BETHLEHEM UNIVERSITY

FACULTY OF NURSING & HEALTH SCIENCES

Comprehensive Exam
Fall 2016 (B)
Name: Date:
Multiple Choice Questions
Pediatric –Hanan
1. A 2-year-old child comes to the emergency with inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. A
preliminary diagnosis of croup has been made. What is the mostimportant intervention for nurse to
provide?
a. Administer I.V. antibiotics. c. Establish and maintain the airway
b. Provide oxygen by facemask. d. Ask the mother to go to the waiting room.

2. A nurse is teaching the parents of a 1-year-old with otitis media. Which statement regarding
predisposing factors for otitis media would be most accurate for the nurse to make?
a. The cartilage lining is overdeveloped.
b. When infants sit up, it favors the pooling of fluid.
c. Humoral defense mechanisms decrease the risk of infection.
d. Eustachian tubes are short, wide, and straight and lie in a horizontal plane.

3. An infant is brought to the clinic for her & month vaccines. The nurse tells the mother that
administration of which vaccine is an appropriate step for prevention of epiglottitis?
a. Diphtheria vaccine
b. Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib) vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)

4. The nurse is assessing breath sounds of a child admitted with asthma. The nurse would anticipate
hearing which sound?
a. Stidor b. Rhonchi c. Rales d. Wheezes

5. A neonate has been brought to the emergency room by his mother. The nurse assesses the child and
suspects that the child may have hydrocephalus. Which observations by the nurse would indicate
this condition?
a. Bulging fontanel, low-pitched cry
b. Depressed fontanel, low-pitched cry
c. Bulging fontanel, sunset eyes
d. Depressed fontanel, eyes rotated downward

6. Which nursing action is appropriate when a child has a seizure?

a. Inserting a nasogastric tube to prevent emesis
b. Restraining the extremities with a pillow or blanket
c. Inserting a tongue blade to prevent injury to the tongue
d. Padding the side rails of the bed to protect the child from injury.

7. Which problem is most commonly encountered by adolescent females with scoliosis?

a. Respiratory distress c. Poor appetite
b. Poor self-esteem d. Renal difficulty

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8. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Which intervention would be appropriate for a nurse to perform first?
a. Obtain a urine specimen.
b. Draw ordered laboratory tests.
c. Place the toddler in respiratory isolation.
d. Explain the treatment plan to the parents.

9. Which explanation about how to avoid the incidence of a second child with spina bifida is most
accurate?
a. There’s no known way to avoid it; adoption is recommended.
b. A previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect isn’t a factor.
c. Pre-pregnancy intake of 4 mg of folic acid daily reduces the recurrence rate.
d. Aerobic exercise in the first trimester decreases the chance of a positive alpha-fetoprotein
(AFP)

10. The parent of an infant diagnosed with clubfoot is discussing the casting treatment regimen with the
nurse. The nurse determines further instruction is not needed when the parent states that the cast
will be changed:
a. In 8 weeks c. When his child starts to walk
b. In 2 weeks d. When his child stars to crawl

11. Which history finding is the most significant related to developmental of congenital hip
dysplasia /dysplasia of the hip (DDH) ?
a. Mother’s activity during the third trimester
b. Breach presentation at birth
c. Infant serum calcium level at birth
d. Apgar score of 4 to 1 minute and 6 at 5 minutes

12. The mother of a neonate born with a cleft lip and palate is preparing to feed the baby for the first
time. The most important information for the nurse to give the mother is:
a. Burp the neonate
b. Clean the mouth
c. Hold the neonate in a upright position
d. Prepare the bottle using a normal nursery nipple

13. Feeding are being withheld in a neonate with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula until a
gastrostomy tub can be placed. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to implement when
the neonate is irritable and crying?
a. Offer him a pacifier
b. Encourage his parents to talk to him
c. Encourage his parents to hold him
d. Distract him by placing a mobile over the crib

14. Nursing assessments in an infant with gastroenteritis should be directed toward detecting which
potential problem?
a. Urinary retention c. Electrolyte imbalance
b. Heart failure d. Hyperactive reflexes
Pediatrics-AMAL
15. Which of the following is a noninvasive method of evaluating cardiac status in a child?
a. Transthoracic echocardiogram c.Cardiac catheterization
b. Cardiac enzyme levels d. Transesophageal pacing

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16. A 2 year old child is being monitored after cardiac surgery. The nurse is aware that the following
assessment findings representing a decrease in cardiac output except:
a. Hypotension c. Weak peripheral pulses
b. Decreased urine output d. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds

17. What are the expected assessment findings of an infant with heart failure? Select all that apply.
a. Heart rate of 100 beats/minute c. +3 pulses in all extremities
b. Gallop murmur d. Liver palpated at level of umbilicus

18. Which intervention or drug is recommended initially for preterm neonates to close a patent
ductusarteriosus?
a. Indomethacin c. Surgical ligation
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b. Prostaglandin E d. Cardiac catheterization

19. All of the following signs may be seen in a child with a ventricular septal defect except:
a. Tachypnea
b. Plots at 95th percentile for height on growth chart
c. Plots at the 10th percentile for weight on growth chart
d. Increased length of tie to finish a bottle or breastfeeding

20. A 15 year old client is diagnosed with coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following would not
expected assessment findings?
a. Blood pressure of 120/76 mm Hg in the right arm
b. Blood pressure of 172/98 mm Hg in the left arm
c. Blood pressure of 84/46 mm Hg in the right leg
d. Complaints of headache

21. The nurse is preparing to assess a child with a possible cardiac anomaly. It is most important for the
nurse to asses which of the following?
a. Skin turgor c. Pupil size and reaction to light
b. Temperature d. Blood pressure in all four extremities

22. When teaching the parents of the newborn about testing forphenylketonuria, the nurse should
include one of the following key points.
a. The test is performed only on infants expected to have the disorder.
b. The test is performed on cord blood.
c. The test is not reliable if the blood sample is taken after theinfant has ingested a source of
protein.
d. The test should be performed on all newborns before they leave the hospital, and a repeat blood
specimen should be obtained by 2 weeks of age if the first test was taken within the first 24
hours of life.
Lucy has been diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism.
The nurse is instructing the parents on how to care forLucy. Which of the following is the nurse least likely to
includein the plan?
The drug of choice is synthetic levothyroxine sodium.
b. The drug is tasteless and can be crushed and added to formula,
water, or food.
c. If a dose is missed, twice the dose should be given the next
day.
d.Signs of overdose of the drug include slow pulse rate, lethargy, cool skin, and excessive weight gain.
Diagnostic evaluation testing for congenital hypothyroidism in the newborn includes:

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23. (B)i. a low level of T4.ii. a high level of thyroid-stimulating hormone.iii. mandatory testing of all newborns
within the first 24 to 48
hours or before discharge.iv. venous blood samples taken on two separate occasions.a. i and iiib. i, ii, and
iiic. i, ii, and ivd.
ii and ivClinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome include:  (A)a. hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia,
edema, and proteinuria.b. hematuria, hypertension, periorbital edema, and flank pain.c. oliguria,
hypolipidemia, and hyperalbuminemia.d.
hematuria, generalized edema, hypertension, and proteinuria.Which
of the following urine tests is conducted daily while the child is receiving
medicine for nephroticsyndrome?
(B)a.
Glucoseb.
Specific gravityc.
Albumin
24. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin and diuretics to an infant diagnosed with
truncusarteriosus. What is best method of adminsitartion?
a. Use of a measuring spoon
b. Use of a graduated dropper
c. Use of an syringe
d. Mixing the drug in a bottle with juice or milk

25. Which of the following are required to establish a diagnosis of acute rhematic fever?
a. Laboratory tests
b. Fever and four Jones criteria
c. Positive blood cultures for staphylococcus organisms
d. Use a Jones criteria and presence of a streptococcal infection

26. The nurse is preparing a treatment plan for a child with sickle cell anemia in vaso-occlusive crisis.
What is the most important nursing intervention for the nurse to include?
a. Managing pain c.Immobilizing the affected part
b. Providing a cool environment d. Restricting fluids

27. An iron dextran (INFeD) injection has been ordered for an 8 month old child with iron deficiency
anemia whose parents haven’t been compliant with oral supplements. How should the nurse
administer the injection?
a. Intradermally
b. Subcutaneously
c. Intramuscularly
d. Intramuscularly using the Z-track method

28. A nurse is speaking to the mother of a child with leukemia who wants to know why her child is so
susceptible to infection if he has too many white blood cells (WBCs). Which response by the nurse
would be most accurate?
a. This is an adverse effect of the medication he has to take.
b. He hasn’t been able to eat a proper diet since he’s been sick.
c. Leukemia is a problem of tumors in the internal organs that prevent his ability to fight infection.
d. Leukemia causes production of too many immature WBCs. Which can’t fight infection very
well.

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29. A nurse is taking frequent blood pressure readings on a child diagnosed with acute
glomerulonephritis. The parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. Which statement by the nurse
most accurately addresses their concerns?
a. “Blood pressure fluctuations are a sign that the condition has become chronic”.
b. “Blood pressure fluctuations are a common adverse effect of the antibiotic therapy your child is
on”.
c. “Hypotension can lead to sudden shock and can develop at any time as part of the disease
process”.
d. “Acute hypertension must be anticipated and identified”.

30. A nurse understands that which characteristic is the single most important factor influencing the
occurrence of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
a. Urinary stasis c.Uncircumcised penis (in males)
b. Frequency of baths d.Amount of fluid intake

31. When obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity, a nurse should understand that which
method of collecting provides the most accurate results?
a. Bagged urine specimen c. First voided urine specimen
b. Clean catch urine specimen d. Catheterized urine specimen

32. A nurse is caring for an infant of a mother with diabetes. the nurse is aware that which
physiological finding would be most indicative of a hypoglycemic episode?
a. Hyperalert state c. Excessive crying
b. Jitteriness d.Serum glucose level of 60 mg/dl

33. A nurse is caring for four neonates. Which neonate is most likely to develop hyperbilirubinemia?
a. Neonate of an African-American mother
b. Neonate of an Rh-positive mother
c. Neonate with ABO incompatibility
d. Neonate with Apgar scores of 9 and 10 at 1 and 5 minutes

34. The nurse is aware that a neonate undergoing phototherapy treatment needs to be monitored for
which of the following?
a. Hyperglycemia c. Severe decrease in platelet count
b. Increased insensible water loss d. Increased GI transit time
SALAM
35. Which of the following behaviors could indicate that Mrs. T. is experiencing hypoxia?
a. Anger b. Apathy c. Anxiety d. Aggression

36. Mrs. T is admitted to the hospital with bacterial pneumonia. She has pleuritic chest pain. Which of
the following nursing measures is most likely to be successful in reducing Mrs. T.’s chest pain?
a. Encourage her to breathe shallowly
b. Have her practice abdominal breathing
c. Let her breathe in a paper bag
d. Teach her to splint her rib cage during coughing

37. Bed rest is prescribed for Mrs. T. during her acute phase of her illness. The purpose of bed rest in
this situation is to:
a. Reduce the cellular demand for oxygen
b. Decrease the metabolic rate
c. Promote patient safety
d. Promote clearance of secretions
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38. After three days of therapy, T. has a white blood cell count of 8000. Which action should the nurse
take in response to this result?
a. Notify the physician immediately
b. Continue with the current antibiotic regimen
c. Omit the next dose of antibiotics
d. Initiate reverse isolation precautions

39. H. is a 72-year old patient with COPD. The nurse is teaching him how to purse his lips during
breathing. The nurse is doing it correctly if she teaches H. to purse his lips:
a. After exhaling c. When exhaling
b. When inhaling d. When inhaling and exhaling

40. H. receives aminophylline intravenously every 6 hours. Which of the following changes in H.’s
condition would indicate to the nurse that the drug is doing its desired effect?
a. H. sleeps better c. H. breathes easier
b. H. has less ankle edema d. H.’s fever is relieved

41. Chest percussion is prescribed for H. The primary purpose of chest percussion for H. is to:
a. Stimulate deeper inhalation
b. Propel secretions along the upper respiratory tract
c. Loosen secretions in congested areas of the lungs
d. None of the above

42. H.’s arterial blood gases reveal the following results: pH 7.32, PaO2 53 mm Hg, PaCO2 80 mm
Hg. What conclusion can the nurse safely make after these findings?
a. The patient has metabolic acidosis
b. The patient has respiratory acidosis
c. The patient has metabolic alkalosis
d. The patient has respiratory alkalosis

43. A patient with shortness of breath is being tested for lung cancer. Which diagnostic test will be
most conclusive?
a. Chest x-ray c.Sputum culture
b. MRI d. Biopsy

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44. Related to the previous question, (the patient with shortness of breath), the nurse notes increasing
confusion and restlessness during the past hour. Which of the followingactions is appropriate first?
a. Assess SpO2 and apply oxygen per protocol.
b. Call the physician stat.
c. Put up the patient’s side rails and apply soft restraints.
d. Administer a prn dose of intramuscular sedative.

45. While X. is in the hospital, he is served a bland diet. If the nurse notes the following items on X.’s
dinner tray, which one should she remove before serving the tray?
a. Water b. Milk c. Sugar d. Pepper

46. P. had to undergo a proctocolectomy. She will thus have a:

a. Temporary colostomy
b. Permanent colostomy
c. Chest tube
d. She will probably need no colostomy at all

47. P. expresses concern about having to care for her colostomy at home. The best action by the nurse
would be to:
a. Tell P. that there is no need to worry.
b. Allow P. to look at the stoma and touch it, then start participating in her own care
c. Refer P. to counseling
d. All of the above

48. The nurse is teaching P. about colostomy care. Which of the following statements made by the
nurse is MOST accurate?
a. “You will have to empty the colostomy bag once a day, first thing in the morning.”
b. “You will have to avoid foods that are gas-forming.”
c. “You will have to drink lots of fluids.”
d. “You will have to eat three large meals a day.”

49. While caring for P.’s colostomy, the nurse notices that the stoma is pink and moist. The nurse’s
best action would be:
a. Call the physician immediately
b. Continue watching the stoma for worsening signs
c. Tell P. to report any increasing pain
d. A pink and moist stoma is a normal finding.
Fundamental – Sr. Mary
50. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory, which level need should be met just before self-
esteem needs can be met?
a. Safety c. Physiological
b. Belonging ** d. Self-actualization

51. A physician writes a prescription for a medication that is larger than the standard dose, what should
the nurse do?
a. Inform the supervisor
b. Give the drug as prescribed
c. Give the average dose of the medication
d. Discuss the prescription with the physician **

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52. The nurse is conducting an admission interview with a patient, which outcome identified by the
nurse indicates that therapeutic communication is effective?
a. Verbal and nonverbal communication is congruent
b. Interaction is conducted in a professional manner
c. Common understanding is achieved **
d. Thought are put into words

53. A nurse is providing health teaching for a patient with a comprehensive deficit, which is the best
intervention by the nurse that will support this patient’s learning?
a. Establishing structured environment **
b. Asking that unclear words be repeated
c. Speaking directly in forint of the patient
d. Making a referral for a learning evaluation

54. The nurse is providing care for a patient who underwent mitral valve replacement, the best example
of a measurable patient outcome goal is to
a. Change his own dressing
b. Walk in the hallway
c. Walk from his room to the end of the hall and back before discharge**
d. Eat a special diet

55. After assessing a patient the nurse formulates relevant nursing diagnoses, which of the following is
a complete nursing diagnosis statement?
a. Ineffective airway clearance related to mucus plugs and nonproductive cough **
b. Hyperventilation related to anxiety
c. Tachycardia
d. Shortness of breath related to anxiety

56. A patient who speaks little English has emergency gallbladder surgery, during discharge
preparation which nursing action would best help this patient understand wound care instructions?
a. Asking frequently whether the patient understands the instructions
b. Asking an interpreter to reply the instructions to the patient
c. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the patient
d. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration **

57. The physician orders Ampicillin , 500 mg by month every 6 hours , this medication order is an
example of:
a. Standard order ** c.An as-needed order
b. Single order d.A stat order

58. The physician prescribes 250 mg of a drug, the drug vial reads 500mg/mL, and how much of the
drug should the nurse give?
a. 2mL b. 1mL c. 1/2mL ** d. 1/4mL

59. Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication the nurse on the evening shift
finds an unlabeled filled syringe in the patient’s medication drawer what should the nurse do?
a. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error **
b. Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy
c. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the nurse was prepared to
give
d. Call the day nurse to verify the contents of the syringe

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60. The physician orders dextrose 5% in water , 1000 mL to be infused over 8 hours , the IV tubing
delivers 15 drops/ mL , the nurse should run the IV infusion at a rate of
a. 15 drops/ minute c. 32 drops / minute **
b. 21 drops / minute d. 124 drops / minute

61. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion which action should the nurse take first?
a. Arrange for typing and cross matching of the patient’s blood **
b. Compare the patient’s identification wristband with the tag on the unit of blood
c. Start an IV infusion of normal saline solution
d. Measure the patient’s vital signs

62. To evaluate a patient’s chief complaint the nurse performs deep palpation; the purpose of deep
palpation is to assess which of the following?
a. Skin turgor c. Organs **
b. Hydration d. Temperature

63. For healing by second intention a patient’s wound has been packed with medicated dressing when
evaluating the wound which of the following findings indicated that healing is taking place?
a. The surrounding tissue is red in color
b. The wound drainage is serous
c. The skin around the wound is edematous
d. The granulation tissue is at the wound edges **

64. The nurse is teaching a group of patient-control-infection care attendants about measures , the nurse
tells the group that the first line intervention for preventing the spread of infection is:
a. Wearing gloves
b. Administering antibiotics
c. Washing hands **
d. Assigning private rooms for patients
Ethical& Legal issues- Sr. Mary
65. The nurse says “If you do not let me do this dressing change, I will not let you eat dinner with the
other residents in the dining room”, what legal term is related to this statements?
a. Battery b. Assault ** c. Negligence d. Malpractice

66. A patient had a “Do Not resuscitate” order passed away , after verifying there is no pulse, or
respiration the nurse should next:
a. Have family members say goodbye to the deceased
b. Remove all tubes and equipment, clean the body and position appropriately **
c. Call the transplant team to retrieve vital organs
d. Call the funeral direction to come and get the body

67. A nurse expert is called to testify in a lawsuit regarding professional malpractice primarily to
testify?
a. About standards of nursing care as they apply to the facts in the case **
b. With regard to laws governing the practice of nursing
c. For the protection
d. For the defense

68. There are reasons why nurses advocate on behalf of patients correspond to the principle of ethic ,
the statement of: “The patient should understand the alternative of care proposed correspond to:
a. Freedom ** c. Honesty
b. Fairness d.Value of life
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69. The distribution of nurses to areas of “most need” in the time of a nursing shortage is an example of
a. Autonomy b. Fidelity c. Beneficence d. Justice **

70. When caring for terminally ill patient, it is important for the nurse maintain the patient’s dignity,
this can be facilitated by:
a. Spending time to let patients share their like values, experience **
b. Decreasing emphasis on attending to the patient’s appearance because it only increases their
fatigue
c. Making decisions for patients so they do not have to make them
d. Placing the patient in a private room to provide privacy at all times

71. Obtaining informed consent is the responsibility of:

a. RN manager c. Physician **
b. Nurses d. Pharmacist

72. Human beings should revere life and accept death refers to principles of:
a. Autonomy c. Justice
b. Value of life ** d.Confidentiality

73. The ethical issues which arise between nurses and nurses is to do with:
a. Power c.Lack of respect
b. Authority d.Incidences of assault and abuse **

74. A nurse who is against abortion is assigned in nursing staff , if no conscious clause was included in
the work contract , which of the following actions should nurse take at this time ?
a. Contact the nurse manger of the unit
b. Refuse to accept the assignment
c. Care for the patient in a professional manner **
d. Call ethics committee for assistance
Management –Sr. Mary
75. “Mr. Adam founded school to pursue a student curriculum rather than methods of others, in the
school the children would be free to make mistakes, to learn by their mistakes and to grow in the
process , they would be respected as thinking, feeling human beings and to be treated as human
being”, this statement is an example of:
a. Mission b. Vision ** c.Policy d.Goal

76. You are a head-nurse in ICU department; one of your staff is experiencing burnout, which of the
following is the best thing for you to do?
a. Advise the nurse to go on vocation
b. Ignore her observation , it will be resolved without interventions
c. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help **

77. “The children’s center is to complement the service and education objectives of the university by
providing education, care and maturing for children of the students, staff, faculty and community
members” this statement is an example of:
a. Mission ** b. Vision c. Philosophy d. Goal

78. The main purpose for manger communication is to:

a. Empowering others
b. Stimulate conflict
c. Accomplish the organization goals and objectives **
d. Practice power & authority
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79. The statement: “The Good Shepherded Medical Center aims to provide patient centered care in a
total healing environment”, refers to which of the following:
a. Vision b. Goal ** c.Mission d. Policy
Medical Surgical-Sr. Mary
80. A client seeks care for low back pain of 2 weeks’ duration, which assessment finding suggests a
herniated intervertebral disk?
a. Pain radiating down the posterior thigh **
b. Back pain when the knees are flexed
c. Atrophy of the lower leg muscle
d. Homans’ sign

81. An X-Ray of the left femur shows a fracture that extends through the midshaft of the bone and
multiple splintering fragments, what this type of fracture called?
a. Compression fracture c. Comminuted fracture **
b. Greenstick fracture d.Impacted fracture

82. After a car accident, a client is admitted to an acute care facility with multiple traumatic injuries,
including a fractured pelvis, for 24 to 48 hours after the accident the nurse must monitor the client
closely for which potential complication of a fractured pelvis?
a. Compartment syndrome c. Infection
b. Fat embolism ** d. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture

83. The physician diagnoses primary in a client who has lost osteoporosis bone mass, in this metabolic
disorder, the rate of bone formation slows, primary osteoporosis is most common in:
a. Elderly men c.Young menstruating women
b. Young children d. Elderly postmenopausal women

84. After surgery to treat a hip fracture a client’s returns from the post-anesthesia care unit to the
medical-surgical unit, postoperatively, how should the nurse position the client?
a. With the affected hip flexed acutely
b. With the leg on the affected side abducted **
c. With the leg on the affected side adducted
d. With the affected hip rotated externally

85. A 78-year-old client has a history of osteoarthritis, which signs and symptoms would the nurse
expect to find on physical assessment?
a. Joint pain, crepitus, Heberden’s nodes
b. Hot, inflamed joints, crepitus, joint pain **
c. Tophi, enlarged joints
d. Swelling, joint pain, and tenderness on palpation

86. A client with arterial insufficiency undergoes below-knee amputation of the right leg, which action
should the nurse include in the postoperative plan of care?
a. Elevating the stump for the first 24 hours **
b. Maintaining the client on complete bed rest
c. Applying heat to the stump as the client desires
d. Removing the pressure dressing after the first 8 hours

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87. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy a client exhibits muscle twitching and
hyperirritability of the nervous system, when questioned the client reports numbness and tingling of
the mouth and fingertips, suspecting a life-threatening electrolyte disturbance the nurse notifies the
surgeon immediately, which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
a. Hypocalcaemia ** b.Hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypermagnesemia

88. The nurse is assessing a client with, which observation Cushing’s syndrome should the nurse report
to the physician immediately?
a. Pitting edema of the legs c. Dry mucous membranes
b. An irregular apical muscle ** d. Frequent urination

89. Which of the following would indicate that a client has developed water intoxication secondary to
treatment for diabetes insipidus?
a. Confusion and seizures **
b. Sunken eyeballs and spasticity
c. Flaccidity and thirst
d. Tetany and increased blood urea nitrogen BUN levels

90. The nurse is assessing a client with, what findings should hyperthyroidism the nurse expects?
a. Weight gain , constipation and lethargy
b. Weight loss , nervousness and tachycardia **
c. Exophthalmoses , diarrhea and cold intolerance
d. Diaphoresis , fever and decreased sweating

91. A client who was diagnosed with type 1, 14 years ago is diabetes mellitus, admitted to the medical
surgical unit with abdominal pain, on admission the client’s blood glucose level is 470 mg/dl,
which findings is most likely to accompany this blood glucose level?
a. Cool, moist skin c. Arm and leg trembling
b. Rapid, thread pulse ** d. Slow, shallow respirations

92. A client is scheduled for a transsphenoidalhypophysectomy remove a pituitary tumor,

postoperatively the nurse should assess for potential complication by doing which of the following?
a. Testing for ketones in the urine
b. Testing urine specific gravity
c. Checking temperature every 4 hours
d. Performing capillary glucose testing every 4 hours **

93. During a follow-up visit to the physician a client with hyperparathyroidism asks the nurse to
explain the physiology of the parathyroid glands, the nurse states that these glands produce
parathyroid hormone PTH, PTH maintains the balance between calcium and:
a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Magnesium d. Phosphorus **

94. Following a unilateral adrenal adrenalectomy, the nurse would assess for hyperkalemia shown by
which of the following?
a. Muscle weakness ** c. Diaphoresis
b. Tremors d.Constipation

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Community-Francoise
95. Identifying and monitoring potential and existing workplace exposures, having knowledge of work-
site operations, and performing risk assessments are necessary for the occupational health nurse in
the area of
a. Health promotion and disease prevention
b. Management and administration
c. Research
d. Workforce, workplace, and environmental issues **

96. Improving cardiovascular health, cancer awareness, personal safety, accident prevention, and stress
management are examples of
a. Health promotion c. Secondary prevention
b. Primary prevention ** d. Tertiary prevention

97. Secondary prevention strategies that are often a component of occupational health nursing practice
include
a. Monitoring the work site for health risks and environmental hazards and outlining and
oversight of measures to protect workers
b. Planning and implementing programs (e.g., weight reduction, AIDS awareness, ergonomic
training, and smoking cessation) to improve the health of workers
c. Providing direct care for episodic illnesses and injuries, and referral for a variety of physical
and psychological conditions **
d. Using case management strategies, negotiation of workplace accommodations, and assisting
with the rehabilitation processes when needed

98. Nuha has worked in the pediatric clinic for 10 years and is aware that the best primary prevention
strategy to reduce child abuse and neglect is
a. Counseling parents suspected of abusing their children and teaching them stress reduction
techniques
b. Parenting education to improve parent/child relationships **
c. roviding programs to educate the community on how to spot children who have been abused
and how and where to report them
d. Providing support services such as crisis hotlines and respite care

99. Mortality rates are key epidemiologic indicators to nurses. They reflect serious health problems and
changing patterns of disease. Which of the following is true about mortality rates? Mortality rates:
a. Are informative only for fatal diseases **
b. Provide information about existing disease in the population
c. Are calculated using a population estimate at year-end
d. Reveal the risk of getting a particular disease

100. The number of new cases developing in a population at risk during a specified period is called
what kind of rate?
a. Prevalence b. Incidence ** c. Attack d. Morbidity

101. The interaction between an agent, a host, and the environment is called:
a. Natural history of disease c. Web of causality
b. Risk d. Epidemiologic triangle **

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102. Nosocomial or health-care acquired infections are those acquired during hospitalization or
within a hospital setting. What is the best method for preventing these infections?
a. Good hand washing before and after approaching every patient. **
b. These infections cannot be avoided these days because of the high rates of infection of the
general public.
c. Isolate every patient having surgery.
d. Use contact isolation for every patient at risk.

103. The ability of an agent to enter and multiply in the host is known as:
a. Antigenicity b. Infectivity ** c. Invasiveness d. Virulence

104. Disabled persons are more likely to experience some form of abuse during their lifetime
compared to individuals without disabilities. Which of the following is true about abuse of disabled
persons?
a. Men are abused more often than women.
b. Children are at risk because of the cost of care to the community.
c. Child abuse is less prevalent in the disabled.
d. The most common type of reported abuse is care related. **

 GOOD LUCK 

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