100 sample objective type questions on Hindu Laws for Preliminary examination

1. Seeds of the institution of marriage lie in

(a) man’s quest to know the maternity of children
(b) man’s quest to know the paternity of children
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)
2. The Hindu code was drafted by
(a) Rau Committee and was referred to Select Committee of the Constituent
Assembly in 1948
(b) Rau Committee was not referred to Select Committee of Constituent Assembly
(c) Hindu Code was not drafted by Rau Committee
(d) none of above.
3. Subject of marriage has been meticulously dealt with in
(a) sruti
(b) smritis
(c) customs
(d) all the above.
4. Under Hindu law, marriage is a
(a) sacrament
(b) contract
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
5. Marriage is a sacrament amongst
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims 12.
(c) Christians
(d) both (a) and (c).
6. Law relating to marriages amongst Hindus has been codified under
(a) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 13.
(b) Hindu Adoptions & Maintenance Act, 1956
(c) Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 (Sharda Act)
(d) all the above.
7. Marriage of two Hindus can be solemnised under
(a)Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b)Special Marriage Act, 1954
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b).

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8. Overriding effect to the provision of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 have been
given, by virtue of
(a) section 3 of Hindu Marriage Act
(b) section 4 of Hindu Marriage Act
(c) section 6 of Hindu Marriage Act
(d) section 29 of Hindu Marriage Act.
9. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu includes
(a) Buddhist
(b) Sikh
(c) Jain
(d) all the above.
10. Who amongst the following is not a Hindu within the meaning of section 2 of
Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(a) Christian
(b) Parsi
(c) Jew
(d) all the above.
11. A person shall be Hindu by religion
(a) if both of his parents are Hindus
(b) if one of his parents is a Hindu & has been brought up as a Hindu
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b).
12. A person can become Hindu
(a) by conversion
(b) by re-conversion
(c) by both (a) & (b)
(d) by neither (a) nor (b).
13. Under section 3 of Hindu Marriage Act, a rule can be a ‘custom’ or usage
(a) if it is certain & not unreasonable
(b) if it is not certain but reasonable
(c) if it is neither certain nor reasonable
(d) if it is either certain or reasonable.
14. Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is
(a) purely sacramental
(b) purely contract
(c) having semblance of a sacrament as well as semblance of a contract
(d) either (b) or (c).

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15. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to
(a) Hindus domiciled in India and are living in India
(b) Hindus domiciled in India but who are living outside India
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b).
16. For the application of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 citizenship is a
(a) necessary qualification
(b) imperative qualification
(c) both necessary and imperative qualification
(d) neither a necessary nor an imperative qualification.
17. When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same
wife, they are said to be related to each other
(a) by full blood
(b) by half blood
(c) by uterine blood
(d) either (a) or (b).
18. When two persons are the descendents of a common ancestor but by different
wives, they are said to be related to each other by
(a) half blood
(b) full blood
(c) uterine blood
(d) either (b) or (c).
19. Two persons are said to be related to each other by uterine blood
(a) when they are descended from a common ancestress by the same husband
(b) when they are descended from a common ancestress but by different husbands
(c) when they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife
(d) when they are descended from a common ancestor but by different wives.
20. ‘Spinda relationship’ has been defined under
(a) section 2(b) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) section 2(d) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(c) section 2(f) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(d) section 2(g) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
21. In the ‘Smritis’ the spinda relationship extends, in the line of ascent to
(a) three degrees through the mother & five degrees through the father
(b) five degrees through the mother and seven degrees through the father
(c) four degrees through the mother and six degrees through the father
(d) two degrees through the mother and four degrees through the father.

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22. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, the spinda relationship extends in the line of
ascent, to
(a) two degrees through the mother and three degrees through the father
(b) three degrees through the mother and four degrees through the father
(c) three degrees through the mother and five degrees through the father
(d) five degrees through the mother and seven degrees through the father.
23. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus, who are related to each other
in spinda relationship, under section 11 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, shall be
(a) valid
(b) voidable
(c) void
(d) either valid or voidable.
24. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus who are spindas of each other
shall be valid
(a) if the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the
two
(b) if the custom or usage governing any of them permits a marriage between the
two
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
relationship includes relationship 32.
25. Spinda by
(a) half or uterine blood
(b) full blood
(c) adoption
(d) all the above.
26. Which of the following marriages are valid 33.
(a) a man marrying his deceased wife’s sister
(b) a man marrying his divorced wife’s sister
(c) a man marrying his deceased wife’s sister’s daughter 34.
(d) all the above.
27. Rules relating to spinda relationship are based on
(a) principle of endogamy
(b) principle of exogamy
(c) principle of polygamy
(d) principle of monogamy.
28. Prohibited relationship has been provided under
(a) section 2(d) of Hindu Marriage Act

(b) section 2(e) of Hindu Marriage Act 35.

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(c) section 2(f) of Hindu Marriage Act
(d) section 2(g) of Hindu Marriage Act.
29. Spinda relationship & prohibited relationship
(a) are dependent on each other
(b) are mutually exclusive
(c) many overlap each other
(d) none of the above is correct. 36.
30. A marriage solemnised between two persons who are related to each other
within the degrees of prohibited relationship shall be
(a) void
(b) voidable 37.
(c) valid
(d) invalid.
31. The marriage may be solemnized between two Hindus if
(a) bridegroom completes the age of 21 years and the bride completes 18 years
(b) bridegroom completes age of 18 years and the bride completes 21 years
(c) bridegroom completes age of 21 years and bride completes 21 years
(d) bridegroom completes age of 18 years and the bride completes 18 years.
32. Degrees of prohibited relationship include relationship by
(a) full blood
(b) half or uterine blood
(c) adoption
(d) all the above.
33. Conditions for a Hindu marriage have been prescribed under
(a) section 4 of Hindu Marriage Act
(b) section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act
(c) section 6 of Hindu Marriage Act
(d) section 7 of Hindu Marriage Act.
34. Section 5(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, prescribes the age of the parties, at
the time of marriage. It provides the age
(a) for bridegroom to be eighteen years and the bride to be sixteen years
(b) for the bridegroom and the bride both to be eighteen years
(c) for the bridegroom to be twenty one years and for bride to be eighteen years
(d) for the bridegroom and bride both not less than sixteen years.
35. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus in violation of section 5(iii) of
Hindu Marriage Act as to the requirement of age, shall be

(a) valid
(b) invalid
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(c) voidable
(d) void.
36. Expression “solemnisation of marriage” refers to
(a) condition of a Hindu marriage
(b) rites and ceremonies of marriage
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
37. Section 5(i) of Hindu Marriage Act introduces
(a) monogamy
(b) endogamy
(c) exogamy
(d) all the above.
38. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus, one of whom is having a
spouse living at the time of marriage, under section 11 and section 17 of Hindu
Marriage Act, shall be
(a) valid
(b) void
(c) voidable
(d) invalid.
39. Section 5(ii) of Hindu Marriage Act provides for
(a) age of the parties to the marriage
(b) mental capacity of the parties to the marriage
(c) spinda relationship
(d) prohibited relationship.
40. Section 7 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for
(a) conditions of marriage
(b) capacity to marry
(c) ceremonies of marriage
(d) all the above.
41. A party is regarded as not having the mental capacity to solemnise the
marriage, if suffering from
(a) unsoundness of mind
(b) mental disorder
(c) insanity or epilepsy
(d) all the above.

42. A marriage, solemnised between any two Hindus, one of whom is not having
the mental capacity to marry, shall be
(a) void

6
(b) voidable
(c) invalid
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
43. A Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 must be solemnised in
accordance with the customary rites & ceremonies of
(a) the bride
(b) the bridegroom
(c) both bride and bridegroom
(d) either bride or bridegroom.
44. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(a) does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite for solemnisation of marriage but
leaves it to the parties to choose a form of ceremonial marriage which is in
accordance with any custom or usage applicable to either party
(b) does not prescribe the ceremonies requisite nor leaves it to the parties to
choose
(c) does prescribe the ceremonies and does not leave it to the parties to choose
(d) does prescribe the ceremonies and at the same time leaves it to the parties to
choose.
45. Rites common in all ceremonial marriages include
(a) invocation before a sacred fire
(b) saptapadi
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (b) and not (a).
46. Ceremonies to marriage have been laid down in minute details in
(a) Grhiya sutras
(b) Dharma sutras
(c) Dharma shastras
(d) all the above.
47. Doctrine of ‘factum valet’ enables to cure the violation of
(a) a directory provisions or a mere matter of form
(b) fundamental principles
(c) essence of the transaction
(d) all the above.
48. Doctrine of ‘factum valet’ in the context of ceremonies of marriage cures
(a) non-observance of necessary ceremonies

(b) non-observance of essential ceremonies

(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
49. Bigamy under the Hindu Marriage Act includes
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(a) polygamy
(b) polyandry
(c) both polygamy and polyandry
(d) only (a) & not (b).
50. Bigamy is committed, if the subsisting marriage is
(a) valid
(b) voidable
(c) void
(d) either (a) or (b).
51. Second marriage can be proved
(a) by the mere admissions of the parties
(b) by the essential rites & ceremonies having taken place
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
52. In a case of bigamous marriage, the second wife
(a) has a status of wife
(b) has no status of wife
(c) may have or may not have a status of wife
(d) either (a) or (c).
53. Registration of a Hindu Marriage has been provided under
(a) section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act
(b) section 10 of Hindu Marriage Act
(c) section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act
(d) section 6 of Hindu Marriage Act.
54. Registration of a Hindu Marriage under section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act is
(a) compulsory
(b) optional
(c) may be made compulsory by the State Government
(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.
55. Non-registration of marriage under section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(a) invalidates the marriage and calls for imposition of penalty
(b) does not invalidate the marriage but calls for imposition of penalty

(c) neither invalidates the marriage nor calls for imposition of penalty
(d) makes the marriage voidable.
56. Void marriages have been described under
(a) section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act
(b) section 10 of Hindu Marriage Act
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(c) section 11 of Hindu Marriage Act
(d) section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act.
57. A decree of nullity in case of a void marriage, under section 11 of Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 can be obtained by
(a) man
(b) woman
(c) either by the man or by the woman
(d) only by the woman & not by the man.
58. Propositions are
I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a
competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree
annuling it.
III. A voidable marriage is regarded as a valid subsisting marriage until a decree
annuling it has been passed by a competent court.
In respect of the aforesaid proposition which is correct
(a) I and III are correct and II is incorrect
(b) II & III are correct and I is incorrect
(c) I, II & III all are correct
(d) I & III are incorrect but II is correct.
59. A marriage is voidable under section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 on the
ground of
(a) mental incapacity
(b) physical incapacity
(c) both mental and physical incapacity
(d) only mental incapacity & not physical incapacity.
60. Suppressio veri by a woman, who was pregnant at the time of marriage is a
ground for annulling the marriage as
(a) voidable
(b) void
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
61. On the grounds of barrenness or sterility, marriage can be

(a) voidable
(b) void
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
62. A marriage is voidable in cases of impotence
(a) quoad hunc
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(b) quoad hanc
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) only (a) and not (b).
63. A marriage, wherein consent of a party to solemnisation of marriage is obtained
by force or fraud, is
(a) a void marriage
(b) a voidable marriage
(c) an invalid marriage
(d) all the above.
64. Section 17 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for
(a) punishment for bigamy
(b) punishment for child marriage
(c) punishment for voidable marriage
(d) all the above.
65. A decree of nullity of marriage in cases of voidable marriages, annuls the
marriage
(a) from the date of the decree
(b) from the date of the petition
(c) from the date of marriage
(d) from the date as directed by the court.
66. Section 16 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 confers legitimacy on the children of
(a) a void marriage
(b) a voidable marriage
(c) a valid marriage
(d) both void & voidable marriages.
67. Section 18 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 prescribes punishment
(a) for child marriage
(b) for marriage between spindas
(c) for marriage between persons falling within the degrees of prohibited
relationship
(d) all the above.

68. Punishment prescribed under section 18 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for child
marriage is
(a) imprisonment only
(b) fine only
(c) imprisonment or fine or both
(d) imprisonment and fine both.
69. Period of imprisonment for child marriage under section 18 of Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955 may extend upto
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(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days.
70. Fine prescribed under section 18 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for child marriage
may extend to
(a) Rs. 5000
(b) Rs. 3000
(c) Rs. 1000
(d) unlimited.
71. Punishment prescribed under section 18 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for
procurement of marriage between two spindas is
(a) imprisonment only
(b) fine only
(c) imprisonment or fine or both
(d) imprisonmetn and fine both.
72. Period of imprisonment for procurement of marriage between two spindas,
under section 18 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 may extend to
(a) 15 days
(b) one month
(c) three months
(d) six months.
73. Fine prescribed under section 18 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for procurement
of a marriage between two spindas, may extend to
(a) Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 3,000
(d) Rs. 1,000.
74. A petition under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 can be presented before
(a) District Court

(b) High Court

(c) Supreme Court
(d) District Court and the High Court.
75. To constitute fraud within the meaning of section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act,
1955 the time which is relevant is
(a) when the parties consent to solemnise the marriage
(b) when the marriage is solemnised
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only (b) & not (a).
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76. Children of annulled voidable marriages and of void marriage are
(a) heirs of their parents alone and to none else
(b) heirs of their parent as well as to others in the family of their parents
(c) neither the heirs of their parents nor to any one else
(d) either (b) or (c).
77. A child of void marriage is
(a) entitled to an interest in which his father is a coparcener
(b) not entitled to an interest in which his father is a coparcener
(c) may or may not be entitled to an interest in which his father is a coparcener
(d) entitlement of interest is discretionary to the court.
78. In which of the following cases, the marriage can be annulled
(a) if there is a mistake as to nature of ceremony in the mind of one of the parties to
the marriage
(b) if there is a fraud played as the ceremony of marriage
(c) if there is a mistaken identity of a party to the marriage
(d) all the above.
79. Incapacity to consumate the marriage within the meaning of section 12 of Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955
(a) can be physical
(b) can be mental
(c) either physical or mental
(d) only physical & not mental.
80. Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for
(a) ceremonies of marriage
(b) restitution of conjugal rights
(c) judicial separation
(d) jurisdiction of court.

81. A decree for restitution of conjugal rights enables the aggrieved spouse for
(a) maintenance under section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(b) maintenance pendente lite under section 24 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
82. Restitution of conjugal rights is a remedy having its generis under
(a) Jewish Law
(b) English Law
(c) Indian Law
(d) all the above.
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83. Remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is available to
(a) wife
(b) husband
(c) wife and husband both
(d) only husband & not wife.
84. A decree of restitution of conjugal rights, in India, can be executed by
(a) attachment of the property of the respondent
arrest of the respondent attachment of property and arrest of the respondent both
either attachment of property or by arrest of the respondent.
85. Restitution of conjugal rights can be claimed
(a) when there is a withdrawal from the society of other with an excuse
(b) when there is a withdrawal from the society of other without any reasonable
cause
(c) when there is a withdrawal from the society of other without any absolute cause
(d) both (b) & (c).
86. Withdrawal from the society of other within the meaning of section 9 of Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 means
(a) mere refusal to have sexual intercourse
(b) total repudiation of cohabitation
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
87. A pre-marriage agreement to live separately is
(a) void
(b) voidable
(c) valid
(d) invalid.
88. A post-marriage agreement to live separately in future is

(a) void
(b) voidable
(c) valid
(d) invalid.
89. Which of the following is a defence to the petition for restitution of conjugal
rights by the husband
(a) pre-marriage agreement to live separately
(b) post-marriage agreement to live separately in future
(c) pre-marriage agreement to live in the house of wife’s father
(d) none of the above.
90. Onus to prove a reasonable excuse for withdrawal from society is on the

13
(a) petitioner
(b) respondent
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) either (a) or (b).
91. Which of the following amounts to reasonable excuse
(a) husband’s insistence that the wife must live with his parents
(b) persistent nagging of wife by husband’s parents
(c) domineering and dictatorial conduct
(d) all the above.
92. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under section 10, provides for
(a) separation by agreement
(b) judicial separation
(c) both separation by agreement and judicial separation
(d) either (a) or (b).
93. A decree of judicial separation
(a) dissolves the marriage
(b) does not dissolve the marriage & the marriage subsists
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) only (a) & not (b).
94. Ordinarily judicial separation leads to
(a) reconciliation
(b) divorce
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
95. A decree of judicial separation is a
(a) judgment in rem

(b) judgment in personam

(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) only (b) & not (a).
96. A decree of judicial separation
(a) can be rescinded by the parties of their own
(b) can be rescinded by the court on the application of the either party
(c) can be rescinded by the court on the application of the decree-holder
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).
97. After the passing of a decree for judicial separation, co-habitation is
(a) obligatory
(b) not obligatory
14
(c) directory
(d) either (a) or (c).
98. A petition for judicial separation lies
(a) if the marriage is void
(b) if the marriage is valid
(c) if the marriage is either void or voidable
(d) if the marriage is invalid.
99. During judicial separation the
(a) parties continue to be husband & wife but marital rights and obligations are
suspended
(b) parties continue to be husband & wife and the marital rights & obligation remain
infact
(c) parties continue to be husband & wife and may suspend or may not suspend
the marital rights & obligations
(d) parties cease to be husband & wife.
100. Under section 10 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the grounds for judicial
separation are
(a) the same as the grounds for divorce
(b) different from the grounds for divorce
(c) neither same nor different from the grounds for divorce
(d) all the above.
Top 100 MCQ’s on Constitution of India
≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡≡
1. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice- President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer: Prime Minister

2. The President gives his resignation to the

(a) Chief Justice
(b) Parliament
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Vice President
3. For what period does the Vice President of India hold office ?
(a) 5 years
(b) Till the age of 65 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 2 years
Answer: 5 years
4. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President ?
(a) Governor
(b) Election Commissioner
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister

15
Answer: Governor
5. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of
the President ?
(a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.
(b) They are shown separately in the budget.
(c) They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.
(d) They do not require any parliament sanction.
Answer: They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.
6. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha is
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 14
(d) 12
Answer: 14
7. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing
the President of India ?
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(b) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state.
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Council
(d) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
Answer: Elected members of the Legislative Council
8. The council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in
office till it enjoys the support of the
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament
(b) Majority of the members of the Upper House of Parliament
(c) Minority of members of the Lower House
(d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
Answer: Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
9. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India ?
(a) Chief of the Army
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief of the Air Force
Answer: Speaker of the Lok Sabha
10. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India ?
(a) Lok Sabha

(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Citizens of India
Answer: President
11. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(b) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
(c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(d) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
Answer: Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
12. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is
(a) 23 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 30 years
Answer: 35 years
13. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can
be preferred by
16
(a) Both Houses of Parliament
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: Both Houses of Parliament
14. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed
by the
(a) Lt. Governor
(b) Majority party in Legislature
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Lt. Governor
15. Who was the first Prime Minister of India ?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President
for a maximum period of
(a) 1 years
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 years
Answer; 6 months
17. The Union Council of Ministers consists of
(a) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers
(b) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Ministers
Answer: Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers
18. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters
upon the office ?
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice President

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: Chief Justice
19. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian
Union?
(a) None of the Above
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(d) Secretary to the Government of India
Answer: Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
20. A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by
the President for a maximum period of
(a) 9 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 6 months
Answer: 6 months
21. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister ?
(a) When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
17
(c) In all circumstances
(d) In no circumstances
Answer: When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
22. If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a
Parliamentary form of government this monarch will be called
(a) Head of the State
(b) Head of the Cabinet
(c) Head of the government
(d) Both Head of the government and State
Answer: Head of the State
23. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parishad is
(a) Power of impeachment
(b) Indirect election
(c) Nomination of members
(d) Tenure of membership
Answer: Power of impeachment
24. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) Inter State Council
(d) Finance Commission
Answer: Inter State Council
25. Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of
public money in India ?
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Answer: President
26. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a
Governor ?
(a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He should be a citizen of India.
(d) He must have completed the age of 35 years

Answer: He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.

27. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to
(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.
(b) The recommendations made by the Vice President.
(c) Their role played in political set up of the country.
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.
Answer: Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.
28. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a
Commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and
suggest ameliorative measures?
(a) Art 342
(b) Art 344
(c) Art 340
(d) Art 339
Answer: Art 340
29. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India ?
(a) Either House of Parliament
(b) Any Vidhan Sabha
(c) Only Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
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Answer: Either House of Parliament
30. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime
Minister of India?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Charan Singh
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer: Indira Gandhi
31. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor ?
(a) 35 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
Answer: 35 years
32. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Governor
Answer; Legislative Assembly
33. The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by
the
(a) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime Minister as the Chairman
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force Staff
(d) President
Answer: Ministry of Defence
34. What is the position of a Minister of State in the Central Government ?
(a) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
(b) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
(c) He is the nominee of the State Governor.
(d) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
Answer: He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
35. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters

concerning the Defence Services of India ?

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
Answer: Defence Minister
36. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ?
(a) Once
(b) 3 times
(c) 2 times
(d) Any number of times
Answer; Any number of times
37. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of
India ?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: President
38. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his
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advice is sought ?
(a) If the Council of Ministers so desires.
(b) Yes
(c) No
(d) It is discretionary
Answer: Yes
39. When the Vice President officiates as President he draws the salary of
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Both (A) and ( C )
(c) President
(d) Member of Parliament
Answer: President
40. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet ?
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Deputy Ministers
Answer: Cabinet Ministers
41. Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and
regulations fixing the number of members of the UPSC
(a) Vice- President
(b) President
(c) Home Ministry
(d) Cabinet Secretary
Answer: President
42. Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article
352 ?
(a) Chief Ministers of all states
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer: Cabinet
43. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice
President is available ?

(a) Seniormost Governor of a State

(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Auditor General of India
Answer: Chief Justice of India
44. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 36 must be approved by the
Parliament within
(a) 3 months
(b) 2 months
(c) 1 Month
(d) 6 weeks
Answer: 2 months
45. The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the
(a) President of India according to his discretion
(b) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Parliament
Answer: President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
46. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
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(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Union Cabinet
Answer: Prime Minister
47. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) President
(c) House of the People
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: House of the People
48. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with
(a) President’s power to get information from the Council of Ministers.
(b) Prime Minister’s duty regarding keeping the President informed about the
government’s decisions and policies.
(c) Emergency powers of the President
(d) President’s power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.
Answer: President’s power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.
49. The maximum duration for which the Vice President may officiate as the
President, is
(a) 1 year
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 9 months
Answer: 6 months
50. The President’s Rule in a State can be continued for a maximum period of
(a) 2 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 1/2 years
Answer: 6 months
51. The Chairman and members of State Public Service Commission are appointed
by the
(a) President
(b) Chairman, UPSC
(c) Governor

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: Prime Minister
52. When a State Governor dies or resigns, who normally exercises his functions till
a new Governor is appointed ?
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Advocate General of the State
(c) Secretary General of the Governor
(d) A person designated by State Cabinet
Answer; Chief Justice of the High Court
53. When a financial emergency is proclaimed
(a) Union budget will not be presented
(b) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
(c) Repayment of government debts will stop
(d) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
Answer: Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
54. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC ?
(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister
21
Answer: President
55. Which of the following is correct regarding the Governor of a State ?
(a) All of the above
(b) He can recommend to the President to impose President’s Rule in the State.
(c) No money bill can be introduced in the State Legislature without his prior
permission.
(d) He has the power of issuing ordinances when the legislature is not in session.
Answer: All of the above
56. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice- President
Answer: Vice- President
57. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise is sought ?
(a) Yes, if the Council of Ministers so desires
(b) Yes
(c) No
(d) It is discretionary
Answer: Yes
58. The five year term of the President is calculated from the
(a) First day of the month following the month he assumes charge
(b) Date of his election result
(c) Day he assumes charge
(d) First day of the month he assumes charge
Answer: Day he assumes charge
59. Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Council of States ?
(a) Vice- President
(b) Leader of the opposition
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer: Vice- President
60. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s rule promulgated on

any state in India?

(a) 326
(b) 370
(c) 380
(d) 356
Answer: 356
61. At a time, President’s rule can be imposed on a state for a maximum period of
(a) 1 year
(b) 5 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 4 years
Answer: 1 year
62. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in India is the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Minister of Planning
(d) Finance Minister
Answer: Prime Minister
63. When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate an ordinance
which is to be ratified by the Parliament within
(a) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament
22
(b) 6 months from the reassembly of the Parliament
(c) 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordinance.
(d) 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance.
Answer: 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament
64. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising of
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
(b) Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly
(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
(d) Elected member of State Legislative Assemblies
Answer; Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative
Assembly
65. If the office of the President of India falls vacant, within what time should the
next President be elected ?
(a) Within 2 months
(b) Within 1 year
(c) Within 6 months
(d) Immediately
Answer: Within 6 months
66. The President can proclaim a state of emergency in case of
(a) All of the above
(b) Threat to financial stability of the country.
(c) External aggression or internal disturbances threatening the security of the
country.
(d) Failure of Constitutional machinery in a particular state.
Answer: All of the above
67. In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha
members
(a) Differs according to the geographical size of the respective state.
(b) None of these
(c) Differs according to the number of votes a member represents.
(d) is same
Answer: Differs according to the number of votes a member represents.
68. The Indian President is

(a) None of these

(b) Titular executive
(c) Real executive
(d) Real/Titular executive
Answer; Titular executive
69. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 25 years
Answer: 25 years
70. The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office
by
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State
Legislatures.
(c) Impeachment
(d) A no- confidence vote
Answer: Impeachment
71. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own
discretion ?
(a) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
23
(b) None of the Above
(c) In appointing the Prime Minister
(d) Both of these
Answer: In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
72. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Minister and Council of
Ministers are all members of
(a) National Development Council
(b) Regional Council
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Zonal Council
Answer: National Development Council
73. The President’s Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by
(a) A caretaker government
(b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) The President directly
Answer: The Governor of the State
74. The Chief – Minister of a Union Territory whenever such a set up exists, is
appointed by
(a) The Lt. Governor
(b) The majority party in the legislature
(c) The President
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer: The Lt. Governor
75. Under what article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the
administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down ?
(a) Art 352
(b) Art 343
(c) Art 356
(d) Art 83
Answer: Art 356
76. The President can make laws through ordinances
(a) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list

(b) Under no circumstances

(c) On certain subjects even when Parliament is in session.
(d) During the recess of the Parliament
Answer; During the recess of the Parliament
77. Which of the following qualification is not essential for a person to become the
Vice- President ?
(a) He must be an Indian.
(b) He must be qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) He must not be less than 35 years.
(d) He must be a graduate.
Answer: He must be a graduate.
78. How many types of Emergency have been visualised in the Constitution of India
?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
Answer: Three
79. The impeachment proceedings against the Vice- President can be initiated
(a) Only in Lok Sabha
(b) In neither Hosue of Parliament
(c) In either House of Parliament
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(d) Only in Rajya Sabha
Answer: Only in Rajya Sabha
80. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Chief Minister of the State
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President
Answer: President
81. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: Parliament
82. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once
again passes the Bill in its original form, then the President
(a) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
(b) Gives assent to the bill
(c) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration
(d) Can ask for a referendum on the bill
Answer: Gives assent to the bill
83. If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion, then
(a) Lok Sabha is dissolved
(b) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns.
(c) The whole Council of Ministers resigns
(d) The Minister resigns
Answer: The whole Council of Ministers resigns
84. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto
related to the
(a) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(b) Dowry Prohibition Bill
(c) Hindu Code Bill

(d) PEPSU Appropriation Bill

Answer: Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
85. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature
vests with the
(a) President
(b) Election Commision
(c) Cabinet
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Election Commision
86. What is contained in the tenth schedule of the constitution ?
(a) Languages recognised by constitution
(b) Forms of oath or affirmation
(c) Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of law
(d) Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
Answer: Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
87. The Election commision holds election for
(a) The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-
President
(b) The parliament, State legislative Assemblies and the State Council
(c) The Parliament
(d) The parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the
Vice-President
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88. For Election to the lok sabha, a nomination paper can be field by
(a) Any citizen of India
(b) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency
(c) Anyone residing in India
(d) A resident of the Constituency from which the election to be contested
Answer: Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a
Constituency
89. In India, political parties are given recognition by
(a) Election Commision
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Law Commision
Answer: Election Commission
90. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of
(a) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislative
(b) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: Both Houses of Parliament
91. The election Commision dose not conduct the elections to the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President’s election
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Local Bodies
Answer: Local Bodies
92. The maximum age prescribed for election as president is
(a) No such Limit
(b) 62 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 60 years
Answer: No such Limit

93. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

(a) High Court
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: Election Commission
94. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is
used ?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
(b) Secondary voting system
(c) Proportional representation through list system
(d) Collective Voting system
Answer: System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable
vote
95. In which year were the first general election held in India ?
(a) 1950-51
(b) 1948-49
(c) 1951-52
(d) 1947-48
Answer: 1951-52
96. Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in
India are conducted on the basis of
(a) Single Transferable vote
(b) Propotional Representation
26
(c) Limited sufferage
(d) Adult Franchise
Answer: Adult Franchise
97. Who appoint the Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Answer: President
98. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms ?
(a) Installation of electronic voting machines
(b) Appoinment of election Commissioner
(c) Registration of Political parties
(d) Disquallifying the offenders
Answer: Installation of electronic voting machines
99. Recognition to a political party is accorded by
(a) The Election Commission
(b) A Committee of Whips
(c) The ministry of parliament Affours
(d) The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national Parties and the Speaker
of Legislative assemblies in the case of regional parties
Answer: The Election Commision
100. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential
election if
(a) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(b) He is a caretaker Chief Minister
(c) He himself is a candidate
(d) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the state
Legislature
Answer: He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislatur

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