1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of universal precautions?

2. What percent of isopropyl alcohol is used to clean the surfaces of a laminar air hood?
3. What does Roman numeral “D” on a prescription denote?
4. The selling price minus the purchase price equals which of the following?
5. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “FOR RECTAL USE”?
6. What is the specific gravity of 473 mL of liquid that weighs 297 g?
7. What is the mean of 5, 3, 8, 2, 5, 9, 8, 8, 6?
8. If a child weighs 40 pounds, what is the child’s weight in kilograms?
9. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) generally contains all except which of the following?
10. What type of auxiliary label should be applied to a suspension prescription?
11. Which of the following correctly identifies the percent concentration of a 1:175 (w/w)
ointment?
12. ISO Class 5 must not exceed which of the following number of particles?
13. If you have 25 g of cetirizine, how many 500 mcg cetirizine tablets could you make?
14. The prescription information required to fill an order for a patient includes all except which of
the following?
15. You receive an order asking you to prepare 200 mL of a 1:10 strength solution of drug A. How
much of drug A is required to make this order?
16. You receive an order for 225 mg IVPB q6h of Drug X. The pharmacy only has 75 mg/mL of Drug X
in stock. How many milliliters are needed for one dose of Drug X?
17. Which of the following means "Take two tablets by mouth twice daily for generalized anxiety
disorder"?
18. Which of the following specialized compounded sterile preparations does not have to be sterile?
19. According to USP <797>, how long must a compounding record be maintained for?
20. Convert the number 2,378 to a Roman numeral.
21. If a drug’s dose is 250 mcg/kg of body weight, how many milligrams should a 40-pound child
receive?
22. Which of the following is not a determining factor for medication guides to be issued with
certain medications?
23. Which of the following regarding viable air sampling is inaccurate?
24. If a drug has a 25 mg/mL concentration, how many grams of the drug are in 1/4 L of the
solution?
25. Which of the following means "Take one tablet twice daily with food for hypertension"?
26. What is the mode of 5, 3, 8, 2, 5, 9, 8, 8, 6?
27. You would apply the “For Topical Use” auxiliary label on which of the following dosage forms?
28. Astepro® nasal spray contains 200 sprays per bottle. What is the days’ supply for a prescription
with the instructions to administer two sprays per nostril two times a day?
29. Which dispense as written (DAW) code is used for “other” ?
30. You receive an order for 50 mg PO of Drug X. The pharmacy only has 100 mg/Tbsp of Drug X in
stock. How many milliliters are needed for one dose of Drug X?
31. If you have 0.5 mL of a 1:50 solution, how many micrograms do you have?
32. If the usual dose range of fenoldopam is 1 mcg to 2.5 mcg/kg of body weight, what would be the
dose range for an individual weighing 132 pounds?
33. How many pints are in 10 cups of a liquid suspension?
34. Which dispense as written (DAW) code is used as an “all-purpose” override?
35. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the new risk classification of Category 1 CSP and
Category 2 CSP?
36. If a drug costs $9.99, and it retails for $17.99, what is its markup rate?
37. A concentration expressed using the ratio 1:1 would be equal to which of the following?
38. How many milliliters are in a 4-ounce bottle of acyclovir oral suspension?
39. Which of the following size needle is the largest?
40. Master Formulation Record (MFR) contains all except which of the following?
41. If a patient is to take 2.5 grains of a medication, what is the equivalent amount in milligrams?
42. Which of the following is not an additive for total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
43. If a patient weighs 75 kg, how much does the patient weigh in pounds?
44. Sertraline 25 mg is the generic form of Zoloft® 25 mg. A patient has a prescription for Zoloft® 25
mg, and the prescriber did not indicate that a generic substitution was not allowed. However,
the patient does not want the generic form, so you dispense the brand form. What DAW code
should you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
45. What is the median of 5, 3, 8, 2, 5, 9, 8, 8, 6?
46. When weighing material using lightweight papers or weighing boats, what must you remember
to do?
47. What information is revealed by the group code on a prescription drug card?
48. For a pharmacy to use its computer system for prescription adjudication, what must it have to
route the prescription to the proper insurance company for processing?
49. You receive an order for 40 mg BID of Drug X. The pharmacy only has 4 mg/mL of Drug X in
stock. How many milliliters are needed of Drug X per dose?
50. The prescriber wrote the patient’s prescription for Fosamax® 35 mg, but you dispense its generic
form (alendronate 35 mg) in its place because the prescriber allowed a generic substitution.
Which DAW code should you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
51. Cefdinir 300 mg is the generic form of Omnicef® 300 mg. A patient has a prescription for
Omnicef® 300 mg, and the prescriber did not indicate that a generic substitution was not
allowed; however, the generic form is currently not available on the market. What DAW code
should you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
52. The directions on a prescription for a liquid suspension require the patient to take two
tablespoons of medication each day for ten days. How many milliliters of suspension will need
to be dispensed to fulfill the prescription order?
53. Which piece of community pharmacy automation uses bar codes to read prescription labels to
pull and dispense the appropriate drug from its cassettes?
54. Which of the following situations would not require a prior authorization?
55. If a drug costs $32.50, the pharmacy’s overhead cost is $4.75, and the pharmacy wants to make
a net profit of $12.50, what should be the drug’s selling price?
56. A pharmacy technician will use a pharmacy software system to obtain online prescription claim
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with a rejection code “6,” what should the
pharmacy technician check?
57. All except which of the following is required to be printed on a sterile product prescription
label?
58. What is the name of a glass container that requires its elongated neck to be broken off to
withdraw its liquid content?
59. A tincture is a liquid dosage form generally composed of which of the following?
60. Which of the following is a computerized system that allows physicians to order medications or
labs and also allows physicians to communicate with the pharmacy and other clinical areas?
61. What is the sensitivity requirement for a class A prescription balance?
62. Which of the following situations does not require a prior authorization?
63. How many 50-mg tablets can be made from one pound of a drug?
64. Which of the following correctly identifies the percent concentration of a 1:30 (w/v) solution?
65. How an urgent use is compounded sterile product prepared?
66. A pharmacy technician will use a pharmacy software system to obtain online prescription claim
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with rejection code 11, what should the
pharmacy technician check?
67. How many grams of terbinafine would be needed to compound 5,000 tablets of terbinafine 250
mcg?
68. You are asked to compound 250 mL of acyclovir gel. How much acyclovir powder is needed to
make 250 mL of gel if the recipe is for 100 mL of 5% acyclovir gel?
69. If you were dispensing a suppository, which auxiliary label would you most likely apply to its
package?
70. Which piece of hospital pharmacy automation consists of drawers that hold preset levels of
medications?
71. Which of the following is not a sterilization method?
72. What is the BUD of nonsterile nonaqueous compounded products?
73. In the hospital, if a medication order is marked STAT, how quickly should it be filled?
74. Which of the following pieces of information is not covered in the patient package insert?
75. A pharmacy technician will use a pharmacy software system to obtain online prescription claim
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with a rejection code “7,” what should the
pharmacy technician check?
76. If you were dispensing a patch, which auxiliary label would you most likely apply to its package?
77. What is the incubation period for malt agar?
78. An insurance company uses which of the following pieces of information to pay the pharmacy?
79. Which of the following is not a type of copayment?
80. Information required on a prescription label includes all except which of the following?
81. Which of the following means "Instill three drops into right eye every four hours"?
82. Which of the following means "Inject 5 units subcutaneously every morning"?
83. Losartan 25 mg is the generic form of Cozaar® 25 mg. A patient has a prescription for Cozaar® 25
mg, and the prescriber did not indicate that generic substitution was not allowed; however, the
pharmacist did not want to dispense the generic form, so you dispense the brand form. What
DAW code should you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
84. If you have 20 grams of a substance, how many micrograms do you have?
85. If an adult dose of medication is 120 mg, how much medication should a 3-year-old child
receive?
86. Which of the following is not a difference between category 1 and category 2 compounded
sterile products?
87. If a pharmacist is grinding a powder to produce fine particles, what process are they using?
88. Which of the following is a characteristic of emulsion?
89. High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters are used in laminar airflow hoods to remove which
of the following?
90. If a drug has an AAC of $35.49, a dispensing cost of $5.60, and a retail price of $52.19, what is its
net profit?
91. If a liquid’s specific gravity is 1.5, how many grams are in 150 mL?
92. How often do the scales in the pharmacy need to be inspected by the state department of
taxation?
93. Each manufactured drug is assigned a National Drug Code (NDC). Each NDC number contains 11
digits using the following structure: 12345-1234-12. What does the second set of numbers
represent?
94. Which of the following is the proper sequence in removing PPE?
95. When using a needle to remove the contents of a vial, a technician accidently touches the
needle to the outside of the vial. What should the technician do?
96. Alprazolam 0.25 mg is the generic form of Xanax® 0.25 mg. A patient has a prescription for
Xanax® 0.25 mg, and the prescriber did not indicate that a generic substitution was not allowed.
However, the pharmacy is out of the generic form, so you dispense the brand form. What DAW
code should you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
97. What is the beyond-use-date (BUD) of oral formulations that contain water?
98. Which of the following expresses the prefix "hecto-"?
99. A pharmacy technician will use a pharmacy software system to obtain online prescription claim
approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with a rejection code of 29, what should the
pharmacy technician check?
100. If a drug costs $15.80 and has a dispensing cost of $3.95 and a retail price of $24.50,
what is its markup?
101. Enalapril 2.5 mg is the generic form of Vasotec® 2.5 mg. A patient has a prescription for
Vasotec® 2.5 mg, and the prescriber did not indicate that a generic substitution was not
allowed; however, you want to dispense the brand form as the generic. What DAW code should
you use when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
102. Hospital standards for the transmission prevention of infection or contamination are
based on the principle that all except which of the following are considered to contain infectious
agents?
103. The percent of a 1:20 (weight/volume) solution is which of the following?
104. Which of the following dosage form should have an auxiliary label that reads "For
vaginal use"?
105. When donning personal protective equipment (PPE), or cleanroom garb, what order
should it be donned?
106. When donning personal protective equipment (PPE), or cleanroom garb, what order
should it be donned?
107. Which of the following characteristics may be indicative of a forged prescription?
108. Which of the following information is not required during a transmission of
adjudication?
109. The information found in a drug package insert includes all except which of the
following?
110. You receive an order for 40 mg bid of Drug X. The pharmacy only has 4 mg/mL of Drug X
in stock. How many doses of Drug X can be taken from a 12-oz bottle?
111. Which of the following automatic dispensing is utilized in a hospital pharmacy?
112. If a drug’s dose is 100 mcg, how many doses can be obtained from 0.15 g?
113. It is acceptable to return medications to the drug wholesaler or manufacturer in all
except which of the following situations?
114. The average wholesale price (AWP) is the average price from their wholesaler that
pharmacies may purchase a drug for. The AWP for drugs can be found in which of the following?
115. Which of the following is not an advantage of the solid dosage form?
116. Which of the following is not good practice regarding "return to stock"?
117. When cleaning the laminar hood's bench, where should the starting point be?
118. If you are filling a prescription for a child covered on their mother’s prescription
insurance, which relationship holder code would you use when submitting the claim to the
insurance for reimbursement?
119. If you are filling a prescription for a person whose insurance is under their name, which
relationship holder code would you use when submitting the claim to the insurance for
reimbursement?
120. Which of the following is used with a mortar to crush solids?
121. The three entities responsible for pharmacy billing payment include all except which of
the following?
122. If the infusion set delivers 12 gtt/mL of 600 mL of NS over 6 hours, how many drops per
minute need to be delivered?
123. A patient is instructed to take a dose of 1.5 tbsp of an oral suspension as needed for
cough. How many doses can this patient obtain from one pint?
124. How long must the horizontal laminar work bench be turned on before compounding?
125. What is the minimum air change per hour (ACPH) for the ante area?
126. Which of the following conditions would not interfere with a pharmacy personnel's
ability to prepare compounded sterile products (CSPs)?
127. Which of the following abbreviations is used to indicate that a medication should be
taken at bedtime?
128. The package of a repackaged medication should include all except which of the
following?
129. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “SHAKE WELL”?
130. Which of the following is considered to be a solid dosage form?
131. How many milligrams are in two pounds of medication?
132. Which of the following is a computerized drug cabinet that aids in the control of drugs
stored in nursing stations, emergency departments, and surgical suites?
133. All except which of the following pieces of information is required on a prescription
label?
134. How many grams of Drug X are in 150 mL of 10% Drug X solution?
135. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “FOR THE EYE”?
136. Which of the following implementations is not a practice of universal precautions?
137. Bar coding is used by manufacturers to identify all except which of the following?
138. A Proventil® inhaler contains 200 metered puffs per inhaler. A prescription has the
instructions to take two puffs four times daily.
How many days will this inhaler last?
139. Which of the following is the correct description of disinfectants?
140. Which of the following organizations oversees the rules and regulations of
compounding?
141. Which of the following is not eligible for a credit return on medication in the pharmacy?
142. Which of the following dosage forms is not a type of inhalant?
143. An insurance company uses which of the following pieces of information to determine
the cost of the medication?
144. Which piece of community pharmacy automation is fully automated because it receives
prescription dispensing information from the pharmacy software system, picks the appropriate
drug, counts the appropriate number of pills, packages the pills, and labels the vials?
145. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “FOR VAGINAL USE”?
146. If a prescriber does not want the pharmacy to substitute a generic for a name brand
drug, what DAW code should be used by pharmacy personnel?
147. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “FOR TOPICAL USE”?
148. What is the purpose of coordination of benefits (COB)?
149. What is the characteristic of a hermetic container?
150. Auxiliary labels are placed on prescription medications to help ensure proper and safe
administration, use, or storage. Which dosage form would most likely have an auxiliary label
that reads “FOR THE EAR”?
151. If a patient requests a brand name product to be dispensed, what DAW code should be
used?
152. Which of the following dosage forms is administered by inserting it into a body orifice?
153. Information required on a sterile product prescription label includes all except which of
the following?
154. If a bottle of carvedilol 25 mg has an expiration date of 10/2025, when is the last date
that medication in this bottle is deemed to be safe and effective?
155. How many days will 90 tablets of alprazolam last if the prescription’s instructions are to
take one tablet each morning and one-half tablet each evening?
156. What does NCPDP rejection code of 1 mean?
157. You receive an ordered dose of 2 mg/kg/dose and the patient weighs 175 pounds. How
many grams are needed per dose?
158. If you are filling an order for a patient, their prescription must contain all except which
of the following pieces of information?
159. Who is responsible for obtaining a prior authorization for a specific medication?
160. If a dose of a medication is 3 tablespoons, how many doses can be prepared from a pint
bottle?
161. How many milliliters of Iopidine will be required to fill the patient’s prescription?
162. Which of the following information is used to identify the insurance plan that will be
responsible for reimbursing the pharmacy for a prescription?
163. What does the second segment of the NDC number indicate?
164. When an insurance company requires a prescriber to state why they ordered a
particular drug for a patient before the insurance company will cover the drug, it is known as
which of the following?
165. If a patient is prescribed enoxaparin 30mg/0.3mL, how many milliliters are needed to
obtain a dose of 250 mg?
166. Convert the Roman numeral MDCCLXXVI to a number.
167. A bar code point of entry (BPOE) system prevents errors during which action?
168. What is 20° Celsius in Fahrenheit?
169. You receive an order for a 1-L bag to be given over 12 hours. The tubing delivers 10
gtt/mL. What is the number of drops per minute?
170. What is the specific gravity of a 480-mL volume of liquid that weighs 220 g?
171. How should you dispose of a used needle?
172. A flocculating agent can be used in the preparation process of which of the following
dosage form?
173. Which HEPA filtering system filters exhaust air to a room or to a facility exhaust system?
174. Which of the following statements regarding critical sites is not true?
175. If a laminar airflow hood (LAFH) is in constant use, how often should it be cleaned?
176. Which of the following options represents how many milligrams are contained in one
tablet of Lotensin 1/100 gr?
177. What does a DAW code of 0 indicate?
178. A pharmacy technician will use a pharmacy software system to obtain online
prescription claim approval. If the online prescription claim is rejected with a rejection code of 8,
what should the pharmacy technician check?
179. If a volume of fluid weighs 75 g and has a specific gravity of 0.75, what is its volume?
180. Which of the following statements regarding computerized physician order entry (CPOE)
is inaccurate?
181. When a patient is required to pay a portion of their prescription drug cost, it is known as
which of the following?
182. Which piece of community pharmacy automation that uses laser technology to count
pills as they pass to the bottom of the machine?
183. How many tablets should be given for a 30-day supply if the directions read 1-2 tabs PO
TID?
184. Which of the following statement regarding nonreturnable medications is not true?
185. Simvastatin 40 mg is the generic form of Zocor® 40 mg. A patient has a prescription for
Zocor® 40 mg, and the prescriber did not indicate that a generic substitution was not allowed.
However, the law requires the brand form to be dispensed. What DAW code should you use
when transmitting this claim to the patient’s insurance?
186. All except which of the following is required to be printed on a prescription label?
187. Which of the following is not accurate regarding transdermal products?
188. If a prescriber ordered griseofulvin 500 mg PO qd, what would be the equivalent dose in
micrograms?
189. Who is a technician filling a prescription for if they enter "03" in the relationship field?
190. Which of the following is not a proper way to dispose sharp containers?
191. The direct compounding area that contains the laminar airflow hood is a critical area in
which ISO Class?
192. The percent of a 1:50 (weight/weight) ointment is which of the following?
193. How many fluid ounces are in a gallon of liquid suspension?
194. What should be used to clean the ports on an IV bag?
195. You receive the following order: Add 20 mEq of Drug X to 1 L normal saline. The
pharmacy only stocks 2 mEq/mL of Drug X. How many milliliters should be added to the normal
saline IV?
196. If a drug’s concentration is 10 mg/mL, how many grams of the drug are in 3/4 L of the
solution?
197. You would apply the “Shake Well” auxiliary label on which of the following dosage
forms?
198. If a patient weighs 120 pounds, how many kilograms does the patient weigh?
199. What degrees Fahrenheit is equal to 25 degrees Celsius?
200. If a patient has to pay $250 out of pocket before their prescription coverage starts, what
is the patient paying?
201. Which of the following measurement systems is used as the standard for pharmacy and
medicine?
202. What is the volume of a liquid that weighs 90 g and has a specific gravity of 1.10?
203. If a drug’s solution is 250 mg per 10 mL, how many milliliters would be needed for a
dose of 750 mg?
204. Which of the following pieces of information is not required on a prescription?
205.