Listening Comprehension

This section tests your ability to comprehend spoken English. It is divided into three parts, each with its own directions.
You are not permitted to turn the page during the reading of the directions or to take notes at any time.
Part A
Directions: Each item in this part consists of a brief conversation involving two speakers.
Following each conversation, a third voice will ask a question. You will hear the conversations and questions only once,
and they will not be written out.
When you have heard each conversation and question, read the four answer choices and select the onc-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-
that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your
answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.

Here is an example.
You will hear:

You will read:

(A) Open the window.
(B) Move the chair.
(C) Leave the room.
(D) Take a seat.

Sample Answer
From the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man should put the chair over by the window. The best
answer to the question, "What does the woman think the man should do?" is (B), "Move the chair." You should fill in (n)
on your answer sheet.

1. (A) She broke the window herself.

(B) She repaired the broken window.
(C) She was able to get the widow open.
(D) She hurt herself on the broken glass.

2. (A) The golf tournament made it famous.

(B) It's grown a lot lately.
(C) It can't be found without a map.
(D) Very few people there play golf.

3. (A) Where she got her information.

(B) How the copy was made.
(C) Who painted the picture.
(D) Why the copy was made.

4. (A) Groceries.
(B) A used car.
(C) Gasoline.
(D) Medicine.

5. (A) She read it again and again.

(B) She covered it up.
(C) She read every page of it.
(D) She ripped its cover off.

6. (A) He can no longer play.

(B) He's played every day for years.
(C) His playing has improved.
(D) He played quite well.

7. (A) He needs to get more camping equipment.

(B) He is an experienced camper.
(C) He is taking too much equipment.
(D) He shouldn't go camping for such a long time.

8. (A) Try to get elected mayor.

(B) Attend a class.
(C) Interview the mayor.
(D) Apply for a job.

9. (A) She was mistaken about Professor Leguin.

(B) She just returned from San Francisco.
(C) She doesn't know what the professor looks like.
(D) She's an admirer of Professor Leguin.

10. (A) He's speaking a language they don't know.

(B) He doesn't have a microphone.
(C) He's speaking much too quickly.
(D) He's using a defective microphone.

11. (A) It's near the elevator.

(B) He doesn't know where it is.
(C) It's on another floor.
(D) The directory doesn't list it.

12. (A) She's heard it only a few times.

(B) She doesn't get to listen to it very often.
(C) She once liked it, but she's heard enough.
(D) She enjoys it very much.

13. (A) It's no wonder that she had to work.

(B) It wasn't busy because of the weather.
(C) She was very busy at work.
(D) The snow made her late for work.

14. (A) He doesn't have any money left either.

(B) The club is looking for some new members.
(C) He can lend the woman some money.
(D) It doesn't cost much to join the club.

15. (A) He doesn't enjoy receptions.

(B) He uses his computer a lot.
(C) His computer isn't working.
(D) He will definitely attend.

16. (A) Only one person in the group is older than he.
(B) His group is almost the oldest.
(C) He's the youngest person in the group.
(D) He appears only in the second photograph.

17. (A) Pancakes are not his favorite dish.

(B) His pancakes don't taste very good.
(C) He never makes enough pancakes
(D) He can't cook many dishes.

18. (A) She thinks Professor Bryant is unfair.

(B) She doesn't know Professor Bryant.
(C) She agrees with the man.
(D) She doesn't understand the man's remark.
19. (A) In a few days.
(B) Before they eat.
(C) During lunch.
(D) When lunch is over.

20. (A) The woman would enjoy the mountain scenery.

(B) The weather has been hot this month.
(C) The weather in the mountains is unusual.
(D) The woman probably doesn't like cool weather.

21. (A) It has exceptionally good service.

(B) It has excellent food.
(C) The service there is disappointing.
(D) Everything there is great.

22. (A) If his name sounds familiar.

(B) If she's spoken to him on the phone.
(C) If he's a musician.
(D) If she likes his name.

23. (A) He thought other science courses would be harder.

(B) It's a required class for all students.
(C) He's studied geology before.
(D) It was the only science course open to him.

24. (A) He's never been to the zoo.

(B) He's seen only one bear.
(C) He's never seen a bear in the wild.
(D) There weren't any bears at that zoo.

25. (A) When she will answer the questions.

(B) Where she drove.
(C) What kind of car she has.
(D) Why she asked so many questions.

26. (A) He thinks it will be better than the old one.

(B) He's anxious for it to be completed.
(C) He's worried that it's not long enough.
(D) He feels that it shouldn't have been built.

27. (A) Where he's studying.

(B) What subject he's studying.
(C) How long he's been in Europe.
(D) When he's returning.

28. (A) Charlotte wouldn't be attending graduate school.

(B) Charlotte had gotten a scholarship.
(C) Graduate school wouldn't start until September.
(D) Scholarships were easy to get.

29. (A) He paid it today for the first time.

(B) He pays it on the last day of the month.
(C) He pays it after it's due.
(D) He's planning to pay it tomorrow.

30. (A) The debate involved only a few issues.

(B) Many people changed their plans.
(C) A lot of people attended.
(D) The debate lasted longer than expected.

Part B
Directions: This part of the test consists of extended conversations between two speakers. After each of these
conversations, there are a number of questions. You will hear each conversation and question only once, and the
questions are not written out.
When you have heard the questions, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best answers
the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that
matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.
Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.

31. (A) Because it was cheap.

(B) Because it is in such good condition.
(C) Because it is a collector's item.
(D) Because he can re-sell it at a high price.

32. (A) In the 1930's.

(B) In the 1940's.
(C) In the 1950's.
(D) In the 1960's.

33. (A) Replace its engine.

(B) Enter it in some shows.
(C) Take it on a long drive.
(D) Re-sell it for more money.

34. (A) At a conference hall.

(B) At an art gallery.
(C) At an airport.
(D) At a hotel.

35. (A) To attend a conference.

(B) To see the planetarium.
(C) To change planes.
(D) To go sightseeing.

36. (A) She recently went there.

(B) It's not a very good one.
(C) There's one in her hometown.
(D) It will be closed when she's free.

37. (A) On foot and by boat.

(B) By car and on foot.
(C) By air and by car.
(D) By car and by bus.

Part C
Directions: This part of the test consists of several talks, each given by a single speaker. After each of these talks, there are
a number of questions. You will hear each talk and question only once, and the questions are not written out.
When you have heard each question, read the four answer choices and select the one-(A),
(B), (C), or (D)-that best answers the question based on what is directly stated or on what can be inferred. Then fill in the
space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.

Here is an example.

You will hear:

Now here is a sample question.

You will read:

(A) Philosophy.
(B) Meteorology.
(C) Astronomy.
(D) Photography.

Sample Answer
The lecture concerns a lunar eclipse, a topic that would typically be discussed in an astronomy class. The choice that best
answers the question, "In what course is this lecture probably being given?" is (C), "Astronomy." You should fill in (C) on
your answer sheet.
Here is an example.
You will hear:

Sample Answer

You will read:

(A) The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon.
(B) Clouds block the view of the Moon.
(C) The moon moves between the Earth and the Sun.
(D) The Sun can be observed without special equipment.

From the lecture you learn that a lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun and the Moon and the
shadow of the Earth passes across the Moon. The choice that best answers the question, "According to the speaker, which
of the following occurs during a lunar eclipse?" is (A), "The Earth's shadow moves across the Moon."
Don't forget: During actual exams, taking notes or writing in your test book is not permitted.

38. (A) Tourists.

(B) Professional dancers.
(C) Students.
(D) Traditional musicians.

39. (A) It will be different from the ones performed in Hawaii today.
(B) It will involve women wearing grass skirts.
(C) It will involve only male dancers.
(0) It was once performed for great Hawaiian leaders.

40. (A) They prohibited it.

(B) They sponsored it.
(C) They proposed some small changes in it.
(D) They exported it to other islands.

41. (A) Attend a live performance.

(B) Go on a tour.
(C) Perform a dance.
(D) Watch a DVD.

42. (A) To discuss a weather phenomenon.

(B) To explain how to drive during storms.
(C) To describe super cooled water.
(D) To warn gardeners of the danger of hail.

43. (A) Because of its size.

(B) Because of its color.
(C) Because of its layers.
(D) Because of its weight.
44. (A) As a drop of super cooled water.
(B) As a snowflake.
(C) As a particle of dust.
(D) As a ball of ice.

45. (A) In the spring.

(B) In the summer.
(C) In the fall.
(D) In the winter.

46. (A) New theories about the origin of language.

(B) How to teach grammar to children.
(C) Mistakes children sometimes make.
(D) The stages of children's language learning.

47. (A) "Koo, Koo."

(B) "Da-da."
(C) "More milk!"
(D) "Na-na."

48. (A) Between four and eight months.

(B) Between one year and eighteen months.
(C) Between two and three years.
(D) Between three and four years.

49. (A) They are the same in all languages.

(B) They are often misinterpreted.
(C) They are learned by imitation.
(D) They are quite logical.

50. (A) They are too complicated.

(B) She doesn't have time to talk about them today.
(C) The class didn't have a chance to read about them.
(D) She doesn't agree with them.

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 1, LISTENING COMPREHENSION.

STOP WORK ON SECTION 1.

Structure and Written Expression

Time: 25 minutes
This section tests your ability to recognize grammar and usage suitable for standard written English. This section is divided
into two parts, each with its own directions.

Structure
Directions: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of these sentences, there are four words or
phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best completes the sentence. Then fill in the
space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.

Example I Sample Answer

Pepsin ____ an enzyme used in digestion.

(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being
This sentence should properly read "Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion." You should fill in (B) on your answer sheet.

Example II

____ large natural lakes are found in the state of South Carolina.
(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
(D) No

Sample Answer

This sentence should properly read "No large natural lakes are found in the state of South
Carolina." You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this part.

1. Ellen Swallow Richards became the first woman to enter, graduate from, and ______ at the Massachusetts Institute of
Technology.
(A) teach
(B) a teacher
(C) who taught
(D) to teach

2.Coins last approximately twenty times ______ paper bills.

(A) longer
(B) as long
(C) long
(D) longer than

3. It has been estimated that ______ species of animals.

(A) more than a million
(B) it is a million or more
(C) there are over a million
(D) are over a million of

4. Dr. Seuss, ______was Theodore Seuss Geisel, wrote and illustrated delightfully humorous books for children.
(A) his real name
(B) who had as his real name
(C) with his real name
(D) whose real name

5. ___________American landscape architects was Hideo Sasaki.

(A)The most famous one of
(B)One of the most famous
(C)Of the one most famous
(D)The one most famous of

6. Most young geese leave their nests at an early age, and young snow geese are ______exception.
(A) not
(B) no
(C) none
(D) never
7. Vancouver, British Columbia, has a temperate climate for a city situated ______ far north.
(A) as
(B) so
(C) very
(D) by

8. ______________in 1849, Manuel A. Alonso recorded the customs, language, and songs of the people of Puerto Rico in
his poetry and prose.
(A) Beginning
(B) He began
(C) Having begun
(D) The beginning was

9. ___________the sails of a distant ship are visible before the body of the ship.
(A)The curve of the Earth makes
(B)The Earth, in that it curves, makes
(C)Because the curve of the Earth,
(D)Because of the curve of the Earth,

10. Printing ink is made ______ of a paste, which is applied to the printing surface with rollers.
(A) to form
(B) the form
(C) in the form
(D) so that it forms

11. Although __________cold climates, they can thrive in hot, dry climates as well.
(A) sheep adapted well
(B) well-adaptedsheep
(C) sheep, well adapted to
(D) sheep are well adapted to

12. Not only_______________as a shade tree, but it also produces wood used for boxes and furniture.
(A) the Linden tree is of value
(B) the value of the Linden tree is
(C) is the Linden tree valuable
(D) the valuable Linden tree is used

13_______________.one of Laura Ingalls Wilder's many books about the American frontier are based on her own
childhood experiences.
(A)Except
(B)All but
(C)Without
(D)Not any

14. One of the first industries to be affected by the Industrial Revolution ______
(A) was the textile industry
(B) the textile industry
(C) in the textile industry
(D) the textile industry was
15.__________the outer rings of a gyroscope are turned or twisted, the gyroscope itself continues to spin in exactly the
same position.
(A) However
(B) Somehow
(C) Otherwise
(D) No matter

Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C), and (D).
You must identify the one underlined expression that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. Then fmd the
number of the question on your answer sheet and fill in the space corresponding to the letter.

Example!

Lenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.

A B C D
Sample Answer
This sentence should read "Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes." You should therefore select answer (A).

Example II

When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the damp plaster of a wall.
A B C D

This sentence should read "When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to the damp plaster of a wall." You
should therefore select answer (B).

As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.

Section 2 • Structure and Written Expression

16. The rock formations in the Valley of Fire in Nevada has been worn into many strange shapes by the action of wind and
water.

17. The author Susan Glaspell won a Pulitzer Prize in 1931 for hers play, Alison's House.

18. Haywood Broun was a read widely newspaper columnist who wrote during the 1920's and 1930's.

19. Researches in economics, psychology, and marketing can help businesses.

20. Because of their color and shape, seahorses blend so well with the seaweed in which they live that it is almost
impossible to see themselves.

21. Although the social sciences different a great deal from one another, they share a common interest in human
relationships.

22.Herman Melville's novel Moby-Dick describes the dangers, difficult, and often violent life aboard a whaling ship.

23. Near equator, the slant of the sun's rays is never great enough to cause temperatures to fall below the freezing point.

24. Stephen Hopkins was a cultural and political leadership in colonial Rhode Island.
25.A mousebird's tail is double as long as its body.

26. The Uinta Mountains of northeastern Utah are the only range of mountains in North America that runs from east and
west for its entire length.

27. The tools used most often by floral designers are the knives, scissors, and glue gun.

28. Most types of dolphins live at less 25 years, and some species may reach 50 years of age.

29. Isle Royale National Park in Lake Superior can only be reached by the boat.

30. The main divisions of geologic time, called eras, are subdivided to periods.

31.All root vegetables grow underground, and not all vegetables that grow underground are roots.

32. The process of fermentation takes place only in the absent of oxygen.

33. In about 1920, experimental psychologists have devoted more research to learning than to any other topic.

34. Transfer taxes are imposed on the sell or exchange of stocks and bonds.

35. One of the greatest of mountains climbers, Carl Blaurock was the ftrst to climb all of the mountains higher than 14,000
feet in the United States.

36. Biochemists have solved many of the mysteries about photosynthesis, the process which plants make food.

37. Oceanic islands have been separated from the mainland for too long that they have evolved distinctive animal
populations.

38. Certain species of penicillin mold are used to ripe cheese.

39. Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is wood pulp, which is used in paper-
making.

40. Not longer are contributions to the advancement of industry made primarily by individuals.

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2 ONLY. DO NOT READ OR WORK ON ANY OTHER
SECTION OF THE TEST.
Reading Comprehension

Time: 55 minutes

This section of the test measures your ability to comprehend written materials.
Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of questions. Read
the passages and, for each question, choose the one best answer-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-based on what is stated in the
passage or on what can be inferred from the passage. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter
of the answer that you have selected.

Read the following passage:

(line) Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A
bird's territory may be small or large. Some birds
claim only their nest and the area right around it,
while others claim far larger territories that include
(5) their feeding areas. Gulls, penguins, and other waterfowl
nest in huge colonies, but even in the biggest colonies,
each male and his mate have small territories of their
own immediately around their nests.
Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other
(10) males of the same species. In some cases, a warning call
or threatening pose may be all the defense needed, but in
other cases, intruders may refuse to leave peacefully.
Example 1

What is the main topic of this passage?

(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds' mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds

The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in CD) on your answer sheet.

Example II

According to the passage, male birds defend their territory primarily against
(A) female birds
(B) birds of other species
(C) males of their own species
(D) mammals

The passage states that "Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of the same species." You should fill
in (C) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.

Questions 1-11
(line)
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children's tale to
rank with Alice's Adventures in Wonderland and the works of Mark
Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery's Anne of Green Gables.
Lucy Maud Montgomery was born in Clinton, Prince Edward Island.
(5) Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to
Saskatchewan to assume a business position, she moved in with her
grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward Island. There she went
to school, and later qualified to be a teacher.
Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and
(10) helping her grandmother at the post office. The first of the
 books, Anne of Green Gables, was published in 1908, and in the
next three years she wrote two sequels. Like Montgomery, the
heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who live in
the fictional town of Avonlea, and Montgomery incorporated many
(15) events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Ewan MacDonald, and the couple soon
moved to Ontario, where she wrote many other books. However, it
was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne
books are still read all around the world. Her novels have
(20) helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island's special
character. Several movies, a television series, and a musical
play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the
island for locations described in the book.

1. The main purpose of this passage is to

(A) introduce Montgomery and her Anne books
(B) contrast Canadian children's literature with that of other countries
(C) provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island
(D) show the similarities between Montgomery's life and that of her fictional character Anne.

2. The word "this" in line 3 refers to

(A) Canada
(B) the work of Mark Twain
(C) Alice's Adventures in Wonderland
(D) a Canadian children's classic

3. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily

(A) in an orphanage
(B) by her grandparents
(C) by her mother
(D) by her father

4. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of Green Gables?
(A) From 1874 to 1908
(B) From 1908 to 1911
(C) From 1911 to 1913
(D) From 1913 to 1918

5. The word "elderly" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) kindly
(B) old
(C) friendly
(D) sly

6. In the Anne books, the main character lives in

(A) the town of Cavendish
(B) Saskatchewan
(C) the town of Avonlea
(D) Ontario

7. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about the Anne books?
(A) They were at least partially autobiographical.
(B) They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain.
(C) They were not as successful as Montgomery's later works.
(D) They were not popular until after Montgomery had died.

8. The word "prominence" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) reputation
(B) excellence
(C) effort
(D) permanence

9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "character" in line 21?
(A) A person in a novel
(B) Nature
(C) A written symbol
(D) Location

10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT
(A) a television series
(B) movies
(C) a play
(D) a ballet

11. In line 22, the word "scour" could be replaced by which of the following without changing the meaning of the
sentence?
(A) Cleanse
(B) Admire
(C) Search
(D) Request

Questions 12-23
(line)
Certain animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know
without analysis the difference between a number of objects and a
smaller number. In his book The Natural History of Selbourne
(1786), the naturalist Gilbert White tells how he surreptitiously
(5) removed one egg a day from a plover's nest, and how the mother
laid another egg each day to make up for the missing one. He
noted that other species of birds ignore the absence of a single
egg but abandon their nests if more than one egg has been
removed. It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain
(10) type of wasp always provides five-never four, never six caterpillars
for each of their eggs so that their young have
something to eat when the eggs hatch. Research has also shown
that both mice and pigeons can be taught to distinguish between
odd and even numbers of food pieces.
(15) These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that
creatures other than humans can actually count. They also point
to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions
with the correct number of barks, or to horses that seem to solve
arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves the proper number of
(20) times.
Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to
survival as a species-as in the case of the eggs-or survival as
individuals-as in the case of food. There is no transfer to
other situations or from concrete reality to the abstract notion
(25) of numbers. Animals can "count" only when the objects are present
and only when the numbers involved are small-no more than seven
or eight. In lab experiments, animals trained to "count" one kind
of object were unable to count any other type. The objects, not
the numbers, are what interest them. Animals' admittedly
(30) remarkable achievements simply do not amount to evidence of
counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refined
 by the genes of successive generations, or the results of clever,
careful conditioning by trainers.

12. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers.
(B) Animals cannot "count" more than one kind of object.
(C) Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best.
(D) Although some animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count.

13. Why does the author refer to Gilbert White's book in line 3?
(A) To show how attitudes have changed since 1786
(B) To contradict the idea that animals can count
(C) To provide evidence that some birds are aware of quantities
(D) To indicate that more research is needed in this field

14. The word "surreptitiously" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) quickly
(B) secretly
(C) occasionally
(D) stubbornly

15. The word "abandon" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) vacate
(B) rebuild
(C) move
(D) guard

16. The word "odd;' as used in line 14, refers to which of the following?
(A) Unusual numbers
(B) Numbers such as 1, 3, 5, and so on
(C) Lucky numbers
(0) Numbers such as 2, 4, 6, and so on

17. The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some way EXCEPT
(A) plovers
(B) mice
(C) caterpillars
(D) wasps

18. The word "accounts" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) invoices
(B) reasons
(C) reports
(D) deceptions

19. According to information in the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of animals' intuitive
awareness of quantities?
(A) A pigeon is more attracted by a box containing two pieces of food than by a box containing one piece.
(B) When asked by its trainer how old it is, a monkey holds up five fingers.
(C) When one of its four kittens crawls away, a mother cat misses it and searches for the missing kitten.
(D) A lion follows one antelope instead of a herd of antelopes because it is easier to hunt a single prey.

20. How would the author probably characterize the people who are mentioned in line 15?
(A) As mistaken
(B) As demanding
(C) As clever
(D) As foolish
21. The word "admittedly" in line 29 is closest in meaning to
(A) improbably
(B) arguably
(C) apparently
(D) undeniably

22. In line 31, the word "they" refers to

(A) numbers
(B) animals
(C) achievements
(D) genes

23. Where in the passage does the author mention research that supports his own view of animals' inability to count?
(A) Lines 3-6
(B) Lines 12-14
(C) Lines 15-16
(D) Lines 27-28

Questions 24-33
(line)
It would be hard to cite a development that has had more
impact on American industry than the Bessemer process of making
steel. It made possible the production of low-cost steel and
established the foundation of the modern steel industry. In many
(5) ways it was responsible for the rapid industrialization of the
United States that took place in the formative period of the late
1800's.
The first Bessemer plant in the United States was built in
Wyandotte, Michigan, in 1864, near the end of the Civil War. It
(10) was capable of producing only 2 tons of steel ingots at a time.
The ingots were rolled into rails-the first steel rails made in
the United States. Acceptance of the process was initially slow.
By 1870, the annual output of Bessemer steel was a mere 42
thousand tons. Production grew rapidly after about 1875, rising
(15) to 1.2 million tons in 1880, when it exceeded that of wrought
iron for the first time.
The rise of the US. steel industry in the last quarter of the
19th century was brought about largely by the demand for Bessemer
steel rails for the nation's burgeoning rail network. Steel rails
(20) were far more durable than those made of iron. Spurred by this
demand, the us. steel industry became the largest in the world
in 1886, when it surpassed that of Great Britain.
The Bessemer Process was the chief method of making steel until
1907, when it was overtaken by the open-hearth process. By the
(25) 1950's, the Bessemer Process accounted for less than 3% of the
total U.S. production.

24. With what topic is this passage mainly concerned?

(A) The history of metal-working
(B) A comparison of the US. and British steel industries in the nineteenth century
(C) The technical details of the Bessemer process
(D) The effects of one method of making steel

25. According to the passage, the Bessemer process contributed to all of the following EXCEPT
(A) the establishment of the modern steel industry in the United States
(B) the manufacture of weapons during the Civil War
(C) lowered costs for steel
(D) industrial development in the United States during an important period

26. What can be inferred from the passage about wrought iron?
(A) At one time, more of it was produced than Bessemer steel.
(B) It is a by-product of the Bessemer process.
(C) It was once primarily imported from Great Britain.
(D) It later became a more important product than Bessemer steel.

27. The word "burgeoning" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) overpowering
(B) planned
(C) expanding
(D) vital

28. According to the passage, why were Bessemer steel rails used in place of iron rails?
(A) They lasted longer.
(B) They did not have to be imported.
(C) They could be installed faster.
(D) They provided a smoother ride for passengers.

29. The word "Spurred" in line 20 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Driven
(B) Challenged
(C) Dominated
(D) Broken

30. According to the passage, in what year did the steel industry of the United States begin to produce more steel than
that of Great Britain did?
(A) 1864
(B) 1875
(C) 1880
(D) 1886

31. What can be inferred about the steel industry in the United States during the 1950's?
(A) It had begun producing many new types of products.
(B) It was in a period of severe decline.
(C) It primarily involved methods of production other than the Bessemer Process.
(D) It was becoming more and more important.

32. The paragraph following this one probably concerns

(A) innovations in the railroad industry
(B) the open-hearth method of making steel
(C) industrialization in the twentieth century
(D) new methods of making wrought iron

33. The author first begins to discuss the growth of the Bessemer Process in
(A) lines 3-4
(B) lines 8-9
(C) lines 14-16
(D) lines 23-24

Questions 34-41
(line)
Nearly 515 blocks of San Francisco, including almost all of Nob
Hill, were destroyed by the 1906 earthquake and fires. Many of
San Francisco's "painted ladies" -its gaudy, nineteenth century
Victorian houses-were lost in the disaster. Today, some 14,000
(5) surviving houses have been preserved, particularly in the Cow
Hollow, Mission, Pacific Heights, and Alamo Square districts.
Distinguished by their design characteristics, three styles of
San Franciscan Victorians can be found today. The Italianate,
which flourished in the 1870's, is characterized by a flat roof,
(10) slim pillars flanking the front door, and bays with windows that
slant inward. The ornamentation of these narrow row houses was
patterned after features of the Roman Classical styles. The
Stick style, which peaked in popularity during the 1880s, added
ornate woodwork outlines to the doors and windows. Other
(15) additions included the French cap, gables, and three-sided bays.
Designs changed dramatically when the Queen Anne style became
the rage in the 1890's. Turrets, towers, steep gabled roofs, and
glass art windows distinguished Queen Anne houses from their
predecessors.
(20) In the period after the earthquake, the Victorians came to be
regarded as impossibly old-fashioned, but beginning around 1960,
owners began peeling off stucco, tearing off false fronts,
reapplying custom woodwork, and commissioning multi-hued paint
jobs. Before long, many of these houses had been restored to
(25) their former splendor.

34. Which of the following is NOT one of the author's purposes in writing the passage?
(A) To talk about the restoration of Victorian houses in San Francisco in the 1960's
(B) To discuss housing problems in San Francisco today
(C) To briefly trace the history of Victorian houses in San Francisco
(D) To categorize the three types of Victorian houses found in San Francisco

35. The word "gaudy" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) showy
(B) enormous
(C) antiquated
(D) simple

36. According to the passage, in what district of San Francisco are authentic Victorian houses LEAST likely to be found
today?
(A) Cow Hollow
(B) Pacific Heights
(C) The Mission
(D) Nob Hill

37. According to the passage, which of the following styles of architecture was the last to become fashionable in San
Francisco?
(A) Roman Classical
(B) Italianate
(C) Stick
(D) Queen Anne

38. As used in the second paragraph, the word "bays" refers to

(A) bodies of water
(B) colors
(C) architectural features
(D) trees

39. Which of the following is most likely to be seen only on a Queen Anne style house?
(A) A flat roof
(B) A tower
(C) A French cap
(D) Gables

40. During which of the following periods were San Francisco's Victorian houses generally thought of as old-fashioned?
(A) From 1870 to 1890
(B) During the 1890's
(C) From 1907 to 1960
(D) During the 1960's

41. What can be inferred from the passage about Victorian houses after they had been restored?
(A) They were painted in many colors.
(B) They looked exactly like modern houses.
(C) They were covered with new fronts made of stucco.
(D) They were more attractive than the original houses.

Questions 42-50
Sea otters dwell in the North Pacific. They are the largest of
the mustelids, a group which also includes freshwater otters,
weasels, and badgers. They are from four to five feet long, and
most weigh from 60 to 85 pounds. Large males may weigh 100 pounds
(5) or more.
Unlike most marine mammals, such as seals or dolphins, sea
otters lack a layer of blubber, and therefore have to eat up to
30% of their body weight a day in clams, crabs, fish, octopus,
squids, and other delicacies to maintain body heat. Their
(10) voracious appetites do not create food shortages, though, because
they are picky eaters, each animal preferring only a few food
types. Thus no single type of food source is exhausted. Sea
otters play an important environmental role by protecting forests
of seaweed called kelp, which provide shelter and nutrients for
(15) many species. Certain sea otters feast on invertebrates like sea
urchins and abalones that destroy kelp.
Sea otters eat and sleep while floating on their backs, often
on masses of kelp. They seldom come on shore. Sea otters keep
warm by means of their luxuriant double-layered fur, the densest
(20) among animals. The soft outer fur forms a protective cover that
keeps the fine underfur dry. One square inch of underfur contains
up to 1 million hairs. Unfortunately, this essential feature
almost led to their extinction, as commercial fur hunters drastically
reduced their numbers.
(25) Under government protection, the sea otter population has
recovered. While elated by the otters return, scientists are
concerned about the California sea otter population growth of 5%
a year, lagging behind the 18% a year rate among Alaska otters.
Sea otters are extremely sensitive to pollution. In 1989 up to
(30) 5,000 sea otters perished when the Exxon Valdez spilled oil in
Prince William Sound, Alaska.

42. According to the passage, what are mustelids?

(A) A family of marine mammals that have blubber
(B) A type of sea otter
(C) A group of mammals that contains sea otters
(D) A kind of sea animal that includes clams, crabs, and many other creatures

43. It can be inferred from that passage that, if a large male sea otter weighs 100 pounds, it must eat approximately how
many pounds of food a day to maintain its body heat?
(A) 5 pounds
(B) 15 pounds
(C) 30 pounds
(D) 60 pounds

44. The author refers to sea otters as "picky eaters" line 11) because
(A) all sea otters eat many types of food
(B) each sea otter eats only one type of food
(C) all sea otters have voracious appetites
(D) each sea otter eats only a few kinds of food

45. The word "exhausted" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) needed
(B) used up
(C) desired
(D) tired out

46. According to the passage, which of the following best describes sea otters' relationship with kelp forests?
(A) The kelp serves as food for the otters.
(B) The otters protect the kelp by eating animals that destroy it.
(C) The otters eliminate the kelp's source of nutrients.
(D) The kelp is destroyed when the otters build shelters.

47. Which of the following could best replace the word "luxuriant" in line 19?
(A) Expensive
(B) Soft
(C) Abundant
(0) Attractive

48. According to the passage, the outer fur of sea otters

(A) keeps the under fur from getting wet
(B) seems finer than the under fur
(C) is more desirable to hunters than the under fur
(D) is not as soft as the under fur

49. The word "elated" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) disappointed
(B) shocked
(C) concerned
(D) overjoyed

50. According to the passage, why are scientists concerned about the population of California sea otters?
(A) It has been growing at too fast a rate.
(B) Its growth rate has been steadily decreasing.
(C) Its growth rate is not as fast as that of the Alaska sea otters.
(D) It has been greatly reduced by oil spills and other forms of pollution.

THIS IS THE END OF THE SAMPLE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
PRACTICE TEST 3
SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
PARTS A, B AND C
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.C 9.A 10.D
11.B 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.D 18.C 19.C 20.B
21.C 22.A 23.A 24.C 25.D 26.B 27.C 28.A 29.B 30.B
31.C 32.C 33.B 34.D 35.A 36.C 37.B 38.C 39.A 40.A
41.D 42.A 43.C 44.B 45.A 46.D 47.A 48.C 49.D 50.B

SECTION 2: STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Structure

1.A 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.C
11.D 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.A

Written Expression

16.A 17.D 18.A 19.A 20.D 21.B 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.B 26.C 27.D 28.B
29.D 30.D 31.C 32.D 33.A 34.B 35.A 36.C 37.B 38.C 39.A 40.A

Explanation of Written Expression Items

16. The plural verb form have must be used to agree with the subject of the sentence, the plural noun formations.

17. The possessive adjective her should be used in place of the possessive pronoun hers.

18. The correct word order is adverb + participle: widely read.

19. Research is properly an uncountable noun and should not be pluralized.

20. The personal pronoun them should be used instead of the reflexive pronoun themselves.

21. The verb differ should be used in place of the adjective different.

22. In order to be parallel with the other items in the series (difficult and violent), the adjective dangerous is needed in place of the plural noun dangers.

23. Before the word equator, the definite article the must be used.

24. The noun leader (a person who leads) should be used in place of the noun leadership (the quality that leaders have).

25. The word twice should be used in place of double in this sentence.

26. The phrase should correctly read from east to west.

27. To be parallel with the other items (scissors and glue gun), a singular noun (knife) should be used in place of the plural noun knives.

28. The phrase should correctly read at least.

29. The definite article the should not be used in the phrase by boat.

30. The preposition into should be used after the verb subdivided.

31. There is a contrast between the two clauses of this sentence, so the conjunction but should be used in place of and.

32. The noun absence is needed in place of the adjective absent.

33. The preposition Since should be used in place of the preposition In. (This is clear because the verb-have devoted is in the present perfect, not the past
tense.)

34. The noun sale is needed in place of the verb sell.

35. Only the second noun (climbers) of the compound noun (mountain climbers) should be pluralized.

36. The preposition by has been incorrectly omitted; the phrase should read the process by which.

37. The word so should be used in place of too.

38. The verb ripen should be used in place of the adjective ripe.

39. The correct word order for the opening phrase of the sentence is Of the many.
40. This phrase should correctly read No longer.

SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION

1.A 2.D 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.B 10.D
11.C 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.A
21.D 22.C 23.D 24.D 25.B 26.A 27.C 28.A 29.A 30.D
31.C 32.B 33.C 34.B 35.A 36.D 37.D 38.C 39.B 40.C
41.A 42.C 43.C 44.D 45.B 46.B 47.C 48.A 49.D 50.C

Explanation

1. The passage provides an introduction to Lucy Maud Montgomery's life and works, especially her Anne books.

2. The reference is to Anne of Green Gables, which is a classic children's tale written by a Canadian author.

3. According to lines 5-7, Montgomery "moved in with her grandparents" after her mother died and her father moved to Saskatchewan.

4. Montgomery's first book was published in 1908 (line 11), and she wrote the two sequels in the next three years."

5. The word elderly is closest in meaning to "old."

6. In lines 12-14, the author states that "the heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who live in the fictional town of Avonlea."

7. According to lines 14-15, "Montgomery incorporated many events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.

8. The word prominence is closest in meaning to "reputation."

9. In the context of the passage, the word character means "nature."

10. There is no mention in the passage that a ballet was ever based on the Anne books. The other choices are mentioned in lines 21-22.

11. In the context of the passage, scour means "search."

12. Choices (A) and.(B) are details; choice (C) implies that animals can count, an idea which is contradicted in the third paragraph.

13. The accounts from White's book indicate that certain animals are aware of quantities on an intuitional level.

14. The word surreptitiously is closest in meaning to the word "secretly."

15. As used in this passage, the word abandon means "vacate."

16. The word odd in this context refers to numbers which are not divisible by 2 (1, 3, 5, 7, and so on).
(Numbers that are divisible by 2 are called even numbers.)

17. According to the first paragraph, caterpillars are used by wasps to supply food for their young. There is no mention that they are aware of quantities.
The other choices are given in the paragraph as examples of creatures that are aware of quantities in some way.

18. The word accounts means "reports" or "stories" in the context of this passage.

19. According to the passage, "animals respond to quantities when they are connected to survival as a species ...or survival as individuals." Choices (A)
and (D) are connected to the pigeon's and the lion's survival as individuals (since these incidents involve food), and choice (C) is an incident involving the
survival of a species (since it involves the cat's young). It can be inferred that choice (B) is the result of conditioning by
a trainer rather than the result of the monkey's instinctive awareness of quantities.

20. Since these people believe that "creatures other than humans can actually count" (line 16) and the author believes that none of the animal's
achievements shows evidence of counting, the author must consider these people mistaken.

21. The word admittedly is closest in meaning to "undeniably."

22. The reference is to the remarkable achievements of animals.

23. The reference comes in the sentence beginning, "In lab experiments ...." The research mentioned in the first paragraph shows animals' ability to
recognize quantities, not their inability to count.

24. The main topic of the passage is the impact of the Bessemer process. Choice (A) is too general; choices (B)
and (C) are not directly discussed in the passage.

25. There is no mention that Bessemer steel was used in Civil War weapons; the other effects are cited in the first paragraph.

26. According to the passage, the production of Bessemer steel exceeded that of wrought iron in 1880 (lines
15-16), implying that wrought iron production was greater than Bessemer steel production before then.
27. The word burgeoning is closest in meaning to the word "expanding."

28. According to lines 19-20, "steel rails were far more durable (long-lasting) than those made of iron."
29. In the context of this passage, the word driven is closest in meaning to that of "spurred."

30. According to lines 21-22, "the U.S. steel industry became the largest in the world in 1886, when it surpassed that of Great Britain."

31. Because steel made by the Bessemer Process accounted for only 3 percent of the total U.S. production in the 1950's, steel production must have
involved methods other than the Bessemer process.

32. Because the last paragraph deals with the declining importance of the Bessemer Process and mentions that the open-hearth method supplanted it, it
is logical to assume that the next paragraph discusses the open-hearth method.

33. The author first mentions the expansion of the Bessemer steel method in lines 14 -16, in the sentence beginning "Production grew rapidly ...."

34. The author does not discuss San Francisco's current housing problems. Restoration is discussed in the third paragraph; the three styles are explained
in the second paragraph; the entire passage provides a brief history of San Francisco's Victorian houses.

35. The word gaudy is closest in meaning to the word "showy."

36. The first paragraph indicates that almost all of Nob Hill was destroyed in 1906, and goes on to say that surviving Victorians can be found in Cow
Hollow, Pacific Heights, and the Mission district.

37. Roman Classical is not one of the three styles of Victorian built in San Francisco; it is the style Italianate houses were influenced by, and so must have
been an earlier style. Italianate styles were popular in the
1870's, Stick houses in the 1880's, and Queen Anne houses in the 1890's. Queen Anne houses were therefore the last to become fashionable.

38. In the context of the sentence, bays are features of Victorian houses. (They are a type of window.)

39. In lines 17-20, the author says that towers were among the features that "distinguished Queen Anne houses from their predecessors." The other
choices are given as features of Italianate or Stick styles.

40. Victorian houses were considered "impossibly old-fashioned" in the period after the earthquake (which occurred in 1906), but interest in them was
renewed during the 1960's, when many were restored.

41. According to lines 23-24, the owners of the houses commissioned "multi-hued paint jobs."

42. According to the first paragraph, sea otters, along with freshwater otters and other animals, are members of the group known as must lids.

43. Lines 7-9 indicate that sea otters have to eat about 30 percent of their body weight a day. Thirty percent of
100 pounds is 30 pounds.

44. The term picky eaters (meaning creatures with selective appetites) is applied to sea otters because each animal prefers only a few food types (lines
11-12).

45. In the context of this passage, the word exhausted means "used up."

46. Lines 15-16 indicate that some sea otters protect kelp forests because they "feast on invertebrates such as sea urchins and abalones that destroy
kelp."

47. The term luxuriant means "abundant."

48. According to lines 20-21, "the soft outer fur forms a protective cover that keeps the fine under-fur dry."

49. The word elated is closest in meaning to "overjoyed."

50. According to lines 26-28, scientists are worried because the California otter population rate of growth is only 5 percent a year, “lagging behind the
18%-a-year rate among Alaska otters.”