Power Plant: GATE, IES & IAS 20 Years Question Answers

S K Mondal’s
Power Plant
GATE, IES & IAS 20 Years Question Answers
Contents
Chapter – 1: Introduction
Chapter - 2 : Steam Cycle
Chapter - 3 : Boilers
Chapter - 4 : Steam Turbines
Chapter - 5 : Flue Gas Analysis
Chapter - 6 : Gas Turbine
Chapter - 7 : Nuclear Power Plant
Er. S K Mondal
IES Officer (Railway), GATE topper, NTPC ET-2003 batch, 12 years teaching
experienced, Author of Hydro Power Familiarization (NTPC Ltd)
Page 1 of 106
Introduction
S K Mondal’s Chapter 1
1. Introduction
Previous Years IES Questions
IES-1. A thermoelectric engine which consists of two dissimilar electric conductors
connected at two junctions maintained at different temperatures, converts
(a) Electric energy into heat energy [IES-2006]
(b) Heat energy into electric energy
(c) Mechanical work into electric energy
(d) Electric energy into mechanical work
IES-1. Ans. (b)
IES-2. In thermal power plants, coal is transferred from bunker to the other places
by [IES-1992]
(a) Hoists (b) conveyors (c) cranes (d) lifts
IES-2. Ans. (b)
IES-3. A thermal electric power plant produces 1000 MW of power. If the coal
releases 900 x 107 kJ/h of energy, then what is the rate at which heat is
rejected from the power plant? [IES-2009]
(a) 500 MW (b) 1000 MW (c) 1500 MW (d) 2000 MW
IES-3. Ans. (c) Energy Released by the coal = 900 × 107 kJ/hr = 2500 MW
Heat rejected from the power plant 2500-1000 = 1500 MW
Previous Years IAS Questions

IAS-1. The correct sequence of factors in order of deceasing importance for
location of a thermal power plant is [IAS-2001]
(a) load, coal, water (b) coal, water, load
(c) Water, load, coal (d) water, coal, load
IAS-1. Ans. (b)
Page 3 of 106
Steam
S m Cyclle
S K Mondal’s Chapterr 2
2. S am Cycle
Stea C e
Pre
evious Years GATE Questio
Q ons
Rankine
R Cy
ycle
Common Da ata Questio ons GATE--1 and GAT TE-2: [GATE-2010]
n a steam power
In p plantt operating on the Ran nkine cycle, steam enteers the turb
bine at 4 MPa,
M
3550ºC and ex
xits at a preessure of 15
5 kPa. Thenn it enters the
t condensser and exitts as saturaated
water.
w Next, a pump feeeds back the e water to th
he boiler. The
T adiabatiic efficiency
y of the turb
bine
is 90%. The thermodyna
t amic states of
o water and d steam aree given in th
he table.
Sta
ate h(kJ kg
g–1) s(kJ kg–1K–1) v(m
m3kg–1)
Steeam : 4 MPa
a,
3092.5 6.5821 0.0
06645
3500°C
hf Hg sf sg vf vg
Wa
ater : 15 kPa
225.94 2599.1 0.7549 8.0085 0.0
001014 10
0.02
h is specific enthalpy,
e s is specific entropy
e and
d v the speciific volume; subscripts f and g den
note
aturated liquid state an
sa nd saturated d vapour sta
ate.
GATE-1.
G Thhe net work output (k
kJ kg-1) of the cycle is
i [GATE-201
10]
(a)) 498 (b) 775 (c) 8
860 (d) 957
GATE-1.
G An
ns. (c)
Page 4 of 106
Steam Cycle
h1 =3092.5kJ kg
s1 = 6.5821kJ kg K
s2f =0.7549 kJ kg K
s2g =8.0085kJ kg K
s1 =s2s
6.5821 = (1 − x ) 0.7549 + x × 8.0085
or x = 0.8034
Therefore h2 s = (1 − x ) 225.94 + x × 2509.1
= 2132 kJ kg
h −h
ηadiabatic = 1 2
h1 − h2 s
or h1 − h2 = WT = ηadiabatic × ( h1 − h2 s )
= 0.9 × (3092.5 − 2132)
= 865 kJ kg
PumpWork (WP ) = v f × ΔP
= 0.001014 × (4000 − 15) kJ kg
= 4.04 kJ kg
NetWork done = 865 − 4.04
= 860.9 kJ kg
GATE-2. Heat supplied (kJ kg-1) to the cycle is [GATE-2010]
(a) 2372 (b) 2576 (c) 2863 (d) 3092
GATE-2. Ans. (C)
Heat supplied to the cycle = h4 − h2
= 3092.5 − 229.98
= 2863 kJ kg
GATE-3. The efficiency of superheat Rankine cycle is higher than that of simple
Rankine cycle because [GATE-2002]
(a) The enthalpy of main steam is higher for superheat cycle
(b) The mean temperature of heat addition is higher for superheat cycle
(c) The temperature of steam in the condenser is high
(d) The quality of stem in the condenser is low
GATE-3. Ans. (b)
Data for GATE-4 and GATE-5 are given below. Solve the problem and choose correct
answers.
Page 5 of 106
Steam
S m Cyclle
S K Mondal’s Chapterr 2
Consider a stteam power plant using g a reheat cycle
ass shown. Stteam leavess the boiler and enters the
tu
urbine at 4 MPa, 350°C C (h3 = 309
95 kJ/kg). A
After
ex
xpansion in n the turbinne to 400 kPa
k (h4 = 2609
2
kJJ/kg), the stteam is reh
heated to 35
50°C (h5 = 3170
3
kJJ / kg), and then exp panded in a low presssure
tu
urbine to 10 0 kPa (h6= 2165 kJ/kg g). The speccific
vo
olume of liiquid handlled by the pump can n be
asssumed to be
b
GATE-4.
G Thhe thermall efficiencyy of the pla
ant neglectting pump work is [GATE-200
04]
(a)) 15.8% (b) 41.1
1% (c) 48.5%
% (d) 58.6%
GATE-4.
G Anns. (b)
Given :
h1 = 29
9.3 kJ / kg,h 2 = ?
h3 = 30 h 4 = 2609 kJ
095 kJ / kg,h J / kg
h5 = 31 h 6 = 2165 kJ
170 kJ / kg,h J / kg
ne work WT = (h 3 − h 4 ) + (h5 − h 6 )
Turbin
095 − 2609) + (3170 − 21
= (30 165)
= 1491 kJ / kg
( 3 − h 2 ) + (h
Q = Heeat input = (h h5 − h4 )
095 − 29.3) + (3170 − 2609)
= (30
= 36
626.7 kJ / kg
g
∴Thermmalefficienccyoftheplantt
1491
= = 41.11%
36
626.7
GATE-5.
G Thhe enthalpy at the pu ump discha arge (h2) is s [GATE-2004]
(a)) 0.33 kJ /kg
g (b) 3.33 kJ
k /kg
(c)) 4.0 kJ/k (d) 33.3 kJ
k /kg
GATE-5.
G An
ns. (d) Enthalpy at the pump disch harge will bee greater th
han 29.3 kJ/k
kg
Hencce from given choice cleearly we can n say
h2 = 33.3 kJJ / kg
GATE-6.
G A steam tu urbine operating with w less moisture is…………. (more/le ess)
eff
fficient and d............................. (lesss/more) pro
one to blad e[GATE-1992]
de damage
GATE-6.
G An
ns. more; lesss
GATE-7.
G Asssertion (AA): In a pow
wer plant woorking on a Rankine cy ycle, the reg
generative feed
f
waater heatingg improves the
t efficienccy of the steeam turbine. [GATE-200 06]
Reeason (R): The regenerrative feed water heatiing raises th he average temperature
t e of
he
eat addition in the Rank kine cycle.
(a)) Both A and
d R are indiividually tru
ue and R is the correct explanation
n of A
(b)) B th A d R i dii id ll t b tRi t th t l ti fA
Page 6 of 106
Steam Cycle
(d) A is false but R is true
GATE-7. Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
GATE-8. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because

(a) Pressure inside the boiler increases [GATE-2003]
(b) Heat is added before steam enters the low pressure turbine
(c) Average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases
(d) Total work delivered by the turbine increases
GATE-8. Ans. (c)
GATE-9. Consider an actual regenerative Rankine cycle with one open feed water
heater. For each kg steam entering the turbine, If m kg steam with a
specific enthalpy of h1 is bled from the turbine, and the specific enthalpy
of liquid water entering the heater is h2, then h3 specific enthalpy of
saturated liquid leaving the heater Is equal to [GATE-1997]
(a) m h1 - ( h 2 - h1 ) (b) h1 - m ( h 2 - h1 )
(c) h 2 - m ( h 2 - h1 ) (d) m h 2 - ( h 2 - h1 )
GATE-9. Ans. (c)
Heat balance of heat give
mh1 + (1 − m ) h2 = 1× h3
or h3 = h2 − m ( h2 − h1 )
GATE-10. For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the
highest, efficiency occurs for [GATE-1994]
(a) Saturated cycle (b) Superheated cycle
(c) Reheat cycle (d) Regenerative cycle.
GATE-10. Ans. (d) Efficiency of ideal regenerative cycle is exactly equal to that of the
corresponding Carnot cycle. Hence it is maximum.
GATE-11. A thermal power plant operates on a regenerative cycle with a single open
feed water heater, as shown in the figure. For the state points shown, the
specific enthalpies are: h1 = 2800 kJ/kg and h2 = 200 kJ/kg. The bleed to the
feed water heater is 20% of the boiler steam generation rate. The specific
enthalpy at state 3 is [GATE-2008]
(a) 720 kJ/kg (b) 2280 kJ/kg (c) 1500 kJ/kg (d) 3000kJ/kg
Page 7 of 106
Steam Cycle
GATE-11. Ans. (a): let 100 kg steam is in (m3) then m1= 20 kg and m2 = 80 kg
Therefore m1h1+m2h2 = m3h3
20 × 2800 + 80 × 200
or h3 = = 720 kJ / kg
100
Efficiencies in a Steam Power Plant

GATE-12. A steam plant has the boiler efficiency of 92%, turbine efficiency
(mechanical) of 94%, generator efficiency of 95% and cycle efficiency of
44%. If 6% of the generated power is used to run the auxiliaries, the overall
plant efficiency is [GATE-1996]
(a) 34% (b) 39% (c) 45% (d) 30%
GATE-12. Ans. (a) ηoverall = ηboiler × ηturbine(mech ) × ηgenerator × ηaux
net power transmitted by the generator
Note : ηaux = = 0.94 (here)
Gross power produced by the plant
ηoverall = 0.92 × 0.44 × 0.94 × 0.95 × 0.94 = 0.34 = 34%
GATE-13. In steam and other vapour cycles, the process of removing non-
condensable is called [GATE-1992]
(a) Scavenging process (b) Deaeration process
(c) Exhaust process (d) Condensation process
GATE-13. Ans. (b)
GATE-14. For two cycles coupled in series, the topping cycle has an efficiency of 30%
and the bottoming cycle has an efficiency of 20%. The overall combined
cycle efficiency is [GATE-1996]
(a) 50% (b) 44% (c) 38% (d) 55%
GATE-14. Ans. (b) (1 − η ) = (1 − η1 )(1 − η2 )(1 − η3 ) ........... (1 − ηm )
or η = η1 + η2 − η1η2 = ( 0.30 + 0.2 − 0.3 × 0.2 ) × 100% = 44%

IES-1. Consider the following processes: [IES-1999]
1. Constant pressure heat addition.
2. Adiabatic compression.
3. Adiabatic expansion.
4. Constant pressure heat rejection.
The correct sequence of these processes in Rankine cycle is:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 (c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3
IES-1. Ans. (c)
IES-2. In a Rankine cycle, with the maximum steam temperature being fixed
from metallurgical considerations, as the boiler pressure increases
(a) The condenser load will increase [IES-1997]
(b) The quality of turbine exhaust will decrease
(c) The quality of turbine exhaust will increase
(d) The quality of turbine exhaust will remain unchanged
IES-2. Ans. (b) with increase in pressure, state of steam shifts towards left and thus on
expansion, quality of steam will decrease.
Page 8 of 106
Steam Cycle
IES-3. Which one of the following statements is correct? [IES 2007]
(a) Efficiency of the Carnot cycle for thermal power plant is high and work ratio is
also high in comparison to the Rankin cycle.
(b) Efficiency of the Carnot cycle is high and work ratio is low in comparison to the
Rankin cycle.
(c) Efficiency of the Carnot cycle is low and work ratio is also low in comparison to
the Rankin cycle.
(d) Both the cycle have same efficiencies and work ratio.
IES-3. Ans. (b) Carnot cycle has highest efficiency but very high back. So work ratio is
low.
IES-4. During which of following process does heat rejection take place in Carnot
vapour cycle? [IES-1992]
(a) Constant volume (b) constant pressure
(c) Constant temperature (d) constant entropy
IES-4. Ans. (c)
IES-5. In which one of the following working substances, does the relation
0.286
T2 ⎛ p2 ⎞
=⎜ ⎟ hold good if the process takes place with zero heat transfer?
T1 ⎝ p1 ⎠
(a) Wet steam (b) Superheated steam [IES-2000]
(c) Petrol vapour and air mixture (d) Air
IES-5. Ans. (d) zero heat transfer means adiabatic process.
γ −1
T2 ⎛ p2 ⎞ γ
=⎜ ⎟ Where γ =1.4 air.
T1 ⎝ p1 ⎠
Reheating of Steam
IES-6. Consider the following for a steam turbine power plant: [IES-2006]
1. Reduction in blade erosion. 2. Increase in turbine speed.
3. Increase in specific output. 4. Increase in cycle efficiency.
Which of the above occur/occurs due to reheating of steam?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
IES-6. Ans. (c) 1. Quality of steam improves so blade erosion reduced.
2. Reheating has no effect on speed. So 2 is false.
IES-7. Blade erosion in steam turbines takes place [IES 2007]

(a) Due to high temperature steam (b) Due to droplets in steam
(c) Due to high rotational speed (c) Due to high flow rate
IES-7. Ans. (b)
IES-8. The main advantage of a reheat Rankine cycle is [IES-2002]

(a) Reduced moisture content in L.P. side of turbine
(b) Increase efficiency
(c) Reduced load on condenser
(d) Reduced load on pump
IES-8. Ans. (a)
IES-9. Assertion (A): The performance of a simple Rankine cycle is not sensitive to the
efficiency of the feed pump. [IES-2002]
Reason (R): The net work ratio is practically unity for a Rankine cycle.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually
Pagetrue but R is not the correct explanation of A
9 of 106
Steam Cycle
(c) A is true but R is false
IES-9. Ans. (a)
IES-10. Consider the following statements [IES-2000]

The reheat cycle helps to reduce
1. Fuel consumption 2. Steam flow 3. The condenser size
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
IES-10. Ans. (d)
IES-11. Consider the following statements regarding effects of heating of steam in

a steam turbine: [IES-1999]
1. It increases the specific output of the turbine
2. It decreases the cycle efficiency
3. It increases blade erosion.
4. It improves the quality of exit steam?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
IES-11. Ans. (d) Heating of steam increases specific output of turbine and improves the
quality of exit steam.
IES-12. The reheat cycle in steam power plant is mainly adopted to [IES-1999]
(a) Improve thermal efficiency
(b) Decrease the moisture content in low pressure stages to a safe value
(c) Decrease the capacity of condenser
(d) Recovers the waste heat of boiler
IES-12. Ans. (b)
IES-13. Assertion (A): The purpose of employing reheat in a steam power plant is mainly
to improve its thermal efficiency. [IES-1998]
Reason (R): The use of regeneration in a steam power plant improves the
efficiency.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
IES-13. Ans. (d)
IES-14. Consider the following statements: [IES-1997]

If steam is reheated during the expansion through turbine stages
1. Erosion of blade will decrease
2. The overall pressure ratio will increase.
3. The total heat drop will increase.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
IES-14. Ans. (d) Overall pressure ratio depends on inlet pressure and condenser pressure
IES-15. Employing superheated steam in turbines leads to [IES-2003]

(a) Increase in erosion of blading (b) Decrease in erosion of blading
(c) No erosion in blading (d) No change in erosion of blading
IES-15. Ans. (b)
Page 10 of 106
Stea
am Cyc
cle
S K Mondal’
M ’s Chapter 2
Regen
nerative
e Feed water
w H
Heating
g
IES-16. Which one e of the folllowing is correct? [IES--2008]
In ideal regenerativ
r ve cycle thhe tempera
ature of steam enter
ring the tu
urbine
is same ass that of
(a) Water entering
e thee turbine
(b) Water leaving
l the turbine
t
(c) Steam leaving the turbine
t
(d) Water at
a any sectio on of the turrbine
IES-16. Ans.
A (b)
Ideal reg
generative cycle
Herre temperatture of steamm entering the turbinee is T1

And temperatu ure of waterr leaving the turbine iss T5 [refer fig
g. (a)]
Theerefore, tem
mperature of o steam en ntering the turbine is T1 = temp
perature of water
leaving the turrbine is T5 [refer
[ fig. (b))]
IES-17. Assertion (A): An id deal regeneerative Rankine cycle power plan nt with satuurated
steam at the t inlet to
o the turbiine has sam me thermall efficiency as Carnott cycle
working be etween the same
s tempeerature limits. [IES--2003]
Reason (R R): The cha ange in enttropy of steam during expansion in the turb bine is
equal to thhe change in n entropy oof the feed water
w durinng sensible heating at steam
generator pressure.
p
(a) Both A and R are individually y true and R is the correect explanattion of A
(b) Both A and R are individually y true but R is not the ccorrect explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is faalse
(d) A is falsse but R is true
t
IES-17. Ans.
A (a)
IES-18. Assertion (A): The thermalt effiiciency of a regeneratiive Rankine cycle is always
a
higher than n that of a cycle
c withou
ut regenerattion.
Reason (R R): In regeneration cyclle the work output is m more [IES--1994]
(a) Both A and R are individually y true and R is the correect explanattion of A
(b) Both A and R are individually y true but R is not the ccorrect explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is fa alse
(d) A is falsse but R is true
t
IES-18. Ans.
A (c) Thhermal efficiiency of Reegenerating Rankine cycle
c is high
her than without
w
regeneratio on. However, work output is less dued to partiial extractioon of steam. Thus
A is true bu ut R is falsee.
Page 11 of 106
Steam Cycle
1. It increases the cycle efficiency 2. It requires a bigger boiler.
3. It requires a smaller condenser. [IES-2003]
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
IES-19. Ans. (a) Same amount of heat transfer is required but temperature difference is less
in regenerative plant.
IES-20. In a steam power plant, the ratio of the isentropic heat drop in the prime
mover to the amount of heat supplied per unit mass of steam is known as
(a) Stage efficiency (b) degree of reaction [IES-2000]
(c) Rankine efficiency (d) relative efficiency
IES-20. Ans. (c)
IES-21. Assertion (A): Rankine efficiency would approach Carnot cycle efficiency by
providing a series of regenerative feed heating. [IES-2002]
Reason (R): With regenerative feed heating, expansion through the turbine
approaches an isentropic process.
IES-21. Ans. (b)
IES-22. A regenerative steam cycle renders [IES-1993]

(a) Increased work output per unit mass of steam
(b) Decreased work output per unit mass of steam
(c) Increased thermal efficiency
(d) Decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal
efficiency.
IES-22. Ans. (d) In regenerative steam cycle. a part of steam is extracted from turbine and
utilized to heat up condensate. In this way some work is lost per unit mass of steam
corresponding to steam extracted out, but its heat is not wasted to cooling water but
conserved within the cycle thus increasing thermal efficiency.
IES-23. When is the greatest economy obtained in a regenerative feed heating

cycle? [IES-2006]
(a) Steam is extracted from only one suitable point of a steam turbine
(b) Steam is extracted only from the last stage of a steam turbine
(c) Steam is extracted only from the first stage of a steam turbine
(d) Steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbines
IES-23. Ans. (d)
IES-24. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the economic number of the stages of
regeneration [IES-2003]
(a) Increases as the initial pressure and temperature increase
(b) Decreases as the initial pressure and temperature increase
(c) is independent of the initial pressure and temperature
(d) Depends only on the condenser pressure
IES-24. Ans. (a) Since efficiency is proportional to gain in feed water temperature. As initial
temperature and pressure increases the gain in feed water temperature decreases
i.e. efficiency gain follows the law of diminishing return with increase in the
number of heaters.
IES-25. Which one of the following statements is not correct for a regenerative
steam cycle? Page 12 of 106 [IES-2005]
Steam Cycle
(a) It increases the thermodynamic efficiency
(b) It reduces boiler capacity for a given output
(c) It reduces temperature stresses in the boiler due to hotter feed
(d) The efficiency increases with increased number of feed heaters
IES-25. Ans. (c) (i) η ↑ with increased number of feed heaters but Efficiency ain ( Δη )
successively diminishes with the increase in the number of heaters
(ii) It increases the stream flow rate (requiring bigger boiler)
(iii) It reduces the steam flow to the condenser (needing smaller condenser)
IES-26. In which one of the following steam turbines, steam is taken from various
points along the turbine, solely for feed water heating? [IES-2004]
(a) Extraction turbine (b) Bleeder turbine
(c) Regenerative turbine (d) Reheat turbine
IES-26. Ans. (b) Note: Regenerative cycle not regenerative turbine so choice is ‘b’
Feed water Heaters

IES-27. The temperature-entropy diagram for a
steam turbine power plant, operating on
the Rankine cycle with reheat and
regenerative feed heating is shown in
the given figure. If m denotes the
fraction of steam bled for feed heating,
the work developed in the turbine per
kg steam entering the turbine at state
5 is
(a) ( h5 − h4 ) + (1 − m )( h3 − h1 )
(b) ( h5 − h4 ) + ( h3 − h2 ) + (1 − m )( h2 − h1 )
(c) 2h5 − h4 − h2 + (1 − m )( h2 − h1 )
(d) ( h5 − h4 ) + (1 − m )( h3 − h2 ) [IES-2001]
IES-27. Ans. (b)
Optimum Degree of Regeneration

Deaerator
IES-28. In thermal power plants, the deaerator is used mainly to [IES-1996]
(a) Remove air from condenser. (b) Increase feed water temperature.
(c) Reduce steam pressure (d) remove dissolved gases from feed water.
IES-28. Ans. (d) In thermal power plants, the deaerator is used mainly to remove dissolved
gases from feed water
IES-29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: [IES-2002]
List I List II
(Equipment) (Application area)
A. Anticipatory gear 1. Sealing system
B. Labyrinth 2. Steam power plant
C. Inverted T-attachment 3. Turbine governing system
D. Deaerator 4. Blades
Page 13 of 106
Steam Cycle
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 3 2 4 1
IES-29. Ans. (b)
IES-30. Consider the following statements: [IES-1999]

The efficiency of the vapour power Rankine cycle can be increased by
1. Increasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is added.
2. Increasing the pressure of the working fluid at which heat is added.
3. Decreasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is
rejected.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 alone (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
IES-30. Ans. (d)
IES-31. Assertion (A): Rankine cycle is preferred for waste heat recovery. [IES-1992]
Reason (R): Rankine cycle gives high thermal efficiency even at low temperatures
compared to other dynamic energy conversion systems
IES-31. Ans. (a)
IES-32. The efficiency of Rankine cycle is lower than that corresponding Carnot
cycle because [IES-1992]
(a) The average temperature at which heat is supplied in Rankine cycle is lower
than corresponding Carnot cycle
(b) The Carnot cycle has gas as working substance and Rankine cycle has steam has
working substance
(c) The Rankine cycle efficiency depends upon properties of working substance
where as Carnot cycle efficiency is independent of the properties of working
substances.
(d) The temperature range of Carnot cycle is greater than that for Rankine cycle.
IES-32. Ans. (a)
Cogeneration of Power and Process Heat

IES-33. In the bottoming cycle of cogeneration, low grade waste heat is used for
(a) Processing (b) power generation [IES-1992]
(c) Feed water heating (d) none of the above
IES-33. Ans. (b)
Combined Cycle Plants

IES-34. A power plant, which uses a gas turbine followed by steam turbine for
power generation, is called: [IES-2005]
(a) Topping cycle (b) Bottoming cycle
(c) Brayton cycle (d) Combined cycle
IES-34. Ans. (d)
Page 14 of 106
Steam Cycle
IES-35. Which of the following power plants use heat recovery boilers (unfired) for
steam generation? [IES-1998]
1. Combined cycle power plants
2. All thermal power plants using coal
3. Nuclear power plants
4. Power plants using fluidised bed combustion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
IES-35. Ans. (c)

IAS-1. The correct representation of a simple Rankine cycle on a T-S diagram
(a)
(b)
(c) (d)
[IAS 1994]
IAS-1. Ans. (a)
IAS-2. A superheat Rankine Cycle is shown

in the given T-S diagram. Starting
from the
feed pump, the fluid flow upto the
boiler exit is represented by state-line
(a) ABCD (b) BCDE
(c) ABDEFA (d) ABCDE
[IAS-1995]
IAS-2. Ans. (a)
IAS-3. In the Rankine cycle lower limit on the condenser pressure is due to the
(a) Expansion limit in turbine (b) condenser size [IAS-1996]
(c) Air leakage into the condenser (d) temperature of cooling water
IAS-3. Ans. (d)
Mean Temperature of Heat Addition

IAS-4. Assertion (A): The Rankine cycle with regenerative feed heating always has higher
cycle efficiency than the Rankine cycle without regenerative feed heating.
Reason(R): The higher efficiency of regenerative cycle is due to decrease in the
temperature of heat rejection. [IAS-2000]
(a) Both A and R are individually true and
Page 15 of 106 R is the correct explanation of A
Steam Cycle
IAS-4. Ans. (c) Higher efficiency of regenerative cycle is due to increase in the mean
temperature of heat addition.
IAS-5. Consider the following statements: [IAS-2001]

The purpose of reheating, the steam in a steam turbine power plant is to
1. Increase specific output
2. Increase turbine efficiency
3. Reduce the turbine speed
4. Reduce specific steam consumption
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
IAS-5. Ans. (c)
IAS-6. In an ideal steam power cycle with the same inlet pressure, the low
dryness fraction of steam in the last stage of expansion process can be
avoided by
(a) Providing regeneration (b) providing reheating [IAS-1999]
(c)- Reducing the superheat (d) lowering the condenser pressure
IAS-6. Ans. (b)
Superheating of steam
IAS-7. Which one of the following is the correct statement? [IAS-2007]
Steam is said to be superheated when the
(a) Actual volume is greater than volume of saturated steam
(b) Actual volume is less than volume of saturated steam
(c) Actual volume is equal to volume of saturated steam
(d) None of the above
IAS-7. Ans. (a)
IAS-8. Assertion (A): In convection super heaters, the exit steam temperature increases
with load. [IAS-2000]
Reason(R): The combustion temperature does not significantly change with load.
IAS-8. Ans. (b) As load increases demand for steam increases, fuel and air flow increases
hence, combustion gas flow increased which increases convective heat transfer co-
efficient.
IAS-9. Consider the following statements regarding superheating Rankine

Cycles:
1. It reduces the specific steam consumption. [IAS-1995]
2. It increases the dryness fraction of steam at the exhaust for the same
value of condenser pressure.
3. It reduces the cycle efficiency.
Of the these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1and 3 are correct (d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Page 16 of 106
Steam Cycle
IAS-9. Ans. (a) Superheating in Rankine cycle increases efficiency marginally.
IAS-10. The variation of super heater outlet temperature with variation of load in
the case of convective type and radiative type super heaters is best
represented as [IAS-1999]
IAS-10. Ans. (c)
IAS-11. What is the efficiency of an ideal regenerative Rankine cycle power plant
using saturated steam at 327oC and pressure 135 bar at the inlet to the
turbine, and condensing temperature of 27oC (corresponding saturation
pressure of 3.6 kPa)? [IAS-2004]
(a) 92% (b) 33% (c) 50% (d) 42%
IAS-11. Ans. (c) Ideal regenerative Rankine cycle efficiency is same as Carnot cycle
T2 300
(η) =1- = 1− = 50%
T1 600
IAS-12. The most efficient ideal regenerative steam power cycle is [IAS-2001]
(a) Rankine cycle (b) Carnot cycle
(c) Brayton cycle (d) Joule cycle
IAS-12. Ans. (b) Ideal regeneration Rankine Rankin cycle efficiency is same as Carnot cycle,
but most efficient cycle is Carnot cycle.
IAS-13. The curve labeled 1-2 in the given

figure refers to the expansion process
of a
(a) Rankine cycle
(b) Modified Rankine cycle
(c) regenerative cycle
(d) reheat cycle
[IAS-1997]
IAS-13. Ans. (b)
IAS-14. Which one of the following modifications to a Rankine cycle would

upgrade/enhance its efficiency so as to approach that of Carnot cycle?
(a) Incomplete expansion of steam [IAS-1996]
(b) Reheating of steam

(c) Regenerative feed heating by steam
(d) Partial condensation of steam
IAS-14. Ans. (c)
IAS-15. In a regenerative cycle, steam with enthalpy of 3514 kJ/kg is expanded in

h.p. turbine to a state corresponding to saturated enthalpy of water equal
to 613 kJ/kg. If the pump work
Page 17 ofrequirements
106 in high pressure and low
Steam Cycle
pressure zones are respectively 3 and 1 kJ/kg, amount of heat transferred
in boiler is [IAS-2002]
(a) 2897 kJ/kg (b) 2898 kJ/kg (c) 2904 kJ/kg (d) 2905 kJ/kg
IAS-15. Ans. (a)

Heat added = h1 - h 4 - pump works
= h1 - h 4 − ( h 7 - h 6 ) − ( h 5 - h 4 )
= 3514 − 613 − 3 − 1 = 2897 kJ/kg
IAS-16. Consider the following statements: [IAS-1997]

The overall efficiency of a steam power plant can be increased by
1. Increasing the steam temperature.
2. Increasing the condenser pressure
3. Improving turbine blade cooling.
4. Providing air preheaters.
Of these correct statements are:
IAS-16. Ans. (c)
IAS-17. In steam and other vapour cycles, the process of removing non-
condensable is called [IAS-2003]
(a) Scavenging process (b) Deaeration process
(c) Exhaust process (d) Condensation process
IAS-17. Ans. (b)
IAS-18. In the given figure Rankine

efficiency is equal to the ratio of
the areas
(a) abeda/ gabedig
(b) abeda/ abcfa
(c) ebcde / gabcfjg
(d) ebcde / hebcdih
[IAS-2001]
IAS-18. Ans. (a) Heat input = area of T-S diagram = gabcdig
Work done = Heat addition – heat rejection
= gabcdig - gadig = abcda
IAS-19. Which of the following thermal power plants will have the highest overall
thermal efficiency? [IAS-2003]
(a) Steam power plant
(b) Gas turbine power plant
(c) Combined gas and steam power plant
(d) Diesel power plant
IAS-19. Ans. (c)
Page 18 of 106
Boilers
3. Boilers
Previous Years GATE Questions
Economizer
GATE-1. Which among the following is the boiler mounting? [GATE-1997]
(a) Blow off cock (b) Feed pump (c) Economiser (d) Superheater
GATE-1. Ans. (a)
Equivalent Evaporation
GATE-2. The equivalent evaporation (kg/hr) of a boiler producing 2000 kg/hr of
steam with enthalpy content of 2426 kJ/kg from feed water at temperature
40°C (liquid enthalpy = 168 kJ/kg, enthalpy of vaporisation of water at
100°C = 2258 kJ/kg) is [GATE-1993]
(a) 2000 (b) 2149 (c) 1682 (d) 1649
GATE-2. Ans. (a)

Equivalent evaporation of boiler
m s (h − h r )
=
Enthalpyofvaporisationofwaterat100o C
2000kg / hr(2426 − 168)kJ / kg
= = 2000kg / hr
2258kJ / kg
GATE-3. Boiler rating is usually defined in terms of [GATE-1992]

(a) Maximum temperature of steam in Kelvin
(b) Heat transfer rate in KJ/hr
(c) Heat transfer area in metre2
(d) Steam output in kg/hr
GATE-3. Ans. (d)

IES-1. Heat is mainly transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in
(a) Insulated pipes carrying hot water [IES-1998]
(b) Refrigerator freezer coil
(c) Boiler furnaces
(d)condensation of steam in a condenser
IES-1. Ans. (c) All modes of heat transfer occur in boiler furnace
Fire-tube Boilers
IES-2. Assertion (A): Fire tube boilers do not operate at high pressures while water tube
boilers operate at high pressures [IES-2006]
Reason (R): Due to high temperature of flue gases, fire tubes may fail due to creep.
Page 19 of 106
Boilers
IES-2. Ans. (a)
Cochran boiler
IES-3. Match List-I (Name of boiler) with List-II (Special features) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists [IES-1999]
List-I List-II
A. Lancashire 1. High pressure water tube
B. Cornish 2. Horizontal double fire tube
C. La Mont 3. Vertical multiple fire tube
D. Cochran 4. Low pressure inclined water tube
5. Horizontal single fire tube
Code: A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 5 1 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 5 2 3 (d) 5 4 1 3
IES-3. Ans. (a) Lancashire boiler is horizontal double fire tube type, Cornish boiler is
horizontal single fire tube type. La Mont boiler is high pressure water type, and
Cochran boiler is vertical multiple fire tube type.
IES-4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists: [IES-1995]
List I (Type of boiler) List II (Classification of boiler)
A. Babcock and Wilcox 1. Forced circulation
B. Lancashire 2. Fire tube
C. La-mont 3. Water tube
D. Cochran 4. Vertical
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 4 1 3
IES-4. Ans. (c)
Lancashire boiler
IES-5. Match List I (Boilers) with List II (Type/Description) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists: [IES-2003]
List I List II
(Boilers) (Type/Description)
A. Lancashire 1. Horizontal straight tube, fire-tube boiler
B. Benson 2. Inclined straight tube, water-tube boiler
C. Babcock and Wilcox 3. Bent tube, water-tube boiler
D. Stirling 4. High pressure boiler
Codes: A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 4 3 2
IES-5. Ans. (b)
Locomotive boiler
IES-6. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by [IES-2003]
(a) Chimney (b) Centrifugal fan 20 of 106 (c) Steam jet
Page (d) Locomotion
Boilers
IES-6. Ans. (c)
IES-7. Which one of the following is the fire-tube boiler? [IES-2005]

(a) Babcock and Wilcox boiler (b) Locomotive boiler
(c) Stirling boiler (d) Benson boiler
IES-7. Ans. (b)
Benson boiler
IES-8. There is no steam drum in [IES-1999]
(a) La Mont boiler (b) Loffler boiler (c) Benson boiler (d) Velox boiler
IES-8. Ans. (c)
IES-9. Consider the following components: [IES-1997]

1. Radiation evaporator 2.Economiser
3. Radiation super heater 4.Convection super heater
In the case of Benson boiler, the correct sequence of the entry of water
through these components is:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 (c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
IES-9. Ans. (c) The correct sequence of water entry in Benson boiler is economiser, radiation
evaporator, radiation super heater and finally convection super heater.
IES-10. Which one of the following statements is not true for a supercritical steam
generator? [IES-2005]
(a) It has a very small drum compared to a conventional boiler
(b) A supercritical pressure plant has higher efficiency than a subcritical
pressure plant
(c) The feed pressure required is very high, almost 1.2 to 1.4 times the boiler
pressure
(d) As it requires absolutely pure feed water, preparation of feed water is more
important than in a subcritical pressure boiler
IES-10. Ans. (a) It has no drum.

IAS-1. An attemparator is used in some utility boilers [IAS-2004]
(a) Ahead of super heater for initial superheating
(b) For optimizing steam output from the generator
(c) To regulate steam pressure
(d) To control degree of superheat
IAS-1. Ans. (d)
IAS-2. When inspection doors on the walls of boilers are opened, flame does not
leap out because [IAS-1998]
(a) These holes are small
(b) Pressure inside is negative
(c) Flame travels always in the direction of flow
(d) These holes are located beyond the furnace
IAS-2. Ans. (b)
IAS-3. Assertion (A): An 'air-to-close’ valve should be used to control the fuel supply to
the furnace. [IAS-1997]
Page 21 of 106
Boilers
Reason (R): In the event of air failure, the valve would be closed and the fuels cut
off to prevent overheating.
IAS-3. Ans. (a)
IAS-4. Assertion (A): Fire tube boilers have quick response to load changes.
Reason (R): Fire tube boilers have large water storage capacity and hence small
pressure changes can meet sudden demands. [IAS-1999]
IAS-4. Ans. (a)
IAS-5. There is no steam drum in [IAS-2001]

(a) La Mont boiler (b) Loffler boiler (c) Benson boiler (d) Velox boiler
IAS-5. Ans. (c)
IAS-6. Assertion (A): Benson boiler is much lighter than other boilers.
Reason (R): Boiler pressure raised to the critical pressure in Benson boiler permits
doing away with steam (separating) drums. [IAS-1995]
IAS-6. Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Benson boiler is lighter and one of the reasons is absence of boiler drum. However
lightness is due to elimination of water walls also. Thus both A and R is true and R
is also explanation for A.
Velox boiler
IAS-7. The distinguishing feature of Velox boiler is that it [IAS-1996]
(a) Is drumlins (b) uses supersonic
(c) Operates under supercritical pressure (d) uses indirect heating
IAS-7. Ans. (b) Due to supersonic flue gas velocity in the Velox Boiler larger heat transfer
from a smaller surface area is possible.
Page 22 of 106
Steam Turbine
4. Steam Turbine
Previous Years GATE Questions
Optimum velocity ratio
GATE-1. Given, Vb = Blade speed [GATE-1998]
V = Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade, α = Nozzle angle.
The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when
( a ) Vb = 0.5V cos α ( b ) Vb = V cos α
( c ) Vb = 0.5V 2 cos α ( d ) Vb = V 2 cos α
GATE-1. Ans. (a)
GATE-2. For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a
speed of 3000 rpm when the nozzle angle is 20o, the optimum velocity of
steam in m/s is [GATE-1994]
(a) 334 (b) 356 (c) 668 (d) 711
V cos α π DN
GATE-2.Ans. (c) Just use u = and u =
2 60
Pressure compounding ( Rateau Turbine)

GATE-3. The Rateau turbine belongs to the category of [GATE-2001]
(a) Pressure compounded turbine (b) reaction turbine
(c) Velocity compounded turbine (d) redial flow turbine
GATE-3. Ans. (a)
Reheating Steam
GATE-4. Match the following [GATE-2003]
P. Curtis 1. Reaction steam turbine
Q. Rateau 2. Gas turbine
R. Kaplan 3. Velocity compounding
S. Francis 4. Pressure compounding
5. Impulse water turbine
6. Axial turbine
7. Mixed flow turbine
8. Centrifugal pump
Code: P Q R S P Q R S
(a) 2 1 7 6 (b) 3 1 5 7
(c) 1 3 1 5 (d) 3 4 7 6
GATE-4. Ans. (d)
GATE-5. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine
are examples of [GATE-1998]
(a) Different types of impulse stages
(b) Different types of reaction stages
(c) A simple impulse stage, a velocity compounded impulse stage and reaction stage
(d) A velocity compounded impulse stage, a simple impulse stage and a reaction
stage
Page 23 of 106
Steam Turbine
GATE-5. Ans. (d)
Velocity diagram for reaction turbine blade

GATE-6. In the velocity diagram shown
below, u = blade velocity, C =
absolute fluid velocity and ω =
relative velocity of fluid and the
subscripts 1 and 2 refer to inlet
and outlet.
(a) an impulse turbine [GATE-2005]
(b) a reaction turbine
(c) a centrifugal compressor
(d) an axial flow compressor
GATE-6.Ans. (d)
Energy Losses in Steam Turbines

GATE-7. A steam turbine receives steam steadily at 10 bar with an enthalpy of 3000
kJ/kg and discharges at 1 bar with an enthalpy of 2700 kJ/kg. The work
output is 250 kJ/kg. The changes in kinetic and potential energies are
negligible. The heat transfer from the turbine casing to the surroundings
is equal to [GATE-2000]
(a) 0 kJ (b) 50 kJ (c) 150 kJ (d) 250 kJ
GATE-7. Ans. (b) Enthalpy drop = Power output + losses
Or 3000 – 2700 = 250 + losses
Or losses = 50 kJ to the surrounding
Condensers
GATE-8. Ambient air dry- bulb temperature is 45°C and wet bulb temperature is
27°C. Select the lowest possible condensing temperature from the
following for an evaporative cooled condenser. [GATE-1999]
(a) 25°C (b) 30°C (c) 42°C (d) 48° C
GATE-8. Ans. (b) It should be greater than 27oC
GATE-9. The practice to use steam on the shell side and cooling water on the tube
side in condensers of steam power plant is because [GATE-1994]
(a) To increase overall heat transfer coefficient water side velocity can be increased
if water is on the tube side.
(b) Condenser can act as a storage unit for condensed steam.
(c) Rate of condensation of steam is invariably smaller than the mass flow rate of
cooling water.
(d) It is easier to maintain vacuum on the shell side than on the tube side.
GATE-9. Ans. (a) Specific volume of steam is large. More volume is required for steam. Hence
shell side is used for steam and water is circulated through the tube in condenser.

IES-1. What is the ratio of the isentropic work to Euler's work known as?
Page 24 of 106
Steam Turbine
(a) Pressure coefficient (b) Slip factor [IES-2006]
(c) Work factor (d) Degree of reaction
IES-1. Ans. (a)
IES-2. In steam turbine terminology, diaphragm refers to [IES-1993]

(a) Separating wall between rotors carrying nozzles
(b) The ring of guide blades between rotors
(c) A partition between low and high pressure sides
(d) The flange connecting the turbine exit to the condenser
IES-2. Ans. (a) Diaphragm in steam turbines is a separating wall between rotors carrying
nozzles.
Impulse Turbines
IES-3. In an ideal impulse turbine, the [IES-1993]
(a) Absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
(b) Relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
(c) Axial, velocity at the inlet is equal to that at the outlet
(d) Whirl velocity at the inlet is equal to that at the outlet
IES-3. Ans. (b) For an ideal impulse turbine, relative velocity at inlet of the moving blade is
equal to that at the outlet.
IES-4. Which one of the following sketches represents an impulse turbine blade?
[IES-1995]
IES-4. Ans. (a) Figure at (a) is for impulse turbine blade. As no pressure change from inlet to
outlet no area change is allowed.
IES-5. Steam enters a De Laval steam turbine with an inlet velocity of 30 m/s and
leaves with an outlet velocity of 10 m/s. The work done by 1kg of steam is
(a) 400 Nm (b) 600 Nm (c) 800 Nm (d) 1200Nm [IES-2003]
IES-5. Ans. (a)
1 1
The work done by 1kg of steam is =
2
( ) ( )
m V12 − V22 = × 1× 302 − 10 2 = 400 Nm
2
Page 25 of 106
Steam Turbine
IES-6. The given figure shows the
variation of certain steam
parameter in case of a simple
impulse turbine. The curve A-B-
C represents the variation of
(a) pressure in nozzle and blades
(b) velocity in nozzle and blades
(c) temperature in nozzle and
blades
(d) enthalpy in nozzle and blades
[IES-2001]
IES-6. Ans. (b)
Velocity diagram
IES-7. Which one of the following velocity triangles represents the one at the exit
of a radial impeller with forward curved blades? [IES-1994]
(u2 = peripheral velocity, v2 = absolute velocity, w2 = relative velocity).
IES-7. Ans. (b) Velocity triangle at (b) is correct. Actual velocity v2 is at right angle and angle
between u2 and w2 is acute.
Axial Thrust
IES-8. Consider the following statements in respect of impulse steam turbines:
1. Blade passages are of constant cross-sectional area. [IES-2006]
2. Partial admission of steam is permissible.
3. Axial thrust is only due to change in flow velocity of steam at inlet and
outlet of moving blade.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3
IES-8. Ans. (a)
Diagram work (Blading Work)

IES-9. In an axial flow impulse turbine, energy transfer takes place due to
(a) Change in relative kinetic energy [IES-2006]
(b) Change in absolute kinetic energy
(c) Change in pressure energy
(d) Change in energy because of centrifugal force
IES-9. Ans. (b)
IES-10. An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power when the blade mean speed
is 400 m/s. What is the rate of change of momentum tangential to the rotor?
Page 26 of 106
Steam Turbine
(a) 200 N (b) 175 N (c) 150 N (d) 125 N [IES-1997]
m(Vw1 − Vw 2 )Vb m(Vw1 − Vw 2 )400
IES-10. Ans. (d) Power = kW , or 50 =
1000 1000
50 × 1000
m(Vw1 − Vw 2 ) = rate of change of momentum tangential to rotor = = 125 N
400
IES-11. A single-stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 120 cm runs at 3000 rpm.
If the blade speed ratio is 0.42 then, the inlet velocity of steam will be
(a) 79 m/s (b) 188m/s (c) 450 m/s (d) 900 m/s [IES-1993]
blade speed
IES-11. Ans. (c) Blade speed ratio =
velocity of steam at entry
πDN π × 1.2 × 3000 π × 1.2 × 50
Vb = = m/s ∴ Inlet velocity steam = = 450 m/s
60 60 0.42

IES-12. Given, Vb = Blade speed [IES-1997; 2001]
V = Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade, α = Nozzle angle.
The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when
( a ) Vb = 0.5V cos α ( b ) Vb = V cos α
( c ) Vb = 0.5V 2 cos α ( d ) Vb = V 2 cos α
IES-12. Ans. (a)
Compounding of turbine
IES-13. Which one of the following is used to bring down the speed of an impulse
steam turbine to practical limits? [IES-2006]
(a) A centrifugal governor (b) Compounding of the turbine
(c) A large flywheel (d) A gear box
IES-13. Ans. (b)
IES-14. Why is compounding of steam turbines done? [IES-2005]

(a) To improve efficiency (b) To reduce the speed of rotor
(c) To reduce exit losses (d) To increase the turbine output
IES-14. Ans. (b)
IES-15. List I gives the various velocities in the velocity diagrams of a two-stage
impulse turbine. List II gives the blade angles. Match the velocity from
List I with the angle in List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists: [IES-1995]
List I List II
A. Relative velocity of steam at inlet 1. Nozzle angle
tip of blade
B. Absolute velocity of steam at inlet 2. Moving blade leading edge
tip of blade angle
C. Relative velocity of steam at outlet
tip of blade 3. Moving blade trailing edge
D. Absolute velocity of steam at angle
outlet tip of blade
4. Fixed blade leading edge angle
Page 27 of 106
Steam Turbine
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
IES-15 Ans. (c)
IES-16. Assertion (A): Impulse staging is commonly employed in high pressure part and
reaction staging in intermediate low pressure parts of the steam turbine [IES-2003]
Reason (R): The tip leakage across moving blades is less in impulse staging as the
pressure drop is small and there can be large pressure drop across fixed blades and
nozzles.
IES-16. Ans. (a)
IES-17. The compounding of steam turbines is done to [IES-1992; 1999]

(a) Improve efficiency (b) reduce turbine speed
(c) Increase blade speed ratio (d) reduce axial thrust
IES-17. Ans. (b) The compounding of steam turbine is done to reduce turbine speed.
IES-18. Running speeds of steam turbine can be brought down to practical limits
by which of the following method(s)? [IES-1996]
1. By using heavy flywheel. 2. By using a quick response governor.
3. By compounding 4. By reducing fuel feed to the furnace.
(a) 3 alone (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
IES-18. Ans. (d)

IES-19. Which one of the following is the feature of pressure compounding (Rateau
staging)? [IES-2004]
(a) Low efficiency at low rotational speeds
(b) High efficiency with low fluid velocities
(c) High efficiency with high fluid velocities
(d) Low efficiency at high rotational speeds
IES-19. Ans. (b)
Velocity compounding (Curtis Turbine)

IES-20. Which of the following statements are correct? [IES-1994]
1. Impulse turbine rotor blades are thick at the centre.
2. Rateau turbine is more efficient than Curtis turbine.
3. Blade velocity coefficient for an impulse turbine is of the order of 60%.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3.
IES-20. Ans. (b) 3 is wrong because blade velocity coefficient for an impulse turbine is of the
V cos α
order less than 50%. u =
2
IES-21. In a simple impulse turbine the nozzle angle at the entrance is 30°. For
maximum diagram efficiency what is the blade-speed ratio? [IES-2009]
(Note: sin 30° = 0·5, cos 30° = 0·866, sin 15°
Page 28 of 106= 0·259, cos 15° = 0.966)
Steam Turbine
(a) 0·259 (b) 0·75 (c) 0·5 (d) 0.433
IES-21.Ans. (d) For maximum efficiency of Impulse turbine.
cos α
Blade speed ratio =
2
cos 30 0.866
= = = 0.433
2 2
IES-22. Assertion (A): Modern turbines have velocity compounding at the initial stages
and pressure compounding in subsequent stages. [IES-2000]
Reason (R): Excessive tip leakage occurs in the high pressure region of reaction
blading.
IES-22. Ans. (a)
IES-23. The net result of pressure-velocity compounding of steam turbine is:

(a) Less number of stages [IES-1997]
(b) Large turbine for a given pressure drop
(c) Shorter turbine for a given pressure drop
(d) Lower friction loss
IES-23. Ans. (a) Pressure-velocity compounding of steam turbines results is less number of
stages
Work done in different stages

IES-24. A 4-row velocity compounded steam turbine develops total 6400 kW. What
is the power developed by the last row? [IES-2005]
(a) 200 kW (b) 400 kW (c) 800 kW (d) 1600 kW
IES-24. Ans. (b) work done in different stages in velocity compounding is
W1 : W2 : W3 : W4 = 7 : 5 : 3 : 1
6400
or W4 = = 400kW
7 + 5 + 3 +1
Reaction Turbine ( Parson’s Turbine )

IES-25. In Parson's reaction turbines, the velocity diagram triangles at the inlet
and outlet are which of the following? [IES-2004]
(a) Asymmetrical (b) Isosceles (c) Right-angled (d) Congruent
IES-25. Ans. (d)
IES-26. Match List-I (Different turbine stages) with List-II (Turbines) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [IES-1999]
List-I List-II
A. 50% reaction stage 1. Rateau
B. Two-stage velocity compounded turbine 2. Parson
C. Single-stage impulse 3. Curtis
D. Two-stage pressure compounded turbine 4. De-Laval
5. Hero
(a) 5 1 2 3 (b) 5 3 2 1
Page 29 of 106
Steam Turbine
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 1 4 2
IES-26. Ans. (c) 50% reaction turbine is Parson, 2-stage velocity compounded turbine is
Curtis, single stage impulse turbine is De-Laval, and 2-stage pressure compounded
turbine is Rateau.
IES-27. Assertion (A): The work done in Parson's reaction turbine is twice the work done
during expansion in the moving blades. [IES-1997]
Reason (R): The steam expands both in the moving as well as in the fixed blades in
a reaction turbine and in the Parson's turbine, the fixed and moving blades are
identical.
IES-27. Ans. (a)
IES-28. The correct sequence of the given steam turbines in the ascending order of
efficiency at their design points is [IES-1995]
(a) Rateau, De Laval, Parson's, Curtis
(b) Curtis, De Laval, Rateau, Parson's.
(c) De Laval, Curtis, Rateau, Parson's
(d) Parson's, Curtis, Rateau, De Laval.
IES-28. Ans.(c) Ascending order for efficiency is De Laval, Curtis, Rateau, Parson's.
IES-29. Match List-I (Machines) with List-II (Features) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: [IES-2001]
List-I (Machines) List-II (Features)
A. Steam engine 1. Velocity compounding
B. Impulse turbine 2. Diagram factor
C. Reaction turbine 3. Continuous pressure drop
D. Centrifugal compressor 4. Isentropic efficiency
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 1 (c) 3 1 2 4
IES-29. Ans. (b)
IES-30. Among other things, the poor part-load performance of De laval turbines is
due to the [IES-1995]
(a) Formation of shock waves in the nozzle
(b) Formation of expansion waves at the nozzle exit
(c) Turbulent mixing at the nozzle exit
(d) Increased profile losses in the rotor.
IES-30. Ans.(b) In De Laval turbine, at part load, pressure is reduced but velocity increases
which is not fully dropped in single stage. Thus expansion waves occur at nozzle
exit.
IES-31. Assertion (A): Reaction blading is commonly used in intermediate and low
pressure parts of steam turbines. [IES-2001]
Reason (R): Reaction blading gives higher efficiency than impulse blading.
IES-31. Ans. (b)
Page 30 of 106
Steam Turbine
IES-32. Partial admission steam turbine refers to the situation where the
(a) Steam is admitted partially into the blades through nozzles [IES-2000]
(b) Nozzles occupy the complete circumference leading into the blade annulus
(c) Nozzles do not occupy the complete circumference leading into the annulus
(d) Steam is admitted partially into the blades directly
IES-32. Ans. (c)
Degree of reaction
IES-33. If the enthalpy drop in the moving blades and fixed blades of a steam
turbine is 10 kJ/kg and 15 kJ/kg respectively then what is the degree of
reaction? [IES-2009]
(a) 67% (b) 60% (c) 40% (d) 33%
10 10
IES-33. Ans. (c) Degree of reaction = = = 0.4
10 + 15 25
IES-34. In a reaction turbine the enthalpy drop in a stage is 60 units. The enthalpy
drop in the moving blades is 32 units. What is the degree of reaction?
(a) 0·533 (b) 0·284 (c) 0·466 (d) 1·875 [IES-2006]
( Δh )mb ( Δh )mb 32
IES-34. Ans. (a) Degree of reaction = = = = 0.533
( Δh ) fb + ( Δh )mb ( Δh )total 60
IES-35. Which one of the following is the correct statement? [IES-2005]

The degree of reaction of an impulse turbine:
(a) Is less than zero (b) is greater than zero
(c) is equal to zero (d) increases with steam velocity at the inlet
IES-35. Ans. (c)
IES-36. In a reaction turbine stage enthalpy drop in the stator blades is 4.62 kJ/kg
and that in the rotor blades is 2.38 kJ/kg. The degree of reaction of the
stage is [IES-2003]
(a) 0.52 (b) 0.43 (c) 0.34 (d) 0.26
( Δh )mb 2.38
IES-36. Ans. (c) degree of reaction = = = 0.34
( Δh )mb + ( Δh ) fb 2.38 + 4.62
IES-37. Assertion (A): Parsons turbine has a degree of reaction equal to 50%. [IES-1999]
Reason (R): It is a reaction turbine with symmetrical fixed and moving blades.
IES-37. Ans. (a) Because fixed and moving blades are symmetrical, the enthalpy drop in
both becomes equal and this results in degree of reaction as 50%.
IES-38. In an impulse-reaction turbine stage, the heat drops in fixed and moving
blades are 15 kJ/kg and 30 kJ/kg respectively. The degree of reaction for
this stage will be [IES-1998]
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/2 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/4
heat drop in moving blade 30 2
IES-38. Ans. (c) Degree of reaction = = =
heat drop in both blades
Page 31 of 106
45 3
Steam Turbine
IES-39. The degree of reaction of a turbine is defined as the ratio of
(a) Static pressure drop to total energy transfer [IES-1993; 1995]
(b) Total energy transfer to static pressure drop
(c) Change of velocity energy across the turbine to the total energy transfer
(d) Velocity energy to pressure energy
IES-39. Ans. (a) Degree of reaction of turbine is ratio of static pressure drop to total
energy transfer
IES-40. The following data refer to an axial flow turbine stage: [IES-1995]
Relative velocity of steam at inlet to the rotor = 79.0 m/s., Relative velocity
at the rotor exit = 152 m/s rotor mean peripheral velocity = 68.4 m/s, work
output per kg of steam = 14100 J. What is the approximate degree of
reaction?
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.6
Vr22 − Vr12 1522 − 792
IES-41. Ans. (d) Enthalpy drop in moving blades = = = 8.43 kJ/kg
2 ×1000 2000
8.43
Degree of Reaction = = 0.597 ≅ 0.6
14.1
IES-42. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-thirds of the

isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of
reaction will be [IES-1993]
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.66 (d) 1.66
Δh ( moving blade )
IES-42. Ans. (a) Degree of reaction = = 0.4
Δh ( moving blade ) +Δh ( fixed blade )
IES-43. In a reaction turbine the heat drop in fixed blade is 8 kJ/kg and the total
head drop per stage is 20 kJ/kg. The degree of reaction is [IES-2002]
(a) 40% (b) 66.7% (c) 60% (d) 25%
IES-43. Ans. (c)
100% Reaction Turbine (Hero’s Turbine)

IES-44. Consider the following statements regarding a 100% reaction turbine:
1. Change in absolute velocity of steam across the moving blades is zero.
2. Change in absolute velocity of steam across the moving blades is
negative.
3. Enthalpy drop in fixed blades is zero [IES-2000]
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone (b) 2 alone (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
IES-44. Ans. (d)
IES-45. Assertion (A): Reaction turbines are not built on pure reaction principle.
Reason (R): Pure reaction is difficult to realise in practice. [IES-1998]
Page 32 of 106
Steam
m Turrbine
S K Mondal’
M ’s Chapter 4
IES-45. Ans.
A (a)
Velocitty diagra
am for re
eaction turbine blade
IES-46.
The press sure and velocity

v d
diagram ass shown in n the figu
ure above for a
steam tur rbine refers to which h one of thee following
g:
(Where: M-moving
M b
blade, F-fix
xed-blade) [IES--2009]
(a) Impulsee turbine-Veelocity comppounded
(b) Impulsee turbine-Prressure com
mpounded
(c) Impulsee turbine-Prressure and Velocity compounded
(d) Reaction turbine sttages
IES-46. Ans.
A (d)
IES-47. Velocity
V tria
angle for a reaction
turbine sttage is shown it: the
given figu
ure. (AB = v1 =
absolute velocity
v at rotor
blade inle
et; CB = w1 = relative
velocity at
a rotor bla ade inlet;
CE= w2 = relative
r veelocity at
rotor blad
de exit and d CD = CB)
The ratio of reaction n force to
impulse foorce is [IES-2
2000]
(a) CE/CB (b) CD/CE
(c)DE/BD (d)A
AE/AB
IES-47. Ans.
A (c)
IES-48. T
The graph given in th he figure
representts the varia ation
absolute velocity
v off steam
along the length of a steam
turbine.
The turbine in quesstion is
(a) Curtis turbine
(b) De Levaal turbine
(c) Radial tu
urbine
(d) Parson'ss turbine
[IES--1995]
IES-48. Ans.
A (d) Velo
ocity diagra
am shown in
n figure is foor Parson's tturbine.
Page 33 of 106
Steam Turbine
IES-49. Which one of the following relationship between angles of fixed blades and
moving blades corresponds to that of Parson's turbine? [IES-1995]
(a) α1 = α2 (b) α1 = β2 (c) α1 =β2 (d) β1 = β2
IES-49. Ans. (b)
IES-50. In a 50% reaction stage, absolute velocity angle at inlet is 45o mean
peripheral speed is 75 m/s and the absolute velocity at the exit is axial. The
stage specific work is [IES-2003]
(a) 2500 m2/s2 (b) 3270 m2/s2 (c) 4375 m2/s2 (d) 5625 m2/s2
IES-50. Ans. (d)

For 50% reaction stage, inlet
and outlet velocity stages are
equal
So, u = Vw = Vw1 + Vw 2 = 75 m / s
specific work =
u × (Vw1 + Vw 2 ) = 75 × 75 = m2 / s 2

IES-51. For a reaction turbine with degree of reaction equal to 50%, (V is the
absolute steam velocity at inlet and a. is the angle made by it to the
tangent on the wheel) the efficiency is maximum when the blade speed is
equal to [IES-2002]
2
(a) V cos α / 2 (b) 2V cos α (c) V cos α (d) V cos α
IES-51. Ans. (d)

IES-52. For maximum blade efficiency (utilization factor), what is the work (J/kg)
done in a single stage 50% reaction turbine? [IES 2007]
(a) 2u2 (b) 1/u2 (c) u3 (d) u2
IES-52. Ans. (d)
IES-53. Assertion (A): Work output per stage of an impulse turbine is double that of a 50%
reaction stage at the same speed. [IES-1998]
Reason (R): Maximum speed ratio is limited for any class of turbine.
IES-53. Ans. (d)
Condition for maximum efficiency and Turbine Efficiencies

IES-54. Assertion (A): Large reaction turbines have higher overall efficiency than the
small reaction turbines. [IES-2003]
Reason (R): The mechanical efficiency of small reaction turbines is higher than
that of larger ones.
Page 34 of 106
Steam Turbine
IES-54. Ans. (b)
IES-55. Which one of the following expresses the maximum blade efficiency of a
Parson's turbine? [IES-1994; 1996; 1999; 2004; 2006]
2 cos2 α cos2 α cos α cos α
(a) 2
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d)
1 + cos α 1 + 2 cos α 1 + cos α 2
Where α is the jet angle at the entrance.
IES-55. Ans. (a)
'State Point Locus' and 'Reheat Factor'

IES-56. What is the value of the reheat factor in multi-stage turbine? [IES-2004]
(a) 1.03 to 1.04 (b) 1.10 to 1.20 (c) 0.90 to 1.00 (d) 1.20 to 1.25
IES-56. Ans. (a)
IES-57. Which one of the following statements is correct? [IES-2000]

(a) Reheat factor is zero if efficiency of the turbine is goes to unity.
(b) Lower the efficiency, higher will be the reheat factor.
(c) Reheat factor is independent of steam conditions at turbine inlet.
(d) Availability of reheat is higher at low pressure end.
IES-57. Ans. (b)
IES-58. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? [IES-2000]
(a) Internal efficiency of steam turbine: Product of stage efficiency and reheat factor
(b) Stage efficiency of a turbine: Ratio of adiabatic heat drop to the isentropic heat
drop per stage
(c) Dryness fraction of steam within a stage: Decreases due to reheating
(d) Steam condensation during expansion: Enhances blade erosion through the
turbine
IES-58. Ans. (c)
IES-59. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? [IES-1993]

actual enthalpy drop
(a) Stage efficiency =
isentropic enthalpy drop
work delivered
(b) Nozzle efficiency =
work deliveredby blades
(c) Diagram efficiency =
workdone on moving blades
(d) Blade efficiency =
actual enthalpy drop
IES-59. Ans. (a)
IES-60. Given, [IES-2008]

ηs = stage efficiency
ηn = nozzle efficiency
ηb = blade efficiency
Which one of the following is correct?
Page 35 of 106
Steam Turbine
(a) ηn = ηb ηs (b) ηb = ηs ηn (c) ηb × ηn × ηs = 1 (d) ηs = ηb ηn
IES-60. Ans. (d)
Energy Losses in Steam Turbines

IES-61. If 'D' is the diameter of the turbine wheel and 'U' is its peripheral velocity,
then the disc friction loss will be proportional to [IES-1998]
(a) ( DU )
3
(b)D2 U3 (c) D3U2 (d) DU4
IES-61. Ans. (c)
Steam Turbine Governing and Control

IES-62. Assertion (A): In the case of reaction turbines for power plant applications, a large
number of stages is common in practice. [IES-1996]
Reason (R): A pressure drop takes place in the moving blade in a reaction turbine
unlike an impulse turbine, where pressure remains constant across the moving
blade.
IES-62. Ans. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Throttle governing
IES-63. Assertion (A): Throttle governing is used only in small steam turbines.
Reason(R): At part loads, the efficiency of steam turbine reduces considerably with
throttle governing. [IES-2005]
IES-63. Ans. (d)
IES-64. Consider the following statements [IES-2000]

1. Throttle governing improves quality of steam in the last few stages.
2. Internal efficiency of steam is not seriously affected by throttle
governing.
3. Throttle governing is better than nozzle governing.
IES-64. Ans. (d)
IES-65. Assertion (A): A throttle-governed steam engine has a high thermal efficiency.
Reason (R): In a throttle-governed steam engine, the speed of the engine is
maintained constant with the help of a governor irrespective of the load on the
engine. [IES-1994]
Page 36 of 106
Steam Turbine
IES-65. Ans. (d) A cut off governing engine has better efficiency than throttle governed
engine. Statement at R is correct.
IES-66. Assertion (A): Throttle governing is generally adopted to maintain constant speed
of a small turbine, irrespective of load. [IES-1994]
Reason (R): In throttle governing, with the help of a valve, the number of steam
passages is reduced by leaving just the required number of passages uncovered
depending upon the load.
IES-66. Ans. (c) A is correct. R is true for nozzle governing.
IES-67. A throttle governed steam develops 20 I.H.P. with 281 kg/hr of steam and
50 IHP with 521 kg/hr of steam. The steam consumption in kg/hr when
developing 15 lHP will be nearly [IES-1992]
(a) 150 kg/hr (b) 156 kg/hr (c) 241 kg/hr (d) 290 kg/hr
IES-67. Ans. (c)

y = A + Bx
281 = A + B x 20
581 = A + B x 50
Solving above equations, we get
B = 8 and A= 121
y = 8 + 15 x 21
= 241 kg/hr.
IES-68. Governing of steam turbines can be done by the following [IES-1992]

1. Nozzle control 2. Throttle control
3. Providing additional value and passage
The correct answer will be
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
IES-68. Ans. (a)
Nozzle governing
IES-69. Assertion (A): Nozzle control governing cannot be used in reaction steam turbines.
Reason (R): In reaction steam turbines, full admission of steam must take place.
(c) A is true but R is false [IES-2006]
IES-69. Ans. (a)
IES-70. Consider the following statements regarding the nozzle governing of

steam turbines: [IES-1995]
1. Working nozzles receive steam at full pressure
2. High efficiency is maintained at all loads
3. Stage efficiency suffers due to partial admission
4. In practice each nozzle of the first stage is governed individually.
Page 37 of 106
Steam Turbine
Of these correct statements are:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
IES-70. Ans. (a)
IES-71. Efficiency of nozzle governed turbine is affected mainly by losses due to
(a) Partial admission (b) throttling [IES-1993]

(c) Inter-stage pressure drop (d) condensation in last stages
IES-71. Ans. (c)
Emergency governing
IES-72. Throttle governing in steam turbines [IES 2007]
(a) Leads to significant pressure loss (b) Increases the efficiency
(c) Increases heat losses (d) Decreases steam temperature
IES-72. Ans. (a)
IES-73. An emergency governor of a steam turbine trips the turbine when

1. Shaft exceeds 100% of its rated speed [IES-2003]
2. Condenser becomes hot due to inadequate cooling water circulation
3. Lubrication system fails
4. Balancing of turbine is not proper
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3, 4 and 1 (d) 4, 1 and 2
IES-73. Ans. (b)
IES-74. Assertion (A): Never connect a solenoid valve directly to the motor leads.
Reason (R): The high current drawn to start the motor may drop the voltage
enough to prevent the valve from opening. [IES-1995]
IES-74. Ans. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Blading and Fastening

IES-75. Match List I (Blades) with List II (Features) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists: [IES-2003]
List I List II
(Blades) (Features)
A. Ceramic blades 1. High creep strength
B. Steam turbine blades 2. Forged and machined
C. Alloy steel blades 3. Precision cast
D. Compressor blades 4. Thick at mid chord
5. Thin trailing edge
(a) 2 1 5 4 (b) 3 4 5 1
(c) 2 4 3 5 (d) 3 2 1 5
IES-75. Ans. (a)
IES-76. A three-stage Rateau turbine is designed in such a manner that the first
two stages develop equal power with identical velocity diagram while the
Page 38 of 106
Steam Turbine
third one develops more power with higher blade speed. In such a
multistage turbine, the blade ring diameter [IES-1993]
(a) Is the same for all the three stages
(b) Gradually increases from the first to the third stage
(c) Of the third stage is greater than that of the first two stages
(d) Of the third stage is less than that of the first two stages
IES-76. Ans. (b) In multistage steam turbines, the pressure drops in each stage and
specific volume increases. To handle higher specific volume of steam, the blade size
and accordingly the blade ring diameter has to gradually increase from the first to
the third stage.
IES-77. At a particular section of a reaction turbine, the diameter of the blade is

1.8 m, the velocity of flow of steam is 49 m/s and the quantity of steam flow
is 5.4 m3/s. The blade height at this section will be approximately:
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 1 cm (d) 0.5 cm [IES-1997]
IES-77. Ans. (b) Steam flow = π D × height of blade × V
5.4 × 100
or height of blade = 2 cm
3.14 × 1.8 × 49
IES-78. Assertion (A): During the operation of a steam turbine, it is necessary to maintain
the moisture content of steam below 10%. Hence, the steam quality at turbine exit
must be greater than 0.9. [IES-1994]
Reason (R): The precaution has to be taken in order to prevent corrosion and the
consequent damage to the turbine.
IES-78. Ans. (c) A is correct. R is true for erosion more than corrosion.
IES-79. For a free vortex design of blade in the rotor of a reaction axial turbine,
the specific work along the blade height is [IES-1994]
(a) Higher at the blade hub and lower at the blade tip
(b) Constant from hub to tip.
(c) Lower at the hub and higher at the tip.
(d) Same at the hub and tip but different from the mean section.
IES-79. Ans. (a)
Condensers
IES-80. In a surface condenser used in a steam power station, under cooling of
condensate is undesirable at this would [IES-1996]
(a) Not absorb the gases in steam.
(b) Reduce efficiency of the plant.
(c) Increase the cooling water requirements.
(d) Increase thermal stresses in the condenser.
IES-80. Ans. (c) In a surface condenser used in a steam power station, under cooling of a
condensate is undesirable as this would increase the cooling water requirements
Page 39 of 106
Steam Turbine
Air Pumps
IES-81. Assertion (A): The rate of heat transfer drops heavily in condensation of vapours
containing air and this necessitates the use of a deaerating pump in surface
condensers. [IES-1994]
Reason (R): The air accumulating at the heat transfer surface serves as a serious
obstacle to vapour reaching the wall.
IES-81. Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is right explanation for A.
Cooling Towers
IES-82. Which one of the following is the correct statement? [IES 2007]
Performance of mechanical draft cooling tower is superior to natural draft
with
(a) Increase in air wet bulb temperature
(b) Decrease in air wet bulb temperature
(c) Increase in dry bulb temperature
(d) Increase in recirculation of air.
IES-82. Ans. (d)
IES-83. Hot coffee in a cup is allowed to cool. Its cooling rate is measured and
found to be greater than the value calculated by conduction, convection
and radiation measurements. The difference is due to [IES-1997]
(a) Properties of coffee changing with temperature
(b) Currents of air flow in the room
(c) Underestimation of the emissivity of coffee
(d) Evaporation
IES-83. Ans. (d) The difference is due to evaporation
IES-84. In a cooling tower, "approach" is the temperature difference between the

(a) hot inlet water and cold outlet water [IES-1996]
(b) hot inlet water and WBT
(c) cold outlet water and WBT
(d) DBT and WBT
IES-84. Ans. (c) Cooling towers are rated in terms of approach and range, where
• The approach is the difference in temperature between the cold water temperature
leaving the tower and the entering-air wet bulb - twb - temperature
• The range is the temperature difference between the water inlet and exit states
Since a cooling tower is based on evaporative cooling the maximum cooling tower
efficiency is limited by the wet bulb temperature - twb - of the cooling air.
Impulse Turbines
IAS-1. Consider the following characteristics: [IAS-2002]
1. High steam and blade velocities
2. Low steam and blade velocities
Page 40 of 106
Steam Turbine
3. Low speeds of rotation
4. High carry-over loss
Which of these characteristics are possessed by a simple impulse turbine?
IAS-1. Ans. (c)
IAS-2. The blade passage for the nozzle blade row of the first stage of an impulse
turbine is best represent as [IAS-1999]
IAS-2. Ans. (a)
IAS-3. If in an impulse turbine designed for free vortex flow, tangential velocity
of steam at the root radius of 250 mm is 430 m/s and the blade height is 100
mm, then the tangential velocity of steam at the tip will be [IAS-1998]
(a) 602 m/s (b) 504 m/s (c) 409 m/s (d) 307 ms
IAS-3. Ans. (d) For free vortex V.r = const.
V1r1 250
∴V1r1 = V2r2 or V2 = = 430 × = 307m / s
r2 ( 250 + 100 )
IAS-4. Consider the following statements: In an impulse turbine, [IAS-1997]

1. The relative velocity of steam at inlet and outlet of moving blades are
equal.
2. The moving blades are symmetrical.
3. The outlet area of the moving blades is smaller than the inlet area.
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
IAS-4. Ans. (c)
IAS-5. In an axial flow steam turbine, the path traced by a fluid particle at the
design point is a [IAS-1997]
(a) Helix of constant radius (b) helix of varying radius
(c) Cycloidal path (d) toroidal path
IAS-5. Ans. (b)
Page 41 of 106
Steam Turbine
Velocity diagram
IAS-6. Velocity diagram shown above is
for an impulse turbine stage.
What is the, tangential force and
axial thrust per kg/s of steam,
respectively?
(a) 450 N, 8 N
(b) 560 N, 8 N
(c) 680 N, 4 N
(d) 910 N, 4 N
[IAS-2004]
IAS-6. Ans. (d) & × Vw = 1× 910 N = 910 N

Tangential force= m
Axial force = m& × Va = 1× 4 N = 4 N
IAS-7. Consider the following statements regarding an impulse turbine:

1. Relatives velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same
2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same
3. Static pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant
4. Total pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant [IAS-1999]
(a) 1 and 4 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
IAS-7. Ans. (c)

IAS-8. Steam enters the rotor of a reaction turbine with an absolute velocity of
236 m/s and the relative velocity of 132 m/s. It leaves the rotor with a
relative velocity of 232 m/s absolute velocity of 126 m/s. The specific work
output is [IAS-2000]
(a) 38.1 kW (b) 40.1 kW (c) 43.8 kW (d) 47.4 kW
⎛ V 2 V 2 ⎞ ⎛ Vr Vr2 ⎞
2
IAS-8. Ans. (a) W = ⎜ 1 − 2 ⎟+⎜ 2 − 1 ⎟ [Note Vr2 comes first]

⎝ 2 2 ⎠ ⎜⎝ 2 2 ⎟⎠
1
( )1
( )
= 2362 − 1262 + 2322 − 1322 = 38.1 KW
2 2
IAS-9. In a simple impulse turbine, the nozzle angle at the entrance is 30°. What
will be the blade-speed ratio for maximum diagram efficiency? [IAS-2002]
(a) 0·433 (b) 0·25 (c) 0·5 (d) 0·75
V cos α u cos 30o 3
IAS-9. Ans. (a) u = or = =
2 V 2 4
IAS-10. For an impulse turbine with exit angle ‘’, the maximum efficiency is
Page 42 of 106
Steam Turbine
⎛ cos φ ⎞ ⎛1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + cos φ ⎞ ⎛ 1 − cos φ ⎞
(a) ⎜ 1 − ⎟ (b) ⎜ + cos φ ⎟ (c) ⎜ ⎟ (d) ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
[IAS-1999]
IAS-10. Ans. (c)

IAS-11. In the given figure, B1, B2, B3, and B4 represent blade passages in an
impulse turbine. Consider the following statements in this regard
1. The solid line represents velocity variation. [IAS-1994]
2. The solid line represents pressure variation.
3. B2 and B4 are rotor passages.
4. B1 and B3 are rotor passages.
(a) 1 and 4 correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct
IAS-11. Ans. (b)
Velocity compounding (Curtis Turbine)

IAS-12. The given figure represents pressure and velocity variation for a
(a) Reaction type turbine
(b) Velocity compounded impulse turbine
(c) Pressure- velocity compounded impulse turbine
(d) Pressure compounded impulse turbine

[IAS-1995]
IAS-12. Ans. (d) The pressure and velocity variations in given figure correspond to pressure
gets dropped in three stages and in each stage the velocity increases in passing
through nozzle and then decreases in passing through blades (Impulse stage).
Page 43 of 106
Steam Turbine
Work done in different stages
IAS-13. In a two-row Curtis stage with symmetrical blading, [IAS-2002]
(a) Work done by both rows of moving blades are equal
(b) Work done by the first row of moving blades is double of the work done by second
row of moving blades
(c) Work done by the first row of moving blades is three times the work done by
second row of moving blades
(d) Work done by the first row of moving blades is four times the work done by the
second row of moving blades
IAS-13. Ans. (c) For two-row Curtis W1:W2=3:1
For 3-stage Curtis W1:W2:W3=5:3:1
Reaction Turbine ( Parson’s Turbine )

IAS-14. In reaction turbines, with reduction of inlet pressure [IAS-2002]
(a) The blade heights increase as the specific volume of steam decreases
(b) The blade heights increase as the specific volume of steam increases
(c) The blade heights decrease as the specific volume of steam increases
(d) The blade heights decrease as the specific volume of steam decreases
1
IAS-14. Ans. (b) Pα if P reduced then υ increases to handle more volume we need more
υ
area i,e. increase heights of blade.
Degree of reaction
IAS-15. In a reaction turbine, the enthalpy drop in the fixed blade ring is 50 kJ per
Kg and the enthaply drop in the moving blade ring is 25 kJ per Kg. The
degree of reaction of the turbine is [IAS-1995]
(a) 66.7% (b) 50.0% (c) 33.3% (d) 6.0%
IAS-15. Ans. (c) 25/75
IAS-16. If the enthalpy drops of moving blade and fixed blade of a stage in a
reaction turbine are 9 and 11 kJ/kg respectively, then degree of reaction of
the stage is [IAS-2002]
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.45 (c) 0·55 (d) 1·0
( h )nb 9
IAS-16. Ans. (b) degree of reaction= = = 0.45
( h )mb + ( h ) fb 9 + 11
IAS-17. Ratio of enthalpy drop in moving blades to the total enthalpy drop in the
fixed and moving blades is called [IAS-2001]
(a) Reheat factor (b) Blade efficiency
(c) Degree of reaction (d) Internal efficiency
IAS-17. Ans. (c)
IAS-18. In a steam turbine, the enthalpy drops in the fixed blade and moving blade
are 48 kJ and 32 kJ respectively. The degree of reaction is [IAS-2000]
(a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 60% (d) 66.6%
Page 44 of 106
Steam Turbine
( Δh)moving blade 32
IAS-18. Ans. (a) Degreeof reaction = = = 0.4
( Δh )fixed blade + ( Δh )moving blade 48 + 32
IAS-19. If in a steam turbine stage, heat drop in moving blade ring is 40 kJ/kg and
hat in the fixed blade ring is 60 kJ/kg, then the degree of reaction is
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 70% [IAS-1998]
( Δh )mb 40
IAS-19. Ans. (b) Degree of reaction = = = 0.4
( Δh )fb + ( Δh )mb 40 + 60
IAS-20. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of [IAS-1996]

(a) Enthalpy drop in moving blades to enthalpy drop in fixed blades
(b) Enthalpy drop in fixed blades to total enthalpy drop in moving and fixed
blades
(c) Enthalpy drop in fixed blades to enthalpy drop in moving blades
(d) Enthalpy drop in moving blades to total enthalpy drop in fixed and moving
blades
IAS-20. Ans. (d)
IAS-21. Symmetrical blading is used in a turbine when its degree of reaction is %

(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 100 [IAS-1995]
IAS-21. Ans. (b)
IAS-22. The degree of reaction of a turbine is the ratio of enthalpy drop in

(a) Moving blades to enthalpy drop in the stage
(b) Fixed blades to enthalpy drop in the stage
(c) Moving blades to enthalpy drop in fixed blades
(d) Fixed blades to enthalpy drop in moving blades
IAS-22.Ans. (a)
Velocity diagram for reaction turbine blade

IAS-23. If u, v, w represent the peripheral, absolute and relative velocities,
respectively, and suffix 1 and 2 refer to inlet and outlet, then which one of
the following velocity triangles could be a reaction turbine stage with
reaction more than 50% ? [IAS-2003]
IAS-23.Ans. (c)
Page 45 of 106
Steam Turbine
IAS-24. The given figure represents velocity
diagram for a tubomachine stage. The
stage in question is
(a) power absorbing and 50%reaction
(b) power absorbing and impulse
(c) power generating and 50% reaction
(d) power generating and impulse

[IAS-1999]
IAS-24.Ans. (c)
IAS-25. Given that 'u' is the blade velocity, V

is the absolute velocity of steam and
Vr is the relative velocity, subscripts
1and 2 refer to the inlet and exit of
the rotor, the velocity triangle for
and axial flow steam turbine shown
in the given figure, refers to which
one of the following types of turbine
stages? [IAS-1997]
(a) Pure impulse (b) Pure reaction
(c) 50% reaction (d) 25% reaction
IAS-25. Ans. (b)
IAS-26. The impulse turbine rotor efficiency will have a maximum value 0.5 cos 2 α1
where α1 is the nozzle exit flow angle, if the [IAS 1994]
(a) Blades are equiangular
(b) Blade velocity coefficient is unity
(c) Blades are equiangular and frictionless
(d) Blade solidity is 0.65
cos 2 α1
IAS-26. Ans. (c) The impulse turbine rotor efficiency, η = (1 + kc)
2
cos γ
If friction factor k = 0 and c = = 1 i.e. blades are equiangular then
cos β
η max = 0.5 cos 2 α1

IAS-27. In a 50%, reaction turbine stage, the tangential component of absolute
velocity at rotor inlet is 537 m/s and blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power
output in kW of steam will be [IAS 1994]
(a) 302 (b) 282 (c) 260 (d) 284
Page 46 of 106
Steam Turbine
Vb
IAS-27. Ans. (b) If reaction is 50% then work done = ( 2Vi cos α − Vb ) kJ / kg
1000
454
Vicos α = 537 m/s and Vb= 454 m/s ∴ Work done = (2 × 537 − 454) = 282 kW / kg
1000
Condition for maximum efficiency and Turbine Efficiencies

IAS-28. The work output from a reaction turbine stage is 280 kW per kg/s of steam.
If the nozzle efficiency is 0.92 and rotor efficiency is 0.90, the isentropic
static enthalpy drop will be [IAS-2000]
(a) 352 kW (b) 347 kW (c) 338 kW (d) 332 kW
280
IAS-28. Ans. (c) W = ( Δh )total × ηnozzle × ηrotor or ( Δh )total = = 338KW
0.92 × 0.9
'State Point Locus' and 'Reheat Factor'

IAS-29. Expansion line EFG of a 2-stage
steam turbine is shown in the
given h-s diagram.
The reheat factor for this
turbine is
(a) 1.08
(c) 0.648
(b) 0.7
(d) 1.43
[IAS-2001]
IAS-29. Ans. (a) R.F =

( 30 − 27 ) + ( 28 − 20.2 ) = 1.08
( 30 − 20 )
IAS-30. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists [IAS-2007]
List I List II
(Turbine Performance Factor) (Definition)
Adiabatic heat drop
A. Reheat factor 1.
Heat supplied
Total work done on the rotor
B. Internal efficiency 2.
Total adiabatic heat drop
Cumulative heat drop of all stages
C. Degree of reaction 3.
Total adiabatic heat drop
Enthalpy drop in moving blades
D. Rankine efficiency 4.
Enthalpy drop in the stage
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 1 4 2
IAS-30. Ans. (a)
Page 47 of 106
Steam Turbine
Nozzle governing
IAS-31. In the case of nozzle governed steam turbines, stage efficiencies vary very
little when compared with those with full steam flow because [IAS-1997]
(a) Mass flow rate does not affect the stage efficiency
(b) Inlet steam pressure in the first stage is not affected
(c) Mass rate of flow of steam in all the stages is the same
(d) Stage pressures are not much different from the design value
IAS-31. Ans. (*)
Blading and Fastening

IAS-32. Consider the following statements: The erosion of steam turbine blades
increases with the increase of [IAS-2000]
1. Moisture in the steam 2. Blade speed
Which of these statements(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone (b) 2 alone (c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
IAS-32. Ans. (c) both increases impact between blade and droplet of water.
Condensers
IAS-33. An Important parameter to be monitored continuously for safeguarding

turbine rotor in a steam power plant is [IAS-1997]
(a) Steam inlet pressure (b) steam inlet temperature
(c) Shaft vibration level (d) beaming temperatures]
IAS-33. Ans. (d)
Condenser Efficiency
IAS-34. Assertion (A): Air leaking into condenser of steam power plant reduces the output
of the plant.
Reason (R): Air inside condenser increases back pressure of steam turbine in
steam power plants. [IAS-2001]
IAS-34. Ans. (a)
IAS-35. The presence of air in a condenser [IAS-1995]

(a) Increases the pressure in the condenser and decrease the condensing coefficient
(b) Decreases the pressure in the condenser but increase the condensing coefficient
(c) Increases the pressure in the condenser as well as the condensing coefficient
(d) Decreases the pressure in the condenser as well as the condensing coefficient
IAS-35. Ans. (a)
IAS-36. In a steam condenser, the partial pressure of steam and air are 0.06 bar
and 0.007 bar respectively. The condenser pressure is [IAS 1994]
(a) 0.067 bar (b) 0.06 bar (c) 0.053bar (d) 0.007 bar
Page 48 of 106
Steam Turbine
IAS-36. Ans. (a) Condenser pressure = partial pressure of steam + partial pressure of air =
0.06 + 0.07 = 0.067 bar
Cooling Towers
IAS-37. Cooling tower in a steam power station is a device for [IAS-1995]
(a) Condensing the steam into water
(b) Cooling the exhaust gases coming out of the boiler
(c) Reducing the temperature of superheated steam
(d) Reducing the temperature of cooling water used in condenser.
IAS-37. Ans. (d)
Page 49 of 106

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S K Mondal’s

Chapter - 2 : Steam Cycle

Chapter - 4 : Steam Turbines

Chapter - 5 : Flue Gas Analysis

Chapter - 6 : Gas Turbine

Chapter - 7 : Nuclear Power Plant

Previous Years IAS Questions

GATE-8. In a Rankine cycle, regeneration results in higher efficiency because

Efficiencies in a Steam Power Plant

Previous Years IES Questions

IES-7. Blade erosion in steam turbines takes place [IES 2007]

IES-8. The main advantage of a reheat Rankine cycle is [IES-2002]

IES-10. Consider the following statements [IES-2000]

IES-11. Consider the following statements regarding effects of heating of steam in

IES-14. Consider the following statements: [IES-1997]

IES-15. Employing superheated steam in turbines leads to [IES-2003]

Herre temperatture of steamm entering the turbinee is T1

IES-22. A regenerative steam cycle renders [IES-1993]

IES-23. When is the greatest economy obtained in a regenerative feed heating

Feed water Heaters

IES-27. Ans. (b)

Optimum Degree of Regeneration

IES-30. Consider the following statements: [IES-1999]

Cogeneration of Power and Process Heat

IES-33. Ans. (b)

Combined Cycle Plants

Previous Years IAS Questions

IAS-2. A superheat Rankine Cycle is shown

IAS-2. Ans. (a)

Mean Temperature of Heat Addition

IAS-5. Consider the following statements: [IAS-2001]

IAS-9. Consider the following statements regarding superheating Rankine

IAS-10. Ans. (c)

IAS-13. The curve labeled 1-2 in the given

IAS-14. Which one of the following modifications to a Rankine cycle would

(b) Reheating of steam

IAS-15. In a regenerative cycle, steam with enthalpy of 3514 kJ/kg is expanded in

IAS-15. Ans. (a)

IAS-16. Consider the following statements: [IAS-1997]

IAS-18. In the given figure Rankine

GATE-2. Ans. (a)

GATE-3. Boiler rating is usually defined in terms of [GATE-1992]

Previous Years IES Questions

IES-7. Which one of the following is the fire-tube boiler? [IES-2005]

IES-9. Consider the following components: [IES-1997]

Previous Years IAS Questions

IAS-5. There is no steam drum in [IAS-2001]

Pressure compounding ( Rateau Turbine)

Velocity diagram for reaction turbine blade

Energy Losses in Steam Turbines

Previous Years IES Questions

IES-2. In steam turbine terminology, diaphragm refers to [IES-1993]

Diagram work (Blading Work)

Optimum velocity ratio

IES-14. Why is compounding of steam turbines done? [IES-2005]

IES-17. The compounding of steam turbines is done to [IES-1992; 1999]

Pressure compounding ( Rateau Turbine)

Velocity compounding (Curtis Turbine)

IES-23. The net result of pressure-velocity compounding of steam turbine is: