Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

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Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

MCQ
Question 1.
Which of the following is ART?
(a) IUDs
(b) GIFT
(c) ZIFT
(d) Both (b) & (c)

Question 2.
The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for
those females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(c) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(d) all of these

Question 3.
Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide
suitable environment ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) ICSI

Question 4.
Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very
low sperm count ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) None of these

Question 5.
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive
technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET

Question 6.
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population.
Question 7.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation.

Question 8.
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in
our country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s

Question 9.
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within,
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation.

Question 10.
From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which
does not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhea
(d) Genital warts

Question 11.
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following
reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination.
(b) They do not interfere with coital act.
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs.
(d) All of the above

Question 12.
The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) castration.

Question 13.
RCH stands for
(a) routine check-up of health
(b) reproduction cum hygiene
(c) reversible contraceptive hazards
(d) reproductive and child health care.

Question 14.
Amminocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
(d) all of these.

Question 15.
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(a) Jaundice
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Colourblindness
Question 16.
In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?
(a) 12th – 14th week
(b) 8th – 10th week
(c) 5th – 7th week
(d) None of these

Question 17.
Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
(a) increase in birth rate
(b) decrease in death rate
(c) lack of education
(d) all of these.

Question 18.
Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?
(a) Natality and immigration
(b) Mortality and emigration
(c) Natality and emigration
(d) Mortality and immigration

Question 19.
Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?
(a) It increases the poverty of a country.
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply.
(c) It results in unemployment
(d) All of these
Question 20.
The best way to decrease population of a country is
(a) to educate people
(b) to have better houses
(c) to kill people on a large scale
(d) to practice and implement familay planning.

Question 21.
Which of the following correctly describes the measures
that can be used to control over-population ?
(a) Educating people about the advantages of a small family
(b) Raising the age of marriage
(c) Encouraging family planning programme
(d) All of these

Question 22.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?
(a) User-friendly
(b) Irreversible
(c) Easily available
(d) Least side-effects

Question 23.
Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea,
trichomoniasis ?
(a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
(b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial.
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
(d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not.

Question 24.
Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by
bacteria only ?
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
(c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
(d) Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis

Question 25.
Confirmatory test for STDs is
(a) ELISA
(b) PCR
(c) DNA hybridisation
(d) all of these.

Question 26.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) blood transfusion
(b) intimate physical contact
(c) sexual contact
(d) all of these

Question 27.
The common means of transmission of AIDS is
(a) sexual intercourse
(b) blood transfusion
(c) placental transfer
(d) all of these.
.

Question 28.
Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?
(a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(b) Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
(c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B

Question 29.
World AIDS day is
(a) December 21
(b) December 1
(c) November 1
(d) June 11
Question 30.
In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following
into the fallopian tube ?
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(c) Embro of 32 cell stage
(d) Zygote only

Question 31.
The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ?
(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer
(d) All of these
Question 32.
The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by
(a) Louis joy Brown and Banting Best
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards
(c) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
(d) Baylis and Starling Taylor.

Question 33.
On which of the following facts does the method of periodic abstinence is based ?
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(d) All of these

Question 34.
Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) ?
(a) CuT
(b) Lippes Loop
(c) Cu7
(d) LNG-20Question

35.Multiload device contains


(a) manganese
(b) iron
(c) copper
(d) calcium
Question 36.
Which of the following is not an intrauterine device ?
(a) Progestasert
(b) Multiload-375
(c) Norplant
(d) Lippes loop

Question 37.
What is the work of copper-T ?
(a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
(c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
(d) To inhibit gametogenesis

Question 38.
IUDs prevent pregnancy by
(a) inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for
implantation.
(b) increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
(c) suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
(d) all of these.

Question 39.
Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
(a) prevent ovulation
(b) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) decrease phagocytosis of sperms
(d) suppress sperm motility.

Question 40.
The birth control device used by women is
(a) diaphragm
(b) vault
(c) copper T
(d) all of these.

Question 41.
The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is
(a) progesterone-estrogen
(b) growth hormore
(c) thyroxine
(d) luteinising hormone.

Question 42.
Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing
(a) ova formation
(b) fertilisation
(c) implantation
(d) none of these.

Question 43.
What is true about “Saheli” ?
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation
(iii) “Once-a-weak” pill
(iv) Many side effects
(v) High contraceptive value
(vi) Very few side effects value
(vii) Low contraceptive value
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
(b) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (vii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
Question 44.
What is the figure given below showing in particular ?

(a) Ovarian cancer


(b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy
(d) Vasectomy

Question 45.
Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest ?
(a) The rhythm method
(b) The use of physical barriers
(c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
(d) Sterilisation techniques

Question 46.
Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India
at present ?
(a) Cervical caps
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Diaphragms
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)

Question 47.
Which of the following is a full proof method contraception ?
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilisation

Question 48.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding vasectomy ?
(a) It prevents the production of sperm in the testes.
(b) It prevents the production of semen.
(c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
(d) It prevents a man from having an erection.

Question 49.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP) ?
(a) These help in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(b) These help in aborting the pregnancies which may be harmful to either mother of
foetus or both.
(c) These contribute in decreasing the human population.
(d) None of these.

Question 50.
Which of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease
with its pathogen ?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis

Question 51.
The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female
genitals and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
(a) AIDS
(b) syphilis
(c) gonorrhoea
(d) hepatitis

Question 52.
A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the
genitals is caused by the infection of
(a) Treponema pallidum
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) human immunodeficiency virus
(d) hepatitis B virus

Question 53.
The most effective method for birth control is:
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization

Question 54.
What is correct about the test-tube baby :
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract

Question 55.
The birth control device not used by women is?
(a) Diaphrame
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper-T

Question 56.
The pre-natal technique to determine the gene tic disorders in a foetus in called :
(a) Laprosocopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts

Question 57.
Test-tube baby is a technique where :
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube)
(d) All the above

Question 58.
A method of both control is:
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-T
(d) IUDs

Question 59.
Copper-T prevents:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Ovulation
(c) Formation of embryo on the wall of Uterus
(d) Interrupt reproductive duct
Question 60.
Lactational Amenorrhoea is related to :
(a) Temporary method of contraception
(b) Absence of menstruation
(c) Permanent method of contraception
(d) ASTD name

Question 61.
In India, first consus was conducted in:
(a) 1851
(b) 1891
(c) 1921
(d) 1951
Question 62.
Rapid decline in a population due to high mortality rate is called:
(a) Population density
(b) Population crash
(c) Population explosion
(d) All of these

Question 63.
Amniocentesis is a process to:
(a) Determine any disease ¡n the heart
(b) Know about diseases of brain
(c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(d) All of these

Question 64.
‘Saheli’ a female antifertility pill, is used:
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Quarterly
(d) Monthly
Question 65.
Drug Ru-486 is used as :
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Abortive agent
(c) Amniocentesis
(d) Mutagen

Question 66.
The most effective method for birth control is:
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization
Question 67.
Central drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow has developed a contraceptive
named?
(a) Mala-D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms

Question 68.
Which among these is not a natural method of birth control?
(a) Coitus intrruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea

Question 69.
Which of these is cause by a retrovirus
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis

Question 70.
Fssay on Population was published by :
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Malthus
(d) Hugo de vries

Question 71.
Surgical removed of testis of male of control the human population is:
(a) Castration
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Laparoscopy
(d) Vasectomy

Question 72.
What is correct about the test-tube baby :
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract

Question 73.
The birth control device not used by women is?
(a) Diaphrame
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper-T

Question 74.
The pre-natal technique to determine the gem. tic disorders in a foetus in called :
(a) Laprosocopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts
Question 75.
Test-tube baby is a technique where :
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube)
(d) All the above

Question 76.
Progesteron in the contraceptive pill:
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above
Question 77.
Copper-T prevents:
(a) Fertilization
(b) Ovulation
(c) Formation of embryo on the wall of Uterus
(d) Interrupt reproductive duct

CASE STUDY
1. Read the following and answer any four questions from 1(i) to 1(V) given below:
Overpopulation causes a number of family problems. Strategies like birth control methods
help to control population explosion. Natural methods of birth control do not involve
medications or devices to prevent pregnancy but rather rely on behavioural practices and/or
making observations about the menstrual cycle.
(i) Which method helps in contraception by temporary absence of sex? 
(a) Coitus interruptus 
(b) Withdrawal method
(c) Rhythm method 
(d) Lactational amenorrhea method 
(ii) Assertion : The effectiveness of coitus interruptus method is
limited. 
Reason: Some sperms may pass into vagina before ejaculation.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. 
(iii) Why is lactational amenorrhea effective for about 4-5 months after
parturition? 
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(b) Ovulation does not occur during intense lactation.
(c) This method inhibits mobility of sperms. 
(d) Both (b) and (c)

(iv) Which fact is not the basis of periodic absence method of birth
control? 
(a) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(b) Ovulation occurs on about 14th day of menstruation.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days. 
(d) Alteration in uterine endometrium
(v) On which days of menstrual cycle should coitus be avoided to prevent
fertilisation? 
(a) 10-17 
(b) 6-13 
(c) 1-5 
(d) 15-28 

2. Read the following and answer any four questions from 2(i) to 2(v) given below:
Intrauterine devices are most widely accepted methods of contraception. These are used by
females and are inserted by doctor or nurses in the uterus through vagina. However these
devices are not recommended for those who eventually intend to conceive.
(i) How does Cut prevent conception? 
(a) Cu ions make uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(b) (b) Cu ions make cervix hostile to the sperms.
(c) (c) Cu ions suppress sperms motility.
(d) (d) Cu ions inhibit ovulation. 
(ii) Which of the following IUDs makes uterus unsuitable for
implantation? 
(a) LNG-20 
(b) Multiload 375
(c) Cu7 
(d) Lippes loop 

(iii) Identify the correct statement for IUDs. 


(a) They slowly release synthetic progesterone in the body.
(b) They increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(c) They block entry of sperms through the cervix. 
(d) Both (b) and ©
(iv) Select the correct matched pair. 
(a) Hormone releasing IUD - LNG-20
(b) Non-medicated IUD - Progestasert
(c) Copper releasing IUD - Lippes loop
(d) None of these 
(V) Assertion : IUDs can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain. 
Reason: IUDs can perforate uterus.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
 3.Read the following and answer any four questions from 3(i) to 3(v) given
below: 
A young couple married for 5 years is unable to bear a child in spite of not practicing any
birth control method. Upon consultation, the doctor advised them of assisted reproductive
technology involving transfer of gametes into Oviducts. 
(i) Identify the technique adopted by the couple. 
(a) ZIFT 
(b) IUI 
(C) GIFT 
(d) ICSI 
(ii) What is the pre-requisite of this technique? 
(a) Gamete formation should be normal. 
(b) Fallopian tubes should be normal.
(c) Female should have thick endometrial lining.
(d) Male should be able to copulate the female. 
(iii) Assertion : GIFT is an in-vitro fertilisation technique. 
Reason: In GIFT, gametes are fertilised outside the female body.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. 
(iv) The procedure advised to couple involves the transfer of 
(a) fertilised ovum 
(b) embryo with 8 blastomeres
c) sperms and unfertilised ovum 
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres.
(v) What is the success rate of this procedure? 
(a) 30-50% 
(b) <20% 
(c) 80-85% 
(d) 27-30%

4.Read the following and answer any four questions from 4(i) to 4(v)
given below: 
A young couple married for 5 years is unable to bear a child in spite of not practicing any
birth control method. Upon consultation, the doctor advised them of assisted reproductive
technology involving transfer of gametes into Oviducts.

(i) Identify the technique adopted by the couple. 


(a) ZIFT 
(b) IUI 
(C) GIFT 
(d) ICSI 
(ii) What is the pre-requisite of this technique? 
(a) Gamete formation should be normal. 
(b) Fallopian tubes should be normal.
(c) Female should have thick endometrial lining.
(d) Male should be able to copulate the female. 
(iii) Assertion : GIFT is an in-vitro fertilisation technique. 
Reason: In GIFT, gametes are fertilised outside the female body.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. 
(iv) The procedure advised to couple involves the transfer of 
(a) fertilised ovum 
(b) embryo with 8 blastomeres
c) sperms and unfertilised ovum 
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres.
(v) What is the success rate of this procedure? 
(a) 30-50% 
(b) <20% 
(c) 80-85% 
(d) 27-30%

Assertion Reason Questions

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a


statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

1 Assertion: Ovulation is controlled by the hormone oestrogen.


Reason: Contraceptives are, therefore, made up of both oestrogen and
progesterone

2  Assertion : Ovulation is controlled by the hormone oestrogen.


Reason : Contraceptives are, therefore, made up of both oestrogen and
progesterone
3 Assertion : In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physical
meetings
a) Reason : Barrier methods are used during coitus, to prevent the entry of
ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract.

4 Assertion: There is a statutory ban amniocentesis on sex determination in India.


Reason: Amniocentesis is used to determine sex of foetus for female foeticide.

5 ASSERTION: The effectiveness of coitus interruption.


Reason: some sperm may pass into vagina before ejaculation.

6. Assertion: In GIFT fertilization take place invivo.


Reason: The result of GIFT are less better than in vitro fertilization.

7. Asserson: Generally a women does not conceive during lactation period.


Reason: The hormone prolactine initiates and maintains lactation in a
postpartum women.
8. Asserson: oral contraceptive pills check ovulation.
Reason: oral pills always contains combination of progesteron and estrogen.

9. Asserson: Artificial insemination is intra-uterine insemination.


Reason: in artificial insemination sperm collected from donor are
introduced into the uterus.
10. Asserson: AIDS is a incurable STD.
Reason: AIDSvirus attack helper Tlymphocytes.

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