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Economics Questions

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6. Which of these statements describes a mixed
1. A production possibility curve shows economy?
A. How much of the resources of society are A. The government and the private sector
used to produce a particular commodity interact in solving the basic economic
B. The rate of inflation problems

c.Co
C. The rate of unemployment in the economy B. The invisible hand solves the basic
D.The various combination of two economic problems
commodities that can be produced. C. The government produces and distributes all
goods and services
2. Which of the following best describes the D. Society answers the question “what”, “why”
concept of opportunity cost? and for “whom” questions only through the

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A. A special bargain or sale at below market market system.
price
AM
B. costs for inputs tend to go up as we use more
of them
aEm
C. Goods that are not produced in order to
produce more of another good.
7. Which of the financial institutions is charged
with the formulation of monetary policies in
Nigeria?
A. The Lagos state stock exchange
D. A cost that constantly decreases. B. The Nigeria deposit insurance corporation
C. The Central Bank of Nigeria
3. Choice in economic life is necessitated by D. The Abuja commodity exchange.
A. The need to construct scale of preference
B. The opportunity cost of consumption 8. The primary function of non-banking financial
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C. Unlimited wants institutions is to

D. Scarcity of economic resources. A. Manage investment portfolios for
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government
4. In economics analysis, a statement is said to be B. Mobilize saving for investment
normalize if it C. Grant loans to banks
A. Relates to value judgment D. Receive deposits from banks.
B. Is contradictory
C. Is incorrect
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9. In drawing an individual's demand curve for a

D. Can be tested scientifically. commodity, which of the following is NOT kept
constant?
5. The degree of specialization is limited by the A. Price for substitutes.
A. Marginal cost exceeding marginal revenue B. Price of complementary goods.
B. Extent of the market
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C. Price of the commodity under.

C. Availability of specialized skills and D. Individual money income.
machinery
D. Disadvantage of standardization. 10. Given that beef and fish are substitutes, a rise in
the price of beef relative to that of fish will
A. Induce greater demand for beef

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B. Induce greater demand for fish financial institutions is their

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C. Induce lower demand for fish A. Functions as a safe and profitable store place
D. Equate demand for beef and fish. for savings
B. Role in financing balance of payments
11. The main function of price mechanism is to deficits
A. Ensure consumer sovereignty C. Status as an intermediary between savers and

c.Co
B. Enable producers make profits borrowers
C. Allocate scarce resources among compelling D. Ability to create and destroy money.
ends
D. Limit consumer demand. 16. Given that Y= C + I and C = bY where b = 0.08,
what is the multiplier?

sS.
1 2. Production in Economics can be defined as the A. 5 B. 10 C. 4 D. 2
A. Totality of producing, buying and
consuming. 1 7. The difference between payments and receipts
AM
aEm
B. Transformation of raw material and services
in order to provide ultimate utility.
for visible trade is called
A. Bilateral trade B. Current balance
C. balance of payment D. balance of trade.
C. Transformation of raw materials and services
in order to make maximum profits. 18. A free trade area emerges when
D. Production of goods and services for A. Traders from one part of the country can
consumption. move freely to other- parts
B. Customs regulations are harmonized among
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1 3. Gresham's law in economics shows that countries

A. Bad money drives good money out of C. A group of countries decide to remove
circulation. restriction on imports from one another
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B. Good money drives bad money out of D. The UNCTAD is in force.

circulation.
C. Gold must be available to maintain the value 20. Population density refers to
of paper money. A. Densely populated urban centre
D. The price level varies directly with the B. The total area divided by the total population
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quantity of money. C. Densely populated rural areas

D. The total population divided by the total area.
1 4. Given that the cash reserve ratio is 10 percent,
what is the maximum amount of money that the 21. An aspect of taxation that involves normative
banking system can create from an initial cash economics is the
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deposit of #1000.00? A. Tax rate B. Effect on incentive to work

A. #100.00 B. #1,000.00 C. #9,000.00 C. Fairness of the tax D. Tax burden
D. #10,000.00
22. A tax that increases at a higher percentage as
1 5. The most important economic characteristic income increases is called
differentiating commercial banks from other A. A proportional tax B. A regressive tax

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C. A progressive tax D. An income tax 29. The main objective of the economic community

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of West African state is to
23. One of the assumptions of ordinary utility in A. Establish a West African development bank
consumer behavior is that B. Create a West African army
A. Consumer are irrational C. Introduce a common currency for the sub
B. Marginal utility rises continuously region

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C. Utility is measureable D. Promote the free movement of persons,
D. Utility can be ranked. goods and services within the sub – region

24. In the normal channel of distribution the 3 0. In international trade, shipping and other freight
breaking of bulk is performed by the charges are treated as

sS.
A. Producer. B. Wholesaler. C. Retailer. A. Invisible items B. Unilateral transfers
D. Consumer. C. Capital transactions
D. Autonomous capital transactions.
25.
AM
One of the most outstanding disadvantage of
aEm
cooperative societies as business organization is
that
31. A situation in which a commodity sold abroad
below its cost of production in the home country
A. True spirit of cooperation is marred by is known as
delegated authority A. Dumping B. Counter trade
B. Members show much interest C. Bilateral trade D. Trade liberalization
C. It is poorly financed
D. Membership interest is centered on sharing of 32. The borrowing rights of a member country of the
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essential commodities. international monetary fund are determined

by
2 6. A disadvantage of joint - stock company is A. The seriousness of the country's economic
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A. Unlimited liability B. Limited liability problem

C. Continuity D. Loss of controlling interest B. Its balance of payment position
C. Its quota to the fund
2 7. A characteristics of a debenture is that D. The size of its gold reserve.
A. Its yield is based on profits
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B. Its yield is a fixed rate of interest 33. An increase in money supply, other things being
C. It has a redemption date equal, will
D. There is a voting when interest is paid A. Lower interest rates
B. Reduce income
28. Which of the following situations can give rise to C. Ensure trade balance
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economic problems? D. Increase money demand.

A. Unlimited human wants
B. Wants of varying importance 34. Two principal ways by which banks can lend
C. Limited means available for satisfying wants money to their customers are through
D. Means used in different ways. A. Loans and overdrafts.
B. Loans and discounting bills.

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C. Overdrafts and cheques. because

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D. Overdraft and treasury bills. A. It uses scientific methods to explain observed
phenomena and predict future events
3 5. An increase in the discount rate is an indication B. It makes the use of field work
of a central bank intension to pursue C. It makes use of controlled experiments
A. An expansionary monetary policy D. Laboratory experiments that are performed.

c.Co
B. A disciplined money policy
C. A dynamic monetary policies 41. Which of the following is an important function
D. A contractionary monetary policy. of prices in a market economy?
A. Ensuring that resources are used in the most
3 6. A firm is in its optimum size when efficient manner

sS.
A. It produces the greatest output at the B. Ensuring an equitable distribution of goods
minimum cost and services
B. It has a motive to increase output C. Ensuring that all industries are perfectly
AM
C. Marginal cost equals marginal revenue
D. Marginal cost is less than marginal revenue.
aEm competitive in the long run
D. Equating level of purchases in the level of
needs.
3 7. A firm achieves least cost in production by
substituting factors until 42. In the history of economic thought, the concept
A. Their factor prices are equal of division of labor is usually associated with
B. Their marginal – physical products are each A. David Ricardo B. JM Keynes
equal to their factor prices C. Adam Smith D. Karl Marx.
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C. Their marginal – physical- product are each

zero 43. In the operation of market forces, the market is in
D. The ratio of their marginal – physical- equilibrium at the point where
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product equals the ratio of their prices. A. Demand and supply curves intersect in more
than one point provided the market is cleared
B. The excess in the market can be convenient
3 8. Which of these is the real cost of satisfying any stored
want in the sense of the alternative that has to be C. Excess demand is negative
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foregone? D. Demand and supply curves incorrect.

A. Variable cost B. Opportunity cost
C. Total cost D. Prime cost. 44. A shift in demand curve for a commodity when
the supply curve is vertical will lead to change in
3 9. Scarcity in economics means that the
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A. Human wants are limitless A. Price only B. Quantity only

B. The economy can scarcely produce anything C. Quality only D. Price and quantity.
C. Resources are limited in relation to want
D. The economy has very few resources. 45. the difference between personal income and
personal disposable income is
4 0. Economics is often described as a science A. personal income tax

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B. investment income

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C. personal savings 52. The tax takes an increasing fractional of income
D. consumption expenditure. as income goes down is called
A. Conditional B. Regressive
46. The Malthusian theory of population growth is C. Progressive D. Proportional.
often said to be

c.Co
A. oversimplified B. ambiguous 5 3. A greater burden of the taxes on essential goods
C. optimistic D. pessimistic.. is borne by the
A. Higher income group.
47. Labor productivity is defined as B. Newly recruited workers.
A. Output per man /hour C. Lower income workers.
B. Average output D. Contract work.

sS.
C. The minimum number of hours worked
D. Total level of output. 5 4. The effect of an increase in the personal income

48.
AM
Efficiency of labor is enhanced by
aEm
A. Involvement in own family affairs
B. War against indiscipline
tax is to
A. Raise the absolute price level
B. Distort the economy
C. reduce unemployment
C. Mechanization processes D. Reduce the disposable income.
D. Improved working condition and training.
55. The most important advantage of cooperative
49. Devaluation helps in checking adverse balance societies is
of payments if the A. Their high degree of democracy
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A. Demand for imports is elastic B. The increase in the cost of marketing

B. Demand for imports is inelastic C. That members are encouraged to save money
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C. Supply of exports is elastic D. The possibility of raising loans for the

D. Demand for exports is inelastic. members.

50. Gains from trade depends on 56. In a public company, shares are
A. Comparative advantage A. Sold to one person only
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B. Absolute advantage B. Distributed freely

C. Distribution cost advantage C. Advertised to members of the public for
D. Absolute cost advantage. subscription
D. Disposed off by the chief executive
51. Favorable terms of trade is important to a
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country because it facilitates 57. Which of the following is a characteristic of the

A. Economic prosperity for importers and private limited liability company?
exporters A. Its shares can be sold to the public
B. Export of hard currency by the government B. The number of share holders ranges from 50
C. Economic prosperity for the country t o 100
D. Absolute cost advantage. C. All share holders have equal powers and

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responsibilities ground for foreign goods
D. The number of shareholders ranges from 2 to B. Discourage exports
50. C. Encourage exports
D. Increase the level of external dependency
5 8. An important function for the retailer is to

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A. Grant credit to the wholesaler 64. If a country has a balance of payment crisis,
B. Break bulk and sell products in small units which of the following measures can best bring
C. Reduce cost of distribution about an improvement in the short run?
D. Generate demand for product through A. Large – scale importation on foreign goods
advertisement B. Investments in capital market abroad

sS.
C. Large – scale export of locally made goods
5 9. The main handicap of sole proprietorship is D. Repayment of debt to her creditors.
A. Limited liability
AM
B. Lack of technical know – how
C. Low profit margin
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D. Inadequate capital
65. The terms of trade of a country is defined as
A. Index of import price/ndex of export price x
100
B. Index of exportation/Index of importation x
6 0. The type of business organization mostly used 1 00
for producing public goods in Nigeria is C. Index of visible imports/Index of visible
A. Sole proprietorships exports x 100
B. Limited liability companies D. Index of export prices/ Index of import
C. Cooperative societies prices x 100
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C. Statutory corporations
66. One of the gains by member states of the
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6 1. The types of business finance that entitles the Economic community of West African states
holder to fixed rate of dividend is is
A. Preferred stock B. Common stock A. Monoculture dependency
C. Debenture D. Bank loan B. Trade creation
C. Trade inversion
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6 2. A debenture share entitles its holder to D. Economic independency

A. Participate in the annual general meeting of
the company 67. Deflation is a persistent fall in the general price
B. Share in the dividend declared level and is usually caused by
C. Receive a fixed interest on sums invested A. A reduction in total demand.
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D. Have a representative on the board of B. An increase in government spending.

directors. C. An increase in the money supply.
D. An increase in aggregate demand.
6 3. Tariffs on imports are meant to
A. Prevent a country from becoming a dumping 68 Price can be defined as

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A. A rate of exchange authority that perform this function in the latter
B. A medium of exchange C. Taxes are levied in a capitalist economy, there
C. The cost of a product is no taxation in a socialist economy
D. The standard of accounting. D. Income and wealth are equally distributed in
the socialist economy, this is not so in a

c.Co
69. Money market differs from capital market in capitalist economy.
that it
A. Uses interest rate while capital market does 7 3. If at #50 per kg. 1000kg of yam were purchased
not and at #30 per kg, 1500kg were purchased, the
B. Is limited in scope while capital market is not resultant point elasticity of demand is

sS.
C. Deals with money only while capital market A. 2 B. 1.25 C. 0.00125 D. 1000
deals with capital as well
C. Deals with short – term loan while capital
AM 74. If as the price of a commodity rises, the quantity
market deals with long – term funds demanded of the commodity remains the same,
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then the demand for the commodity is
70. The ultimate objective of economics is to A. Infinitely elastic B. static
A. Make the best use of scarce resources C. perfectly inelastic
B. Decide under what circumstances in the D. Externally determined
economy
C. Organize production at the lowest cost 75. Economic development may be defined as
D. Make effort to understand how the economy economic growth
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works A. In a given country

B. Over a long period
71. What to produce in any society is determined by C. and improved health facilities
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the D. and improved distribution of wealth.

A. Competition among different producer
B. Competition among different consumers 76. If the price of ball point pen falls from #20 to #15
C. Supply and demand in the factor market and the quantity demanded increases from 200
D. Expenditure of the people on different to 300 the point elasticity of demand is equal to
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commodities A. 2 B. 1.25 C. 0.5 D. 4

72. One of the fundamental differences between a 77. If the equilibrium price of a certain commodity
capitalist and a socialist economy is that while is less than unity, then
A. The former is characterized by complete A. An increase in the price of the commodity
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government ownership of resources, the latter will raise the total revenue of the producer
is characterized by complete private ownership B. An increase in price leaves the total revenue
B. in the former, price s act as signals in the unchanged
allocation of resources, it is the central C. A decrease in price raises the total revenue of

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the supplier 82. To control inflation, the monetary authorities of
D. A decrease in price leaves the total revenue a country can
constant A. Reduce taxes
B. advice government to increase its expenditure
Use the table below to answer questions C. engage in expansive monetary policy

c.Co
D. engage in restrictive monetary policy

Variable Factors Total Product Marginal Product Average Product 83. Which of the following is used by the central
bank to control the rate of interest?
1 1 1 1 A. Bill of exchange

sS.
2 6 5 3 B. Banker's order
3 24 18 8 C. Fixed deposit account
4

6
5
AM
aEm 48
Z
93
X
25
20
12
14.6
Y 84.
D. Open market operation

The organization which provide credits to help

countries achieve short – term balance in their
balance of payment is the
78. The marginal product X is A. Economic Community of West African state
A. 18 B. 20 C. 24 D. 25 B. International Monetary Fund
C. International Bank for Reconstruction and
79. The average product Y is Development
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A. 8.0 B. 12.0 C. 14.6 D. 15.5 D. African Development Bank

80. Frictional Unemployment 85. An increasing population might be of economic

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A. Is total unemployment minus structural benefit to a country if

B. Occurs when the unemployed are persons A. the female population is greater than the male
with specific training population
C. Occurs when the number of job seekers B. the dependency ratio is increasing as the a
exceeds the number of vacancies continuously total population
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D. Occurs when people are changing jobs. C. a continuously higher proportion falls into
the working class category
81. The Nigerian Bank for commerce and industry D. the rural and urban proportions are balanced
is
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A. A commercial bank 86. The demands made on each other by the

B. A development bank ag r i cul t ur al an d i ndu st r i al sect o r s as t he
C. An industrial bank economy grows are reflected in
D. A merchant bank A. Backward and forward linkages
B. horizontal and vertical linkages

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C. vertical linkages A. Company may not pay its debt
D. functional linkage B. debts of the company can only be paid from
its own assets
8 7. A corporation can obtain funds by issuing C. debts of the company are paid from both
bonds. A bond is a form of debt which falls due for business and private funds of the owners

c.Co
repayment after D. debts of the company must be paid from
A. 6 months B. 9 months public funds only
C. 2 years D. 10 or more years.
9 3. One form of business organization which is not
8 8. The age distribution of a population is NOT motivated solely by the profit objective is the

sS.
influenced by A. Joint stock company
A. Birth rates B. Death rates B. private limited company
C. School leaving age C. co – operative society

8 9.
AM
D. patterns of immigration'
aEm
The tax that takes an increasing fractional of 9 4.
D. ordinary partnership

Import duties will increase total expenditure on

income as income goes down is called imports if the demand for imports is
A. Conditional B. regressive A. Elastic B. Inelastic
C. progressive D. proportional C. Derived D. Infinitely elastic

90 The average tax is defined as 95. The difference between gross national product
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A. Total tax rate less the marginal tax rate and net national product is equal to
B. The tax rate which applies to additional value A. Gross investment B. Net investment
of income C. Net foreign income
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C. The ratio of the total taxes paid to total D. Capital depreciation

income
D. Marginal tax rate for being progressive 96. The value of the total output produced within
Nigeria by all residents (citizens and non -
9 1. Unlike the retailer, the wholesaler provides citizens) is referred to as the
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A. Useful information to the manufacturer about A. Gross national product

consumers B. Disposable income
B. after sales service to the consumer C. national income
C. Useful information to the customers on the D. Gross domestic product
benefits and uses of the product
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D. Useful information about market trends and 97. International and inter-region trade differ
finance to the manufacturer primarily because
A. Comparative advantage is relevant to the
9 2. Liquidation of a limited liability company former but not the latter
implies that the B. products flow across national boundaries

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C. there are different resources supplies among C. provide credit facilities
countries of the world D. accept deposits
D. of regulation from GATT.
104. If the cost of production for a firm continues to
9 8. Banks aid economic expansion and increase as its output rises ,the firm is said to be

c.Co
development by experiencing
A. Being very strict in lending policies A. Large scale production
B. Mobilizing savings for investment lending B. profit maximization
C. Paying interest on deposit accounts C. Economies of scale
D. Charging high interest on loans D. Diseconomies of scale.

sS.
9 9. The purchasing power of the naira will fall 1 05 One of the fundamental differences between a
when capitalist and a socialist economy is that while
AM
aEmA. The naira is devalued
B. There is inflation
C. Workers are retrenched
A. the former is characterized by complete
government ownership of resources, the latter
is characterized by complete private ownership
D. Government cuts all salaries and wages. B. in the former, prices act as signals in the
allocation of resources, it is the central
1 0 0. Monetization refers to the ratio of authority that performs this function in the
A. Total transactions to monetary transactions latter
B. Monetary assets to total assets C. Taxes are levied in a capitalist economy,
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C. Monetary transactions to total transactions there is not taxation in a socialist economy

D. Money in circulation to total income D. Income and wealth are equally distributed in
the socialist economy, this is not so in a
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1 0 1. The best way to reduce the supply of money in capitalist economy

the economy is to
A. Increase the liquidity ratio 1 0 6. The shape of a production possibility frontier is
B. Liberalize access to credit determined by the
C. Decrease treasury bills A. returns to scale
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D. Increase the number of bank notes and B. increasing relative cost

cheques produced. C. increasing returns to a variable factor
D. diminishing return to a fixed factor
1 02 The relationship between the value of money
and the price level is 107. Normative economics deals with
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A. direct B. unpredictable C. diverse A. Facts and not figures

D. inverse B. what is and not what shall should be
1 0 3. Non-bank financial intermediaries do not C. value judgment
A. Sell shares D. facts and figures
B. accept demand deposits

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1 0 8. In a free market economy, the price system 114. Cross elasticity of demand can be

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allocates resources mathematically expressed as the
A. under government's directives A. percentage change in quantity of commodity
B. to their best alternative uses X over Percentage change in quantity of
C. to ensure general welfare commodity Y
D. to reduce poverty B. percentage change in quantity demanded over

c.Co
1 0 9. In a centrally planned economy, the economic Percentage change in price
problem of deciding what to produce is C. percentage change in quantity demanded of
dependent on commodity X over Percentage change in price
A. Average cost B. state command of commodity Y
C. average profit D. relative prices' D. percentage change in quantity demanded

sS.
over
110. A demand which is positively related to price is Percentage change in income
true of
AM
aEm A. capital goods
C. given goods
B. normal goods
D. ostentations goods 115. Situation in which all inputs are doubled and
output also doubles is known as
Use the table below to answer A. Constant proportion
Price in # Quantity Supplied Quantity Demanded B. Constant returns
10 50 450 C. increasing returns to scale
20 150 350 D. Constant returns to scale
30 250 250
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40 350 150 116. At any given level of output, the total cost of a
50 450 50 firm equals the
111. What is the equilibrium quantity? A. Marginal cost plus the average cost
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A. 50 B. 250 C. 350 D. 450 B. Fixed costs plus its variable cost

C. Average cost multiplied by its output
112. Above the equilibrium point, a further rise in D. Economic costs multiplied by variable costs.
price tends to
A. Increase demand and restrict supply 117. At any given level of output, a firm's total
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B. Restrict demand and restrict supply variable cost equals

C. Increase demand and decrease supply A. Total cost less marginal cost
D. Decrease demand and increase supply B. Total cost less average cost
C. Total cost less fixed cost
113. A firm faces diminishing returns when its D. Average and marginal variable cost.
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A. Total output diminishes

B. Average output diminishes 118. The main reason for charging interest is to
C. Marginal output diminishes A. Reward entrepreneurial effort
D. Marginal revenue diminishes. B. Redistributes profits
C. Reward investors for present use of capital

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D. Mobilize more funds for development 124. Which of the following is a direct tax?

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A. Excise tax B. corporate income tax
119. In the Keynesian model, C. Highway D. Property tax
A. the demand for money is inversely related to
the rate of interest 125. The three major groups of government revenue
B. investment is directly related to the rate of are

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interest A. Investments income, direct tax and export
C. investment is not related to the rate of interest B. Import duties, excise tax and export duties
D. the demand for money is directly related to C. Company tax, personal income tax and
the rate in interest import duties
D. Company tax, import duties and excise tax

sS.
1 2 0. If inflation is anticipated to continue,
A. People will lose confidence in goods 126. A tax on a commodity whose supply is perfectly
B. lenders will demand higher interest rates inelastic is
AM
C. the growth of full-employment output will be
aEm
accelerated
D. people will want to hold more money
A. Shifted completely on the consumer
B. Completely borne by the supplier
C. Divide in the ratio 60 : 40 between the
consumer and the supplier
1 2 1. Restriction on credit creation by commercial D. Divided half- and – half between the producer
Banks can be effected through and the consumer
A. an overdraft B. loans and advances
C. demand deposits D. liquidity ratio 127. Under partnership, investors who have no
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desires to be actively involved in the day-to-day

1 2 2. Counter trading is an international arrangement management of such organizations, are called
whereby A. Stockbrokers B. sleeping partners
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A. goods and services are exchanged in a manner C. part-time investors D. Ordinary partners
similar to barter
B. goods and services are sold on the counter 128. T h e c o o p er a t i v e s a s a f o r m o f b u s i n e s s
C. crude oil is sold to foreign country organization differs from partnership by having
D. goods are shipped to countries on which the A. Several sources of capital for business
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united nations has placed a trade embargo financing

B. Ability to issue preferred stocks to members
1 2 3. In recent years, Nigeria's balance of payments C. Entrenched democratic control in the conduct
has continued to register a deficit due to (i) of business
increased government overseas' spending (ii) D. Established rules and regulations governing
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increasing prices of exports (iii) rising import the activities of its members
prices (iv) more payment to overseas' investors
A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV 129. Stocking small quantities of a variety of goods is
C. I, II and IV D. II, III and IV a function of the
A. Manufacturer B. wholesaler

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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OmM
C. retailer D. consumer country should specialize in the production of a
commodity
1 3 0. In a joint stock company, preference shareholder A. For which local demand is greatest
are those who receive B. in which its opportunity cost is lower than that
A. high dividends when profits are high little or of the trade partner

c.Co
nothing when profits are low C. for which foreign demand is greatest
B. a fixed rate of dividend and have the first D. for which there is abundant supply of raw
claim on the net profits of the company materials
C. the remaining profits after all other
shareholders have been paid 136. By using exchange controls, a country tries to
D. dividends quarterly when others receive eliminate a balance of payments deficit by

sS.
annually A. limited her imports to its currency value of
exports
1 3 1. AM
O n e o f t h e m a j o r a dv a nt ag e s o f pu b l i c
enterprises it that
aEm
A. They are highly subsidized
B. they are the largest employers of labor
B. reducing the nations domestic price level
C. limiting her exports to its currency value of
exports
D. overvaluing the country's currency.
C. their operations are highly standardized
D. they take prompt decisions and actions ITEM AMOUNT IN MILLION NAIRA
Visible exports 5554
1 3 2. A major effect of a long distribution chain is Visible imports 5332
A. High retail prices Invisible exports 3056
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B. Scarcity of commodities Invisible imports 2870

C. low retail prices Balance 408
D. low producer earnings
sStT

137. The amount N408 million shown as balance in

133. The major function of the wholesaler to his the table above represents
customers is A. Terms of payments
A. Breaking of bulk B. balance on current account
B. offering personal services C. balance on trade
sStT

C. stocking a variety of goods D. terms of trade.

D. providing trans-port facility
138. The need to construct a scale of preference is
134. The distribution channel that contributes most to necessitated by
the cost of production is A. Scarcity of resources
TteE

A. producer-wholesaler-consumer B. non¬-availability of factors of production

B. producer-retailer-consumer C. scarcity and the need for choice
C. producer-retailer-wholesaler-consumer D. the need to satisfy wants.
D. producer-wholesaler-retailer-consumer
1 3 5. The law of comparative advantage states that a 139. A shift in the production possibility frontier

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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OmM
could result from A. Positive B. negative C. Zero
A. A need to satisfy want D. Infinite
B. Scarcity and need for choice
C. Scarcity of resources 145. An increase in supply will lower price on less

c.Co
D. Non-availability of factors of production. A. Supply is perfectly elastic
B. Demand is perfectly elastic
C. It is followed by an increase in demand
1 4 0. The primary problem of economics is D. Demand is highly inelastic
A. To obtain a more equitable distribution of
money income 1 4 6. Air is essential to life but commands no price!

sS.
B. Production of a given output with the lowest Diamond is not essential to life but commands a
cost combination of factors of production high price! This is the paradox of
AM
C. Adoption of capital-intensive technology
D. Increasing the quantity of the fixed factors of
aEm
production 1 4 7.
A. Shift B. Value C. Abundance D. Scarcity

Average fixed cost is

A. Average total cost less the sum of average
1 4 1. If one orange cost #20 and one kilogram of bear variable cost
cost #400, the opportunity cost of one kilogram B. Half the cost of all cost
of bear is C. Total fixed cost divided by the level of output
A. #350 B. 400 oranges C. 20 oranges D. Total fixed cost plus marginal cost
D. 4 oranges
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148. The form of capital which is usually consumed

1 4 2. In economics life, choice among alternative or transformed into finished goods and services
depends on the in the production process is called
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A. Income of the decision maker A. Fixed capital B. Industrial capital

B. scarcity of resources C. Social capital D. Circulating capital
C. scale of preference of the decision maker
D. Status of the decision maker 149. The average production of labor in given period
is obtained by dividing the
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1 4 3. Given an original price of #400 per kilogram of A. Number of workers by the total product
rice and a change in price of #20, and given the B. Total product by the numbers of hours
quality purchased at the old price as 10kg and a actually worked
change in quantity as 5kg after the price changed C. Change in total product by the change in total
the elasticity is equal to numbers of workers
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A. 5 B. 10.8 C. 10 D. 0.80 D. Total product by the numbers of workers

1 4 4. For normal goods the income elasticity of 150. Which of the following best describes the
demand is product function?

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OmM
A. It indicates the best output to produce A. Save guard strategic industries
B. It relates Naira input to Naira output B. Promote foreign trade
C. It relates physical to physical input C. Protect infant industries
D. It indicates the best way to combine factors to D. Improve standard of living

c.Co
produce any given output
156. Export –promotion policy is primarily concern
151. Which of the following factors enhance the with the
ability of commercial banks to create money A. Processing of raw materials to increase their
A. Reduction in the reserve ratio value
B. Leakage of cash out of the banking system B. Making of international route save for export

sS.
C. Excess reserves commodities
D. insistence on collateral security C. Production in the number of imported items

1 5 2.
AM
In any economy, what is use as money is
aEm
determined by
A. Government acceptance of a commodity 157.
D. Encouragement of the production of export
commodities

Which of the following classes of goods account

standard for the largest proportion of Nigerians' import?
B. Government acceptance of an inconvertible A. Food and animal product
paper standard B. Consumer goods
C. Laws and customs C. Chemical
D. It's use as a store of value D. Machinery and transport equipments
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1 5 3. The rate of which money changes hands is 158. If birth rate is constant and death is declines,
known as the population
sStT

A. Rate of inflation A. Falls B. Expands C. Stabilizes

B. Velocity of transaction C. Oscillate
C. Velocity of money
D. velocity of circulation 1 5 9. The higher the dependency ratio, the
A. Larger the proportion of the employed
sStT

1 5 4. Merchant banks perform all the following relative to the unemployed

functions EXCEPT B. Smaller the proportion of the active labor
A. Raising of capital for industry force relative to the inactive
B. Provision of current account facility C. Smaller the number of non-working age
C. Management of investment portfolios groups relative to the active labor force
TteE

D. Provision of credit for overseas trade D. Lower the birth rate

1 5 5. The most acceptable economics measure for

trade protection is to 160. The age distribution of a countries population is

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of economics importance because it affects the D. there is no limit to the number of people who

OmM
A. Pattern of expenditures may bring in capital
B. Size of the army
C. Optimum size of firms 165. The liability of a sole trade is
D. Location of industries A. Indeterminable B. unlimited
C. transferable D. limited

c.Co
1 6 1. Which of the following is NOT a goal of modern
budget? 166. Which of the following is NOT a type of
A. The control of inflation business ownership?
B. the reduction in income inequality A. Debenture holding
C. The shift of all resources from the private to B. private company

sS.
the public sector C. Partnership
D. Economic development D. joint stock venture

162.
AM
The best technical description of a progressive
aEm
task is a
A. Tasks which take money from the rich from
167. A limited liability company is usually owned by
A. An individual
C. shareholders
B. a government
D. Two or more partners
the poor
B. more equitable task than a regressive one 1 6 8. A public liability company is different from
C. tasks which takes higher proportion of extra private limited company because it
Naira received as income raises A. is registered with the registrar of companies
D. tasks which falls directly on those in the high B. is a legal entity
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income bracket C. can raise capital of any size by way of loans

D. can sell shares in the stock exchange
163. The ultimate objective of economics is to
sStT

A. Make the best use of scarce resources 1 6 9. A modern corporation is owned by

B. decide under what circumstances in the A. Debenture holders
economy B. ordinary shareholders
C. Organize production at the lowest cost C. preference shareholders
D. Make effort to understand how the economic D. creditors
sStT

works
170. A major short coming of a sole proprietorship
164. One of the advantages of partnership over a sole form of business is lack of
proprietorship is that A. Working capital B. patronage
A. Is the most popular form of business C. continuity D. market
TteE

organization
B. The partner can easily withdraw from the 1 7 1. In the event of liquidation of a private limited
business liability company, the shareholders liability is
C. it makes an increase in the capital of the limited to their total
business possible A. Income from all sources

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B. family assets A. is unable to deal with the central bank

OmM
C. Collateral offers for bank loans B. has a low capital base
D. Investment in the company C. has low level of deposits
D. experience serious liquidity crisis
1 7 2. Under a system of freely exchange rate, an
increase in an international value of a countries 178. One method through which the central bank can

c.Co
currency will cause restrict the commercial banks' power of credit
A. Its export to rise expansion is to
B. its import to rise A. Demand for increase special deposits
C. gold to flow into that country B. decrease the cash ratio
D. its currency to be in surplus C. buy securities in the open market

sS.
D. reduce the rate of interests at which banks
1 7 3. Balance of trade is the difference between borrow from it.
A. Export and import of goods and services
AM
B. capital inflows and capital outflows 179. The most important attribute of money is
aEm
C. Visible and invisible balances A. Homogeneity B. relative scarcity
D. Exports and imports of goods C. divisibility D. general acceptability

1 7 4. Which of the following is likely to reduce a 180. In a market economy, the question of what, how
surplus in the balance of payment of a country? and for whom to produce are solved by the
A. Devaluation A. Planning committee B. Government
B. Export promotion C. price mechanism
reR

C. Increase tariff on imports D. elected representative of the people

D. currency appreciation 181. Economic goods are termed scarce goods when
they are
sStT

1 7 5. Which of the following is a tariff? A. Not available in sufficient quantities to

A. Limit on the amount of good which can be satisfy all wants for them
imported B. Not produced in sufficient quantities to
B. interest rate on foreign loans satisfy the effective demand for them
C. Government payment to domestic producers C. of high quality
sStT

for exports D. of primary importance in satisfying the needs

D. tax on imported goods of a society

1 7 6. The best method to curb inflation in Nigeria is to 182. Macroeconomics is the study economic science
A. reduce importation of commodities from the point of view of
TteE

B. Increase the general level of production A. Resource markets or production units

C. reduce the volume of money supply B. Individual producers of consumers
D. set up price control boards C. aggregate or general economy
D. companies or individual firms.
1 7 7. A bank is said to be distressed when it

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183. The demand and supply equations for a A. all plant and machinery
commodity are given respectively as A. all assets where quantity cannot be varied in
the short-run

OmM
D = 20 – ½P, S = 8 - ¼P
Recalling that at equilibrium D = S, the C. all assets on which the firm has control
equilibrium price (p) and quantity (Q) can D. property owned by the firm
be obtained as
A. P = 12; Q = 16 B. P = 14; Q = 10 189. The output on which total revenue equals total
cost is known as

c.Co
C. P = 12; Q = 14 D. P = 16; Q = 12
A. profit-maximizing output
184. A commodity is said to have a derived demand B. Break-even level output
when the commodity C. loss-minimizing output
A. and another have joint demand D. least-cost output
B. is demanded because of what it can help to

sS.
produce . Use the following production and cost data of a
C. is demanded for different purposes profit-maximizing firm to answer

185.
AM
D. has inelastic demand
aEm
Which of the following changes in equilibrium
in equilibrium price and quantity is as a result
Unit of
total input
0
Total output
0
TFC
1 00
TVC
0
of an upward shift in the market demand for a 1 3 1 00 100
commodity? 2 8 1 00 124
A. Both the price and quantity rise 3 16 100 172
B. The price falls and the quantity rises 4 20 100 1 90
C. The price rises and the quantity falls 5 22 100 200
reR

D. Both the price and the quantity fell

186. Which of the following Best describes the 190. Calculate the marginal physical product of the
sStT

production function? last unit of input

A. it indicates the best production output to A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 10
produce
B. it relates naira inputs to naira outputs 191. At what level of input have diminishing
C. it relates physical outputs to physical inputs marginal returns set in?
sStT

D. it indicates the best way to combine factors A. 3 B. 16 C. 20 D. 22

to produce any given output
192. The total money in circulation includes cash
187. The Law of diminishing returns begins to A. owned by banks, the government and the
operate when non-bank public
TteE

A. total product begins to rise B. and current account balance owned by the
B. total product begins to fall non- bank public
C. marginal product begins to fall C. and current account balance owned by banks
D. marginal product begins to rise and the non-bank public
D. owned by banks and non-bank public
188. Total fixed cost measures the cost of

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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193. To reduce the high rate of inflation in the D. the government's budget for its schools
economy, Government should
199. In order to raise more revenue for a certain

OmM
A. increase taxes and have a budget surplus
B. increase taxes and have a budget deficit period, government should impose higher
C. decrease taxes and have budget deficit taxes on goods whose demand is
D. decrease taxes and have a balanced budget A. Elastic B. Inelastic
C. perfectly elastic D. Unitary elastic

c.Co
194. The money market is a financial market that
specializes in the provision of 200. A company is said to be highly geared if the
A. Short-term loans and advances A. value of fixed interest loans is high
B. medium-term loans compared with share capital
C. long-term loans B. value of share capital is high compared with
D. venture capital for development project the fixed interest loans

sS.
C. dividend rate is high
195. Foreign exchange rate in a free market D. interest rate is high
economy AM is determined by
A. the government
aEm B. the central bank
C. demand and supply D. commercial banks
201. Which of the following is the major function of
the wholesaler?
A. bulk breaking
196. The primary objective of all international B. provision of useful information to the
economic organizations is to manufacturer on products
A. ensure that third world countries get a better C. provision of after sales service to consumer
share of the world's resources D. provision of warehousing facility
B. promote international economic
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cooperation for the mutual benefit of all 202. In the distribution channels for goods and
members services, the middleman's mark-up margin
C. enforce structural adjustment programmes provides a rough measure for the
sStT

on less developed countries A. Quantity discount allowed final consumers

D. encourage exports from the developed to the B. Reward for business entrepreneurship
less developed countries C. Effectiveness of government control over
economy's marketing channels
197. One of the techniques for rectifying a deficit D. Extent of exploitation of the final consumer
sStT

balance of payment is
A. Import promotion B. devaluation 203. The type of business finance that entitles the
C. physical intervention holder to a fixed rate of dividend is
D. borrowing from abroad A. preferred stock B. common stock
C. Debenture D. Bank loan
TteE

198. The money which government spends yearly

for the maintenance of its schools is 204. Which of the business organizations listed
A. used only for wages and salaries below is characterized by limited authority and
B. part of the government's capital expenditure liability of the individual owners?
C. p art o f the go ve rnme nt' s rec urr en t A. Sole proprietorship
expenditure B. Partnership

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C. Joint-stock company item on balance of payments account?

D. co-operative society A. shipping an aviation B. exports and
imports

OmM
C. merchandise D. bullion
2 05 When public enterprises becomes
commercialized it means that 211. Deficit financing is mostly facilitated by the
A. the product of the enterprises are further existence of
A. stock exchange market B. commercial

c.Co
subsidized
B. they are expected to operate with the bank
primary aim of making profit C. central bank D. capital market
C. the government has decided to divest itself
of such enterprises 2 1 2. Which of the following programme in the
D. the staff of the enterprises will be laid off monetary sector is aimed at enhancing the

sS.
banking habit of the rural area?
2 0 6. The best channel of distribution of baked bread A. the deregulation of the banking system
AM
is through
A. Wholesalers to retailer then to consumer
aEm
B. direct sales to the consumer
C. Wholesalers to consumer
B. the increase in the number of merchant bank
C. the community banking scheme
D. the deregulation of interest rate

D. retailer to consumer 213. Inflation in the Nigeria economy may be fueled

by increase in
2 0 7. Which of the following situation can give rise A. the dollar price of crude oil
to conomic problems? B. the sale company share
A. unlimited human wants C. government expenditure
reR

B. wants of varying importance D. sale of government bond

C. limited means available for satisfying wants 2 1 4. Monetary policy aimed at reducing demand
D. means used in different ways pull inflation in the country may be carried out
sStT

through
208. The shares that must be redeemed first at A .increase in taxation of private companies,
liquidation of a company are public corporation and private individuals
A. Preference shares B. increase in cash reserve ratio of commercial
B. non-voting ordinary shares banks and the sales of government securities
sStT

C. ordinary shares C. decrease in government expenditure on

D. debentures education
D. direct price control in the market place
2 0 9. When a nation is experiencing balance of
payments surplus it is in a better position to 215. A form of business organization which is
TteE

A. increase its foreign exchange reserves characterized by limited authority and liability
B. increase its liabilities to foreigners of the individual owners is the
C. reduce its foreign exchange reserves A. Sole proprietorship B. Partnership
D. devalue its national currency C. Joint-stock company
D. co-operative society
2 1 0. Which of these is a good example of invisible

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216. Scale of preference refers to 218. The middle men in the chain of distribution are
A. consumers preference for luxurious goods A. Wholesalers and retailers
B. Manufacturers and consumers

OmM
B. the household monthly income
C. list of goods and services in order of priority C. Consumers and wholesalers
D. budget preparation without paying due D. Retailers and Consumers
regard to priority
219. One factor which influences the slope of a non-

c.Co
217. For an economy which last year produced only linear demand curve for a commodity is the
two commodities X and Y, the real cost of the A. price of the commodity
quantity of X which it produced can be B. quantity of the commodity demanded
measured by the C. availability of substitutes
A. amount of X It could not produce D. availability of complements
B. amount of Y it produced

sS.
C. total amount of Y it could have produced
D. extra amount of Y it could have produced
AM
aEm
reR
sStT
sStT
TteE

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Economics Answers

OmM
1.D 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.A 11.B 12.B 13.A

14.D 15.D 16.A 17.D 18.B 20.D 21.C 22.C 23.D 24.B 25.C 26.D

27.B 28.C 29.D 30.A 31.A 32.C 33.D 34.A 35.D 36.A 37.B 38.B 39.C

c.Co
40.C 41.A 42.C 43.A 44.B 45.A 46.D 47.A 48.D 49.D 50.B 51.C 52.B

53.C 54.D 55.A 56.C 57.D 58.B 59.D 60.D 61.A 62.C 63.A 64.B 65.D

66.C 67.A 68.A 69.D 70.A 71.C 72.B 73.B 74.C 75.D 76.A 77.B 78.C

sS.
79.D 80.B 81.B 82.D 83.B 84.B 85.C 86.A 87.D 88.C 89.B 90.C 91.D

92.B
AM
93.C
aEm
94.B 95.D 96.D 97.B 98.B 99.B 100.D 101.A 102.D 103.D 104.D

105.B 106.B 107.C 108.B 109.B 110.D 111.B 112.C 113.C 114.D 115.C 116.B 117.C

118.A 119.B 120.D 121.A 122.B 123.B 124.C 125.C 126.B 127.A 128.A 129.D 130.B

131.B 132.B 133.C 134.D 135.B 136.C 137.C 138.C 139.A 140.B 141.B 142.C 143.D
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144.D 145.C 146.A 147.A 148.D 149.B 150.C 151.D 152.D 153.B 154.B 155.A 156.C

157.C 158.A 159.C 160.B 161.A 162.C 163.B 164.A 165.C 166.D 167.B 168.C 169.D
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170.B 171.D 172.D 173.D 174.A 175.D 176.C 177.A 178.D 179.C 180.A 181.C 182.D

183.B 184.B 185.C 186. C 187.B 188.B 189.B 190.B 191.C 192.A 193.A 194.C 195.B
sStT

196.B 197.B 198.C 199.B 200.A 201.A 202.D 203A 294.C 205.B 206.D 207.C 208.A

209.A 210.A 211. C 212.C 213.C 214.A 215.C 216.C 217.C 218.A 219.C
TteE

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English Language questions

OPTION I

Om M
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
Our planet is at risk. Our environment is under threat. The air we breathe, the water we
drink, the seas we fish in, the soils we farm, the forest, animals and plants which surround us are
in danger. More and more gases and rubbish escape from our factories. Rubbish, oil spillage and

c.Co
detergents damage our rivers and seas. The loss of forests results in soil erosion and also
endangers wildlife.
The richer countries of the world are mainly responsible for industrial pollution. This is
where most of the commercial energy is consumed. In developing countries, poverty causes
people to overgraze grasslands and to cut down trees for timber building, furniture and fuel.
They are also destroyed to provide land on which to graze animals and build new villages and

sS.
towns.
But trees are needed to protect the land from heavy down pour of rain and their roots help
AM
hold the soil together. In our forests, there may be plants and animals which could help in the
discovery of new medicines or crops.
aEm
To rescue and conserve our beautiful world, we must act cooperatively. Individuals,
communities, nations and international associations, all have a responsibility. By learning to
protect the natural environment, we can manage the earth’s resources for generations to come.

1. The risk referred to in the passage is

A. sociologically produced
B. environmentally induced
reR

C. industrially produced
D . man-made.
sStT

2. According to the passage, the size of the forest depleted annually is

A. minimal
B. colossal
C. infinitesimal
sStT

D. infinite.

3. The writer holds the advanced nations responsible for industrial pollution
because of their
A. technological innovations
TteE

B. energy requirements
C. industrial revolution
D. environmental production.

4. The writer’s message is that

A. developed countries need to assist the poorer ones.
B. global warming will increase
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 T H E F E D E R A L U N IV E R S IT Y
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C. researchers should produce medicines from forests

D.. the natural environment needs to be protected.

5. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold

M
word/phrase The presence of the principal makes the students ill at ease.

Om
A. easily ill
B impatient

c.Co
C uncomfortable
D sickly.
6. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. In spite of the harsh realities at home, Tutu treats her studies with

sS.
considerable levity.
A. lassitude
AM
aEm
A. wastefulness
C. seriousness
D. enthusiasm

7. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized

word/phrase.. I find open-ended questions more challenging in tests.
reR

A. easy
B. multiple-choice
C. essay-type
sStT

D. gap-completion

8. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized

word/phrase. Ojo’s knowing smile infuriated his sister
sStT

A. confused
B. surprised
C. annoyed
TteE

D. pleased

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9. Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the others?
A. fife
B . of f

Om M
C. laugh
D. of
10. Which of these words has a vowel pronounced differently from the others?

c.Co
A. steak
B. break
C leak

sS.
D. strange

OPTION II
AM
aEm
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
Delinquency describes actions that would not be crimes if performed by adults. If a young
person performs one of such actions then he or she has committed a crime. Delinquency is one of
several status offences – offences that can be committed only by people in particular stations of
life as determined by age, profession or a person’s role in society. For young people such
offences include drinking, driving and smoking under age. Usually they are offences only to the
reR

extent that they help preserve some of the good things of life for the exclusive enjoyment of the
adult world. Delinquency is therefore a weapon forged in adult minds and directed by adult
hands against young people. It is born out of envy, adult pride and intolerance. If the world
sStT

changed overnight and the responsibility to make and enforce laws fell on juvenile shoulders, the
adults should expect a raw deal in return. Delinquency would then certainly refer only to many
of the adult actions now freely committed by them.
11 The writer of the passage believes that delinquency laws are
sStT

A. only fit for young people

B. not relevant to human society
C unfair to the juveniles
TteE

D. very fair to the adult world.

12 In the view of the writer drinking under age is an offence because
A. adults do not want the juveniles to get drunk

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B. adults have a duty to protect young persons

C adults want to have all the drinks to themselves
D. drunken juveniles can cause disorder in the society.

Om M
13 Status offences are
A. very fair to the adult world.
B. not relevant to human society

c.Co
C. unfair to the young people
D. only fit for young people.

sS.
14. If the world changed overnight
A delinquency would no longer be a crime
AM
C. delinquency would also change in meaning
aEm
C. there would be no more delinquency
D. delinquency would refer to all adult actions.

15. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
reR

word/phrase People could not understand why a man of means should live a Spartan life.
A. foreign
sStT

B. frugal
C. extravagant
D. flamboyant
sStT

16 choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized word/phrase.
My boss is an exacting taskmaster.
TteE

A. hardworking
B. easygoing
C demanding

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D. cooperative

17 Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. The explosive growth in world population is partly due to improved

Om M
healthcare.
A. gradual
B. sudden

c.Co
C. combustible
D. dangerous

sS.
18. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase.I would have enjoyed the novel but for its convoluted theme.
AM
A. simple
aEm
B. complex
C. immoral
D. D. boring
reR

19. Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the others?
A. chef
sStT

B. shoe
C. chief
sStT

D. ocean

20. Which of these words has a vowel pronounced differently from the others?
TteE

A. key
B. quay
C steak
D. greed

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OPTION III
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.

Om M
Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct use of the language, the medium of
expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal variant of the language, that
is, accepted and recognized words, expressions and structures peculiar to a smaller group of
language users who are generally set apart from standard usage by cultural group or geographical
region. For example, Nigerian, American, Irish and British English differ from one another in

c.Co
many respects and each is identifiable, yet in every case the standard (formal) variety approaches
a single and hypothetical classification known as International English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the difference
between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable from British English, it
is also true that British English is not uniform within the United Kingdom. The level of formality

sS.
is determined by education and aspiration, while dialects vary from region to region.
21. One characteristic of a dialect as mentioned in the passage is its
AM
A. possession of variants
aEm
B. informality
C. distinction from British English
D. restricted area of usage
reR

22. According to the author, Nigerian and American English are

sStT

A. standard varieties
B. registers
C. different languages
sStT

D. different styles

23. The author considers International English

TteE

A. an arbitrary classification
B. an informal standard
C an imaginary classification
D. a recognized formal standard

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24. The observance of strict rules is a feature of

A. variety

Om M
B. unconventionality
C formality
D. languages.

c.Co
25 Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. He was under pressure to retract his statement before the panel.
A. reiterate

sS.
B. withdraw
AM
C. assert
aEm
D. repeat

26. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized bold
word/phrase His family wishes he would stop his nefarious activities
reR

A. nocturnal
B. respectable
sStT

C. promiscuous
D. degenerate
sStT

27. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase.. The nouveau riche tend to be niggardly in their ways.
A. Stingy
TteE

B. miserly
C generous
D. beggarly

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28. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized word/phrase.
Mrs Ojodu may be well-heeled but her dressing is often tasteless.
A. vulgar
B. garish

Om M
C sophisticated
D. salty

c.Co
29 Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the others?
A. tight
B. Thames

sS.
C though
AM
D. team
aEm
30. Which of these words has a vowel pronounced differently from the others?
A. gloom
B. glum
reR

C. glue
D. glume
sStT

OPTION IV
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
sStT

Erosion in nature is a beneficent process without which the world would have died long ago. The
same process, accelerated by human mismanagement, has become one of the most vicious and
destructive forces that have ever been released by man. ‘Geological erosion’ or ‘denudation’ is
an early and important process in soil formation, whereby the original rock material is
TteE

continuously broken down and sorted by wind and water until it becomes suitable for
colonization by plants. Plants, by the binding effects of their roots, by the protection they afford
against rain and wind and by the fertility they impart to the soil, bring denudation almost to a
standstill. Nevertheless, some slight denudation is always occurring. As each superficial film of
plant-covered soil becomes exhausted it is removed by rain or wind, to be deposited mainly in
the rivers and sea, and a corresponding thin layer of soil forms by slow weathering of the

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underlying rock. The depth is sometimes only a few inches, occasionally several feet deep, but
within it lies the whole capacity of the earth to produce life. Below that thin layer comprising the
delicate organism known as soil is a planet as lifeless as the moon.
31 . ‘Geological erosion’ means the same as

Om M
A. soil erosion
B. natural erosion
C. erosion by man

c.Co
D. all of the above

32. Denudation
A. is an important process in soil formation

sS.
B. destroys the surface of the earth
C. results from man’s reduction of soil fertility
AM
D. will bring national extinction
aEm
33. One important function of plants is to:
reR

A. denude the soil

B. bind and fertilize the soil
sStT

C. erode the soil to smoothness

D. look pretty
sStT

34. The layer of soil is generally

A. between a few inches and a few feet deep.
B. miles deep
TteE

C. never more than a few inches deep

D. as lifeless as the moon.

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35. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. Practising law is not as lucrative as people think.
A. know
B. understand

Om M
C assume
D. consider

c.Co
36 Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. The family puts up a brave face but their financial situation is precarious
A. buoyant

sS.
B. precious

AM
C. unjustifiable
aEm
D. insecure

37. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. As is usually the case when Tanus got involved, the discussion became
animated.
A. unruly
B. specialized
reR

C. lively
D. boring
sStT

38. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. Gender-sensitivity is part of the new political correctness.
A. inclusiveness
sStT

B. naiveté
C insensitivity
D. ideology
TteE

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39. Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the

others?
A. world

Om M
B. whore
C. hoar
D. whole

c.Co
40. Which of these words has a vowel pronounced differently from the others?
A. beast

sS.
B. heft
C. breast
AM
A. wealth
aEm
OPTION V
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
When, in the course of human events, it becomes necessary for one people to dissolve the bands
reR

that have connected them with another, and to assume, among the powers of the earth, the
separate and equal station to which the laws of nature and nature’s God entitle them, a decent
respect to the opinions of humanity requires that they declare the causes which impel them to the
sStT

separation.
We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all human beings are created equal, that they are
endowed by their creator with certain inalienable rights; that among these are life, liberty, and
the pursuit of happiness. We affirm also that to secure these rights, governments are instituted
sStT

among men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed. Whenever any form of
government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the right of the people to alter or abolish it,
and to institute a new government, laying its foundations on such principles, and organising its
power in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to secure their safety and happiness.
TteE

Adapted from The Declaration of Independence

41. Why does the writer find it necessary to state the reasons that the colonies have for
breaking away from their colonial masters ?
A. because they have had a long relationship with the colonial power

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B. because they were obedient to God’s laws

C in order to show that they respect world opinion
D. because they have been a colony for a long time.

Om M
42. When, according to the author, can people excusably put an end to any form of
government?

c.Co
A. when that government rigs elections
B. when the literate citizens no longer respect the government
C. when the government has stayed too long in power
D. when the government stops protecting the rights of the people

sS.
43.
AM
By saying that some truths are ‘self-evident’, the writer means that
aEm
A. can be defended
those assertions

B. cannot be disputed
C. need evidence
D. none of the above
reR

44. The right of a nation to self- governance derives ultimately from

sStT

A. the strength of that nation

B. a respect for the opinions of human beings
C the laws of God
sStT

D. the laws of nature

45. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. The little village became more enchanting at dusk.
TteE

A. bewitched
B accommodating
C attractive

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D. fascinating

46. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. More students are relying on virtual resources for study and entertainment.

M
A. fundamental

Om
B. righteous
C. automated
D. computer-generated

c.Co
47. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase.. I wonder why her brother is indifferent to her financial situation.
A. Interested in
B. troubled by

sS.
C. discouraged by
D. filled with

48.
AM
aEm
Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. I would have enjoyed the novel but for its convoluted theme.
A. simple
B. B.complex
C. C immoral
reR

D. boring
sStT

49. Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the

others?
sStT

A. hiccough
B. poppy
C. cup
TteE

D. tough

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50. Which of these words has a vowel pronounced differently from the others?
A. height
B. high

Om M
C. heist
D. eight

c.Co
OPTION VI
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
We knew early in life that the atmosphere in our home was different from that in many other
homes where husbands and wives quarrel and where there was drunkenness, laziness or

sS.
indifference – things we never saw in our family. We also knew that our father was an
uncommon man. Whenever my mother was away, my father could and did do all the household
AM
jobs. We lived in this way in a community in which housework was regarded as being beneath
male dignity. In our family, however, boys did girls’ work and my father did it with us.
aEm
We had to get water at the public tap nearly a kilometre away from our house and make the trek
back with water tins balanced on our heads. All the children in the neighbourhood knew we did
women’s work, and I can still hear their derisive laughter. We did our jobs doggedly because our
parents expected it of us. Out of choice, our father did everything we did, including fetching
water on occasion, and commanded us by sheer force of his example.
reR

51. By describing his father as an uncommon man, the writer means that he is
A. aristocratic
sStT

B. lazy
C remarkable
D. amenable
sStT

52. Which of the following was likely to be true of the writer’s family when he was young?
A. his mother was lazy
TteE

B. his father was a drunk

C the family was happy
D. the sons were ruffians

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53. Which of the following describes the father’s role in the family?
A.. serving the wife

Om M
B. being too hard on the children
C leading by example
D. usurping the wife’s role

c.Co
54. Now that the writer is grown up, he
A. thinks that he had a miserable childhood.

sS.
B. thinks that his father was a bully
C is grateful for his upbringing
AM
D. sad about his upbringing
aEm
55. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. He was under pressure to retract his statement before the panel
A. reiterate
reR

B. withdraw
C. assert
sStT

D. repeat

56. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
sStT

word/phrase. He was told to forget the niceties and go straight to his main point
A. specifics
B. politeness
TteE

C. greetings
D. nice things

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57. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. Our visit to the village was nothing to write home about.
A. not interesting
B. not a home affair

Om M
C quite pleasant
D. nobody’s business

c.Co
58. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. Ojo’s knowing smile infuriated his sister
A. confused

sS.
B. surprised

AM
C. annoyed
aEm
D.C pleased

59. Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the
others?
reR

A. dung
B. dog
sStT

C. dagger
D. agog
sStT

60. Which of these words has a consonant pronounced differently from the others?
A. tough
B. Thames
TteE

C though
D. team

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OPTION VII
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
Creoles, according to the most general account, arise when a pidgin language becomes

Om M
the native language of a new generation of children. One way this can come about is when a man
and woman who speak different languages marry, both know a pidgin, and neither learns the
other’s language. The pidgin then becomes the shared home language and becomes the mother
tongue of the children. A setting in which this has happened occurred during the bleakest days of
slavery in the Western hemisphere, when efforts were made to separate African slaves with the

c.Co
same native language in order to forestall insurrections. Only pidgin languages were available as
common languages and they became the basis for the mother tongue of new generations.
Once a pidgin language becomes a mother tongue, it must support all the interactive
needs of its speakers, since they have no other language to fall back on. A creole becomes

sS.
simpler (in the sense of more regular) and expands its grammatical machinery, as well as
stabilizing and expanding its lexicon. If a creole is in touch with its lexifier language, it may
‘decreolize’ and develop varieties increasingly like the lexifier language. If the less decreolized
AM
varieties fall out of use, the decreolized remnants of the old creole may be seen simply as
aEm
substandard dialects of the lexifier language. As we will see, this has been proposed as the origin
for the US Vernacular Black English.
61 . Creoles may be defined as:
(A) a pidgin spoken by West African slaves,
(B) a pidgin that has acquired native speakers,
reR

(C) a native language of a new generation of children,

(D) the mother tongue of children born in an inter-ethnic marriage.
sStT

62. African slaves who spoke the same language were separated ...
sStT

(A) in order to make them forget their first languages,

(B) so that there would be no rebellion,
(C) so that they would learn their master’s language,
TteE

(D) to make their days bleaker.

63 The following are characteristics of a creole language except...

(A) an expanded vocabulary,

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(B) varieties similar to the lexifier language,

(C) young native speakers,
(D) a more regular grammatical system.

Om M
64. Vernacular Black English is ...
(A) a pidgin,

(B) a creole,

c.Co
(C) a decreolized variety,

(D) a less decreolized variety.

sS.
65. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized word/phrase.
AM
He is a prolific writer as well as a human rights activist.
aEm
A. well-known
B. productive
C. promising
D. promiscuous
reR

66. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized word/phrase.
sStT

Her meddlesome husband ruined her business relationships.

A. uncaring
B. detached
sStT

C prying
D. intimidating
TteE

67 Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase.T he government is making concerted efforts at improving the standard of
living in the rural areas.
A. dissipated

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B. unconcerned
C. uncontrolled
D. unsuccessful

Om M
68. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase. The politician’s passionate appeal doused the tension

c.Co
A. heightened
B. smothered
C. lifted
D. drowned

sS.
AM
69. Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the
aEm
others?
A. dodge
B. doge
C dogged
reR

D. drudge
sStT

70. Which of these words has a vowel pronounced differently from the others?
A. stead
B. stealth
sStT

C steam
D. bread
TteE

OPTION VIII
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.

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Underlying any relationship between Haiti and Africa is the fact that the population of that
country originated from Africa to a far greater extent than on other Caribbean Islands; 90% of
the Haitians are full-blooded Negroes, the rest mulattoes. The total eradication of the white
element was the consequence of a particular political and economic situation of the island Saint-
Domingue, which was the name of Haiti under French colonization. Other than on the other

M
Caribbean islands where the early arrival of European settlers resulted in a development of a

Om
white indigenous population, Saint-Domingue remained untouched until 1697, when the peace
treaty of Riswyck ended the dispute between France and Spain over the ownership of this island.
At that time it had already been proved that the production of sugar was the most profitable
industry in this area particularly if the estates were large enough and labour costs could be kept

c.Co
low by extensive use of slave labour, which was brought over from Africa. So the new settlers of
Saint-Domingue belonged to two groups greatly contrasted in social condition and number. On
the one side, there was a small group of French noblemen, owners of immense sugar estates
maintaining in Saint-Domingue the privileges which they had lost in France under Louis XIV, on
the other side there were the African slaves living in miserable conditions but conscious that they
outnumbered their masters by hundreds of thousands. These contradictions within the society led

sS.
to the outbreak of the slave revolt in 1792, which differed from other revolts in that area in that it
was successful, and in 1804 after many ups and downs the victorious slaves of Saint-Domingue
AM
proclaimed a new state, named Haiti. Most of the white landlords had fled the island during the
hostilities and the few remaining ones were killed after independence.
aEm
71. The population of Haiti
A. is made up predominantly of mulattoes
B. originated from Spain and France
C originated predominantly from Africa
reR

D. came from other Caribbean Islands

sStT

72. Haiti did not develop a white indigenous population as early as other Caribbean Islands
because
A. it was less suited for sugar cultivation
sStT

B. there was a controversy over the ownership of the island

C. the indigenous Negro population was very hostile
TteE

D. the island was not discovered early enough

73. The French settlers preferred to live in Saint-Domingue because

A. Louis XIV allowed them their usual privileges there

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B. the African slaves there lived in miserable conditions

C. they could enjoy the rights they had lost in France
D. they were not patriotic

Om M
74. The clause, ‘which differed from other revolts in that area in that it was successful,’ suggests
that

c.Co
A. there were many successful slave revolts
B. slave revolts were not unusual then in the Caribbean
C. the islands of the Caribbean are ruled by rebel slaves
D. the slaves in Saint-Domingue differed with slaves on other islands

sS.
AM
75. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or
aEm
bold word/phrase.
A. The young groom is quite an astute businessman.
A. acute
B. shrewd
reR

C. honest
D. considerate
sStT

76. Choose the most appropriate option nearest in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase.
sStT

The family puts up a brave face but their financial situation is precarious.
A. buoyant
B. precious
C. unjustifiable
TteE

D. insecure

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77. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized of bold
word/phrase.
The volume contains the complete works of Shakespeare.
A. reprinted

Om M
B. abridged
C. edited
D. selected

c.Co
78. Choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the italicized or bold
word/phrase .I find open-ended questions more challenging in tests.
A. easy
B. multiple-choice
C. essay-type

sS.
D. gap-completion

79.
AM
aEm
A. chalet
Which of the following highlighted consonants is pronounced differently from the others?

B. champion
C. chagrin
D. chaise
reR

80. Which of these words has a vowel pronounced differently from the others?
sStT

A. steak
B. break
sStT

C. leak
D. strange
TteE

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English language Answers

Om M
1 D 21 D 41 C 61 B 11 C 31 B 51 D 71 C

c.Co
2 B 22 A 42 D 62 B 12 C 32 A 52 C 72 B

3 B 23 C 43 B 63 B 13 C 33 B 53 C 73 C

4 D 24 C 44 C 64 C 14 B 34 A 54 C 74 C

sS.
5 C 25 B 45 D 65 B 15 B 35 C 55 B 75 B

6 C

7 B
AM
aEm 26 D

27 C
46 D

47 A
66 C

67 A
16 C

17 A
36 D

37 D
56 A

57 C
76 D

77 D

8 C 28 C 48 A 68 A 18 B 38 C 58 D 78 B

9 D 29 C 49 D 69 C 19 C 39 A 59 A 79 B

10 C 30 D 50 D 70 C 20 C 40 A 60 C 80 C
reR
sStT
sStT
TteE

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General Paper Questions

1. What is the largest inland lake in South America?

M
oOm
A. Ontario
B. Honshu
C. Titicaca
D. Amazon

.c.C
2. What is heartsease?
A. A flower
B. A star
C. A stone
D. A snail MsS
aEm
3. Expression for to warm and gratify one's deepest feelings. "To warm ..."
A
A. … the cockles of one’s heart
B. … the arteries of blood flow
C. … the apple of one’s eye
D. … the joy of heart’s desire
reR

4. What percentage of all the marriages in the world are arranged:

sStT

A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 60%
D. 90%
sStT

5. The French Tennis Open is played at which venue?

A. Rod Claver
TteE

B. Marseille
C. Nice
D. Roland Garros

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6. In which city is a Midsummer Nights Dream set?

A. Lyon
B. London

M
oOm
C. Athens
D. Venice

7. Which Greek king turned all he touched into gold?

A. George IV

.c.C
B. Napoleon
C. Midas
D. Cesar

MsS
8. What name is given to a triangular or fanlike river?
A. Peninsular
aEm
B. Delta
A
C. Estuary
D. Coral reef

9. In which country did fireworks originate?

reR

A. England
B. Canada
sStT

C. USA
D. China

10. When did the Bronze Age begin?

sStT

A. 1900 AD
B. 200AD
C. 4500 BC
D. 2000 BC
TteE

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11. What is the chemical symbol for silver?

A. Ag
B. Sn

M
oOm
C. Pb
D. Hg

12. What name is given to the fruit of an oak tree ?

A. Blackberry

.c.C
B. Plum
C. Acorn
D. Strawberry

MsS
13. What name is given to the vertical bar of a window ?
A. Eave
aEm
B. Sill
A
C. Mullion
D. Facia

14. What is the name of the controversial novel that was written by Salmon Rushdie ?
reR

A. The Angel of Doom

B. The Satanic Verses
sStT

C. On the Heels of Heavenly Virgins

D. The Lost Verses

15. How many kilograms are there in ten tonnes ?

sStT

A. 10000
B. 1100
C. 20000
D. 14
TteE

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16. Does ‘annus mirabilis’ mean:

A. a pain in the bum
B. a wonderful year

M
oOm
C. a horrible year
D. a leaking anus

17. In which city does the White Nile meet the Blue Nile?
A. Juba

.c.C
B. Alexandria
C. Khartoum
D. Cairo

MsS
18. What is the collective name for a litter of Piglets?
A. A farrow
aEm
B. A pen
A
C. A piggy
D. A sty

19. What measure is used for sound or noise?

reR

A. Cacophony
B. Din
sStT

C. Decibels
D. Chaos

20. How many teeth should a normal healthy adult have?

sStT

A. 40
B. 32
C. 33
D. 46
TteE

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21. Which desert is the driest on earth?

A. Atacama
B. Kalahari

M
oOm
C. Sahara
D. Namib

22. Which precious stones are found in the Namib desert in Africa?
A. Diamonds

.c.C
B. Gold
C. Sapphire
D. Topaz

MsS
23. In 1988, how many Chinese lived in caves?
A. 500,000
aEm
B. 5,000,000
A
C. 35,000,000
D. 100,000,000

24. In which organ of the body is Insulin produced?

reR

A. Heart
B. Pancreas
sStT

C. Liver
D. Kidney

25. Where were the 1992 Winter Olympics held?

sStT

A. Albertville, France
B. Marseille, France
C. Ottawa, Canada
D. Ontario, Canada
TteE

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26. In which century was Joan of Arc burnt at the stake?

A. 15th Century
B. 14th Century

M
oOm
C. 13th Century
D. 12th Century

27. How is it known when a new Pope has been elected?

A. The death of the former Pope is announced

.c.C
B. The Pope’s Valet goes on air
C. White smoke comes out of the Vatican chimney
D. The bell of Saint Peter’s Basilica sounds three times

MsS
28. What is the meaning of the Latin phrase prima facie?
A. Qualified
aEm
B. At first sight
A
C. On this basis
D. At the primary level

29. Which sport is played in a Velodrome?

reR

A. Wrestling
B. Boxing
sStT

C. Cycling
D. Pole vault

30. Which vitamin is produced by the action of ultraviolet light on the skin?
sStT

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
TteE

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31. What is the capital of Paraguay?

A. Asuncion
B. Del Potro

M
oOm
C. Havana
D. Puerto Rico

32. How many times was Franklin D. Roosevelt elected US president?

A. 2

.c.C
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

33. Hymen was the Greek god of what?

A. War
MsS
aEm
B. Marriage
A
C. Love
D. Light

34. What is the Decalogue usually called?

reR

A. The Decathlon
B. The Ten Commandments
sStT

C. The Last man standing

D. The Vatican’s 10th Cardinal

35. What does a somnambulist do?

sStT

A. Sleepwalks
B. Hallucinates
C. Duncan
D. Macbeth
TteE

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36. What is Harley Davidson famous for manufacturing?

A. Bicycles
B. Motor Cycles

M
oOm
C. Motorised mowers
D. Mercedes Benz engines

37. What is the French national anthem called?

A. Le Marseillaise

.c.C
B. The spangled omen
C. God save the Qeen
D. Freedom song

38. Who wrote a brief history of time?

A. Albert Einstein
MsS
aEm
B. Leonardo de Vinci
A
C. George Bell
D. Stephen Hawkins

39. Which movie studio has a roaring lion as its company symbol?
reR

A. Columbia
B. Roaring Lion
sStT

C. MGM
D. BG

40. If you were at Geneva airport, in which country would you be?
sStT

A. Sweden
B. Switzerland
C. Austria
D. Norway
TteE

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41. What is the middle of a frequency distribution?

A. Median
B. Mode

M
oOm
C. Medium
D. Statistics

42. What describes an angle between 90 and 180 degrees?

A. Acute

.c.C
B. Obtuse
C. Oblong
D. Right angle

MsS
43. What are the American universities Yale, Harvard and Princetown collectively known as?
A. Red bricks
aEm
B. Ivy League
A
C. Ivory Tower
D. High Society

44. Which is the only Country through which both the equator and the tropic of Capricorn pass?
reR

A. England
B. Thailand
sStT

C. Central African Republic

D. Brazil

45. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

sStT

A. Mercury
B. Iron
C. Aluminium
D. Chromium
TteE

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46. Which is the third planet from the sun?

A. Earth
B. Neptune

M
oOm
C. Mars
D. The Moon

47. What is the only English anagram of the word SECTIONAL

A. Actionals

.c.C
B. Coastline
C. Lionstal
D. Sectlion

48. What do ichthyologists study?

A. Birds
MsS
aEm
B. Gnomes
A
C. Fish
D. Paedophiles

49. What happens to Pinocchio every time he tells a lie?

reR

A. He loses a hair
B. His face reddens
sStT

C. His tongue protrudes

D. His nose grows larger

50. Who was the Roman god of war?

sStT

A. Mars
B. Venus
C. Poseidon
D. Prometheus
TteE

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51. What is the name of the people, language and culture of Madagascar?
A. Malay
B. Malabi

M
oOm
C. Malagasy
D. Madagascois

52. An underground layer of porous rock that contains water is called what?
A. Lithograph

.c.C
B. Aquifer
C. Hydrofoil
D. Level

MsS
53. In June 2009, which ruler began his second decade as king of Morocco?
A. Mohammed VI
aEm
B. Hassan I
A
C. Abdullah II
D. Al-Mustafa III

54. What does the word "dinosaur" mean?

reR

A. Huge creature
B. Great dragon
sStT

C. Terrible lizard
D. Enfant terrible

55. Born with the last name Ayew, which striker is the top international scorer for Ghana?
sStT

A. Abedi Pele
B. Samuel Kuffor
C. Daniel Amokachi
D. Kanu Nwankwo
TteE

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56. Which lead singer of Queen was born in Zanzibar?

A. Freddie Mercury
B. George Harrison

M
oOm
C. David Bowie
D. Gustav Dottie

57. Who wrote "Wuthering Heights"?

A. Emily Bronte

.c.C
B. Patrick Branwell
C. Agatha Christie
D. Justine Henine

MsS
58. Which major trading bloc has Swaziland, Angola and Egypt among its members?
A. PTA
aEm
B. SADC
A
C. COMESA
D. PAC

59. Nigeria, Niger and Cameroon all border which lake named after a fourth nation?
reR

A. Chad
B. Victoria
sStT

C. Mississippi
D. Akosonbo

60. Which geological event occurs when tectonic plates slide and the ground shakes?
sStT

A. Lightning
B. Ice Shelf formation
C. Earthquake
D. Tsunami
TteE

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61. Wole Soyinka's "Death and the King's Horseman" is which of writing?
A. Novel
B. Play

M
oOm
C. Poem
D. Verse

62. In which career are the terms "defense mechanism" and "paranoia" used?
A. Linguistics

.c.C
B. Medicine
C. Psychology
D. Computer Engineering

MsS
63. In which year did a new constitution end apartheid in South Africa?
A. 1977
aEm
B. 1994
A
C. 1856
D. 1999

64. In February 2008, Mizengo Pinda became Prime Minister of which nation?
reR

A. Tanzania
B. Uganda
sStT

C. Kenya
D. Burundi

65. Slate is which type of rock that has been changed by extreme heat and pressure?
sStT

A. Sedimentary
B. Metamorphic
C. Soft
D. Megamorphic
TteE

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66. Whom did Muhammad Ali fight against in the 1974 "Rumble in the Jungle" ?
A. George Foreman
B. David Haye

M
oOm
C. Oscar De La Hoya
D. Joe Louis

67. Where do the Niger, Gambia and Senegal rivers all have their source?
A. Bambouk Mountains, Mali

.c.C
B. Air Mountains, Niger
C. Fouta Djallon, Guinea
D. Futa Mountains

MsS
68. Who led the Central African Republic to independence in 1960?
A. Jean-Bedel Bokassa
aEm
B. Francois Bozize
A
C. David Dacko
D. Patrice Lumumba

69. Libya, the Central African Republic and Sudan all border which other country?
reR

A. Chad
B. Mali
sStT

C. Nigeria
D. Benin

70. In 2009, Pakistan began an offensive to reclaim which valley from the Taliban?
sStT

A. Beqaa
B. Swat
C. Ganges
D. Mumbai
TteE

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71. Yams provide which vitamin, called retinol, that's crucial for night vision?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D

M
oOm
C. Vitamin R
D. Vitamin T

72. Who was Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit?

A. A German Physicist

.c.C
B. An American Geologist
C. Man who developed temperature scale
D. Man who developed the mercury thermometer

73. Galileo was an Italian astronomer who: MsS

A. A. Discovered that the movement of the pendulum produces a regular time measurement
aEm
B. Discovered 4 satellites of Jupiter
A
C. Developed the telescope
D. All the above

74. The Committee of the Norwegian Parliament awards the Nobel Prize for:
reR

A. Economics
B. Peace
sStT

C. Medicine
D. Literature

75. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences awards the Nobel prizes in:
sStT

A. Physics
B. Economics
C. Chemistry
D. (a) and (d)
TteE

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76. Kabul is the capital of which troubled country

A. Albania
B. Andorra

M
oOm
C. Angola
D. Afghanistan

77. Banjul is the capital of which of the following countries

A. The Gambia

.c.C
B. Sene-gambia
C. Mali
D. Senegal

78. How many tentacles does an Octopus have?

A. 20
MsS
aEm
B. 14
A
C. 8
D. 6

79. Who was the goddess of Love in Roman mythology?

reR

A. Venus
B. Aphrodite
sStT

C. Promeus
D. Prometheus

80. Who was the goddess of Love in Greek mythology?

sStT

A. Venus
B. Aphrodite
C. Promeus
D. Prometheus
TteE

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81. The only city in the world to lie between 2 continents is?
A. Ankara
B. Istanbul

M
oOm
C. Alexandria
D. Constantinople

82. The acronym DVD stands for:

A. Digital Video Disc

.c.C
B. Disque Vidoe Digitale
C. Digital Versatile Disc
D. Double Vidoe Density

83. What is a group of lions called?

A. Flock
MsS
aEm
B. Pride
A
C. Herd
D. Pack

84. Which planet is nearest to the sun?

reR

A. Mercury
B. Venus
sStT

C. Jupiter
D. Vulcan

85. Who among the following was the first to set foot on the Moon?
sStT

A. Fran Phipps
B. Neil Alden Armstrong
C. Yuri Gagarin
D. Alexei Leonov
TteE

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86. The world's largest producer of diamond is:

A. South Africa
B. Sierra Leone

M
oOm
C. Democratic Republic of Congo
D. Liberia

87. The renowned author of the Harry Porter series is:

A. Chimamanda Adichie

.c.C
B. J.K.Rowling
C. John Milton
D. Chinua Achebe

MsS
88. The first Black person to be awarded the Nobel Peace Prize was:
A. Ralph Johnson Bunche
aEm
B. Professor Wole Soyinka
A
C. Bishop Desmond Tutu
D. President Julius Nyerere

89. Which character created by Washington Irving fell asleep for 20 years?
reR

A. Robin Hood
B. Rip Van Winkle
sStT

C. Scarlet Fever
D. Valhalla

90. What name is given to magic used with evil intent?

sStT

A. Blue
B. Black
C. White
D. Yellow
TteE

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91. What was the Greek hero Achilles only vulnerable part?
A. His Nose
B. His Foot

M
oOm
C. His Heel
D. His Heart

92. Which planet has the highest surface temperature?

A. Mars

.c.C
B. Earth
C. Venus
D. Sun

93. Which is the fastest of all birds?

A. Black Vulture
MsS
aEm
B. African Eagle
A
C. White Owl
D. Perigrine Falcon

94. What is the heaviest of all human organs?

reR

A. Heart
B. Lungs
sStT

C. Skin
D. Liver

95. What was Elton John's first No. 1 solo single?

sStT

A. Sacrifice
B. Candle light
C. Katherine
D. Long Road
TteE

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96. What male singing voice comes below tenor?

A. Tenor
B. Bass

M
oOm
C. Baritone
D. Alto

97. In which continent is Israel situated?

A. Asia

.c.C
B. Africa
C. Europe
D. America

MsS
98. Which North African city has a name meaning "White House " in Spanish?
A. Alexandria
aEm
B. Casablanca
A
C. Tripoli
D. Algiers

99. How many feet are in a fathom?

reR

A. 9
B. 12
sStT

C. 6
D. 3

100. How many points are there to the compass?

sStT

A. 44
B. 32
C. 23
D. 61
TteE

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101. Who wrote the book Gulliver’s Travels?

A. Shakespeare
B. Charles Dickens

M
oOm
C. Salman Rushdie
D. Jonathan Swift

102. Which fruit contains the most calories?

A. Avocado Pear

.c.C
B. Raspberry
C. Apple
D. Pine apple

103. MsS
What was the capital of Russia before Moscow?
A. Leningrad
aEm
B. St Petersburg
A
C. Sovietville
D. Siberia

104. Which grain is used to make malt whiskey?

reR

A. Wheat
B. Barley
sStT

C. Sorghum
D. Maize

105. Which country covers 10% of the globe's land surface?

sStT

A. Russia
B. China
C. India
D. USA
TteE

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106. Which monster first made the headlines in 1933?

A. The Lock Ness
B. The Vampire

M
oOm
C. The Vava Voom
D. Grundig

107. On the flag of which country would you find the most stars?
A. Brazil

.c.C
B. USA
C. North Korea
D. Sudan

108. MsS
Between 1820 and 1900, the majority of immigrants to the USA came from which two
countries?
aEm
A. Germany and Ireland
A
B. England and France
C. Germany and Scotland
D. Israel and Australia
reR

109. What is the most northerly city in the world?

A. Seoul, Korea
sStT

B. Ulan Bator, Mongolia

C. Hammerfest, Norway
D. Reykjavik, Iceland
sStT

110. In which capital city would you literally be living in peace?

A. La Paz, Bolivia
B. Sao Paolo, Brazil
C. Ulan Bator, Mongolia
TteE

D. Berlin, Germany

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111. Which European country has the highest tax rate?

A. Denmark
B. Sweden

M
oOm
C. Ireland
D. Germany

112. Which two countries share the longest border in the world, around 6,400km?
A. Canada and USA

.c.C
B. Great Britain and Netherlands
C. Portugal and Spain
D. Morocco and Algeria

113. MsS
Which of the following countries is NOT on the shores of Lake Victoria
A. Uganda
aEm
B. Rwanda
A
C. Kenya
D. Tanzania

114. What is the name of the deepest lake in Africa?

reR

A. Lake Victoria
B. Lake Tanganyika
sStT

C. Lake Okavango
D. Lake Congo

115. Tanzania is the only country in the world with a unique gemstone called:
sStT

A. Gemstan
B. Columbite
C. Tanzanite
D. Soladite
TteE

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116. In West Africa is a Lake shared by 4 countries. What is this Lake called:
A. Bongo
B. Chad

M
oOm
C. Victoria
D. Tanganyika

117. The 4 countries that share the Lake Chad are one of the following sets:
A. DR Congo, Tanzania, Kenya and Uganda

.c.C
B. Tanzania, Uganda, Malawi and Rwanda
C. Niger, Nigeria, Cameroon and Chad
D. Chad, Mali, Ghana and Cameron

118.
A. 8
MsS
How many countries share borders with Africa's largest country, Sudan?
aEm
B. 10
A
C. 9
D. 6

119. The River Nile takes its source from one of these countries:
reR

A. Egypt
B. Sudan
sStT

C. Kenya
D. Uganda

120. Which country is singer Angelique Kidjo from?

sStT

A. Ghana
B. South Africa
C. Nigeria
D. Benin
TteE

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121. Zimbabwe attained Independence in the year:

A. 1975
B. 1979

M
oOm
C. 1980
D. 1981

122. World War II commenced in:

A. 1930

.c.C
B. 1935
C. 1939
D. 1940

123.
A. 1904
World War 1 started in: MsS
aEm
B. 1908
A
C. 1910
D. 1914

124. Which country suffered the heaviest in World War II?

reR

A. France
B. Germany
sStT

C. Japan
D. England

125. Which part of the world is named after the goddess of winter and the hunt?
sStT

A. Greenland
B. Scandinavia
C. The Arctic
D. Mongolia
TteE

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126. In Greek mythology, who was responsible for slaying the Amazon queen Penthesilea?
A. Artemis
B. Zeus

M
oOm
C. Prometheus
D. Achilles

127. What does the lachrymal sac hold?

A. Tears

.c.C
B. Blood
C. Juice
D. Gas

128.
A. Odyssey
MsS
Which poem deals with the events surrounding the Trojan War?
aEm
B. Iliad
A
C. Sonnet
D. Epigram

129. Which synthetic food was named by its inventor after the Greek word for pearl?
reR

A. Tuber
B. Cereal
sStT

C. Noodle
D. Margarine

130. What type of foodstuff is sorghum, used as a staple diet in Africa and parts of Asia
sStT

A. Tuber
B. Cereal
C. Grain
D. Fruit
TteE

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131. An excursion for pleasure made by an official at the expense of the tax payer
A. Safari
B. Junket

M
oOm
C. Sabbatical
D. Awol

132. Which is a sculptural representation of a person from the chest up?

A. Soliloquy

.c.C
B. Kiln
C. Bust
D. Image

133. MsS
Which city's Staples Center hosted the memorial service for Michael Jackson?
A. New York City
aEm
B. Los Angeles
A
C. Chicago
D. Illinois

134. A caldera is found at the top of which of these?

reR

A. A giraffe
B. A train
sStT

C. A volcano
D. A peacock

135. The word "burning" in the phrase "a burning candle" is which type of word?
sStT

A. Conjunction
B. Adjective
C. Preposition
D. Verb
TteE

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136. Uganda's Idi Amin was ousted in 1979 by the army of which neighbour?
A. Sudan
B. Tanzania

M
oOm
C. Zaire
D. Zambia

137. Goree, Bunce, Lamu and Robben are which kind of natural feature?
A. Islands

.c.C
B. Lakes
C. Highlands
D. Mountains

138. MsS
In May 2009, Sri Lanka's government announced the defeat of which rebel group?
A. Tamil Tigers
aEm
B. Boko Haram
A
C. Taliban
D. Al-Shabaab

139. Peanut and alfalfa plants contain bacteria that add which nutrient to soil?
reR

A. Argon
B. Potassium
sStT

C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen

140. What was Karl Marx's nationality?

sStT

A. Italy
B. Yugoslavia
C. Russia
D. Germany
TteE

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141. The war of American Independence was fought between:

A. North America and South America
B. Britain and North America

M
oOm
C. France and America
D. North America and Canada

142. Capitalism is characterised by all below EXCEPT:

A. The elimination of financial risks

.c.C
B. Private ownership
C. Making profit
D. The laws of supply and demand

143. MsS
Which of the following is not correct about the African National Congress (ANC)
A. was formed to fight apartheid in South Africa
aEm
B. was accused by the government of Communist leanings
A
C. was a liberation movement
D. was supported by US and UK in the years leading to Independence

144. Which of the following helps in clotting of blood?

reR

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
sStT

C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

145. The total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is:
sStT

A. 5 - 6 litres
B. 3 - 4 litres
C. 8 - 10 litres
D. 10 - 12 litres
TteE

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146. Red blood corpuscles are formed where?

A. Liver
B. Bone marrow

M
oOm
C. kidneys
D. Heart

147. How many bones are there in an adult human being?

A. 210

.c.C
B. 260
C. 206
D. 300

148.
A. Skull
Tibia is a bone in the human: MsS
aEm
B. Arm
A
C. Leg
D. Face

149. The largest part of the human brain is the:

reR

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Cerebellum
sStT

C. Cerebrum
D. None

150. The main function of the kidney is:

sStT

A. To control blood pressure

B. To control body temperature
C. To remove waste product from the body
D. To help in digestion of food
TteE

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151. Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A. Thyroid
B. Liver

M
oOm
C. Pancreas
D. None

152. What do the letters 'D.C.' in Washington D.C. stand for?

A. Deo Casosculum

.c.C
B. District of Columbia
C. Donatus et Costubiam
D. Defender of Custom

153.
A. Iceland
MsS
Which is the only country that borders the White Sea?
aEm
B. Norway
A
C. Russia
D. Japan

154. On what continent would you find the Republic of Mauritania?

reR

A. Asia
B. Africa
sStT

C. America
D. Europe

155. Muscat is the capital city of

sStT

A. Oman
B. Bahrain
C. Quatar
D. Kuwait
TteE

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156. Which US state is known as the Sunshine State?

A. New York
B. Rhode Island

M
oOm
C. Florida
D. Ondo

157 In which country was the city of Natal ("Christmas") founded on 25th December 1599?
A. Brazil

.c.C
B. Israel
C. Italy
D. Saudi Arabia

158
A. Gambia
MsS
Which is the least populated country in the world?
aEm
B. Iceland
A
C. The Vatican City
D. Somaliland

159 What is the largest country in Africa?

reR

A. The Sudan
B. Nigeria
sStT

C. South Africa
D. Iraq

160 Which country has four cities in the list of the ten hottest cities in the world?
sStT

A. Mali
B. India
C. Sudan
D. Yemen
TteE

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161 In which city would you find the largest Japanese community outside of Japan ?
A. Toronto
B. Sao Paulo

M
oOm
C. Miami
D. Melbourne

162 Who is the Roman god of wine?

A. Orpheus

.c.C
B. Bacchus
C. Guinness
D. Romulus

163 MsS
Which country was the last to occupy a United States territory with its soldiers?
A. Great Britain
aEm
B. Japan
A
C. France
D. Ireland

164 The world's shortest war in history lasted just 38 minutes. It was fought in 1896
reR

between Zanzibar and which European nation?

A. Great Britain
sStT

B. Tanzania
C. Kenya
D. Namibia
sStT

165 While Rome was burning in 64AD, Nero allegedly was playing on his
A. lyre
B. fiddle
C. flute
TteE

D. sitar

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166 Which Christian order did St. Ignatius of Loyola found in 1534?
A. Dominican Order
B. Jesuit Order

M
oOm
C. White Fathers Order
D. Loyola Order

167 Before becoming President of the USA, Ronald Reagan was governor of which US state?
A. New York

.c.C
B. New Orleans
C. Virginia
D. California

168 MsS
What was "Che" Guevara's first name?
A. Fidel
aEm
B. Raul
A
C. Ernesto
D. Hugo

169 In which century was the Seven Years' War fought?

reR

A. 18th
B. 16th
sStT

C. 19th
D. 15th

170 In what century did the Hundred Years' War start?

sStT

A. 12th
B. 13th
C. 14th
D. 15th
TteE

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171 Which US state was NOT one of the 13 colonies that signed the Declaration of
Independence in 1776:
A. New York

M
oOm
B. Virginia
C. Massachusetts
D. Kansas

172 Which period in the development of human culture did not exist:

.c.C
A. Brass Age
B. Bronze Age
C. Iron Age
D. Copper Age

173
MsS
In what country did Che Guevara die on 9th October 1967?
aEm
A. Peru
A
B. Colombia
C. Venezuela
D. Bolivia
reR

174 Since March 1959, the Dalai Lama had lived in exile in which country?
A. Russia
sStT

B. India
C. China
D. Pakistan
sStT

175 Which affair was documented in the Starr Report in the 1990's: a) ", b), c), d) or e)
"Nippelgate"?
A. "Whitewatergate
B. "Monicagate"
TteE

C. "Irangate"
D. "Watergate"

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176 Which war was officially ended by the Treaty of Versailles?

A. World War I
B. World War II

M
oOm
C. American War of Independence
D. Korean War

177 Which people created the Cuneiform script:

A. Babylonians

.c.C
B. Egyptians
C. Assyrians
D. Sumerians

178
A. USA
MsS
In which country was OPEC founded in 1960:
aEm
B. Iraq
A
C. Venezuela
D. Kuwait

179 On 6th October of what year was Egyptian president Muhammad Anwar al-Sadat
reR

assassinated?
A. 1969
sStT

B. 1973
C. 1981
D. 1988
sStT

180 On 26th December of what year was the USSR officially dissolved?
A. 1956
B. 1976
C. 1991
TteE

D. 1989

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General Paper Answers

Om M
1C 21 A 41 A 61 B 81 B 101 D 121 C 141 B 161 B

2A 22 A 42 B 62 C 82 C 102 A 122 C 142 A 162 B

3A 23 C 43 B 63 B 83 B 103 B 123 D 143 D 163 B

c.Co
4C 24 B 44 D 64 A 84 A 104 B 124 C 144 D 164 A

5D 25 A 45 A 65 B 85 C 105 A 125 B 145 A 165 A

6C 26 A 46 A 66 A 86 A 106 126 D 146 B 166 B

sS.
7C 27 C 47 B 67 C 87 B 107 A 127 A 147 C 167 D

8B 28 B 48 C 68 C 88 A 108 A 128 B 148 C 168 C

9D

10 C
AM
29 C
aEm
30 D
49 D

50 A
69 A

70 B
89 B

90 B
109 C

110
129 D

130 C
149 C

150 C
169 A

170 C

11 A 31 A 51 C 71 A 91 C 111 A 131 B 151 B 171 D

12 C 32 C 52 B 72 C 92 C 112 A 132 C 152 B 172 A

13 C 33 C 53 A 73 D 93 D 113 B 133 B 153 C 173 D

reR

14 B 34 B 54 C 74 B 94 C 114 B 134 C 154 B 174 B

15 A 35 A 55 A 75 D 95 A 115 C 135 B 155 A 175 B

sStT

16 B 36 B 56 A 76 D 96 C 116 B 136 B 156 C 176 A

17 C 37 A 57 A 77 A 97 A 117 C 137 A 157 A 177 D

18 A 38 D 58 C 78 C 98 B 118 C 138 A 158 C 178 B

sStT

19 C 39 C 59 A 79 B 99 C 119 D 139 C 159 A 179 C

20 B 40 B 60 C 80 A 100 B 120 D 140 D 160 B 180 C

TteE

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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Mathematics Questions
1. T here are 8 green balls, 4 blue balls and 3 w hite balls in a box. T hen 1 green

OmM
and 1 blue balls are taken from the box and put aw ay. W hat is the probability
that a blue ball is selected at random from the box?

A . 3/13 B . 2/13 C . 4/15 D .3/15

2. Find r, if .

c.Co
A. 3 B. 2 C. 6 D. 5

3. Sim plify

A. B. C. D.

sS.
4. A student m easures a piece of rope and found it w as long. If the actual

A.
AM
length of the rope w as
m easurem ent?
aEm
B.
, what w as the percentage error in the

C. D.

5. A t what rate will the interest on N increase to N in 5 years reckoning in

sim ple interest?

A. B. C. D.
reR

6. If and . Find

A. B. C. D.
sStT

7. E valuate .

A. 3 B. 6 C. D.
sStT

8. G iven that , E valuate

A . 2.1461 B . 2.3501 C . 2.0491 D . 3.1461

TteE

9. R ationalize .

A. B. C. D.

10. E xpress the product of 0.31 and 0.34 in standard form

A. B. C. D.

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11 In a su rv e y o f 6 0 n ew sp a p e r rea d e rs, 4 9 rea d N at io n an d 3 0 rea d P u n ch , h o w

OmM
m an y re ad b o t h p a p e rs?

A. 10 B. 5 C. 20 D. 15

1 2. M ak e R t h e s u b jec t o f t h e fo r m u la i f .

c.Co
A. B. C.

D.

1 3. If i s a fa cto r o f , f in d th e o th er f ac to r .

sS.
A. B. C.

1 4.
D. AM
aEm -

F a ct o ri ze c o m p let el y

A. B. C. D.

1 5. S o l v e fo r x a n d y if x -y = 3 a n d

A. (- 3 ,0 ) B. (0 ,-3 ) C. (3 ,0 ) D. ( 0 ,3 )
reR

1 6. If y v ar ies d ir ec tl y as th e s q u are r o o t o f x an d y = 3 w h en x = 2 5 . C al cu l ate y

w he n x =1 00 .

A. 12 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6
sStT

1 7. If x is i n v ers el y p ro p o rti o n al t o y an d w h en y = 2 , fi n d x if y = 4 .

A. B. C. D.

1 8. F o r w h a t ran g e o f v al u es o f x is ?
sStT

A. B. C. D.

1 9. S o l v e th e in eq u a lit ies - 6 .

A. B. C.
TteE

D.

2 0. F i n d th e su m to in f in ity o f th e fo llo w in g s er ies

0 .2 + 0 .0 2 + 0 .0 0 2 + 0 .0 0 0 2 +
A. B. C. D.

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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2 1. T h e 3 rd te rm o f a n ar ith m eti c p r o g res sio n is -8 a n d t h e 7 t h ter m i s -2 8 . F in d th e

1 0 t h te rm o f th e p r o g r es sio n .

OmM
A. -4 3 B. -1 6 4 C. 1 64 D. 44

2 2. If , fi n d th e v al u e o f

A. -2 5 B. 25 C. -3 2 D. 32

c.Co
2 3. If p an d q a.e t w o n o n z er o n u m b e rs an d 1 6 (p + q )= ( 1 6 + p )/q , w h ich o f t h e
fo llo w in g m u st b e tr u e.

A. p< 1 B . p= 1 6 C. q< 1 D. q =1 6

2 4. If = 9 , f in d th e v a lu e o f x .

sS.
A. 4 B. 5 C. 2 D. 3

2 5.
AM
E v al u a te
aEm
A. -3 3 6 B. 3 36 C. 4 20 D. - 42 0

2 6. A rec ta n g u la r p ict u re 6 c m b y 8 c m i s e n cl o s ed b y a f ram e (1 / 2 ) w i d e. C al cu la te

th e ar ea o f th e fra m e.

A. 1 5 sq c m B . 2 0 s q cm C. 1 3 sq cm D. 1 7 sq cm

2 7. T h e a rea o f an d is les s th a n th e d iffe re n c e b e tw ee n a nd by

reR

A. B. C. D.
sStT

2 8. M u l tip ly by

A.

B.
sStT

C.

D.

2 9. T h e s u m o f t h e p ro g re ss io n i s eq u a l
TteE

A. 1 / (1 - x ) B. 1 / (1 + x ) C . 1 / (x -1 ) D . 1/x

3 0. If th en x =

A. 4 B. -2 C . n o n e o f t h e se D. 2
31. Five years ago, a father w as 3 times as old as his son. N ow , their com bined
ages am ount to 110 years. Thus, the present age of the father is

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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Technology for Self Reliance

A. 7 5 y ea r s B. 60 ye ars C. 9 8 y ea rs D . 81 ye ars

OmM
3 2. If , fin d th e ra n ge o f va lu es f or w h ich y < 0 .

A. B. C.

D.

c.Co
3 3. M o th er r ed uc ed th e q ua nt it y of fo od bo u ght fo r t he fam i ly b y w he n s he
fo u nd t ha t the co st o f liv in g h ad in cr ea sed b y . T hu s th e fra ct io nal
i ncr ea se i n th e fa m i l y f oo d b ill is n ow

A. 1 /1 2 B. 6/ 35 C. 1 9/ 30 0 D. 7/ 20 0

sS.
3 4. G iv en th at an d . Fi nd , if
a , b , c a re r ea l nu m be rs.

3 5.
A.

C.
AM
aEm
If th e
a c+ ab + bc +b + c+ 1

a c+ ab + 2a +b + c+ 1
B.

D.
ac + ab +a + c+ 2

ac + ab +b c+ b + c+ 2

fou r int eri or an gl es of a qu ad ril ate ral a re

, a nd , th en P is

A. B. C. D.

3 6. S im p lif y
reR

A. B. -

C. D. -
sStT

3 7. T he m i ni m u m po in t on t he c urv e is at

A. ( 1, 5) B. (3 ,-4) C . ( 2, 3) D . (3, 4 )

3 8. If , th en t he i nt erv al o f va lu es o f x is
sStT

A. B.
C. D.

3 9. A m an r un s a d ist an ce o f 9 km /h fo r the fir st 4 km a nd t he n 2k m /h for t he res t o f

t he dis ta nc e. T h e w h ol e r un ta ke s h im o ne ho ur. H is av er ag e sp e ed for th e f irs t
TteE

4 km is

A. 6 km / h B. 8k m /h C. 9 k m/h D . 11 km / h

4 0. In a so cc er c om p et iti on i n o ne s eas on , a cl ub h ad sc or ed t he f ol low i ng g oa ls : 2,

0 , 3, 3 , 2, 1, 4 , 0, 0, 5 , 1 , 0, 2 , 2 , 1, 3 , 1, 4, 1 , a nd 1 . T h e m e an , m ed ia n and
m o de a re r esp e cti vel y.

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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Technology for Self Reliance

A. 1 , 1 .8 , a nd 1 .5 B. 1 .8 , 1 .5 an d 1 C . 1 .8, 1 an d 1.5

OmM
D. 1 .5 , 1 and 1.8

4 1. If , the n an gle is e qu al t o

A. B. C. D.

c.Co
4 2. T he se t o f v al ue s o f x and y w hi ch sa tis fie s t he eq ua tio ns
an d is

A. 1, 0 B. 1, 1 C. 2, 2 D. 0, 2

4 3. T w o tria n gle s ha ve t he s am e a rea if

sS.
A. tw o s id es in on e tri an gle are e qu al t o tw o s id es in th e oth er .

B. th re e sid es i n o ne tr ian gl e ar e eq ua l to t hre e s ide s in th e oth er .

4 4.
C.

If
AM
aEm tw o a ng les in o ne t ria ng le a re eq u al to tw o an gle s i n th e ot her .

th re e an gle s in o n e tri an gl e are eq ual t o th re e an gl es i n th e ot her .

, t hen x h as t he v alu e

A. 7 B. 4 C. 32 D 5

4 5. In a ci rcl e of rad iu s 10 cm , a ch or d o f len gt h 10 c m i s x cm f rom it s ce nt re. W h at

is x.
reR

A. B. C. D.

4 6. T he s m a ll est n um b er s uc h th at w he n it i s di vid ed by 8 h as a re m a in der of 6 an d

w he n it i s di vid ed by 9 h as a rem a in der o f 7 i s
sStT

A. 50 B. 70 C. 80 D. 60

47 E val ua te .

A. B. C. D.
sStT

4 8. W h en a de al er se lls a bi cy cle for N 81 h e m ak es a pr ofi t of 8% . W hat d id h e

p ay fo r th e bi cy cle ?

A. N 74 B. N 74 .52 C. N 75 D. N 75 .52
TteE

4 9. F i nd the roo ts o f th e eq ua tio n

A. x = 3 /5 o r -1 /2 B. x = -1/ 5 or 3 /2 C. x = 3/1 0 o r 1

D. x = - 3/ 10 o r 1

5 0. T he m ed ia n of t he s et o f n um be rs ; 4 , 9 , 4 , 1 3, 7, 14 , 1 0, 7 i s

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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A. 13 B. 7/4 C. 7 /2 D. 10

OmM
5 1. L is t a ll t h e i n t e g e r v a lu e s o f x s a tis fy in g t h e i n e q u a l it y

A. 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 5 C. 3, 4, 5 D. 2, 3, 4

5 2. T h e r a t io o f th e a r e a s o f s im i la r t ria n g le s i s n e c e s s a r ily e q u a l to

c.Co
A. t h e r a ti o o f th e c o rre s p o n d i n g s id e s .

B. t h e r a ti o o f th e s q u a re o n c o rr e s p o n d in g s i d e s .

C . t h e r a ti o o f th e c o rre s p o n d i n g h e i g h ts o f th e tr ia n g le s .

D. h a l f th e ra t io o f th e c o rr e s p o n d in g h e ig h t s o f t h e t ri a n g le s .

sS.
5 3. A m a n a n d h is w ife w e n t to b u y a rt ic l e c o s ti n g N 4 0 0 . T h e w o m a n h a d 1 0 % o f
t h e c o s t a n d th e m a n 4 0 % o f th e re m a in d e r. H o w m u c h d id th e y h a v e
a lto g e th e r.

5 4.
A.
AM
aEm
S im p lif y
N 2 16 B. N200 C. N 18 4 D. N 1 44

A. B. C. 3/2 D. 2

5 5. T h r e e n u m b e r a re c o n n e c t e d b y th e r e la ti o n s h ip y = 4 x / 9 + 1 a n d z = 4 y /9 + 1 . If
x = 9 9 , fi n d z .

A. B. 20 C. 21 D.
reR

5 6. In a s c h o o l th e r e a re 3 5 s tu d e n ts in c l a s s 2 A a n d 4 0 in c la s s 2 B . T h e m e a n
s c o re fo r c l a s s 2 A in a M a t h e m a ti c s e x a m i n a tio n i s 6 0 .0 0 a n d th a t fo r 2 B in th e
p a p e r is 5 2 .5 . F in d , t o o n e p la c e o f d e c im a l s , t h e m e a n o f th e c o m b in e d
sStT

c la s s e s .

A. 5 6 .5 B. 5 6 .0 C. 5 6 .3 D. 5 6 .2

5 7. A s e t o f d a t a c o n t a i n s a to ta l o f 1 3 0 ite m s w h ic h a re d iv id e d i n t o s i x g r o u p s fo r
d is p la y o n a p ie c h a rt. If o n e o f th e g r o u p s c o n ta in s 2 6 i te m s t h e n th e s e c to r
re p r e s e n tin g th is g ro u p o n t h e p ie c h a rt c o n ta i n s a n a n g le a t th e c e n t re o f
sStT

t h e c irc le w h e re x is

A. 3 B. 60 C. 70 D. 72

5 8. In tri a n g l e FG H , , w h ile tri a n g le X Y Z , ,

a nd . F ro m X Y Z , w rit e d o w n th e ra tio e q u a l to |F G |/ |F H |.
TteE

A. |Y Z |/ |Z X | B. |Y X |/|Y Z | C. |Z X |/ |Y Z |

D. |Y Z |/ |Y X |

59. A pentagon has four of its sides equal. If the size of the fifth angle is find
the size of each of the four equal angles.

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A. B. C. D.

OmM
6 0. T he r esu lt o f di vid in g by is

A. B. C. D.

6 1. W h at wi ll be t he va lu e of k so th at th e qu ad ra tic eq ua tio n
h as eq ua l ro ots ?

c.Co
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8

6 2. If i t is g ive n th at t he n th e va lu e of x is e qu al to

A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4

sS.
6 3. S ol ve th e s yst em o f eq u ati on s , .

6 4.
A. AM
aEm (1 , 4 ) B. (2 , 3 )

S im pl ify th e g ive n e xp re ssi on

C. (1 , 2 ) D. ( -1, -2 )

A. (1 -co sx )/ sin x B. 1 -co sx C. s inx D. ( 1+ co sx )/s in x

6 5. Fi nd th e a rea of th e cu rv ed su rfa ce of a c on e w h ose ba se rad iu s is 6c m an d

w ho se h ei ght is 8 cm . ( Ta ke ).

A. 1 32 0 B. 1 88 .5 7 C. 1 88
reR

D. 1 88 .0 8
sStT

6 6. T he e xp res si on su ch th at x + 1 is i ts f act or, an d i ts v alu e is 1

w he n x i s -2 . F ind c an d d .

A. c= 4 a nd d = 9 B. c =-4 an d d =9

C. c= -2 0 an d d = -15 D. c =2 0 a nd d= -1 5
sStT

6 7. If a f un ct ion is d efi ne d by . Fin d f( 0) .

A. 4 B. 6 C. 0 D. 8

6 8. A c ylin dr ic al m o to r o f h eig ht 12 cm h as un if orm t hi ckn es s o f 2 cm . If th e

d iam et er o f it s o ute r c ros s- sec tio n i s 10 cm , fi nd t he vo lu m e of t he co ns tit uen t
TteE

m at eri al. (T ak e ).

A. B. C. D.

6 9. A cu bo id h as a d ia go na l o f len gt h 9 cm a nd a sq ua re ba se o f s ide 4 cm . W h at is
it s he igh t?

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A. 9 cm B. C. D. 7 cm

OmM
7 0. If x v a r ie s i n v e r se l y a s y , a n d y v a r ie s d ir e c t ly a s th e s q u a r e ro o t o f z , a n d z
v a ri e s d ire c t ly a s , w rit e d o w n in w o rd s h o w x v a rie s w ith w .

A. x v a rie s in v e rse ly a s B. x v a rie s d i re c tl y a s

c.Co
C x v a rie s d ire c tl y a s D. x v a rie s in v e rse ly a s

7 1. S im p lif y

A. 2 B. C. 1 D.

7 2. F ro m tw o p o i n ts X a n d Y , 8 c m a p a rt, a n d in l in e w i th a p o l e , t h e a n g le o f

sS.
e le v a t io n o f t h e to p o f th e p o l e a re a nd r e sp e c ti v e ly . F in d th e h e i g h t
o f th e p o l e , a ss u m i n g t h a t X , Y a n d th e fo o t o f t h e p o l e a re o n th e sa m e
h o r iz o n ta l p la n e a n d X a n d Y a r e o n th e sa m e sid e o f th e p o le .

7 3.
A.
AM
aEm 4m B. m C. m D. m

A b a g c o n t a in s 3 a p p le s, 4 o ra n g e s a n d 3 b a n a n a s. W h a t is th e p ro b a b i lity o f
s e le c ti n g a b a n a n a a n d th e n a n a p p le ?

A. 9 /1 0 0 B. 9/10 C. 1 /1 0 D. 2 /3
n n -1
7 4. E v a lu a te P r / P r-1

A. n B. n-1 C. n -2 D. 2n
reR

7 5. T h e c h a n c e o f th re e in d e p e n d e n t e v e n t s X , Y , Z o c c u r rin g a re ½ , 2 /3 , ¼
re sp e c tiv e l y . W h a t a r e th e c h a n c e s o f Y a n d Z o n ly o c c u rrin g .

A. 1 /8 B. 1/24 C. 1 /1 2 D. 1 /4
sStT

7 6. If , w h a t is ?

A. B. C. D.
sStT

7 7. T h e i n t e ri o r a n g le s o f a q u a d ril a te ra l a re , , a nd
. F i n d th e v a lu e o f th e l e a st in te rio r a n g l e .

A. B. C. D.
TteE

7 8. If th e tw o sm a lle r sid e s o f r ig h t a n g le d tri a n g le a re 8 c m a n d 9 c m , fin d i ts a re a .

A. B. C. D.

7 9. A n a rc su b te n d s a n a n g le a t th e c e n tr e o f c ir c le o f r a d i u s 6 c m . C a lc u l a te
t h e a re a o f t h e s e c to r fo rm e d .( )

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A. B. C. D.

OmM
8 0. A cyl in dri ca l pi pe 4 0m l on g w i th r ad iu s 7m h as o ne e nd op en . W h at i s th e
t ota l su rfa ce are a of the pi pe ?

A. B. 6 58 C. 56 0 D. 98

81 W h at i s th e lo cu s of p o int s eq ui di sta nt f rom p oin ts P (1 ,4) a nd Q (2 ,5) .

c.Co
A. y =- x- 6 B. y= x+ 6 C . y= x -6 D . y =- x +6

8 2. F in d th e di sta nc e b etw e en t he p oi nt s ( ) an d ( )

A. 1 B. 0 C. D.

sS.
8 3. F in d th e gr ad ien t o f th e lin e p ass in g th ro ug h th e p oi nt s p( 1,2) a nd q( 2,5)

A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. 4

8 4.

A.
AM
F in d th e eq ua tio n o f a li ne p er pe nd ic ula r to y= -4 x+ 2 p as si ng t hr ou gh ( 2,3 )
aEm
4 y+ x +1 0= 0 B. 4 y-x -1 0= 0 C . 4 y-x +1 0 =0

D . 4 y+ x- 10 =0

8 5. If , w he re is a cu te, fin d

A. B. C. D.
reR

8 6. If , fi nd
sStT

A. 6 (2 x- 1) B. 3 (2x - 1) C. 6 D. 3

8 7. If y= xc os x , fi nd

A. s in x-x c osx B. co sx -x si nx C. c os x -si nx

sStT

D. s in x+ co sx

8 8. A t w ha t va lu e of x do es t he f un ct ion at ta in a m i nim u m
v alu e?

A .. 1 B. -4 C. 4 D. 1
TteE

8 9. E va lu ate

A. B. C. D.

9 0. F in d

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90 . F in d

OmM
A. s in x + 2 x + k B. -s in x + 2 x + k C. s in x + +k

D. - sin x + +k

91

c.Co
M a rk s 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

N o o f S tu d e n ts 4 2 5 2 4 1 3

F ro m th e ta b l e a b o v e i f th e p a ss m a rk i s 5 , h o w m a n y s tu d e n t s fa ile d th e te st?

sS.
A. 7 B. 6 C. 11 D. 2

92 .

93 .
AM
If t h r e e u n b ia se d c o in s a r e to ss e d , fi n d th e p ro b a b i li ty th a t t h e y a r e a l l ta ils

A.
aEm B. C. D.

In h o w m a n y w a y s c a n a c o m m i tte e o f 3 w o m e n a n d 4 m e n b e c h o s e n f ro m 6
m en an d 5 w om e n

A. 2 50 B. 25 C. 50 D. 1 00

94 . F in d th e st a n d a r d d e v ia t io n o f 2 ,4 ,5 a n d 6

A. B. C. D.
reR

95 . F in d th e e q u a tio n o f a li n e p a r a ll e l t o y = - 3 x + 2 p a ss in g t h r o u g h (1 ,3 )
sStT

A. y + 3 x -6 = 0 B. y - 3 x -6 = 0 C. y -3 x + 6 = 0

D. y+ 3 x +6 =0

96 . W h ic h o f t h e V e n n d ia g r a m s b e lo w r e p re s e n ts

A B.
sStT
TteE

C. D.

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97

OmM
c.Co
F rom th e d ia gra m a bo ve , fin d x

A. B. C. D.

sS.
AM
aEm
9 8. F rom th e c ycl ic q u adr ila te ral P Q R S ab o ve f ind th e va lu e of x .

A. B. C. D.
reR

9 9. If a an d b a re t he r oo ts o f , f ind

A. 11 B. 25 C. -1 4 D. 39
sStT

1 00 F in d, co rr ect to th ree si gn ifi can t fig ur es, t he va lu e of

A. 2 05 B. 64 7 C. 2 05 0 D. 6 4 70

1 01 W h ic h of t he f ol low i ng i s no t a f act or o f ?
sStT

A. 1 69 B. 13 C. 17 D. 49

1 02 . W h en a d ea ler se lls a b ic yc le fo r # 81 ,h e m a ke s a pr of it o f 8 % .W hat di d h e pa y

fo r th e b ic ycl e?
TteE

A. N 74 B. N 76 C. N 75 .5 4 D. N 75

1 03 . T he m e di an o f th e s et o f nu m be rs 4 ,9 ,4,1 3,7,1 4,1 0,17 is

A. 9 .5 B. 7 C. 10 D. 8 .5

1 04 . L ist a ll t he i nt ege r v alu es of x sa tis fyin g t he i ne qu al it y - 1< 2 x- 5= 5

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A. 2 ,4 ,5 B. 1 ,4 ,5 C. 4 ,5 ,6 D. 3 ,4 ,5

OmM
1 05 . A s o l id c y lin d e r o f ra d i u s 3 cm h as a to ta l s u r fac e are a o f 3 6 . F i n d it s
h eig h t .

A. 2 cm B. 3c m C. 4 cm D. 5 cm

c.Co
1 06 . S im p lif y

A. 1 .5 B. 7 C. 3 D. 2

1 07 . W r ite d o w n t h e n u m b er 0 .0 0 5 2 0 4 8 c o r rec t to th r ee s ig n if ic an t fig u r es.

A. 0 .0 0 5 B. 0 .0 0 5 2 C. 0 .0 0 5 2 1 D. 0 .0 0 5 2 0

sS.
1 08 . A m an an d h i s w ife w e n t to b u y an art icl e co st in g # 4 0 0 .T h e w o m an h ad 1 0 %
o f th e co st a n d t h e m a n 4 0 % o f t h e rem ai n d e r .H o w m u ch d id t h e y h av e

1 09 .
AM
a lto g e th er?
aEm
A. N 17 4 B. N 1 64 C. N 18 4 D. N 19 4

A p e n ta g o n h as f o u r o f its an g le s eq u a l. If t h e s iz e o f t h e f ift h an g l e is
,f in d th e si ze o f ea ch o f t h e f o u r eq u a l an g l es.

A. 1 20 B. 10 0 C. 1 10 D. 130

1 10 . If it is g iv en t h a t th e n t h e v alu e o f x i s eq u a l to
reR

A. 0 B. 1 C. 1 .5 D. 2

1 11 . S im p lif y t h e g iv en ex p r es sio n
sStT

A. B. 1 - co sx C. 1 + s in x D. 1 + co sx

1 12 . W r ite t h e d ec im al n u m b er 3 9 t o b ase 2 .

A. 1 10 11 1 B. 10 0 11 1 C. 1 1 10 00 <C > 11 01 11
sStT

1 13 . F in d th e s m all est n u m b er b y w h ic h 2 5 2 ca n b e m u lt ip lie d to o b ta in a p erf ect

s q u are

A. 2 B. 3 C. 7 D. 5
TteE

1 14 . F in d th e re cip ro ca l o f

A. B. 5 C. D.
4

1 15 . D iv id e th e L .C .M o f 4 8 ,6 4 an d 8 0 b y t h e ir H .C .F .

A. 60 B. 30 C. 48 D. 20

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1 16 T he a ge s of So la a nd A k in dif fer by 6 an d t he p ro du ct o f th eir ag es i s

1 87 .W r ite t he ir ag es i n th e fo rm ( x,y ),w h er e x >y .

OmM
A. (1 1,1 7) B. (1 1,1 6) C . (2 3,1 7) D. ( 17 ,1 1)

1 17 . If an d ,fin d

A. 1 B. 0 C. 2 D. 3

c.Co
1 18 . Fi nd the val ue s of x w h ic h sa tis fy t he e qu ati on

A. 0 a nd - 1 B. 1 a nd 2 C. 0 and 2 D. 0 a nd 1

1 19 . Fa ct ori se

sS.
A. (x + 2a )(x +1 ) B. (x -2 a) (x +1 ) C. ( x+ 2a )(x -1 )

D. (x + 2)( x+ a)

1 20 .
AM
A n op en re cta ng ul ar bo x ex te rna ll y m ea su res 4 m x 3m x 4m .Fi nd th e cos t o f
aEm
p ain tin g th e bo x e xt ern al ly if i ts co st # 2.0 0 to pai nt o ne s qu ar e m e tr e

A. N 11 6.0 0 B. N 11 3.0 0 C . N 11 2.00 <C > # 13 6.0 0

1 21 . Fi nd the pro ba bil it y th at a n um be r se lec te d at r an do m f rom 40 to 5 0 is a pri m e

A. B. C. D.

1 22 . If x va rie s di rec tl y as an d x = 2 w hen y= 1,fi nd x w hen y= 5.

reR

A. 2 00 B. 3 50 C. 4 50 D. 2 50
sStT

1 23 If M us a s co red 7 5 in B i ol og y i ns tea d of 57 ,h is av er age m ar k in fo ur su bj ect s

w ou ld h av e be en 6 0.W h at w as h is t ot al m ar k?

A. 2 20 B. 2 22 C. 3 22 D. 1 22

1 24 A m an k ep t 6 b lac k,5 b row n an d 7 pu rp le sh irt s i n a d ra w e r. W h at is th e

p rob ab ili ty o f his pic ki ng a pu rpl e sh irt w it h h is e yes clo se d?
sStT

A. B. C. 7 D. 7
20 18

1 25 Ev al uat e -
TteE

A. 1 12 1 3 B . 1 02 3 3 C. 1 02 0 3 D. 2 02 0 3

1 26 . S im pl ify

A. 0 .0 03 6 B. 0 .0 36 C. 0 .36 D. 3 .6

1 27 . Fi nd n if

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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A. 24 B. 13 C. 42 D. 14

OmM
1 28 . A t w h at p oi nt s do es t he s tra igh t lin e y = 2 x+ 1 i nt ers ect the c ur ve y= 2 + 5x -1 ?

A. (- 2,-3 ) an d (0 .5,1) B. (-2 ,-3 ) an d (0 .5 ,2)

C. (2 ,3) an d ( 0.5,2 ) D. (1 ,2) a nd ( 3,4 )

c.Co
1 29 . If c os ,f in d 1+

A. B. b2
a2
C. 1 a2 D. 1 b2

1 30 . If P = 18 ,Q = 21 ,R = -6 ,and S = -4 ,cal cu lat e

sS.
A. 11 B. 11 C. 11 D. 11
21 6 316 4 16 116

1 31
AM
S ol a d epo si ted #1 50 .00 in the ba nk . A t th e e nd of 5ye ar s,th e s im pl e in te res t o n
aEm
th e pr in cip al w as # 55 .00 .A t w h at ra te p er a nn um w as th e in te res t pa id?

A. 6 .3 3% B. 8 .3 3% C. 7 .32 % D. 7 .33 %

1 32 . F i nd the gra die nt o f th e li ne p as sin g th ro ug h th e p oin ts ( -2 ,0 ) an d (0 ,- 4)

A. 2 B. -2 C. 3 D. 4

1 33 . A t w h at v al ue o f x i s th e fun ct ion y=
reR

A. 2 B. -2 C. -1 D. 1

1 34 . S ol ve th e eq ua tio n (x -2 )( x- 3)= 1 2
sStT

A. 1 ,6 B. 3 ,6 C. -1 ,6 D. 1, -6

1 35 . F i nd th e tw o val ue s of y w h ich sa tis fy th e si m ult an eou s e qu ati on s

3 x+ y= 8, + x y= 6

A. 1 an d 5 B. 2 a nd 5 C. 0 an d 5 D . -1 a nd 5
sStT

1 36 . F i nd th e s um o f t he 20 te rm s in an ari th m e tic p ro gre ss ion w ho se fir st ter m is 7

an d th e la st t erm is 1 17

A. 2 39 B. 1 24 0 C. 1 34 0 D. 1 44 0
TteE

1 37 . T he an gl es o f a qu ad ri lat era l are 5x -3 0,4x + 60 ,6 0- x an d 3x + 61 .F in d th e

sm a lle st o f the se a ng les .

A. 60  x B. 4 x+ 60 C. 5x -3 0 D. 3x + 61

1 38 . If g(x )= + 3x + 4 ,fin d g( x+ 1) -g( x) .

A. 2 (x + 1 ) B. 2 (x -2) C. x+2 D. 2 (x+ 2 )

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1 39 . F i n d t h e p o si tiv e n u m b e r n , s u c h th a t th ric e its s q u a re i s e q u a l t o tw e l v e ti m e s

OmM
th e n u m b e r.

A. 1 B. 4 C. -4 D. -1

1 40 T h e a re a o f a s q u a r e is 1 4 4 sq c m . F in d th e le n g t h o f its d ia g o n a l .

c.Co
A. 12 2 cm B. 1 2c m C. 1 3c m D. 1 4c m

1 41 . S im p l ify

A. 3 B. 0 C. 16 D.

sS.
1 42 . If S = (x : = 9 ,x > 4 ),th e n S i s e q u a l to

A. 0 B. {0 } C. ф D. {ф }

1 43 .
AM
E x p re s s th e p r o d u c t o f 0 .0 0 1 4 a n d 0 .0 1 1 in sta n d a r d fo rm .
aEm
A.

D.
1 .5 4 x 1 0 -5

1 .5 4 x 1 0 -2
B. 1 .5 4 x 1 0 -4 C. 1 .5 4 x 1 0 -3

1 44 W h a t v a lu e o f g w i ll m a k e th e e x p r e ss io n 4 a p e r fe c t?

81y 3
A. B. C. D. 4
reR

1 45 . If x * y = x + y -x y , fi n d x w h e n (x * 2 )+ (x * 3 )= 6 8

A. -2 1 B. 21 C. 12 D. -12
sStT

1 46 . D e te rm in e x + y i f

A. 3 B. 4 C. 7 D. 12

1 47 . F i n d th e m i n im u m v a l u e o f fo r a ll r e a l v a l u e s o f x
sStT

A. -0 .7 5 B. 0 .7 5 C. -0 .2 5 D. 1 .2 5

1 48 . If t h e f u n c ti o n f (x )=

A. -5 B. 5 C. -2 D. 2

1 49 . F i n d th e g ra d ie n t o f th e c u rv e y = 2 x ( x - 3 ) a t x = 1
TteE

A. 2 B. -2 C. 1 D. -1

1 50 . In te g ra te + c o s x w ith re s p e c t to x

A. ln x + s in x + k B. l n x -s in x + k C . l n x -c o sx + k D . l n x -c o sx -k

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OmM
1 51 . F i nd the val ue o f K i f =

A. 3 B. -3 C. 9 D. -9

1 52 . If = , fi nd t he v alu e o f r.

c.Co
A. 1 B. 3 C. 3 .5 D. 2

1 53 H ow m a n y tw o -d igi ts nu m be rs ca n be f orm e d fro m t he d ig its 0 ,1 ,2,3 if a d igi t

ca n b e rep e ate d an d no nu m be r m a y b egi n w ith 0?

A. 4 B. 6 C. 13 D. 12

sS.
1 54 . T he le ngt h s o f t he si des o f a ri gh t-an gl ed tr ia ngl e are x cm ,(3 x- 1)c m an d
(3 x + 1 ).F in d x .

1 55 .
AM
A.
aEm 12

If y= x s inx , fin d

A. -1
B.

B.
11

w h en x = .

0
C.

C.
10

1
D.

D.
9

1 56 . P (-6 ,1 ) a nd Q (6,6 ) a re the tw o end s o f t he di am et er o f a gi ven c irc le. C al cu la te

th e ra diu s.

A. 6 u ni ts B. 7 .5 un its C. 6 .5 un its D. 7 un its

reR

1 57 . F i nd th e ra te o f c ha ng e o f th e v olu m e o f v o f a sp he re w it h re sp ec t to its rad iu s

r w he n r= 1.

A. 7 B. 9 C. 10 D. 8
sStT

1 58 . If = 6 ,f ind th e va lue o f

A. 33 b. 30 C. 32 D. 31

1 59 . T eam s A and B are in vo lv ed in a g am e o f fo ot ba ll. W h at i s th e pro ba bil it y th at

sStT

th e ga m e en ds i n a d raw ?

A. B. C. D.

1 60 . T he r an ge o f th e da ta k + 2,k- 3,k+ 4,k -2 ,k -5 ,k + 3,k- 1 an d k + 6 is

TteE

A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13

1 61 . If A = an d I i s a 2x 2 u ni t m a tri x, ev al uat e

§1 0·
¨0 1 ¸¹
©
A. B. C. D.

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OmM
1 62 . If th e 9 th te r m o f a n A . P . i s f iv e ti m e s th e 5 t h te rm , fin d t h e re l a ti o n s h ip
b e tw e e n a a n d d .

A. a+ 2 d= 0 B. a- d= 0 C. a + 2 d -1 = 0 D. a +3 d= 0

1 63 F i n d th e m a x i m u m v a lu e o f y in th e e q u a tio n y = 1 -2 x - 3

c.Co
A. 4 B. C. D.
3

1 64 . T h e b in a r y o p e ra t io n * is d e fin e d on th e s e t o f i n te g e r s p an d q by
p * q = p q + p + q . F in d 2 * (3 * 4 ).

A. 69 B. 49 C. 59 D. 79

sS.
1 65 . G iv e n th a t Q = an d Q +P = e v a l u a t e d e te rm in a n t o f Q + 2 P

A. 1 20 B. 1 23 C. 1 00 D. 90

1 66 .

1 67 .
AM
F i n d th e ta n g e n t o f th e a c u t e a n g le b e t w e e n th e lin e s 2 x + y = 3 a n d 3 x -2 y = 5
aEm
A. 1 .2 5 B. 1 .3 3 C.

If t h e m a x im u m v a l u e o f y = 1 + h x - 3
2 .7 5 D.

is 1 3 , fi n d h
- 1 .7 5

A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 11

1 68 . If t h e s ta n d a rd d e v ia tio n o f th e s e t o f n u m b e r s 3 , 6 ,x , 7 , 5 i s , fin d t h e l e a s t
p o s s ib le v a lu e o f x .
reR

A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6

1 69 . E v a l u a te
sStT

A. 11 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12

1 70 F i n d th e a re a b o u n d e d b y th e c u rv e y = x ( 2 - x ) ,t h e x -a x i s , x = 0 a n d x = 2 .

A. 1 .2 5 s q . u n it s B. 1 .3 3 s q . u n it s C. 0 . 3 3 s q . u n i ts

D. 2 .3 3 s q . u n it s
sStT

1 71 . A tra d e r re a li z e s 1 0 x - n a ira p ro fit fro m th e s a l e o f x b a g s o f c o rn . H o w m a n y

b a g s w i ll g i v e h im th e m a x im u m p r o fi t?

A. 6 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5

1 72 . If a a n d b a r e th e ro o t s o f t h e e q u a ti o n 3 + 5 x -2 = 0 , fin d t h e v a lu e o f
TteE

A. -2 . 5 B. 0 .4 C. 1 .5 D. 2 .5

1 73 . If P ,f in d th e v a l u e o f d i g i t P .

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

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OmM
1 74 . F i n d th e m i n im u m v a l u e o f th e fu n c t io n f( )= fo r 0

A. 0 .5 0 B. 1 .6 7 C. 0 .6 7 D. 2 .6 7

1 75 . X a n d Y a r e tw o e v e n t s. T h e p ro b a b il it y o f X o r Y is 0 .7 a n d th e p r o b a b ili ty o f
X i s 0 .4 .If X a n d Y a r e in d e p e n d e n t , fi n d th e p ro b a b ili ty o f Y .

c.Co
A. 0 .2 B. 0 .4 C. 0 .5 D. 0 .3

1 76 . A n e q u il a te ra l t ria n g l e o f si d e 3 c m i s i n s c ri b e d in a c irc le . F in d th e ra d iu s o f
th e c i rc l e .

A. 1 .0 c m B. 2 .0 c m C. 3 .0 c m D. 0 .7 c m

sS.
1 77 . In a c l a s s o f 4 0 s tu d e n ts ,3 2 o ffe r M a th e m a ti c s,2 4 o ffe r P h y s ic s a n d 4 o ffe r
n e it h e r M a th e m a t ic s n o r P h y s ic s . H o w m a n y o ffe r b o th M a th e m a t ic s a n d
P h y s ic s?

1 78
AM
A.
aEm
If
16 B. 21

= 1 , fi n d th e v a l u e o f x .
C. 19 D. 20

A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

1 79 . If = , fin d th e v a lu e o f x

A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. -5
reR

1 80 . A c i n e m a h a l l c o n ta in s a c e rt a in n u m b e r o f p e o p le . If 2 2 .5 % a re c h il d r e n ,
4 7 .5 % a re m e n a n d 8 4 a re w o m e n , fin d th e n u m b e r o f m e n in t h e h a l l.
sStT

A. 1 33 B. 1 32 C. 1 30 D. 1 23

1 81 . F i n d th e v a l u e o f p , if th e l in e w h i c h p a ss e s th r o u g h (-1 ,-p ) a n d (-2 p ,2 ) i s

p a ra lle l to t h e li n e 2 y + 8 x - 1 7 = 0 .

A. B. 6 C. D.
7
sStT

1 82 . A n a r c o f a c i rc l e su b te n d s a n a n g le o f 3 0 o n th e c i rc u m fe r e n c e o f a c ir c le o f
ra d iu s 2 1 c m .F in d th e le n g t h o f t h e a rc .

A. 1 1cm B. 2 2cm C. 6 6c m D. 4 4c m

1 83 . F i n d th e re m a i n d e r w h e n 3 +5 d iv i d e d b y x + 3 .
TteE

A. -1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1

1 84 . T he nth te r m s of tw o se q u e n c e s ar e
.

A. 18 B. 16 C. 6 D. 3

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1 85 . If th e o p e r a ti o n * o n th e s e t o f in te g e rs i s d e fin e d b y p * q = , fi n d t h e v a lu e

OmM
o f 4 * (8 * 3 2 ).

A. 16 B. 8 C. 6 D. 18

1 86 . F i n d th e s u m to in f in ity o f th e s e rie s

c.Co
A. 1 B. 0 .2 5 C. 0 .7 5 D. 1 .7 5

1 87 . A m a n 4 0 m fr o m t h e fo o t o f a t o w e r o b s e rv e s th e a n g le o f e l e v a tio n o f th e
to w e r to b e 3 0 . D e te rm in e th e h e ig h t o f th e to w e r.

A. B. 4 0m C. 2 0m D. 40 m

sS.
1 88 . A c lif f o n th e b a n k o f a r iv e r is 3 0 0 m h i g h . If t h e a n g le o f d e p re s s io n o f a p o i n t
o n th e o p p o s it e s i d e o f th e riv e r i s 6 0 , f in d th e w i d t h o f t h e r iv e r.

1 89 .
AM
A.
aEm 1 00 m B. 1 50 m C. 1 00 3 cm D . 2 00 m

T h e m e a n o f a s e t o f s ix n u m b e rs is 6 0 .If t h e m e a n o f th e fir s t fi v e is 5 0 , f in d
th e s i x t h n u m b e r in th e s e t.

A. 1 00 B. 1 20 C. 1 05 D. 1 10

1 90 . M a k e r th e s u b j e c t o f t h e f o rm u la

A. B. C. <C>
reR

1 91 T h e i n v e rs e o f t h e f u n c ti o n f(x )= 3 x + 4 is

A. B. C. D.
sStT

1 92 . If a n d y = 3 w h e n x = 0 , fi n d y in t e rm s o f x

A. B. x2  3x  3 C.

D.
sStT

1 93 . A c i rc le w ith a r a d iu s 5 c m h a s i ts ra d iu s in c r e a s in g a t th e ra te o f 0 .2 c m / s .W h a t
w ill b e th e c o rr e s p o n d i n g i n c re a s e i n th e a r e a ?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 2S D. 5
TteE

1 94 . F i n d th e ra n g e o f v a lu e s o f x f o r w h i c h

A. x <6 B. x >6 C. x < -6 D. x > -6

1 95 . If - 2 is t h e s o l u ti o n o f th e e q u a ti o n 2 x + 1 -3 c = 2 c + 3 x -7 , fin d th e v a lu e o f c

A. 2 B. -2 C. 3 D. -3

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1 96 . T he s um of t he in te rio r an gle s of a r eg ula r po l ygo n is 1 8 00 .C al cu lat e the s iz e

OmM
o f on e e xt eri or a ng le o f t he p ol yg on .

A. 45 B. 60 C. 30 D. 90

1 97 . F in d th e sim p le in te re st ra te p erc en t pe r an nu m a t w h ic h #1 ,00 0 ac cu m ul ate s

t o # 1,24 0 i n 3 y ea rs.

c.Co
A. 8% B. 7% C. 6% D. 5%

1 98 . T hr ee co ns ec uti ve p os iti ve in teg er s k , l an d m are su ch th at = 3( k+ m ).F in d

t he v al ue o f m .

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

sS.
1 99 . F in d th e v alu e o f x i f =

2 00 .
AM
A.
aEm 3 -4

T he ex p res sio n a
B. 3 +4 < C > 3 -3 <C > 3 +3

eq ua ls 5 at x= 1 .I f it s de ri vat iv e is 2x + 1, w ha t a re
t he v al ue s of a ,b,c r esp e ct ive ly .

A. 1,3,1 B. 1 ,- 3,1 C. 1,1 ,3 D . 1 ,3,-1

2 01 . If tan
reR

41
A. B. C. D.
9

2 02 . If 2q 3 5 =7 7 8 , fin d q .
sStT

A. -2 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

2 03 S im p lif y .
sStT

A. 50 B. 30 C. 45 D. 35

2 04 . A m an i nv es ted #5 00 0 f or 9 m on th s at 4 % . W h at is th e s im pl e in te res t?

A. N 2 20 B. N 13 0 C. N 1 50 D. N 25 0
TteE

2 05 If th e nu m be rs M ,N ,Q a re i n th e ra tio 5: 4: 3, fin d t he v al ue o f

A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 31

2 06 . S im p lif y

A. B. C. D.

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2 07 . If lo g 3 1 8 + lo g 3 3 - lo g 3 x = 3 , fin d x .

OmM
A. 2 B. 1 C. 0 D. 3

2 08 . R at io n a liz e .

c.Co
A. B. C. D.

2 09 . S im p lif y .

A. B. C. D.

sS.
2 10 . R ai la h as 7 d if fer en t p o ste rs t o b e h an g e d in h e r b ed ro o m , liv in g ro o m an d
k it ch e n . A ss u m i n g s h e h as p la n s t o r ep lac e a t le as t a p o s ter in ea ch o f t h e 3
r o o m s, h o w m an y c h o ic es d o es s h e h av e?

2 11 .
AM
A.
aEm 49 B. 1 70
3
C.
2
21 0 D.

F in d th e re m ain d er w h en x -2 x + 3 x - 3 is d iv id ed b y x + 1 .
21
2

A. x+ 3 B. 2 x- 1 C. 2x + 1 D. x -3

2 12 . F ac to r iz e co m p l et el y 9 y 2 - 1 6 x 2 .

A. (3 y -2 x )(3 y + 4 x ) B. (3 y + 4 x )( 3 y + 4 x )

C. (3 y + 2 x )( 3 y - 4 x ) D. (3 y + 4 x )( 3 y -4 x )
reR

2 13 . S o lv e fo r x an d y r es p e cti v e ly in th e sim u lta n e o u s eq u a tio n s - 2 x -5 y = 3 ,

x + 3y =0 .
sStT

A. -9 , 3 B. 9, -3 C. 3 , -9 D. - 3 , -9

2 14 . I f x v ari es d ir ect ly a s sq u are ro o t o f y a n d x = 8 1 w h e n y = 9 , f in d x w h en y = 1 .

A. 27 B. 2 0 .2 5 C. 36 D. 2 .2 5
sStT

2 15 . T v a rie s in v e rs el y as t h e cu b e o f R . W h en R = 3 , T = , fi n d T w h e n R = 2 .

A. B. C. D.

2 16 . S o lv e th e in eq u al it y -6 (x + 3 )
TteE

A. x B. x C. x D. x

2 17 . S o lv e th e in eq u al it y x 2 + 2 x

A. x> 3 o r x <- 5 B. x < -3 o r x > 5 C. - 5< x <3 C. x <3 or x > 5

2 18 . F in d th e s u m o f t h e f irs t 1 8 te rm s o f th e se rie s 3 , 6 , 9 ,… , 3 6

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A. 51 3 B. 5 05 C. 43 3 D. 6 35

OmM
2 19 . T h e se co n d te rm o f a g eo m etr ic s er ies is 4 w h i le t h e fo u rt h t erm i s 1 6 . F i n d th e
s u m o f th e fir st fi v e ter m s.

A. 60 B. 54 C. 64 D. 62

2 20 . A b i n a ry o p e ra tio n o n r ea l n u m b e rs is d ef in ed b y x = x y + x + y f o r t w o rea l

c.Co
n u m b er s x a n d y . F in d t h e v al u e o f 3

A. B. C. -1 D. 2

2 21 . If , fin d t h e v al u e o f x .

sS.
A. -6 B. 6 C. 12 D. - 12

2 22 .
AM
E v a lu at e
aEm
A. 45 B. 15
.

C. 55 D. 25

2 23 . T h e in v e rse o f m a tri x N = is

A. B. C.
reR

D.

2 24 . W h at is th e s iz e o f e ac h in te rio r an g l e o f a 1 2 -s id ed r eg u l ar p o l y g o n ?
sStT

0 0 0 0
A. 12 0 B. 1 50 C. 30 D. 1 80

2 25 . A ci rcl e o f p e rim e ter 2 8 cm is o p e n e d to fo r m a sq u a re. W h at is th e m ax im u m

p o s si b l e are a o f th e sq u a re ?

A. 5 6 cm 2 B . 9 8c m 2 C . 4 9 cm 2 D . 2 8c m 2
sStT

2 26 . A ch o rd o f a ci rcl e o f ra d iu s 7 cm is 5 cm fro m th e ce n tr e o f th e ci rc le. W h a t is

t h e l en g th o f t h e ch o rd ?

A. 4 cm A B. 3 cm C. 6 cm D. 2 cm
TteE

2 27 . A so li d m e tal cu b e o f s id e 3 cm i s p l ac ed in a re ct an g u la r ta n k o f d i m en sio n s 3 ,
4 an d 5 c m . W h at v o l u m e o f w ate r c an t h e tan k n o w h o ld ?
3 3 3 3
A. 48 c m B. 3 3 cm C. 6 0 cm D . 27 c m

2 28 . T h e p e rp en d i cu l ar b is ec to r o f a lin e X Y i s th e lo cu s o f a p o in t

A. w h o s e d ist an ce f ro m X is alw a y s t w i ce i ts d is tan ce fro m Y

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 THE FEDERAL UNIVERSITY
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B w ho se d is tan ce f rom Y i s a lw ays tw ice i ts d ist an ce f rom X

OmM
C w hi ch m o ves on t he l ine X Y

D w hi ch i s eq uid is tan t fro m the p oi nt s X a nd Y

2 29 T he m id po in t of P (x , y) an d Q (8 , 6 ) is (5 , 8 ). Fi nd x an d y.

c.Co
A (2 , 1 0) B. (2 , 8 ) C. (2 , 1 2) D . (2 , 6 )

2 30 Fi nd t he eq ua tio n of a l ine p erp en di cul ar to l in e 2 y= 5x + 4 w h ic h pa ss es

th ro ugh (4,2 ).

sS.
A. 5 y-2 x- 18 =0 B. 5 y+ 2x -1 8= 0 C. 5 y-2 x +1 8= 0

D. 5 y+ 2x -2 =0

2 31
AM
In a rig ht a ng led tri an gle , if ta n
aEm
A. B. C.
. W hat is co s

D.
sin

2 32 A m a n w a lk s 10 0m du e W est f rom a po in t X to Y , h e th en w alk s 1 00 m du e

N ort h to a po in t Z . Fi nd t he b ea rin g o f X fr om Z .

A. 1 95 0 B. 1 35 0 C. 2 25 0 D . 04 5 0
reR

2 33 T he d eri va tiv e o f (2x + 1)( 3x + 1) i s

A. 1 2x +1 B. 6 x+ 5 C. 6 x+ 1 D. 1 2x + 5
sStT

2 34 Fi nd the val ue o f x a t th e m in im um po in t of t he c urv e y= x 3 + x 2 -x+ 1 .

A. B. C. 1 D. -1

2 35 E val ua te
sStT

A. 2 B. 5 C. 6 D. 3

2 36 Fi nd

A. B. - C.
TteE

D. -

2 37 T he s um of f ou r co ns ecu ti ve i nte ge rs is 34 . F ind th e lea st o f th ese nu m b er s.

A. 6 B. 8 C. 7 D. 5

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OmM
N o. 0 1 2 3 4 5

F req ue nc y 1 4 3 8 2 5

2 38 fi nd t he m e dia n an d r an ge o f th e da ta re sp ec tiv el y.

c.Co
A. (8 , 5 ) B. (3 , 5 ) C. (5 , 8 ) D. ( 5, 3)

C la ss 0 -2 3 -5 6- 8 9- 11
In te rv al

sS.
F req u enc y 1 4 3 8

2 39 AM
F i nd the m o de o f th e a bo ve d is trib ut io n.
aEm
A. 9 B. 8 C. 10 D. 7

C la ss 3- 5 6-8 9-1 1
In te rva l

F req ue nc y 2 2 2
reR

2 40 F i nd the sta nd ard de via ti on o f th e ab ov e di str ib uti on

sStT

A. B. 5 C. D.

2 41 In h o w m an y w ay s ca n th e le tte rs o f the w o rd E L A T IO N be a rr an ged ?

A. 6! B. 5! C. 8! D. 7!

2 42 In h o w m an y w ay s ca n fi ve p eo ple sit r ou nd a cir cu lar t ab le?

sStT

A. 60 B. 24 C. 12 D. 1 20

2 43 F i nd th e p ro ba bil it y th at a n um b er p ic ked a t ra n do m fro m the se t { 4 3, 4 4,

4 5,… , 6 0} i s a pr im e nu m be r.

A. B. C. D.
TteE

2 44 In a c las s of 60 s tu de nts , 3 0 of fer P hy sic s and 40 o ffe r C h em is tr y. If a s tu den t

is pi cke d a t ra nd om fro m th e c las s, w h at is t he pro ba bi lit y th at t he s tu de nt
o ffer b ot h P h ysic s an d C h em ist ry?

A. B. C. D.

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2 45 C on ve rt 7 2 6 t o a nu m be r in b as e thr ee.

OmM
A . 2 21 1 B . 2 12 1 C . 1 21 2 D . 1 12 2

2 23 u 1 21
2 46 S im pl y
4 45

A. 1 24 B. 1 16 C. 5 D. 4

c.Co
6 5

21
2 47 E val ua te t o 3 s ign ifi can t f igu re s.
9

A. 2 .3 0 B. 2 .3 1 C . 2.32 D . 2 .33

sS.
2 48 A m an ea rn s ? 3 5 00 pe r m o nth o ut of w hic h he spe nd s 1 5% o n hi s c hil dre n’ s
ed uc ati on . If h e sp en ds a dd iti on al ? 1 95 0 on f oo d, ho w m uc h do es h e h av e
le ft?

2 49
A.
AM
aEm
If 27
x2
? 52 5

y 9 x 1
B . ? 1 02 5

3 2 x fin d x .
C. ? 1 95 0 D . ? 2 9 75

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

lo g 3 x 2 8
2 50 If ,w h at i s x ?

A. 1 B. 1 C. 1 D. 1
3 9 27 81
reR

S im pl ify ( 6  2 )  ( 6  2) .
2 2
2 51
sStT

A. 2 6 B. 4 6 C. 8 6 D. 16 6

2 52 If P is a set o f al l pr im e f act ors of 3 0 an d Q is a se t of a ll fa cto rs o f 1 8 le ss t ha n

1 0, fin d P ˆ Q .

A. {3 } B. { 2 ,3} C. { 2 ,3,5} D . { 1 ,2}

sStT

2 53 In a cla ss o f 46 s tu den ts , 2 2 pl ay fo ot ba ll an d 26 pl ay vo ll eyb al l. If 3 st ud ent s

p lay b ot h ga m es , h ow m a ny p la y ne ith er ?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

v ( 2  cn )
TteE

1  cn
2 54 M ak e n t he s ub jec t of t he fom u la if w

1 § w  2v) · 1 § w  2v) · 1 § w  2v) ·

c ¨© v  w ¸¹ c ¨© v  w ¸¹ c ¨© v  w ¸¹
A. B. C.

1 § w  2 v) ·
c ¨© v  w ¸¹
D.

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Fi nd the rem ai nd er w h en 2 x  11 x  18 x  1 is div id ed b y x  3 .

3 2
2 55

A. -8 71 B . -7 81 C. -1 87 D. - 17 8

OmM
2 56 S ol ve fo r x an d y i n th e eq ua tio n b elo w .

x  y
2 2
4
x y 2

c.Co
A. x 0, y 2 B. x 0, y 2 C. x 2, y 0

D. x 2, y 0

2 57 If y v ari es d ire ctl y as n an d y 4 w h en n 4 , fin d y w h en n 1 79 .

sS.
A. 17 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2
3 3 3

2 58 AM
U is in ve rs ely pro po rti o nal t o th e c ub e o f V a nd U = 81 w he n V =2 . Fin d U
w he n V = 3.
aEm
A. 24 B. 27 C. 32 D. 36

y  y
1 1 1 2
2 59 T he v alu e o f y f or w hi ch is
5 5 2 5

A. y ! 23 B. y  23 C. y !  23 D . y   23

Fi nd the ran ge o f v alu es o f m w h ich sat is fies ( m  3)( m  4)  0 .

reR

2 60

A. 2 m 5 B. 3  m  4 C. 3 m  4
sStT

D. 4  m  3

y
sStT

(0,4 )

(0 ,0) (1 ,0 ) x
TteE

2 61 T he s ha ded re gio n ab ov e i s rep re sen te d b y th e eq ua tio n.

A. y d 4x  2 B. y t 4x  2 C. y d 4 x  4

D. y d 4x  4

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2 62 T he n th term of a seq u en ce is n 2 -6n -4 . F ind the su m o f th e 3rd an d 4th te rm s.

OmM
A. 24 B. 23 C. -2 4 D. -25

2 63 T he su m to infinity of a geo m etric p ro gre ssion is  110 an d the first te rm is

 18 . F ind the com m o n ratio n o f the pro gress io n.

c.Co
A.  15 B.  14 C.  13 D.  12

2 64 T he b in ary op eration is d efine d o n th e s et o f in te gers su ch th at

p q pq  p  q . Fin d 2 (3 4) .

sS.
A. 11 B. 13 C. 15 D. 22

2 65 A b in ary o p era tio n on th e set o f re al nu m be rs is defin ed b y m n mn

2
for a ll
m , n  R . If the id en tity elem en t is 2, fin d th e in ve rse o f -5 .
AM  45  25
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A. B. C. 4 D. 5

5 3 3 5
2 66 If , find the value o f x
x 2 4 5

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7
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2 67 G iv en th at I 3 is a u nit m atrix o f o rde r 3, fin d | I 3 |

A. -1 B. 0 C. 1 D. 2
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2 68
P
80 o
Q R
o
S 95
xo
sStT

T U
In the dia gram ab ov e, Q R//T U, ‘ PQ R = 80 a nd ‘ PS U= 9 5 . C alcu late
o o

‘ S U T.

A. 1 5o B. 2 5o C . 30 o D. 8 0o
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2 69 T he an gle s o f a p olyg on are giv en b y x , 2 x , 3 x , 4 x and 5 x res pe ctively.

Find the value o f x

A. 2 4o B. 3 0o C. 3 3o D. 3 6o

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2 70 Q

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o
P x R
O

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In t he d ia gra m abo ve , PQ R i s a ci rcl e ce nt re O . If ‘ Q PR is x o , f in d Q R P .

A. xo B. (90  x ) o C. (90  x ) o D . (1 80  x ) o

2 71

sS.
P 7 cm Q

AM
6 cm
aEm
S R
13 cm

Fi nd the are a of t he t rap e ziu m a bo ve .

A. 9 1 cm 2 B. 7 8 cm 2 C. 6 0 cm 2 D. 19 cm2

2 72 A c irc ula r ar c su bte nd s an gl e 15 0 o at t he c en tre of a ci rcl e of r adi us 1 2c m .

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C alc ul ate t he a re a of t he sec to r of th e a rc.

A . 30 S cm 2 B . 60 S c m 2 C . 12 0 S cm 2 D . 15 0 S cm 2
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2 73 C alc ul ate th e v olu m e o f a cu bo id of len gt h 0 .76 cm , b rea dth 2.6 cm a nd he igh t

0 .8 2 cm .

A. 3 .9 2 cm 3 B . 2.13 cm 3 C . 1 .9 7 c m 3 D. 1 .62 c m 3

T he lo cu s of a p oi nt e qu id ist an t f ro m th e in ter se cti on o f lin es 3 x  7 y  7

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2 74 0
an d 4 x  6 y  1 0 is a

A. li ne p ara lle l to 7 x  13 y  8 0 B. c irc le

C. se m ici rcl e D. b ise cto r of the l in e 7 x  13 y  8 0.

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2 75 T he g rad ie nt o f th e st rai gh t lin e jo in in g the po int s P (5,-7 ) an d Q (-2 ,-3) i s

A. 1
2
B. 2
5
C.  47 D.  23

2 76 T he d ist an ce be tw ee n th e po in t (4, 3) a nd t he in ter sec tio n o f y 2 x  4 an d

y 7  x is

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A. 13 B. 3 2 C. 26 D . 10 5

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2 77 F i n d th e e q u a t io n o f t h e l in e s th ro u g h th e p o in t s (- 2 , 1 ) a n d (  12 , 4 )

A. y 2x 3 B. y 2x  5 C. y 3x  2

D. y 2 x 1

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2 78 If a n g le T i s 1 3 5 o , e v a l u a te c o s T .

A. 1 B. 2 C.  2 D.  1
2 2 2 2

2 79 A m a n st a n d s o n a tr e e 1 5 0 c m h ig h a n d s e e s a b o a t a t a n a n g le o f d e p r e ss io n

sS.
o f 7 4 o . F in d th e d i sta n c e o f th e b o a t fr o m th e b a se o f th e tre e .

A. 5 2 cm B. 4 3 cm C. 4 0 cm D . 1 5 cm

2 80 If
AM
aEm
A.
y x2 

y
1
x
, fin d

2x
d y
d x

1
.

B. 2 x  x2 C. 2 x  x2
x2

2x
1
C.
x2

d y
2 81 Find , if y co s x .
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dx

A. si n x B . -si n x C. tan x D . - tan x

³
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 4 x)d x .
2 2
2 82 E v a l u a te (x
1

A. 11 B. 3 C. 3 D. 1 1
3 11 11 3

³ 4 ( se c
S
T )d T .
2
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2 83 E v a l u a te
0

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

2 84
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E xc el le nt
12 0o
Pa ss

o
80
C red it
V er y G o od

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T he gr ad es of 3 6 stu de nt s i n a cla ss te st are as s ho w n i n the p ie ch art a bo ve.

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H ow m a n y stu de nt s ha ve e xc el len t?

A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 7

2 85

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N o of
S tu d e n ts

sS.
AM
aEm M ar k s
T he b ar ch ar t ab ov e sh ow s th e d ist rib ut ion of m ar ks in a cla ss t est . If t he pas s
m ark is 5 , w ha t pe rc ent ag e of t he s tu de nts fail ed t he tes t?

A. 1 0% B. 2 0% C. 5 0% D . 6 0%

2 86 T he m e an of s ev en nu m be rs i s 9 6. If t he ei gh t nu m be r is add ed , th e m ea n
b eco m es 1 12 . F in d th e ei gh t nu m b er .

A. 1 26 B. 1 80 C. 2 16 D. 2 24
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2 87 Fi nd the m e di an o f 2,3,7 ,3,4,5 ,8 ,9,9,4 ,5 ,3,4,2 ,4 an d 5

A. 9 B. 8 C. 7 D. 4
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2 88 Fi nd the ran ge o f 4 ,9 ,6,3,2 ,8 ,10 and 11 .

A. 11 B. 9 C. 8 D. 4

2 89 Fi nd the sta nd ard de via ti on o f 2,3 ,8 , 1 0 a nd 1 2.

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A. 3 .9 B. 4 .9 C. 5 .9 D. 6 .9
n 1
C n 2
2 90 E val ua te If n 15 .

A. 3 63 0 B. 3 36 0 C. 1 12 0 D. 5 60
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2 91 In h o w m an y w ay s ca n th e le tte rs o f the w o rd T O T A L IT Y b e ar ran ge d?

A. 6 72 0 B. 6 27 0 C. 6 20 7 D. 6 02 7

2 92 T he pr ob ab ilit y t ha t a s tud en t p as ses a ph ys ics t est is 2 , If he ta kes t hre e

3
p hys ics tes t, w h at i s th e pr ob abi lit y th at h e pa ss es t w o of th e te st.

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OmM
A. 4 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2
9 9 27 27

2 93 T he pr ob ab ilit y t h at a m a n and h is w ife li ve fo r 80 ye ar s a re 2 an d 3

3 5
re sp ect ive l y. F in d th e p ro bab il ity t ha t at l eas t on e o f th em w ill l ive up to 8 0
ye ar s.

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A. 2 B. 3 C. 7 D. 13
15 15 15 15

sS.
AM
aEm
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sStT
sStT
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Mathematics Answers

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1.B 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.B 6 .A 7.C 8 .B 9 .D 1 0 .A 11.A 1 2 .D 13.D

4.B 15.A 16.D 17.C 18.B 19.D 2 0 .B 2 1 .A 2 2 .C 23.D 24.D 2 5 .A 26.A

27.A 28.B 29.A 30.C 31.A 3 2 .D 3 3 .D 3 4 .C 35.A 36.B 37.B 3 8 .D 39.B

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40.C 41. 42.A 43.B 44.B 4 5 .B 4 6 .B 4 7 .B 48.C 49.B 50.C 51.C 52.B

53.C 54.C 55.C 56.B 57.D 5 8 .D 5 9 .C 60.C 61.C 62.A 63.A 6 4 .A 65.B

66.C 67.D 68.C 69.D 70.C 71.A 72.C 7 3 .C 7 4 .A 7 5 .C 76.B 77.A 78.C

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79.A 80.A 81.D 82.D 83.A 8 4 .B 85. 86.C 87.B 88.A 89.D 9 0 .A 91.C

92.D
AM
93.B
aEm 94.A 95.A 96.B 9 7 .A 9 8 .A 9 9 .A 100.A 101.D 102.D 103.C 104.D

105.B 106.A 107.D 108.C 109.A 110.D 111.A 112.B 113.C 114.B 115.A 116.D 117.A

118.D 119.D 120.C 121.B 122.D 123.B 124.C 125.C 126.A 127.D 128.B 129.B 130.A

131.D 132.B 133.D 134.C 135.D 136.B 137.A 138.D 139.B 140.A 141.D 142.C 143.A
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144.C 145.A 146.C 147.C 148.A 149.B 150.A 151.A 152.B 153.D 154.A 155.C 156.C

157.D 158.B 159.C 160.B 161.A 162.D 163.A 164.C 165.A 166.D 167.A 168.D 169.B
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170.B 171.D 172.D 173.B 174.C 175.D 176.A 177.D 178.B 179.D 180.A 181.B 182.B

183.D 184.A 185.B 186.C 187.A 188.C 189.D 190.B 191.A 192.B 193.C 194.D 195.A
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196.C 197.A 198.D 199.B 200.C 201.A 202.C 203.A 204.C 205.A 206.B 207.A 208.D

209.B 210.D 211.B 212.D 213.A 214.C 215.B 216.D 217.A 218.A 219.D 220.B 221.A

222.D 223.B 224.B 225.C 226.A 227.B 228.D 229.C 230.B 231.C 232.B 233.D 234.A
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235.A 236.C 237.C 238.B 239.D 240.A 241.D 242.B 243.B 244.D 245.D 246.C 247.D

248.A 249.B 250.D 251.C 252.B 253.A 254.A 255.D 256.C 257.C 258.A 259.C 260.C

261.C 262.D 263.B 264.B 265.A 266.C 267.B 268.A 269.D 270.B 271.C 272.B 273.D

274.B 275.C 276.B 277.B 278.C 279.B 280.DBrought

281.B to
282you
.D by:
283.www.teststreams.com
A 284.D 285.C 286.D

287.D 288.B 289.A 290.D 291.A 292.A 293.D

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Physics Questions

OmM
7. Which of the following would you use to
determine the weight of an object?
1. A boy runs 100 m due north and then 100 m due A. chemical balance B. beam balance
east. What is his displacement? C. spring balance D. weight balance
A. 200m 45oE B. 10,000m 45oE

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C. ฀200m 45oN D. 100฀2m 45oN
8. The force that causes an object to move in a
2. The speed of an air force jet was 400 m/s when it circular path is called
flew past an anti-aircraft gun. Calculate its A. centrifugal force B. centripetal force
distance from the gun 4 s later when the gun was C. centre-seeking force <C> none of the above
fire

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A. 100 m B. 1600 m 9. A solid suspended by a piece of string is
C D. 1600 km completely immersed in water. On attempting to

3.
AM
A mango fruit dropped to the ground from the
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top of a tree 40 m tall. Find how long it takes the
fruit to reach the ground if acceleration due to
lift the solid out of the water, the string breaks
when the solid is partly out of the water. This is
because
A. the tension in the string decreases as the solid
gravity g = 10 m/s2 is lifted
A. 2฀2 s B. 80 s B. the mass of the solid has increase
C 4s D. 2 s C . t h e so l i d ap p a r e n t l y w ei g hs l e s s w h e n
completely immersed in water than when
4. A 0.1-m long elastic band extends 5 mm when a partially immersed
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load of 80 N is hung from its end Calculate the D. part of the solid still in water is exerting more
strain on the band force on the string
A. 5 B. 0.5 C. 0.05 D.16
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10. The following statements were made by some

5. Which of the following statements describes students describing what happened during and
what happened when an ice block that floats in a experiment to determine the melting point of
glass of water that is filled to the brim melts? solids
A. The level of the water remains the same. i. The temperature of the solid was constant until
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B. There is a drop in the level of water in the melting started

glass due to condensation on its outside. ii. The temperature of the solid rose until melting
C. The water in the glass overflows started
D. The water level drops because melted ice iii During melting, the temperature was rising
occupies less volume. iv. During melting, the temperature was constant
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v.. The temperature continued to rise after all the

6. A machine with a mass of 4 kg fires a 45 g bullet solid had melted
at a speed of 100 m/s. Find the recoil speed of the vi. temperature stopped rising after the solid had
machine gun. melted
A. 1.1 m/s B. 2 m/s C. 3.5m/s D. 0 m/s which of the following gives correct statements in
the right order?

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A. 2, 4 and 5 B. 2, 3 and 6 heated to 61oC at constant volume. Find its new

OmM
C. 1, 3 and 6 D. 1, 3 and 5 pressure.
A. 1.1 N/m2 B. 1.2 P1 N/m2
11. When some grains of table salt were put in a cup C. 1.01 P1 N/m2 D. 1.1 P1 N/m2
of cold water, kept at constant temperature and

c.Co
left undisturbed, all the water tasted salty after 16. A steel bar has a width of 10 cm at 50oC At what
some time. This is due to temperature will it fit exactly into a hole of constant
A. capillarity B. surface tension width 10.005 cm if coefficient of linear expansion
C. mixing D. diffusion of steel is 11x10-6 C-1)?
A. 75oC B. 0.005oC C. 75.5oC D. -75.5oC

sS.
17. The amount of heat that is required to raise the
12. Given that the latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 temperature of unit mass of a substance one degree
AM
aEmcal/g, how much heat will change 100 g of ice at
0oC into water at the same temperature?
A. 8 kcal
D. 8000 kcal
B. 8 cal C. 800 cal
Celsius is called
A. Heat capacity
C. Specific heat
B. thermal capacity
D. Heat energy

18. Two lamps rated 60 W and 240 V each are

13. A blacksmith dropped a 1.5 kg iron bead at connected in series. What is the total power
300oC into some quantity of water. If the dissipated in both?
temperature of the water rose from 15oC to 18oC, A. 30 W B. 60 W C. 90 W D. 120W
what is the mass of the water assuming no heat is
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lost to the surrounding? (Take the specific heat of 19. Three 3 ฀ resistors connected in parallel have a
iron as 0.46 J kg-1 C-1 and that of water as potential difference of 24 V applied across the
4.2x103 J kg-1 C-1) combination. What is the current in each resistor?
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A. 15.44 kg B. 194.58 g C. 15.44 g A. 8 A B. 3 A C. 24 A D. 4 A

D. 194.58 kg
20. If PHCN charges 25 k per kWh, find the cost of
1 4. Which of the following properties are not those of a operating for 36 hours a lamp requiring 1.5 A on a
suitable thermometric liquid? 240 V line.
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I. It should be a good conductor of heat A. N324 B. N32.4 C. N3.24 D. N0.324

II. It should be opaque
III Its expansion should be regular 21. In order to convert a galvanometer to a voltmeter
IV. It should wet glass A. a low resistance shunt is connected in parallel
V It should have a high melting point and low boiling B. a low resistance shunt is connected in series
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point C. a high resistance multiplier is connected in

A. I and II B. II and III parallel
C. III and IV D. IV and V D. a high resistance multiplier is connected in
series
1 5. A gas at pressure P1 N/m2 and temperature 30oC is

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22. Which of the following is not applicable to an ac C. Specific heat capacity

OmM
generator? D. Specific latent heat
A. Armature B. Commutator
C. Field magnet D. Slip rings 29. An ideal gas has a volume 100 cm3 at 1x105 Pa and
27°C What is its volume at 2x105Pa and 60°C?
23. A potential difference of 5 V is used to produce a A. 42.5 cm3 B. 55.5 cm3

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current of 4 A for 4 hours through a heating coil. C. 50.2 cm3 D. 40.5 cm3
What is the heat produced?
A. 80 J B. 4.8 kJ C. 20 J D. 4800 kJ 30. Which of the following thermometer can be used to
measure high temperature up to 1000oC?
24 . Determine the absolute temperature at which the A. Electrical thermometer B. Pyrometer

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Fahrenheit temperature is twice the Celsius C. Bimetal thermometer
temperature. D. Thermoelectric thermometer
A. 299.82K B. 433.15K

25.
AM
aEmC. 273.25K D. 406.35K

Which of the following law forms the basis of the

31. 4000 J of heat is applied to a 1.5 kg silver pendant
initially at temperature of 150°C Determine its
final temperature [Latent heat = 336 Jkg¯1, specific
thermometry? heat capacity = 233 J/kg. K].
A. Charles' and Gay-Lussac's law A. . 26.4°C B. 38.4°C
B. Fist law of thermodynamics C. 41.5°C D. 15.5°C
C. Boyle's and pressure law
D Zeroth law of thermodynamics 3 2. The specific heat capacity of a substance depends
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on all the following except:

26. A 500m long aluminium chair expands when it was A. Mass of the substance
placed in the sun. Its temperature increases from B. Change in temperature
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2 0 ° C to 6 0 ° C De te r m i n e i t s n ew l e n gt h . C. Surface area of the substance

[ά=2.30×10¯5K¯1]. D. Energy needed
A. 500.46m B. 456.65m
C. 540.28m D. 460.32m 33. Which of the following quantities is a vector?
A. Mass B. Velocity C. Distance D. Speed
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2 7. An electric heater which produces 900 W of power

is used to vaporize water. How much water at 34. A hose ejects water at 80 cl/s through a hole 2 mm in
100°C can be changed to steam in 3 mins by the diameter. The water impinges on a wall and drops
heater? [Heat of vaporization = 2.26×106 J/kg, off without rebounding. What is the force on the
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2×103 J/kg. K] wall?
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A. 0.0226 kg B. 0.275 kg A.2.04 N B.240.0 N C. 20.4 N D. 24.0 N

C.. 0.072 kg D. 0.167 kg
35. A train travelling at 72 km/h undergoes a uniform
2 8. The amount of heat required to produce unit retardation of 2 m/s when brakes are applied Find
temperature rise in a substance is called: the distance travelled from the place where the
A. Latent heat B. Heat capacity brakes were applied

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A. 10 m B. 50 m C. 100 m D. 250 m 43. Niagara falls are 50 m high. Calculate the potential

OmM
energy of 0.1 cubic meter of water at the top relative
36. A force of 200 N pulls a sledge of mass 50 kg and to the bottom. Density of water is 1000 kg m¯3.
overcomes a constant frictional force of 40 N. What Take g = 10 m/s2
is the acceleration of the sledge? A. 48 kJ B. 50 kJ C.51 kJ D . 6 1 kJ
A. 4.0 m/s B. 50 m/s C. 4.5 m/s D. 3.2 m/s

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44. A bullet of mass 15 g is fired from a riffle with a
37. An object A of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity velocity 100 m/s. If the mass of the riffle is 1 kg.
of 3 m/s and collides head-on with another object B What is the recoil velocity of the riffle?
of mass 1kg moving in the opposite direction with a A. 1.5 m/s B. 1.8 m/s C. 1.2 m/s D. 2.1 m/s
velocity of 4 m/s. Assuming the objects move off

sS.
together after collision, calculate their common 45. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity
velocity. of 30 m/s. Find the greatest height attained
A. 0.67 m/s
AM B. 0.50 m/s A. 40 m B. 50 m C. 55 m D. 45 m
C. 0.35 m/s D. 0.55 m/s
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46. The tension in a rope pulling a log is 100 N, the
38. In elastic collision, which of the following mass of the log is 50 kg and the frictional force on
quantities is conserved? the log is 20 N. What is the acceleration of the log?
A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy A. 2 m/s2 B. 1.6 m/s2 C. 1.8 m/s2 D. 2.2 m/s2
C. Activation energy D. Conservation energy
4 7. A body of mass 1 kg falls freely from rest through a
39. A weight of 20 N hangs from a fixed point by a light height of 150 m. Calculate the velocity of the body
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inextensible string. It is pulled aside by a horizontal when it strikes the floor (g=10 m/s2).
force with the string inclined at an angle of 30° to A. 54.8 m/s B. 45.2 m/s C. 38.7 m/s D 65.8 m/s
the vertical. The tension in the string is
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A. 11 N B. 40 N C. 5 N D. 30 N 48.. A car moving with a velocity of 16 m/s accelerates

uniformly at the rate of 1 m/s2 to reach a velocity of
40. A stone of mass 50 kg released from a height of 2 m 20 m/s. Find the distance covered
above the ground If the stone falls freely to a height A. 85 m B. 75 m C. 82 m D. 72 m
of 5 m above the ground, its velocity is
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A. 19.6 m/s B. 49.0 m/s C. 17.15 m/s 4 9. An athlete runs 100 m in 12 s. What is his speed in
D. 39.2 m/s km/h?
A. 33 km/h B. 36 km/h
41. Calculate the kinetic energy of a trolley of mass 40 C. 30 km/h D. 27 km/h
kg moving with a velocity 0.5 m/s
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A. 20 J B. 5 J C . 15 J <C> 10 J 50. Which of the following statements best describes

the specific heat capacity of a substance?
42. A car of mass 500 kg accelerates from rest at 1 A. The quantity of heat required to produce a unit
m/s2. What is the total distance covered in 1 temperature rise;
minute? B. The random kinetic energy of the particles
A. 2000 m B. 3600 m C. 1800 m D. 2400 m composing a system;

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C. The quantity of heat required to change the (I) T h e i n t e r n a l e n e rg y o f t h e s y s t e m

temperature of a unit mass of the substance by increases;

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one degree; (II) Work may be done on the surroundings;
D. The quantity of heat required to vaporise a unit (III) The volume of s yst em i s dir ec tl y
mass of the substance at constant temperature. proportional to the temperature.
51. Determine the temperature whose Fahrenheit A. I and II only B. I, II and III C. III only

c.Co
and Kelvin scales have the same reading to the D. None of the above.
nearest degree.
A. 273K B. 300K C. 500K D.> 574K 59 The transfer of heat energy from one part of a body
to another part without the actual movement of any
52. The SI unit of specific heat capacity of a substance part of the body is called convection.
is: A. True B. False C. Neither true nor false

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A. JK¯1 B. Jkg¯1K¯1 C. Joules D. Cal/g°C D. I cannot tell.
6 0 .. Which of the following quantities are scalars?
53. AM
aEm The density of nitrogen at standard temperature and
pressure is 1.251 kgm¯3. Calculate the root mean
square velocity of nitrogen molecules.
A. 240 m/s B. 1x104 m/s C. 340 m/s
I. Mass II. Work III. force IV. Magnetic
flux
A. II and III only
C. IV only
B. I and II only
D. I and IV only
D. 493 m/s
61. A force (15i – 16j + 27k)N is added to a force (23j –
54. A malaria patient has a body temperature of 98.6°F. 40k)N. What is the magnitude of the resultant?
What is this temperature on the Celsius scale? A. 17N B. 28N C. 63N D. 21N
A. 37°C B. 20°C C. 32°C D. 35°C
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62. Which of the following statements is/are correct

55. A thermos bottle containing 250 g of coffee at 90°C about an object in equilibrium under parallel
is added with a 20 g of milk at 5°C After thorough forces?
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mixing, what is the final temperature? c for water, I. The total force in one direction equals the total
coffee and milk is 1.00Cal/g°C force in the opposite direction.
A. 84°C B. 84°K C. 84°F D. 55°C II. The body must not rotate.
III The resolved components along the x-axis
56. Determine the temperature Tf that results when equals the resolved components along the y-axis.
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150 g of ice at 0°Cis mixed with 300 g of water at . A. I and II only B.. I, II and III
50°C B. II and III only C. I and III only.
A. 67°C B. 6.7°C C. 48°C D. 80°C
63. A car moving with a speed of 90 km/h was brought
57. The only mode of heat energy transfer that needs no to rest in 10 s by the application of the brakes. How
TteE

material medium is: far did the car travel after the brakes were applied
A. Convection B. Radiation A. 150 m B. 15 m C. 250 m D. 125 m
C. Conduction D. Thermal conduction
64. A metre rule is found to balance at the 48 cm mark.
58. When heat energy is added to a system which of the When a body of mass 60 g is suspended at the 6 cm
following observations usually occur: mark, the balance point is found to be at the 30 cm

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mark. Find the mass of the metre rule. 71. Which of the following statements is not correct

OmM
A. 60 g B. 360 g C. 80 g D. 180 g. about stable equilibrium?
A. the body returns to its original position
65. A ball of mass 0.1 kg moving with a horizontal when it is slightly displaced and released
velocity of 15 m/s is shot into a wooden block of B. a slight displacement raises its centre of gravity.
mass 0.4 kg lying at rest on a smooth horizontal C. a slight displacement lowers its centre of gravity.

c.Co
surface. Find their common velocity after impact. D. a slight displacement does not raise or lower its
A 15.0 m/s B. 3.8 m/s C. 7.5 m/s centre of gravity.
D.. 3.0 m/s
72. A body is projected vertically upwards with a
66. A body of mass 2 kg moves velocity of 10 m/s. velocity of 9.78 m/s. How high does it travel before
Neglecting air resistance, determine the kinetic it comes to rest momentarily at the top of its

sS.
energy of the body. motion?. ( g = 9.78 m/s2)
A. 200 N B. 200 J C. 100 J D. 100 N A. 2.45 m B. 4.89 m C. 6.89 m D. 9.78 m

6 7.
AM
Three forces of magnitude 15 N, 10 N and 5 N act
aEm
on a particle in the direction which make 120o with
one another. Find the resultant and the angle the
73. Calculate the time taken for a car to cover a distance
of 125 m if the initial speed is 5 m/s and it has a
constant acceleration of 1.5 m/s2
resultant makes with the x-axis. A. 8 s B. 10 s C. 15 s D. 12 s
A. 8.66 N, 30o B . 4.33 N , 60o
C. 7.4 N, 45o D. 2.52 N, 60o 74. Calculate the braking force to bring a body of mass
1 kg to rest from 25 m/s on a level ground in 60 m
681. Which of the following statements best defines a with uniform retardation.
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couple? A. 5.2 N B. 5.5 N C. 5.6 N D. 5.0 N

A. Two parallel and opposite forces acting on one
sStT

another. 75. A drop hammer is lifted to a height of 50 m above

B. Two equal forces acting in the same direction. the ground and then allowed to fall from rest on to a
C. Two parallel and opposite forces acting on a forging at ground level. Calculate the downward
body whose lines of action do not coincide velocity of the hammer when it strikes the forging.
D. None of the above. (g=10 m/s2)
sStT

A .10.95 m/s B. 25.8 m/s C. 31.6 m/s

69. A force F = (5i + 3j)N acts on a body and causes a D. 35.5 m/s
displacement r = (7i – j)m. Determine the work
done. 76. A uniform rod of weight 10 N is balanced at a point
A. 53 J B. 32 J C. 35 J C. 21 J. 75 cm from the end B The pivot is removed to point
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30 cm from A What force must be applied at A to

70.. A force of 0.6 N acts on a body of mass 40 g, balance the rod horizontally?
initially at rest. What is the resulting acceleration? A. 25 N B. 10 N C. 30 N D . 15 N
A. 35 m/s2 B. 40 m/s2 C. 15 m/s2
D. 25 m/s2 77. An equilateral triangular lamina has each side
equal to 50 cm. How far is the centre of gravity

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from each vertex? A. variation of pressure with temperature

OmM
A. 34.64 cm B. 33.3 cm C. 36.9 cm B. mass of a liquid
D. 28.9 cm C. change in resistance of a conductor
D. change in colour with temperature
7 8. A man can row a boat at 13 m/s in still water. If he
aims at crossing to the opposite bank of a river 84. The clinical thermometer is characterized by

c.Co
flowing at 5 m/s, at what angle to the bank of the having a
river must he row the boat? A. wide range of temperatures B. wide bore
A. 67.4o B. 21o C. 56.8o D. 22.6o C. long stem D. constriction

79. The lower and upper fixed points of a thermometer 85. The amount of heat given out or absorbed when a

sS.
are 30 mm and 180 mm respectively. Calculate the s u b st a n ce c ha n g e s i ts s ta t e a t a co n s t an t
te mpe ratu re in de gre es Ce lsiu s wh en th e temperature is know as
thermometer reads 45 mm.
AM A. latent heat B. heat capacity
A. 10.0oC B. 15.0oC C. 20.0oC C. specific heat capacity D. specific latent heat
aEm
D. 30.0oC
86. A block of aluminium is heated electrically by a 25
8 0. An immersion heater rated 400 W, 220 V is used to W heater. If the temperature rises by 10oC in 5
heat a liquid of mass 0.5 kg. If the temperature of minutes, what is the heat capacity of aluminium?
the liquid increases uniformly at the rate of 2.5oC A. 850 J/K B. 750 J/K C. 650 J/K
per second, calculate the specific heat capacity of D. 500 J/K
the liquid assuming no heat loss,
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A. 1100 J/kg.K | B. 320 J/kg.K 87. In a gas experiment, if the volume of the gas is
C. 200 J/kg.K D. 176 J/kg.K plotted against the reciprocal of the pressure, the
unit of the slope of the resulting curve is:
sStT

8 1. A balloon filled with 1000 cm3 of gas at 127oC and A. power B. work C. temperature D. force
pressure of 70 cm Hg. If the pressure changes to 28
cm Hg and temperature to -23.3oC, calculate the 88. Thermal equilibrium between two objects exist
new volume of the gas. when:
A. 136 cm3 B. 218 cm3 C.250 cm3 A. the heat capacity of both objects are the same
sStT

D. 485 cm3 B. one object loses heat continuously to the other

C. temperature of both objects are equal
8 2. A density glass bottle contains 44.25 g of a liquid at D. the quantity of heat in both objects is the same.
0oC and 42.02 g at 50oC Calculate
the real cubic expansivity of the liquid (Linear 89. A shepherd calling to fellow shepherd heard his
TteE

expansivity of glass = 1.0x10-5 K-1) voice reflected by a rock 3 s later. Calculate the
A. 1.09x10-3 K-1 B. 1.06x10-3 K-1 velocity of sound in air if the rock is 510 m away.
C. 3.0x10-5 K-1 D. 1.03x10-3 K-1 A. 510 m/s B. 1.5 m/s C.340 m/s D. 170 m/s

83. Which of the following properties is not used to 90. An object 3 cm high placed on the axis of a
measure the temperature of a substance? converging lens form an image 30 cm from the lens.

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If the focal length of the lens is 15 cm the height of its own liquid

OmM
the image is B. the vapour of a substance is in equilibrium with
A. 3 cm B. 1 cm C. 6 cm its own gas
D. none of the above C. the vapour of a substance is in equilibrium with
its own solid-liquid phase
9 1. An object is placed between two plane mirrors D. none of the above

c.Co
inclined at 60o to each other. If the object is
equidistant from each find the number of images 9 8. A wave travels with a velocity of 360 m/s. If its
forme wavelength is 120 cm then its period is:
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 A. 0.0017 s B. 0.33 s C. 33 s D. 1.7 s

sS.
9 2. Before frying, the volume of 0.8 g/cm3 vegetable 99. The heights of the mercury thread in a mercury-in-
oil was 500 cm3. If the density of the oil was 0.5 glass thermometer when melting ice and then in
AM
g/cm3 after frying and there was no loss of oil due
to spilling, what is the new volume of the oil?
aEm
A. 400 cm3 B. 800 cm3 C. 600 cm3 D. 200 cm3
steam are 2 cm and 22 cm respectively. What would
be the height of the mercury thread at 70o?
A. 14 cm B. 12 cm C. 16 cm D. 18 cm

9 3. A 650 kg car that was initially rest traveled with an 100. An object is placed 45 cm in front of a concave
acceleration of 4 m/s2. Find its kinetic energy after mirror of focal length 15 cm. What the linear
4 s. magnification produced?
A. 5200 J B. 31200 J C. 83200 J D.832 kJ A. 1/3 B. 2 C. 3 D. ½
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9 4. The temperature at which the water vapour present 101. A man has five 40 W electric light bulbs, six 60 W
in the air and begins to condense is called bulbs and two 100 W bulbs in his house. If all the
A. condensation point B. dew point points are on for five hours daily and PHCN
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C. boiling point D. critical point charges 12 k per unit, what is his bill for 30 days?
A. N13.68 B. N0.46 C. N2.74
9 5. Which of the following types of waves will travel D. none of the above
through vacuum? I. light waves II. sound waves
III. Radio waves 102. In a resonance tube experiment, the first resonance
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A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only position is 16 cm when the velocity of sound in air
D. I and III only is 327.68 m/s. Find the frequency of the tuning fork
used
9 6. In a simple pendulum experiment, a student A. 512 kHz B. 256 Hz C. 128 Hz D. 512 Hz
increased the length of the inextensible string by a
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factor of 9. By what factor is the period increased? 103. Half-life of a radioactive substance is:
A. 3 B. 1/3 C. 2 D. ½ A. the average life time of the substance
B. the time it takes the substance to decay to half of
9 7. A vapour is said to be saturated when: its original quantity
A. the vapour of a substance is in equilibrium with C. the time it takes the activity of the substance to

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decay to half of its original value D. Any two bodies attract each other with a force

OmM
D. all of the above which is the product of their masses and inversely
proportional to the distance between them.
104. The headlamp bulb of a motor car is rated 60 W, 12
V. Calculate the resistance of its filament. 109. The nucleus of an atom consists of:
A. 0.2 ฀ B. 5 ฀ C. 2.4 ฀ D. 2 V A. protons and neutrons B. protons and electrons

c.Co
C. electrons and neutrons
105. In an electrolysis experiment, a cathode of mass 4.5 D. electrons, protons and neutrons
g weighs 4.52 g after a current of 4.5 A flows for 1
hour. The electrochemical equivalent of the 111. A certain quantity of heat increases the temperature
deposited substance is: of 185 g of water from 10oC to 20oC and increases

sS.
A. 0.00444 g/C B. 0.00741 g/C the temperature of an equal volume of 140 g of oil
C. 0.00074 g/C D. 0.00007 g/C from 7oC to 18oC The ratio of the specific heat of
the oil to that of water is:
AM
106. An object falls freely under gravity from a given
aEm
height. At half way point, its kinetic energy is:
A. exactly half of its initial potential energy 112.
A. 0.83 B. 1.26 C. 1.07

The motion of the pendulum bob is:

D. 0.93

B. exactly half of its kinetic energy A. rotational B. circulatory

C. exactly half of its final potential energy C. oscillatory D. none of the above
D. zero
113. Which of the following is not one of the factors that
affect the capacitance of a capacitor?
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107.. The silvered walls of a vacuum flask are used to A. temperature B. area of plates
prevent: C. distance between the plate
A. heat loss due to opacity D. dielectric between the plates
sStT

B. heat loss due to radiation

C. heat loss due to convection 114. Which of the following statements is true
D. heat loss due to conduction of gamma-rays?
A. they are deflected by electric field
108. The law of universal gravitation states that: B. they ionize intensely
sStT

A. All bodies on the surface of the earth are C. they carry no electric charge
attracted towards the centre of the universe D. they originate outside the nucleus of the atom
B. Any two bodies attract each other with a force
which is directly proportional to product of their 115. The virtual image formed of an object placed 10 cm
masses and inversely proportional to the square from a convex lens is 2. Find the focal length of the
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of the distance between them. lens.

C. All bodies attract each other with a force which is A. 7.5 cm B. 15 cm C. 30 cm
directly proportional to product of their masses D. 10 cm
and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them. 116. A milliammeter of resistance 2.5 ฀ and full scale
deflection of 50 mA is to be used to measure a

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potential difference of 50 V. What is the resistance C. Sound waves are mechanical waves

OmM
of the multiplier? D. Sound waves can not propagate through vacuum
A. 99.75 ฀ B. 997.5 ฀ C. 9975 ฀ D. 9.98 ฀
1 2 3. Which of the following statements is not true about
117. The ice and steam points of a mercury-in-glass the human eye?
thermometer of centigrade scale and of uniform A. the focal length of its lens is fixed

c.Co
bore correspond respectively to 3 cm and 23 cm B. the focal length of its lens is variable
lengths of the mercury thread. What is the C. image distance is fixed
temperature when the length of the mercury thread D. all of them
is 12 cm?
A. 40oC B. 60oC C. 75oC D. 45oC 124. Hypermetropia can be corrected by using

sS.
A. concave spectacle lenses
118. When a ray of light passes from glass to air, it is: B. convex spectacle lenses
A. bent towards the normal C. plano-concave spectacle lenses
AM
aEmB. away from the normal
C. not deviated
D. spread out in a pure spectrum 125.
D. plano-convex spectacle lenses

In the astronomical telescope

A. there are three convex lenses
119. What is the resistance of the filament of an electric B. the eyepiece has a longer focal length than the
lamp rated 220 V, 100 W? objective
A. 0.45 ฀ B. 2.2 ฀ C. 484 ฀ D. 440 ฀ C. the eyepiece has a shorter focal length than the
objective
reR

1 2 0. Pressure cooker cooks faster because D. the eyepiece and the objective have the same
A. the inside is polished focal length
B. inside the cooker, the boiling point of water is
sStT

raised 1 2 6. Which of the following apparatuses is not needed

C. inside the cooker, the boiling point of water is for the production of pure spectrum?
lowered A. source of light B. rectangular glass block
D. inside the cooker, the pressure of water is raised C. slit D. convex lens
sStT

1 2 1. A gasoline generator is used to power ten 40 W 127. The principle of moment states that:
lamps, five 60 W lamps and a musician's 1000 W A. Action and reaction are equal and opposite
amplifying system. If the generator runs for 5 B. If a body is in equilibrium under the action of a
hours, the energy used is number of parallel forces, sum of clockwise
A. 1.7 kWh B. 8.5 kWh C. 1.0 kWh moment equals sum of anticlockwise moment
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D. none of the above C. If a body is in equilibrium under the action of a

number of parallel forces, sum of clockwise
122 . Which of the following statements is not true about mo me nt ab o u t a p o in t e q ua l s s um o f
sound waves? anticlockwise moment about the same point.
A. Sound waves are longitudinal waves D. If a body is in equilibrium under the action of a
B. Sound waves are transverse waves number of parallel forces, all forces cancel out

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D. I and II only

OmM
128. A uniform metre rule of mass 90 g is pivoted at the
40 cm mark. If the metre rule is in equilibrium with 134. Which of the following is not an application of
an unknown mass M placed at the 10 cm mark and a capillarity?
72 g mass at the 70 cm mark, then M is A. sap from the soil rises up plant stem.
A. 162 g B. 30 g C. 72 g D. 102 g B. kerosene rises up the wick of a lamp

c.Co
C. blotting paper absorbs ink
129. A pole AB of length 10 m weighs 800 N and has its D. none
centre of gravity 4 m from the end A, and lies on
horizontal ground. The least vertical force required 135. Which of the following statements is not correct?
to lift its end B is A. electric charges can be produced by friction
A. 320 N B. 80 N C. 2000 N D. 20 N B. electric charges can be produced by induction

sS.
C. electric charges can be produced by conduction
130. A metre rule is found to balance horizontally at the D. none
AM
48 cm mark. When a body of mass 60 g is
suspended at the 6 cm mark the balance point shifts 136.
aEm
to the 30 cm mark. The mass of the metre rule is:
A. 1.33 g B. 80 g C. 3.33 g D . 45 g
Which of the following is not simple harmonic
motion?
A. The motion of the prongs of a sounding tuning
fork
131. The elastic limit of a material is: B. The motion of an object suspended from the free
A. the yield point end of a spiral spring
B. the limit of stress within which the strain in the C. The motion of the plucked string of a musical
material completely disappears when the stress is instrument
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removed D. The motion of Earth around the sun

C. a point at which a sudden increase in elongation
sStT

occurs with only a small increase in tension. 137. The period of a body making simple harmonic
D. none of the above. motion is defined as:
A. number of complete oscillation performed in
132. A 10 g mass placed on the pan of a spring balance one second
causes an extension of 5 cm. If a 15 g mass is placed B. time taken to make one complete oscillation
sStT

on the pan of the same spring balance, the extension C. time taken to make one oscillation
produced is: D. the maximum displacement of the body from its
A. 2.0 cm B. 30.0 cm C. 7.5 cm D. 1.5 cm equilibrium position

133. Which of the following does not reduce surface of a 138. A machine gun fires a bullet with an initial velocity
TteE

liquid? of 200 m/s at an angle of 60o to the horizontal. If g =

I. addition of impurities like detergent or alum to the 10 m/s2, the total time of flight of the bullet is:
liquid A. 34.64 s B. 17.32 s C. 51.96 s D. 69.28 s
II. heating the liquid
III. cooling the liquid 139. A bullet of mass 20 g is fired horizontally at a
A. I only B. II only C. III only stationary wooden block of mass 380 g with a

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velocity of 200 m/s. If the bullet embeds itself in the

OmM
block, their common velocity is: 146. When an inclined plane of angle ฀ is used as a
A. 10.0 m/s B. 0.1 m/s C. 4.0 m/s simple machine, its velocity ratio is:
D. 0.0 m/s A. 1/cos ฀ B. cos ฀ C. 1/sin ฀ D. sin ฀

1 4 0. The velocity ratio of a simple machine is defined 147. Which of the following statements is not true of a

c.Co
as: real image formed by a concave mirror?
A. the ratio of the distance moved by effort to the A. It is inverted B. It is erect
distance moved by load C. It can be observed on a screen D. None
B. the ratio of the distance moved by load to the
distance moved by effort 148. A 8 kg mass rests on an inclined plane. If the
C. the ratio of the useful work output of the machine limiting frictional force 50 N and g = 10 m/s2,

sS.
to the total work input then the angle of inclination of the plane is:
D. none of the above A. 37.8o B. 38.7o C. 87.3o D. 78.3o

1 4 1.
AM
A machine has a velocity ratio of 6 and is 80% 149.
aEm
efficient. The effort needed to lift a load of 300 N
with the aid of the machine is:
Which of these gives the dimension of torque?
A. MLT
D. ML2T-2
B. ML-1T C. ML-1T-2

A. 4.8 N B. 300 N C. 62.5 N D. 63.5 N

150. An object of mass 80 kg is kicked above the ground
1 4 2. An open organ pipe has a length of 6 m. If the speed and in 20 s it has reached a height of 600 cm.
of sound in air is 340 m/s and neglecting the end- Calculate the power of the object.
corrections, the frequency of its first overtone is A. 40 W B. 240 W C. 402 W D. 204 W
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A. 56.67 Hz B. 28.33 Hz C. 85 Hz D. 1.3 kHz

151. Which of these statements is true?
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143. A piano wire 0.5 m long has a total mass of 0.01 kg A. Energy cannot be destroyed and cannot be
and is stretched with a tension of 800 N. The transformed from one form to another
frequency of its fundamental note is: B. Momentum before impact is not necessarily
A. 400 Hz B. 100 Hz C. 200 Hz D. 300 Hz equal to the momentum after impact
C. Impulse the product of force and time
sStT

144. Two capacitors of 8 ฀F and 10 ฀F are connected in D. In perfectly elastic collision, there is a small loss
series to a 100 V dc supply. The charge on either of energy.
place of each capacitor is: 152. A load of 2 tonnes is raised with 10 N efforts.
A. 2.25x10-1C B. 4.4 C Calculate the mechanical advantage of the machine
C. 4.4x10-3C D. 4.4x10-4C with which the load is raised
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A. 200 N B. 0.20 N C. 2000 D. 102

145. A conductor of length 5 m carrying a current of 15
A is placed in a uniform magnetic field of flux 153. An object of mass 4000 g is 60 cm above the ground
density 0.25 T. If the conductor is placed at 60o to Calculate its kinetic energy 50 cm above the ground
the field then the force on it is: (Take g = 10 m/s2)
A. 18.75 N B. 9 N C. 16.24 N D. 35 N A. 4 J B. 40 J C. 4 N D . 40 N

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with a velocity 360 m/s. What is the recoil velocity

OmM
1 5 4. A fast moving object of mass 200 g travels at 100 of the gun?
m/s and hits a block of wood of mass 2 kg. The two A. 14.0 m/s B. 12.0 m/s C. 11.0 m/s
bodies moved together after impact. Find the D. 13.0 m/s
velocity with which they moved together after
collision. 161. A car of mass 1000 kg travels with a velocity 45

c.Co
A. 9.09 m/s B. 90.9 m/s C. 0.910 m/s km/h on a rough road and it is brought to a rest after
D. 1.96m/s. 10s. What is the force exerted on the car?
A. 1333 N B.1250 N C. 1282 N D. 1067 N
1 5 5. Determine the distance traveled by a particle whose
initial velocity is 48 km/h. The particle accelerated 162. A bridge 100m long weighs 500 kN. A lorry

sS.
uniformly at the rate of 1.8 m/s2 and attained a weighing 100 kN is 25 m from one end of it. Find
velocity of 72 km/h. the force exerted at this support.
A. 6.167 m B. 61.67 m C. 616.7 m A. 350 kN B. 300 kN C. 330 kN D. 325 kN

1 5 6.
AM
D. 6167 m
aEm
An object floats in a liquid with one third of its
163. What is the kinetic energy of a rock of mass 220 g
after it has fallen freely for 5 seconds? g=10 m/s2.
volume above the liquid surface. Determine the A.350 J B. 225 J C. 275 J D. 250 J
density of the liquid, if the object density is 7100
kg/m3 (Take g = 10m/s2) 164. When equal masses of iron and water are given
A. 1056 kg/m3 B. 1560 kg/m3 equal quantity of heat, the piece of iron becomes
C. 10650 kg/m3 D. 15.60 kg/m3 much hotter than water after a shorter time because:
reR

A. the specific heat of iron is higher than that of

1 5 7. A metal block of mass 2125 g displaces 250 cm3 of water
water. What is its density? B. the specific heat of iron is lower than that of
sStT

A. 8300 kg/m3 B. 8800 kg/m3 water

C. 8500 kg/m3 D. 8700 kg/m3 C. iron is in solid state while water is in liquid state
D. heat flows faster in solids
1 5 8. A body starting from rest travels for 100 s with
uniform acceleration of 1.5 m/s. What distance 165. The speed of light in air is 3.0x108 m/s. What is its
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does it cover in the last 2 seconds? speed in glass having a refractive index of 1.65?
A. 27.0 m B. 26.2 m C. 29.8 m D. 30.8 m A. 6.0 x108 m/s B. 4.95 x108 m/s
C. 1.65 x108 m/s D. 1.82 x108 m/s
1 5 9. A pile driver of mass 125 kg falls through a height
of 80 m before striking the pile. What is its 166. Atmospheric pressure is 1.0x105 N/m2. If the
TteE

momentum at the instance it strikes the pile? g = barometer liquid has a density of 1250 kg/m3, what
10m/s2 is the minimum length of the tube required?
A. 40 kg.m/s B. 5000 kg.m/s C. 1600 kg.m/s g=10m/s2.
D. 5000 kg.m A. 7.8 m B. 0.76m C. 8.0 m D. 10 m

160. A gun weighing 1500 kg fires a shot weighing 50 kg 167. Young's modulus for steel is 2x1011 N/m2. A

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weight of 100 N hangs from a steel wire of length 3 B. The limiting frictional force is dependent on the

OmM
m and cross-sectional area 1.5x10-6m2. Calculate area of contact of the two surfaces
the extension is 0.25 mm, calculate the extension C. until motion takes place, the frictionally force is
produced always equal to the force tending to produce the
A. 1 mm B. 1.5 mm C. 0.1 mm D. 0.15 mm motion

c.Co
C. when motion takes place, the friction force is
1 6 8. A load of 50 N is attached to one end of a long less than its limiting value.
vertical wire of length 4 m and diameter 2.4 mm
whose other end is fixed If the extension is 0.25 173. A solid of mass 1 kg suspended by a string, is
mm, calculate the Young modulus of the material of completely immersed in water. If the tension in the
the wire. string is 5 N, calculate the upthrust on the solid

sS.
A. 18 N/m2 B. 1800 N/m2 C. 180 N/m2 Take g= 9.78 m/s2
D. 1.8x1011 N/m2 A. 8.0 N B. 4.78 N C. 47 N D. 9.78 N

1 6 9.
AM
Which of the following statements is not true about
aEm
friction force is not correct.
A. The centre of gravity of a body is the point where
174. The resistance of a piece of wire of length 20 m,
cross-sectional area 8.0 x10-6 m2 and resistivity
4.0 x10-7 ฀-m is:
the resultant force of attraction or weight of the A. 0.5 ฀ B. 1.0 ฀ C. 5.0 ฀ D. 10.0 ฀
body acts
B. The lower the centre of gravity of a body the 175.. A force of 0.6 N acts on a body of mass 40 kg,
more stable the body is initially at rest. What is the resulting acceleration?
C. The higher the centre of gravity of a body the A. 24 m/s2 B. 0.6 m/s2
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more stable the body is C. 40 m/s2 D. 15 m/s2

D. it is the point at which the weight of the body
appears to be acting 176. An object of mass 10 kg is pulled over a rough
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surface by a 20 N force. The object accelerates at a

1 7 0. A car travels with a constant velocity of 45 km/h for rate of 1.5 m/s2. Determine the frictional force
10 s. What is the distance it covers in this time? between the object and the surface.
A. 450 m B. 400 m C.125 m D. 45 m A. 30 N B. 20 N C. 2 N D. 5 N
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1 7 1. A body is projected vertically upwards with a 177. A body of mass 2 kg, moving with velocity 5 m/s
velocity of 9.78 m/s. How high does it travel before collides with stationary body of mass 0.5 kg if the
it comes to rest momentarily at the top of its two bodies move together after impact , calculate
motion? their common velocity.
A. 4.89 m B. 500 m C. 48 m D. 9.78 m A. 10 m/s2 B. 4 m/s2 C. 2.5 m/s D. 0.5 m/s2
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1 7 2. Which of the following statements is not true about 178. A body of mass 200 g and specific heat capacity 0.4
the friction force? J/g.K cools from 37oC to 31o<C> Calculate the
A. Friction always act in such a direction that quantity of heat released by the body.
opposes motion A. 4800 J B. 1200 J C. 480 J D. 202 J

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1 7 9. The length of mercury thread when it is at 0oC, 186. A piece of copper mass 200 g is heated to 100oC

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100oC and unknown temperature XoC is 200 mm, and is then quickly transferred to a copper
220 mm and 270 mm respectively. Determine the calorimeter of mass 10 g, containing 100 g of water
value of X. whose initial temperature is 15o<C> If the specific
A. 350oC B. 57 oC C. 133 oC D. 300 oC heat capacity of copper and water are 400 J/kg.K

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and 4200 J/kg.K, find the final temperature of the
1 8 0. The linear expansivity of a substance is 1.2x10- substance.
4/K. A cube of this substance has a volume of A. 29.1oC B. 30.1oC C. 28.4oC
8.0x103 cm3 at 30o<C> Calculate the increase in D. 27.4oC
its volume at 80oC
A. 48 cm3 B. 24 cm3 C. 96 cm3 D. 72 cm3 187. Which if the following statements is not correct

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about the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases?
1 8 1. At what temperature will the volume of a given A. the attraction between the molecules is

1 8 2.
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ideal gas be three times its volume at 0oC?
A. 273oC B. 300oC C. 546oC C. 819oC
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A rectangular metal block of volume 10-6m3 at 273
negligible
B. the volume of molecules is negligible compared
with the volume occupied by the gas
C. the duration of a collision is negligible compared
K is heated to 573 K. If its coefficient of linear with the time between collisions
expansion is 12x10-5/K, what is the percentage D. the molecules of the gas behave like perfectly
change of its volume? inelastic spheres
A. 18 B. 1.8 C. 1.08 D. 1.2
1 8 8. The ice and steam points of an ungraduated
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1 8 3. Calculate the time taken, in minutes, to heat 2.0 kg thermometer are 300 mm apart. Calculate the
of water from 30oC to 100oC in an electric kettle length of thermometric liquid above the ice points
that draws a current of 3.0 A from 240 V supply. which will correspond to a temperature of 75oC
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(Specific heat capacity is 4.2x103 J/kg) neglect A. 275 mm B. 250 mm C.225 mm D. 215 mm
heat losses to the surrounding.
A. 0.2 B. 1.9 C. 3.6 D. 21.2 189. A piece of copper of mass 0.55 kg is heated from
57oC to 100oC What is the increase in the internal
1 8 4. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature energy of the copper? (c=380 J/kg.K)
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of 10 kg of copper by 1k is its: A. 8.9x103 J B. 9.8x103 J C. 8.987x103 J

A. internal energy B. Specific heat capacity D. 9.879x103 J
C. Heat capacity D. Molar heat capacity
190. Two metals A and B lose the same quantity of heat
1 8 5. Calculate the heat energy required to vapourise 50 when their temperatures drop from 20oC to 15oC If
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g of water initially at 80oC if the specific heat the specific heat capacity of A is thrice that of B,
capacity of water is 4.2 J/g.K. (Specific latent heat calculate the ratio of mass of A to that of B
of vapourisation of water is 2260 J/g) A. 1:3 B . 1: 2 C. 3:1 d. 3:4
A. 1533000 J B. 1172200 J C. 230200 J
D. 113000 J

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1 9 1. Which of the following is/are observed when heat

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energy is added to a system?
(i) the internal energy of the system increases
(ii) the volume of the system is directly
proportional to the temperature

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(iii) work may be done in the surroundings.
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) B. (iii) only
C. (i) and (iii) D. none of the above

1 9 2. A constant volume gas thermometer records a

pressure of 240 mmHg at 0oC and 300 mmHg at

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100oC Calculate the new temperature when the gas
pressure is 270 mm of Hg

193.
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A. 99oC B. 95oC
aEm C. 9oC D. 90oC

In which of the following is expansion of solids a

disadvantage?
A. the balance wheel of a watch
B. fire alarms
C. the thermostat
D. the fitting of wheels in rims.
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194. How long does it take a 800 W heater to raise the

temperature of 2 kg of water from 20oC to 60oC?
(specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg.K)
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A. 280 s B. 420 s C. 210 s D. 120 s

195. A room is heated by means of charcoal fire. A man

in the room standing away from the fire is warmed
by:
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A. convection B. radiation C. conduction

D. reflection
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Technology for Self Reliance

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Physics Answers

1 D 21 D 41 A 61 D 81 C 101 A 121 B 141 C 161 B 181 A

2 B 22 B 42 C 62 A 82 A 102 A 122 B 142 A 162 B 182 D

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3 A 23 B 43 B 63 D 83 D 103 C 123 A 143 C 163 C 183 C

4 B 24 B 44 A 64 C 84 D 104 C 124 B 144 D 164 B 184 B

5 D 25 D 45 D 65 D 85 A 105 D 125 C 145 C 165 D 185 B

6 A 26 A 46 B 66 C 86 B 106 A 126 B 146 C 166 C 186 B

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7 C 27 C 47 A 67 A 87 B 107 B 127 C 147 B 167 A 187 C

10 A
B

C
AM
28 B
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29 B

30 B
48

49

50
D

C
68 C

69 B

70 C
88 C

89 C

90 A
108 B

109 A

110 B
128 D

129 A

130 B
148 B

149 D

150 B
168 D

169 C

170 C
188 C

189 D

190 C

11 D 31 A 51 D 71 B 91 D 111 B 131 B 151 C 171 A 191 A

12 A 32 C 52 B 72 B 92 B 112 C 132 C 152 C 172 D 192 D

13 C 33 B 53 D 73 B 93 C 113 A 133 C 153 A 173 B 193 A

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14 D 34 A 54 A 74 A 94 B 114 C 134 D 154 A 174 B 194 B

15 D 35 C 55 B 75 C 95 D 115 C 135 C 155 B 175 D 195 C

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16 C 36 D 56 B 76 D 96 A 116 B 136 D 156 C 176 D

17 C 37 A 57 B 77 B 97 A 117 D 137 B 157 C 177 B

18 C 38 A 58 A 78 B 98 B 118 B 138 A 158 A 178 C

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19 D 39 B 59 B 79 A 99 C 119 C 139 A 159 B 179 A

20 C 40 C 60 B 80 B 100 D 120 B 140 A 160 B 180 A

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