ĐỀ ÔN LUYỆN HSG TỈNH

TEST 22
SECTION II: LEXICO- GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions. (10 pts)
1. No one can function properly if he or she is______adequate sleep.
A. took away B. deprived of C. derived from D. run out
2. I always take my lucky______with me into an exam.
A. sign B. item C. charm D. spell
3. Did you plan to meet up Mary in London, or was it just a_______?
A. freak B. fate C. coincidence D. luck
4. The most powerful force in a teenager’s life is probably_______ pressure.
A. friend B. peer C. company D. youth
5. I had to get through a lot of______tape, but I finally got the documents I needed.
A. red B. blue C. link D. yellow
6. Olivia has always______to return to the country she was born in.
A. favoured B. yearned C. urged D. inclined
7. He had a ______ escape since the bullet came within inches of his head.
A. slender B. close C. near D. narrow
8. You can buy goods on the Internet with a credit card, but there is a danger of ______ if someone else obtains the
number.
A. corruption B. fraud C. embezzlement D. disruption
9. “Don’t look so worried! You should take the boss’s remarks with a ______ of salt.”
A. teaspoon B. pinch C. grain D. dose
10. ______ the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. Akin to B. Prior to C. In addition to D. With reference to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. important B. commitment C. applicant D. together
Question 2: A. necessity B. professional C. appropriate D. economics
Question 3: A. introduce B. official C. understand D. Vietnamese
Question 4: A. determine B. supportive   C. compliment  D. domestic
Question 5: A. confide  B. survey  C. convey      D. refer
Question 6: A. argument  B. primary  C. optimist    D. contribute
Question 7: A. create B. survive    C. visit    D. award
Question 8: A. vulnerable  B. significant  C. Responsible D. traditional
Question 9: A. terrorist B. Opponent C. festival       D. urgency
Question 3: A. company                   B. Atmosphere C. customer   D. employer
Question 4: A. cosmetics B. luxury                     C. protection D. investment
Question 5: A. sensitive                   B. compliment         C. vertical                   D. assurance  

Question 1: A. oblige B. Maintain C. Extinct D. workforce

Question 2: A. tremendous B. primary            C. Changeable D. regional
Question 3: A. education B. Confidential C. Disillusioned D. thermometer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A customs union is an organization of autonomous country that agree that international trade between
member states is free of restrictions.
A. boring B. massive C. dependent D. prosperous
Question 2: The point at which pain becomes intolerable is known as the pain perception threshold.
A. elusive B. altered C. intensified D. bearable
Question 3: It might not be a surprise to find that life in affluent cities is improving, but what about cities that aren’t
rich.
A. busy     B. wealthy    C. overcrowded D. poor
1
Question 4: Take your time, think the matter over carefully, and then tell me what you’ve decided.
A. Keep calm   B. Hurry C. Come on   D. Don’t hesitate
Question 5: For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females.            
A. complicated  B.  dangerous   C. safe D. peculiar
Question 6: He didn’t bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.                                                      
A. wanted to see B. was shocked  C. was happy D. wanted to cry
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: The chameleon is thought to change color to conform to its surrounding, but that is rarely true.
A. clashes with the colors around it B. differs from the color of its selting
C. contrasts with its surroundings D. looks the same as its environment
Question 2: All at one, the sky became dark and it started to rain.
A. Suddenly B. At times     C. Occasionally   D. Immediately
Question 3: Don’t buy the first thing you see: shop around a bit .
A. try to find the cheapest ones
B. wait until you know exactly you want
C. go to several different shops to compare prices 
D. look at everything in the shop
Question 4: Nations that live in concord are nations that live together in peace.
A. war      B. harmony C. happiness      D. conformity
Question 5: He was sacked on the spot because he showed his shortage of the basic knowledge .
A. enrolled                       B. recalled           C. dismissed                   D. relieved
Question 6: Work efficiency has increased exponentially each year, thanks to computers and their ability to multitask.
A. at a very fast rate B. slightly           C. constantly                   D. at a very slow rate
Question 7: Typing his boss’s correspondence consumed most of the secretary’s time.
A. ate or drank     B. destroyed        C. used up                       D. wasted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 1: The skin receives nearly (A) the (B) third of the blood pumped (C) out by (D) the heart.
Question 2: In some countries, octopuses (A) and snail are considered (B) being (C) great delicacies to eat. (D)
Question 3: Coral reefs (A) are limestone formations (B) composed of tiny sea organisms (C) and the remains. (D)
Question 4: It is likely (A) that everyone in Vietnam has (B) his own (C) house and car by (D) 2050.
Question 5: Foods of animal origin (A) generally supply greatest (B) amounts (C) of iron to the diet than do foods of
(D) plant origin.
Question 6: When he was a little boy, Mark Twain would walk (A) along the piers, watch (B) the river boats,
swimming (C) and fish in the (D) Mississippi, much like his famous character, Tom Sawyer.
Question 7: Recently, the island of Hawaii (A) had been (B) the subject of intensive research (C) on the occurrence (D)
of earthquakes
Question 8: Only in a (A) situation like (B) this children learn (C) a lot about how to behave. (D)                   
Question 9: They have so many (A) children that they can’t (B) afford sending (C) them all (D) to university
Question 10: Two out of (A) three people were struck (B) by (C) lightning survive (D)
Question 11: By reading the instructions carefully, (A) mistakes on the examination (B) can (C) be avoided.(D)
Question 12: When (A) they lose their jobs, they also (B) lose their self-confidence, or believe (C) in their own (D)
ability.
Question 13: The popularity of soccer in the United States were increased (A) significantly (B) by the playing (C) of
the World Cup in cities throughout the country in 1994. (D)
Question 14: In Japan, pubilc schools are all (A) both free and egalitarian: all students (B) are considered equally (C)
and learn the (D) same material.
Question 15: In recent years (A) great advances forward (B) have (C) been made in the field of genetic research.(D)
Question 16: (A) A number of large insurance companies (B) has (C) their headquarters in the (D) capital city.
Question 17: (A) Could you mind (B) telling me the way(C) to the (D)  nearest restaurant?
Question 18: (A) Modern art is on (B) display at the Guggenheim Museum, (C) the building with an (D) unusually
design.
Question 19: For a long time, (A) this officials (B) have been known throughout the country (C) as political bosses and
(D) law enforcers.
Question 20: An ambitious person (A) is committed to (B) improve his or her (C) status (D) at work.
2
Question 21: Air pollution, together (A) with littering, (B) are causing (C) many problems (D)
Question 22:  Manufacturers (A) may use food additives (B) for preserving, to color, or (C) to flavor, or to (D) fortify
foods.
Question 23: It is (A) high time John (B) understands (C) how to behave properly (D) towards the old men.
Question 24: She (A) asked why (B) did Mathew look so (C) embarrassing when he (D) saw Carole.
Question 25: So extensive (A) the lakes are that they (B) are viewed as the (C) largest bodies (D) of fresh water in the
world.

Part 3. Fill in the blanks in the sentences below with one preposition . (5 pts)
1. The prospective buyer had decided to look...over.....the property before committing himself.
2. The old lady’s savings were considerable as she had put....aside... a little money each week.
3. I’m afraid I’m not very good ………with………. animals.
4. My mother never gives anyone a tip ………in……. principle.
5. All her hard work paid ………off………..in the end and she’s now successful.
Part 4: Write the correct FORM of each capitalized word in the column on the right. (10 pts)
SIR ARTHUR CONNAN DOYLE
Famous the world over as the creation of Sherlock Holmes, Sir Arthur Conan_ Doyle was born in
Edinburgh in 1859 into an Irish family who were (1) (INFLUENCE) INFLUENTIAL in the art world.
Unfortunately, Arthur's father was an alcoholic, and his behaviour caused his family much (2)
(HAPPY) UNHAPPINESS. Arthur probably inherited the ability to tell stories from his mother, who
was a source of (3) (INSPIRE) INSPIRATION to him. Thanks to the (4) (GENEROUS) GENEROSITY
of some relatives, Arthur was able to study medicine at Edinburgh University. He was a bright student,
but (5) (REST) RESTLESS, and his zest for adventure led him to accept a contract as ship's surgeon
aboard a whaler. Returning home, he completed his (6) (MEDICINE) MEDICAL studies in 1881.He
eventually settled in the south of England. Telling stories had always been a part of his life, but the
creation of a (7) (FICTION) FICTIONAL detective called Sherlock Holmes turned Conan Doyle into a
popular writer. It is believed that he based Holmes' character on one of his university tutors, Dr Joseph
Bell, whom he regarded with respect and (8) (ADMIRE) ADMIRATION for his logic and powers of (9)
(DEDUCE) DEDUCTION. The first Sherlock Holmes story was so well received that Doyle was
encouraged to write more. In 1893 he killed off his hero in order to concentrate on writing what he saw
as more serious work, but this caused a public (10) (CRY) OUTCRY, and he was forced to bring
Holmes back to life.
Write your answers here:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION III: READING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) (10 pts)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each
of the following questions.
In the past, not a very long time ago, most people travelled on foot, by train, or on horseback. (1) _____ had
made it possible to travel rapidly over long distances. Bicycles were also becoming (2) _____, after the invention of the
air- filled (3) _____, which made cycling a lot more comfortable. Buses, trams and underground railways had already
been invented, and cities all over the world already had traffic (4) _____. There were very few private cars, and city
streets were still full of horses. What a difference a hundred years have (5) _____! Nowadays we have got (6) _____to
the problem of private cars, and some cities are so noisy and (7) _____ that in many places (8) _____ have been banned
from the city centre. How will we be travelling in a hundred year’s time? Perhaps by then there will be only personal
helicopters. There may be no need to (9) _____ to work or school in the future, (10) _____everyone will have a
computer at home. There might even be more people walking and horse – riding, for pleasure and exercise.
Question 1. A. Tracks B. Railways C. Ways D. Lines
Question 2. A. then B. invented C. popular D. handlebars
Question 3. A. boot B. brake C. engine D. tyre
Question 4. A. blocks B. sticks C. knots D. jams
Question 5. A. taken B. done C. made D. got
Question 6. A. more B. them C. motorists D. used

3
Question 7. A. even B. so C. polluted D. poisoned
Question 8. A. traffic B. vehicles C. transport D. trips
Question 9. A. have B. transport C. decide D. commute
Question 10. A. if B. since C. when D. unless
Part 2. Fill in the blank with one suitable word.
Nowadays, the global (1) ______warming_____ is increasing and fossil fuel supplies are running out, we must
begin to put a greater priority on harnessing (2) _____alternative______ energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number
of readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are solar
power and (3) ______geothermal_____ power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could (4) _____ meet______ the needs
of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of
photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are (5)
_____equipped______ with solar electric systems in the form of solar (6) ______panels_____ or solar roof tiles. And in
other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power, which
creates (7) ______energy_____ by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are
trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which produces electricity.
Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel (8) _____resources______
and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A prime example of
effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity (9) _____where______ there are over 80
percent of private homes, are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time
is long overdue to invest in the (10) ___development____ and use of alternative energy on global scale.

Part 3. Read the text and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. (10 pts)

The attraction of valuable objects from ships sinking in the oceans is always great. Until recently, hunting for
treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological advances, however, the search for sunken
treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage
the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them.
          Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a
sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside the
Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean
bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new
technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of 45 divers searched the wreck for two months, finding
silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of
American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.
            Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck’s treasure does not have a
high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in nearly mint condition. But
once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are
preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten
remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater
searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the  lure of gold and
million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
Question 1: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
Question 2: The word “sunken” is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. underwater B. broken C. ancient D. hollow
Question 3: Which of the following could best replace the phrase “a profile” in the passage?
A. a projection B. an execution C. an outline D. a highlight
Question 4: Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
4
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
Question 5: The author uses the phrase “mint condition” to describe _____ .
A. something perfect B. something significant
C. something tolerant D. something magical
Question 6: All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT _____ .
A. wine bottles B. silver tea services
C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware
Question 7: From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to ______ .
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers B. be a diver
C. put treasures in a museum D. do archaeological research
Question 8: The word “scoured” is most similar to which of the following?
A. scraped away B. scratched over C. scrambled around D. searched around
Question 9: What is the closet meaning to the word “lure” in the passage?
A. knowledge B. attraction C. luxury D. glare
Question 10: The second and third paragraphs are an example of _____ .
A. chronological order B. explanation
C. specific to general D. definition
Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow .(10 pts)
Earthquakes
1. Every year earthquakes are responsible for a large number of deaths and a vast amount of destruction in various parts
of the world. Most of these damaging earthquakes occur either in a narrow belt which surrounds the Pacific Ocean or in
a line which extends from Burma to the Alps in Europe. Some of the destruction is directly caused by the quake itself.
An example of this is the collapse of buildings as a result of vibration. Other damage results from landslides, tsunamis
or major fires which are initiated by the quake.
2. There are about a million quakes a year. Fortunately, however, not all of them are destructive. The intensity of an
earthquake is measured on the Richter Scale, which goes from 0 upward. The highest magnitude recorded to date is 8.9.
Major damage generally occurs from quakes ranging upward from 6.0. Exceptions to this are those whose epicenters are
located far from inhabited areas.
3. The actual cause of the quake itself is the rupturing or breaking of rocks at or below the earth's surface. This is
produced by pressure which scientists believe may be due to a number of reasons, two of which are the expansion and
contraction of the earth's crust and continental drift.
4. In order to minimize the damage and to alleviate some of the suffering resulting from earthquakes, scientists are
working on ways to enable accurate prediction. Two of the instruments presently in use to achieve this goal are
seismographs and tilt meters. The former records any shaking of the earth ; by means of calculations seismographs can
accurately indicate the exact time, location and size of an earthquake. The later, as the name suggests, is used to record
any changes in the tilt of the land.
Question 1-4
Choose from the list in the following box the main title of each paragraph.
1. Paragraph 1. ___I___
2. Paragraph 2. ___J___
3. Paragraph 3. ___G___
4. Paragraph 4. ___K___
A. Earthquake Zones G. The Cause of Earthquake
B. Earthquake statistics H. Earthquake Epicenter
C. Continental Drift I. Earthquake Destruction
D. Earthquakes J. The Richter Scale
E. Earthquake Instrument K. Predicting Earthquake
F. The Cause of Pressure
Question 5-10
Please indicate whether the following statements are true, false or not given according to the information contained
in the reading passage by putting a T , an F or NG in the spaces provided.
__T__ 5. Pressure occurs as a result of expansion and contraction of the earth‘s crust and continental drift.
__NG__ 6. Pressure results from volcanic eruption.
__T__ 7. Earthquakes result from rocks below the earth surface rupturing.

5
__T__ 8. Expansion and contraction of the earth's crust and continental drift are believed to be the indirect causes of
earthquakes
__T__ 9. The collapse of buildings, landslides, tsunamis and fires can be all caused by the earthquakes.
___F_ 10. Earthquakes produce rupturing of rocks below the earth’s surface.

PART IV: WRITING (50 points)

Section 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (10
p)
1. I really enjoy getting thoroughly absorbed in this good book.
I am losing my mind in this good book.
2. He’s partially deaf so he finds it difficult to communicate on the phone.
Were it not for the fact that he’s partially deaf, he wouldn’t find it difficult to communicate on the phone.
3. Sally distrusts modern technology strongly.
Sally has a strong distrust of modern technology.
4. If the weather is fine, we may go camping at the weekend.
Weather permitting we may go camping at the weekend.
5. “There’s no point in writing it all out in longhand if you can use a typewriter, isn’t there?”
She dissuaded me from writing it all out in longhand and told me to use a typewriter.
Section 2: Rewrite these sentences using the words in CAPITAL. You must not change the given words. (10 p)
1. Do you think we can stew this kind of meat? (LEND)
Do you think this kind of meat lends itself to stewing?
2. Normally, the money is released within about three months. (COURSE)
In the normal course of events, the money is released within about three months.
3. We can’t possibly imagine how we are going to afford a new car. (REMOTEST)
We haven’t the remotest idea how we are going to afford a new car.
4. That medicine was very effective and I started to feel better immediately. (MAGIC)
That medicine worked like magic and I started to feel better immediately.
5. I’m sure Nancy is still presuming that the party starts at nine. (IMPRESSION)
I’m sure Nancy is still under the impression that the party starts at nine.