Test Plan?

b. Test deliverables
c. Suspension criteria
d. Quality plans
e. Staffing & Training