SỞ GD&ĐT THANH HÓA ĐỀ THI KSCL ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LẦN 4

TRƯỜNG THPT TRIỆU SƠN 4 NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

Môn: Tiếng Anh- Lớp 12
Mã đề: 122 Thời gian làm bài: 90 (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

SECTION A: LISTENING (10 pts)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

 Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau khoảng 15 giây, mở đầu và
kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín
hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
PART I. You will hear part of a radio interview with an author called Mickey Smith, who is talking
about becoming excellent at sport. For questions 1 - 5, choose the best answer (A, В or C).
1. When asked about his theory on talent, Mickey says that
A. he is doing further research with other people.
B. he realises some people disagree with him.
C. he has not yet fully proved his ideas.
2. Mickey believes that outstanding football players
A. have better levels of concentration than other players.
B. are aware of the positions of other players on the pitch.
C. are faster runners than other players.
3. How did Mickey feel when he first became successful at gymnastics?
A. convinced he had a natural aptitude for the sport
B. conscious that others in his area didn’t have the same chances
C. lucky to have had one of the best training routines
4. Mickey says that coaches working with young people need to understand that
A children and adults have different thought processes.
B young people have a built-in drive to succeed in areas like sport.
C it is important to focus on mental rather than physical techniques.
5. According to Mickey, what can cause some sports people to fail at important events?
A. They haven’t trained enough.
B. They are inexperienced at dealing with pressure.
C. They can become too aware of their actions.
PART II. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef who both
won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the correct answer A,
B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice. (5 pts)
 6. What was Chris’s attitude to the competition?
A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes.
B. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem.
C. He admitted he’d been looking forward to the challenge.
D. he said conditions were similar to his routine.
7. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to
A. work in a very small space. B. be original when travelling at speed.
C. prepare a meal so quickly. D. create a meal with so little money.
8. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job?
A. the close contact with the customers B. the necessary to do everything the same time
C. the opportunity to be creative D. the need to be focused on the job
9. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train?
A. They approve of the menus created for them.
B. They consider themselves more adventurous than other chefs.
C. They would like to have more freedom of choice.
D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job.
10. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over?
A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up.
B. She blames the train driver for the accident.
C. She feels herself to keep a closer watch next time.
D. She says nasty things to the other staff.
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)
11. A. curative B. burble C. curvature D. curtain
12. A. manual B. monkey C. nominate D. monetary
13. A. rugged B. naked C. crooked D. knocked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
14: A. canoe B. retail C. marquee D. parade
15: A. respiratory B. controversially C. arithmetic D. ameboid
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
16. He went to a school which___________ good manners and self- discipline.
A. cultivated B. planted C. harvested D. blossomed
17. I tried to push my way through the standing passengers to get to the door and, failing to keep my
____ about me.
A. head B. soul C. wits D. mind
18. Thick fog across much of the UK has resulted in dozens of flights _______ and many more
delayed.
A. being cancelled B. to be cancelled C. are cancelled D. cancelled
19. She has drawn ____________ praise for her charitable works.
A. abundant B. luxurious C. massive D. lavish
20. The vagrant came out of the shop, ___________ for about 10 paces before falling against a car.
A. stammered B. tripped C. staggered D. skidded
21. Legend _______that Robin Hood fired an arrow from his dead-bed and was buried where the
arrow landed.
A. tells it B. says it C. makes it D. has it
22. - “How old is he?” - “He is ______________ now. He must be at least ninety.”
A. coming off B. getting on C. falling out D. getting back
23. Doctors advise people who are deficient __________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
24. - Jane: “This medicine tastes horrible!” - Jack:” ______, it will cure your cough”.
A. Be that as it may B. Come what may
C. How much horrible is it D. Whatever it tastes
25.The knee is _______ most other joints in the body because it cannot twist without injury.
A. to be damaged more than likely B. more likely to be damaged than
C. likely to be more than damaged D. more than likely to be damaged
26.He became a millionaire by ______ of hard work and a considerable amount of luck.
A. dint B. process C. cause D. effect
27. Let’s _____ the place, it looks so gloomy and unpleasant.
A. miss B. abandon C. depart D. disappear
28. By asking him a few questions about the topic, I try to understand _____ advanced my son was
with compiling information for his term paper.
A. whether B. which C. how far D. that
29. Neither I nor you are qualified for that job, _____ ?
A. are we B. aren’t we C. do we D. do I
30. Sheila will inherite everything _____ her uncle’s death
A. on account of B. in spite of C. in place of D. in the event of
31. Tamara has set her _____ on becoming a ballet-dancer
A. feet B. brain C. heart D. head
32. _____ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideas of the period in which it was
created.
A. Ranking B. Being ranked C. In order to be ranking D. To be ranked
33. The sky is already dark. It must be _____ for 8 o’clock.
A. getting on B. closing on C. getting up D. closing up
34. We are running low on petrol so we started looking for a _____.
A. petrol refinery B. department store C. filling station D. fuel shop
35. The city mayor praised all voluntary students ____________ having cleaned the playgrounds for
the children.
A. for                        B. of                C. at                        D. on
36. All but two of the injured were______ from hospital within twenty- four hours.
A. discharged B. released C. sent D. allowed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
37. Our junior employees are being groomed for more senior roles.
A. minor B. younger C. inferior D. superior
38. You must have your head in the clouds if you think you’re going to succeed without hard work.
A. not know the facts of a situation B. think carefully
C. understand deeply D. not blame for anybody
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 37 to 38.
39. He provides the committee with the record of his work and clears himself of the charge
of plagiarizing from Plautus and Nevus.
A. stealing B. searching C. copying D. creating
40. When her boss broke his leg, Julie had to represent the company at the congress, and she rose to
the occasion extremely well.
A. made a bad job of it B. made it a success C. showed sympathy D. got up the chance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
41. To remove stains from permanent press clothing, carefully soaking in cold water (C) before
washing with a regular detergent
A. from B. carefully soaking C. before washing D. a
42. Crime invention is as crucial in the work place like it is in the home or neighborhood
A. Crime invention B. crucial C. like D. neighborhood
43. I tried to explain the whole idea to her, but it’s still difficult for me to make myself understand.
A. tried to explain B. to C. but D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
44. Lan and Ba is talking about their schedule
Lan: “ I have stacks of homework to do ” Ba: “________”
A. Congaratulations B. Cheers C. You poor thing D. Oh, bother
45. John offers to give Mary a lift and they are talking on the street.
John: “______”
Mary: “OK, John. Thank you for giving me a ride home.”
A. Would you like to drive home, Mary?
B. Hey Mary, throw your stuff in the back and ride up front with me.
C. Okay, let’s take me home Mary.
 D. Safe trip home, Mary! Catch you later.

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25pts)

Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. Write
the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)
VIRTUAL DOCTORS
Clare Harrison rarely falls ill and hates going to the doctor’s when she does. So when she recently
(46) _______ out in a painful rash down one side of her bodyshe emailed her symptoms, which also
included a (47) _______ fever, to e-doc, the Internet medical service. Two hours later she was
diagnosed as having shingles (Herpes Zoster) by her online doctor, who prescribed a special cleaning
solution for the rash and analgesics to help (48) _______the pain.
Health advice is now the second most popular topic that people search for on the Internet, and
online medical consulation is a big business. Sites (49) _______ enormously in what they offer, with
service ranging from the equivalent of a medical agony aunt to a live chat with a doctor via email. They
are clearly (50) _______ a demand from people who are too busy or, in some cases, too embarrassed to
discuss their medical (51) _______ with their GP.
Dr Ron Zeronis (52) _______ with the idea for e-doc when he (53) _______ a particularly
dangerous form of malaria whilst travelling in a remote part of Africa. With only very basic medical
facilities available, Dr Zeronis resolved there and then to launch his site and (54) _______ a service for
others who found themselves in a similar situation. Not all practitioners, however, are in favour of sites
such as e-doc: many point to the potential dangers of online medical advice, particularly in the case of
more (55) _______ illnesses.
46. A. came B. passed C. worked D. ran
47. A. small B. weak C. mild D. calm
48. A. relieve B. disappear C. improve D. lighten
49. A. alter B. distinguish C. change D. vary
50. A. meeting B. serving C. creating D. establishing
51. A. complaint B. story C. hardship D. harm
52. A. got on B. thought over C. came up D. put forward
53. A. received B. contracted C. gained D. acquired
54. A. supply B. distribute C. provide D. deliver
55. A. important B. deathly C. serious D. endangered
Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the answers on your answer
sheet.
Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about
300 million cubic miles of water. From this vast amount, about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucked
into the atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean.
More than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is
required to replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are
dependent. Thus, the hydrosphere permits organic existence.
 The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any
other liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids
contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the
ice sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water
during the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and
cold currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest
of all liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb and store vast
quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more
substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic that helps make oceans a great storehouse for
minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these
minerals are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practiced, potash is
extracted from the Dead Sea, and magnesium is produced from sea water along the American Gulf
Coast.
56. The author's main purpose in this passage is to .
A. describe the properties and uses of water
B. illustrate the importance of conserving water
C. explain how water is used in commerce and industry
D. compare water with other liquids
57. The phrase "This vast amount" in line 4 refers to .
A. 300 million cubic miles of water B. 80,000 million cubic of water
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water D. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
58. The word "replenish" can best be replaced by .
A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form
59. According to the passage, fish can survive in the oceans because .
A. they do not need oxygen B. ice floats
C. evaporation and condensation create a water cycle D. there are currents in the ocean
60. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of water?
A. Water expands when it is frozen. B. Water is a good solvent.
C. Water can absorb heat. D. Water contracts on cooling.
61. The word "outstanding" is closest in meaning to .
A. exceptionally good B. special C. important D. amusing
62. According to the passage, the hydrosphere is NOT .
A. responsible for all forms of life B. that part of the earth covered by water
C. a source of natural resources D. in danger of freezing water

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions
From time immemorial, cities have been the central gathering places of human life, from where the
great ideas and movements of the world have sprouted. In this country, the beginnings of our
independence fomented with the Boston Tea Party, while Philadelphia served as the home of the
Constitutional Convention. The seeds of economic and financial power were sowed on the streets of
New York City. Around the world, the great thinkers of the Renaissance assembled in Florence, the
impressionist painters flocked to Paris, and the industrial revolution sparked in Birmingham England.
Hundreds of years later, great ideas and innovations are still sprouting in cities – but this time
accompanied by a growth in urbanized life over the last several decades never before seen. For the first
time in history, more people are living in cities than rural areas. And, this way of living is only going to
continue: by 2050, the urban share of global population is projected to surpass 66 percent (up from 30
percent in 1950). This trend to urbanization is even more dramatic beyond the borders of the United
States. Take Nigeria's capital, Lagos, which had a population of approximately 7.2 million in 2000, and
is expected to rise to 24 million by 2030. And, eight times more Nigerians live in cities today than in
1975. Moreover, the metro areas of Tokyo, New York and Mexico City were the only metro areas in
1975 with at least 10 million people. Today, that list would include 31 such megacities – with 10 more
to join by 2030 – all of which are outside the United States.
Cities are undergoing what Brookings Institution author Bruce Katz terms the "metropolitan
revolution." Financial capitals New York and London are transforming into major world tech hubs as
new and innovative companies emerge within these cities. And, this shift is not exclusive to New York
or London, as many cities are undergoing similar transformations driven by this global trend toward
urbanization. This wave of urban growth stems, in large part, from the mass adoption of the internet
and interconnected technologies. Interestingly, many sociologists predicted years ago that the advent of
such interconnectivity would enable people to live and work anywhere. But the practical result has
been the opposite.
Indeed, in this new 21st century economy, innovative workers seek one another to collaborate in
building and developing new knowledge-based industries that are increasingly disrupting and
dominating a rapidly evolving global economy. Bright, curious minds in the sciences and technology
demand proximity in order to be more productive, more creative and further stimulated. This need for
collaboration has propelled millennials to move to urban areas in droves. But once they get there, they
desire new open physical environments – such as incubators and shared work places – to enhance their
collaborative efforts. Beyond work, a growing single population – one that now outnumbers married
people in the United States – seeks out other singles amid the myriad activities and diverse nightlife
that only cities offer.
(Adapted from https://www.usnews.com/)
63. What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The increasing number of city dwellers and its challenges.
B. The movement of villagers to cities due to the urbanization.
C. The influence of innovations on urbanized life.
D. Urbanization and its potential.
64. According to paragraph 1, which country was mentioned when the author stated “in this country”?
A. England B. Italy C. France D. The United States
65. The word “sparked” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
 A. completed B. succeeded C. changed D. initiated
66. Which of the following is NOT true about the urban population?
A. In the past, more people lived in the countryside than in cities.
B. As predicted, the number of urban inhabitants in 1950 was nearly a half of that in the next 100
years.
C. The rate of urbanization in the United States is greater than the proportion in any other places in
the world.
D. More and more megacities are set up beyond the United States.
67. According to paragraph 3, what is the main reason for the increase in urbanization?
A. There are many new and innovative companies appearing in financial capitals.
B. Many cities are influenced by the global urbanization.
C. The internet and interconnected technologies are widely applied.
D. People are likely to live and work wherever they want.
68. The word “propelled” in the last paragraph mostly means ____________.
A. required B. forced C. attracted D. encouraged
69. The following are the changes in the new 21st century economy, EXCEPT ______________.
A. Co-workers have to be advanced to work together in building and improving new industries.
B. Intelligent scientists require similar counterparts to work more effectively.
C. People rush to urban areas to find open physical environments to improve their ability.
D. Single population often finds their life partners through activities at nights provided only in cities.
70. It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.
A. City dwellers tend to be more and more creative and innovative.
B. Cities now are too crowded to live in.
C. The drawbacks urbanization causes are greater than its benefits.
D. Urbanization is one of the reasons for the increasing number of singles at cities.
 SECTION E: WRITING (30 pts)

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 pts)
71. He declared his disapproval of the behaviour of some of his supporters.
-> He lets it ________________________________________________________________
72. The president’s bodyguards stood behind him watching
-> Watchfully _______________________________________________________________
73. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought
-> I lacked_______________________________________________________________
74. She herself admitted to being rather selfish
-> On ____________________________________________________________________
75. I don’t remember much about my father, but I do remember she was very kind and loving towards
us
-> What little ______________________________________________________________
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
76. It just isn’t possible for me to take you to the party tonight (QUESTION)
-> It_______________________________________________________________________
77. The present came as a complete surprise to me (ABACK)
-> I ______________________________________________________________________
78. I don’t mind if you stay at my house tonight. (PUTTING)
-> I am not averse ___________________________________________________________
79. Should there be a problem, contact us at all costs. (LINE)
-> In the __________________________________________________________________
80. The inspector showed us four potential health hazards (DREW)
-> The inspector____________________________________________________________

Question III. Write an about 250-300-word essay on the following statement: (20 points)
Many schools and universities have introduced many types of tests for evaluation rather than
the only written exams based upon lessons from books. 
What is your opinion? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
 TRƯỜNG THPT TRIỆU SƠN 4 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KSĐT HỌC SINH GIỎI
ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 - MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày KS: 09/12/2021

I.PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM: (Each correct answer scores 1.0 point)

QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER

1 B 25 B 49 D
2 B 26 A 50 A
3 A 27 B 51 A
4 C 28 C 52 C
5 C 29 A 53 B
6 D 30 D 54 C
7 B 31 C 55 C
8 A 32 D 56 A
9 C 33 A 57 D
10 B 34 C 58 A
11 A 35 A 59 B
12 B 36 A 60 D
13 D 37 C 61 B
14 B 38 A 62 D
15 B 39 D 63 A
16 A 40 A 64 D
17 C 41 B 65 D
18 A 42 C 66 C
19 D 43 D 67 C
20 C 44 C 68 B
21 D 45 B 69 C
22 B 46 A 70 A
23 C 47 C
24 A 48 A

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM TỰ LUẬN

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. He lets it be known that he disapproved of the behaviour of some of his supporters
82. Watchfully standing behind the president were his body guards
83. I lacked the courage to tell him what I really thought
84. On her own admission, she was rather selfish
85. What little I remember about my mother is that she was very kind and loving towards us
 Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the
given word. (5pts)
86. It is out of the question for me to take you to the party tonight
87. I was completely taken aback by the present.
88. I am not averse to putting you at my house tonight
89. In the event of a problem, drop a line at all costs
90. The inspector drew our attention to four potential health
Question 3: Essay writing (20 pts)
Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 4 pts (coherence, cohesion, style)
The essay should include 3 parts:
a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly
b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence,
reasoning and examples.
c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)
2. Content: 10pts
A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
Note:
- Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree.
- Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or her own
opinion in the conclusion.
3. Language: 6pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:

- Tổng điểm toàn bài : 100 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20