Category B1 Module 11A Questions

Q. The r.m.s value of half-wave rectifier is 10A, its value for full wave
rectifier would be______ amperes (BLT VOL 1 PG 464)
1)20 2) 14.14 3)20/π 4)40/π

Q. The capacity of a cell is measured in

1) watt-hours 2) watts 3) amperes 4) ampere-hours

Q. Lead acid Battery is charged using

(a) Constant voltage
(b) Constant current
(c) Constant voltage and current

Q. Positive charge in DC
---Anode

Q. Lap & wave winding are used in drum type dc generator. Lap
winding has high current & low voltage whereas wave winding has
low current & high voltage.

Q. In a 6 pole d.c machine, 90 mechanical degrees correspond

to_________ electrical degrees
1)30 2)180 3)45 4)270

Q. The main disadvantage of using short pitch winding in alternators is

that it
1)reduces harmonics in the generated voltage
2)reduces total voltage around the armature coils
3) produces asymmetry in the three phase windings
4) increases Cu of end resistance

Q. Zero power factor method of an alternator is used to find its

1)efficiency 2) voltage regulation 3) armature reaction 4) synchronous
impedance

Q. In relation to transformer, the ratio 20:1 indicates that

1) there are 20 turns on primary one turn on secondary
2) secondary voltage is 1/20th of primary voltage
3)primary current is 20 times greater than the secondary current
4) for every 20 turns on primary, there is one turn on secondary.
Q. Current limiter
1)Designed to limit current at a predetermined amperage
2) Has low melting point.
3)Cannot be used in heavy power circuit
4)All

Q. Safety precaution to be carried out in current transformer

(a) Secondary winding should be shorted
(b) Secondary winding should be left opened
(c) Primary winding should be shorted
(d) Primary winding should be left opened.

Q. Electrostatic induction is achieved by----

63. Voltage Transformer are connected in

(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) None

Q. In a voltage transformer
-----primary winding is parallel with supply voltage.

Q. In a rotary inverter
1. DC motor drive AC generator
2. AC motor drives DC generator

Q. The dual secondary windings are wound in TRU

1.Star & Delta
2.Star
3.Delta

86. Secondary winding of TRU

(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Series parallel

Q. Rectifications means
(a) AC to DC
(b) DC to AC
(c) Phase AC to 3 Phase AC
Q. Voltage ratings determined in rectifier
a) Ability of rectifier to withstand reverse voltage and without any excess
of Fwd current.
b) Ability of rectifier to withstand reverse voltage and without any
excess of reverse current.

Q. Which bus bar equipment and instruments required for the continued
safe operation of the aircraft.
1. Main bus
2. Essential bus
3. Battery bus.

Q. Which bus bar equipment and instruments required for the continued
safe operation of the aircraft.
1. Vital bus
2. Essential bus
3. safety bus.
4.All the above.

Q. Which bus will be powered for a safe flight in case of emergency

(a) Essential bus
(b) Essential shedable bus
(c) Hot bus

Q. Electricity provide to maintain

-vital / essential Load

Q. Electric field & electromagnetic field produced by radio antenna

1. 180deg out of phase
2.Right angle to each other.
3.90deg out of phase.

Q. A transmitted radio wave will have a plane wavefront:

(a) in the near field
(b) in the far field
(c) close to the antenna.

Q. A radio wave is said to be polarised in:

(a) the direction of travel
(b) the E-field direction
(c) the H-field direction.
Q. Above 30Mhz which waves are utilised
(a) Sky wave
(b) Space wave
(c) Ground wave

Q. Attenuation in an optical fibre is due to:

(a) absorption (b) scattering (c)radiation d) All

Q. In an optical fibre, the refractive index of the core is:

(a) the same as the cladding
(b) larger than the cladding or Ref. index of cladding is lower than
the core.
(c) smaller than the cladding.

Q. Advantages of Optical fibres is

1) Electrical isolation and freedom from earth/ground loops
2)Exceptionally wide bandwidth and very high data rates can be
supported
3) Relative freedom from electromagnetic interference
4)Al the above

Q. In fibre optics Junction, communication network formed by

1) Y-Junction 2) Ring topologies 3) T-Junction 4) Bot 1 & 2

Q. Fibre optic connectors

1) alignment keys on the plug 2) matching alignment grooves on the
receptacle 3) Both 1 & 2

Q.3rd Generation uses

1)ARINC 429 2) ASCB 3) AFDX

Q. Open architecture for IMA implementations on

1) 1st Generation 2) 2nd Generation 3) 3rd Generation

Q. MTCS.
1.LRMs are more reliable than LRU
2. LRUs are more reliable than LRM
3. Both reduce weight
4.Both 1 & 3

Q. IMA system used in electrical load monitoring & load shedding

1) B777 ELMS 2) B777 AIMS 3) Honeywell EMC

Q. Integrated Modular Avionics use:

a. ARINC 429 b. ARINC 563 c. ARINC 653

Q. AIRBUS 330/340 USES

1.ARINC429
2.ARINC629
3.MIL-STD-1553B

Q.B777 data bus uses----ARINC629

Q. Functions of AIRBUS AFDX---Aircraft level= interconnecting several

aircraft level functional domain
Q.IMA---LRU 1/3rd cost is
1.PSU
2. EMI case filters
3.Both 1 & 2

Q.1/3 cost of IMA from

(a) Connector
(b) Power Assy
(c) Both

67. IMA - mark the incorrect statement about 2nd generation

a) Open Architecture
b) Independent Power supply to the rack
c) Serial backplane

68. Mark the correct statement reg. 3rd generation IMA

a) Multiple Standard supplier/modules
b) Backplane is parallel
c) Partially Open Architecture
d) All the above

Q.IMA Third Generation advantage

(a) Multiple supplier modules
(b) Closed architecture
(c) Use of Apex software technique
(d) All the above

Q.IMA Second Generation advantage

(a) Partially open architecture
(b) Multiple supplier modules
(c) Both a & b

Q. IMA gen 1 advantages

(a) Closed Rack Architecture
(b) Non-standard back plane
(c) Both a and b

69. LRM adv. Over LRU

a) 50% of less volume
b) 30% of net cost
c) Power saving
d) All the above

Q.IMA 2nd Gen what is correct----Partial open.

Q.IMA 3rd Gen what is incorrect---- Partial open.

Q.IMA 1st Gen disadvantage----separate supply is required.

Q. Advantages of IMA are:

a. Reduced Hardware, Reduced Size
b. Reduced Weight, Reduced Power (Energy Consumption)
c. Reduced Cost
d. All above are correct.

Q. DFDR event button (push-button) SWITCH-

1. momentary switch - digital signal for recording
2. momentary switch - discrete signal for recording
2.ON/OFF switch used to record event & time.

Q. Pax. Signs ,value position, instrument dials indicated by which

light-------Electroluminescent.

Q. Lights used for signs & valve pos. indications

a) Electro luminous light
b) Incandescence light
c) Flash light

Q. Which light cannot be tested with an ohmmeter

1.Halogen 2. Xenon 3. Incandescent 4. Florescent

Q. Which light can be checked by ammeter

1.Halogen 2. Xenon 3. Incandescent 4. Florescent

Q. Which lamp can be damaged if touched with bare hand

1. Xenon 2. Incandescent 3. Florescent

Q. Ice inspection lights

1. are the sealed beam type 2. Has 50–250 watts’ lamps. 3. Both 1 & 2

Q. Icing inspection lights are often installed to check ice formation on

(a) Wing L.E and Engine intake
(b) On the windshield
(c) Over the fuselage

Q. Master warning and caution light panels

1. centralized attention getters & also directs the pilot towards the
problem area concerned.
2.Increase the possibility to be missed by the crew

Q. MTCS
1.In some a/c’s logo light are located under the horizontal stabilizer
& directed to logo.

Q. Landing light
1. Are sealed beam type with 600–1000 W fi lament lamps; a
parabolic reflector
concentrates light into a directional beam.

Q. Navigation light cover

1.Heat resistant 2. Heat resistant & flexible 3. Heat resistant & opaque

Q.Covering of position light should be

(a) Heat resistant
(b) Opaque and Heat resistant
(c) Flexible and Heat resistant

Q. MTCS about strobe lights

1.Depending on size of aircraft & located at wing tip & as a supplement
to position light.
2.It can be used solely as beacon
3. 90 flashes per minute
4.All the above

Q. When the aircraft is aligned for landing the colour of the inner marker
beacon is
(a) White
(b) Magenta
(c) Blue

Q. Marker beacon colour

1 Cyan-----Amber------white

Q. Flashing of strobe light

1. 70 flashes per minute

100. Mark the correct statement regarding Taxi light

(a) Taxi light angle is 50°
(b) It is a sealed beam light
(c) It turns off when the Landing Gear is retracted.
(d) All the above.

Q. Nav light supply

(a) 28v DC
(b) 28v DC & 28v AC
(c) 28v AC

Q. Strobe light supply

(a) AC
(b) DC
(c) AC & DC

Q. cockpit dome light are powered by

1. battery or ground services bus.

Q. The rotating beacon

1.Have a filament lamp, reflector, motor and drive mech ,flashes
40–50 times per second
Q. In large a/c Emergency lights used in cabin is supplied by
1.Emergency power pack & direct from battery
2.Emergency power pack & emergency bus bar.
3.Both 1 & 2

Q.Cabin light S/W Location

(a) In the cockpit
(b) In the galley area
(c) Attendant Panel Rear portion of the cabin
(d) Attendant Panel Forward portion of the cabin

Q. MTCS (LIGHTS)
---Runway turn-off lights are mounted on NLG for immediate right &
left of a/c.

Q. Taxi & landing light switched on by relay or solenoid because

-----It has wattage.

Q. Taxi and landing light is turned ON / OFF by relay or solenoid

because
(a) It has high voltage (CURRENT)
(b) It is faster in operation.
(c) To reduce weight

Q. which light provides a general illumination of instruments, control

panels, pedestals etc.
-----Flood lighting.

Q.A lighting system used to provide illuminate for individual instruments

& controls on various cockpit panels.
----Pillar & bridge light.

Q. MCTS reg. flood light (Flooding the light) --- Flood light

Q.____________ light used for illumination of instruments

(a) Integral light
(b) Pillar (or) bridge light
(c) All the above

Q.400V DC used in strobe circuits is dangerous. Take precautions.

Q. Flood light in the flight compartment is normally from
(a) Strobe lights
(b) Incandescent lamps and / or fluorescent tubes
(c) Position lights

Q. Flashing light also used as

(a) Anti collision
(b) Wing tips
(c) Vertical stabilizers
(d) All the above

Q. MTCS for cockpit lights

1.White light
2.Reduces power & heat.
3.Improves contrast on instrument
4.Reduces eye fatigue.

Q. Level A software failure is

-----Catastrophic

Q. Satellite communication systems use a low earth orbit to:

(a) provide greater coverage
(b) maintain a geostationary position
(c) minimize voice delays.

Q. The satellite communication of Iridium network allows voice and data

messages to be routed:
(a) anywhere in the world
(b) between the flight crew and cabin crew
(c) via a fibre optic network.

Q.The iridium system satellite orbits are:

(a) random
(b) equatorial
(c) polar.

Q. “Spot beam” in terms of SATCOM terminology

1.It provides cover over most of the land mass residing under each
satellite. Also cover lower capability systems that do not require
oceanic coverage.
Q. Air traffic service units’ interface with airplane avionics system by
1) ARINC 429 2) ARINC 629 3) ARINC 612

Q.NSS (Network server system) allows

1.Passenger data communication with cabin crew
2.Flight crew data communication with maintenance personnel.
3.Both 1& 2

Q. Airspeed corrected to a non-standard temperature pressure &

temperature
1.Ture airspeed 2. Indicated airspeed

Q.IFE power source

1.same & taken from same power source
2.different from main power source

Q. MTCS
1.a diode is required in warning circuit to ensure only relevant light
illuminates.

Q. Which is used to test antenna

1.SWR 2. Special multi meter 3. coupler unit.

Q. Antenna output can be checked by

(a) Duplexer
(b) Standing Wave Ratio meter
(c) Standing Wave Radio meter

Q. Lift generated depends on

1.Size & shape of aerofoil 2. Angle of attack 3. Air density &velocity 4.
All the above.

Q. In ACARS
1.High speed data transmission is possible only in alpha numeric
system.

Q. Messages that send from ground stations to a/c through ACARS

messages;
1.downlink 2. uplink 3. Crosslink
Q .ACARS have link
(a) Up
(b) Down
(c) Cross

In ACARS the data transmitted from aircraft to ground is

(a) Uplink
(b) Downlink
(c) Both a and b

Q.A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in-flight faults to an

engineering and monitoring ground station is:
(a) TCAS II
(b) ACARS
(c) GPS.

Q. Purpose of AIDS
1. Recording & Performance monitoring.

Q.ILS deviation appears on

(a) EADI
(b) EHSI
(c) ECAM

Q. HF frequency
1. 3-30 MHz
2.30-300 MHz
3.300-3000 MHz

Q. The__________ mode is used for digital data outside HF system

1.AM 2. Data 3. CW

Q. ACARS is a digital data link system uses VHF range

1.129-137MHz 2.108-118MHz 3. 140-153 MHz

Q. ACARS is a digital data link system transmitted in the:

(a) VHF range
(b) LF range
(c) UHF range.

Q. ACARS works on
(a) VHF
(b) UHF
(c) HF

Q.ATC communication is established by

(a) HF
(b) VHF
(c) HF and VHF

Q. Frequency mostly used in TCAS

1.HF 2.VHF 3.LHF

Q. Mostly used system for communication

(a) VHF
(b) HF
(c) Both

Q. Modulation used in VHF & above---FM

Q.VHF Modulation
1.Frequency modulation. 2.Amplititude modulation 3. Both 1 & 2

Q. Normal radio communication----VHF

Q. Normally VHF range and above are

(a) Frequency modulated
(b) Amplitude modulated

Q. TCAS warning come in

1.ND 2.PFD

Q. TCAS advisory / warning is displayed on

(a) EADI
(b) EHSI/ND
(c) Both a and b

Q. which has a higher level warning in TCAS

1. RA 2. TA

Q. TCAS which advisory is crucial

(a) TA
(b) RA
(c) Audio warning saying “Traffic Traffic”

Q. Length of radio waves depends on

1.Frequency 2. wavelength

Q. SATCOM use
1.Geostationary satellite 2.GPS satellite 3. Low orbit

Q. The SATCOM cover any area between

(a) 75° north and 75° South
(b) 85° north and 85° South
(c) 60° north and 60° South

Q. Chimes when the flight crew needs to gain the attention of the cabin
crew
1. single low chime 2. a single high/low chime 3. three high/low chimes

8. Audio-video on demand (AVOD) entertainment enables passengers

to:
(a) pause, rewind, fast-forward or stop a programme
(b) make phone calls via satellite communication
(c) ignore PA system voice announcements and chime signals.

Q.IFE Audio Video on Demand enables passengers to

(a) pause, rewind, FF or stop a programme and also allows
passengers to choose between an assortment of audio-visual
programme stored in aircraft computer system
(b) pause, rewind, FF or stop a programme and does not allow
passengers to choose between an assortment of audio-visual
programme stored in aircraft computer system
(c) Simply watch the programme without any pause, rewind, FF or stop
options.

Q. In PA announcement
(a) IFE system if not interfered.
(b) PA system is over imposed on IFE system.
(c) IFE system is paused for the announcement of PA system.

Q. MTCS regarding PA system

1. PA voice announcements are integrated with the passenger
entertainment system so that safety announcements can be made
over and above entertainment channels.

Q. Speaker location of PA system

a) Cabin, galley, Fwd entrance and cockpit.
b) Cabin, wash room, Galley and Fwd entrance.
c) Cabin, wash room, Galley and cockpit.

Q. The PA system located in the

1.passenger service units (PSUs) 2. Galleys 3. Washrooms/cabin crew
areas.4. All the above

Q. The passenger address (PA) system is primarily a safety system that

provides passengers with:
(a) in-flight entertainment
(b) reduced amount of IFE wiring to a seat position
(c) voice announcements and chime signals.

Q.PA system Primary purpose

(a) Pax safety announcement
(b) Pax entertainment
(c) Communication between the crew.

Q. The PA amplifier provides a level of sidetone to the crew’s handset

or headsets during voice announcements
--- to confirm that the handset or headsets are functional

92. MTCS regarding Sidetone

(a) The PA amplifier provides a level of sidetone to crews handset.
(b) It is a technique of feeding back a small amount of sound from
mouthpiece to earpiece.
(c) It confirms the handset is functional.
(d) All the above.

Q. A typical PA system is controlled by a selector panel

----located at cabin crew stations

Q. No smoking & fasten seat belt lights

--Single low chime

Q. Cabin management includes

1.Announcement
2. video system audio
3.chimes
4.All the above.

Q.IFE power source –AC

95. The physiological effect when 55mA, 400 hz aircraft supply flows
through the body is
(a) Not usually noticeable
(b) Mild shock
(c) Medium Shock
(d) Ventricular fibrillation of heart muscle

Q. Angle of indicator is *****

Q. Reset button in cockpit when pressed

1.Flash & warning stopped 2. Flash stopped only 3. Flash & warning
stopped works normally

Q. Warning illuminate with

1.Message & Aural warning 2. Only Aural 3. Only message

Q. MTCS regarding software

1.Updation of software will not affect the part number of the components.
2.Initially approved by the designer later does not require the
approval of designer

Q. Water type fire extinguisher contains

(a) Water
(b) Water and antifreeze

Q. Lindbergh fire detection system

(a) Two conductors placed between thermostat
(b) Gas filled tube with titanium sensing element as inner core and outer
metal case
(c) Gas filled with helium at ambient pressure & pressure changes
due temperature changes.
(d) None of the above.

Q. Lindbergh fire detection system

1.Gas filled tube with titanium tube in the centre.
2.Type of continuous loop system & sensor is active due to high
pressure
3.
4.None of the above.
Q. The smoke detector that monitors ionized products of combustion as
they pass through a charged
electrical field
a) Photo electric type
b) Carbon mono oxide type.
c) Ionization type.

Q. Light dimming option is not available for

1.Fire/overheat or emergency lights to avoid chances of missing in
case of bright ambient conditions.

Q. MTCS regarding Fire and overheat.

(a) Lights used in warnings are not dimmable.
(b) Warnings are not missed under bright ambient conditions.
(c) All the above.

Q. Fire extinguisher should not be used for Class D ----Halon type

Q. Refuel cap must be

1.Tight fit & prevent leakage 2. To prevent contamination 3. Provide
vent passage

Q. Fuel tanks are pressurised to prevent---Vapour lock.

Q. Fuel should not have _____________ when operating at 40° C under

critical condition
(a) Vapour lock.
(b) Flash point
(c) Fire point

Q. Fuel System Operating at 43degree Celsius should not have

(a) Contamination
(b) Vapour Lock

Q. Basic ‘T’ is replaced by

(a) ECAM
(b) EFIS
(c) EHSI
(d) EICAS

Q. SCR also known as

(a) Thermistor
(b) Thyristor
(c) None of the above

Q. Wave Length depends on

(a) Frequency
(b) Frequency band
(c) None of the above

Q. Engine parameters such as NI, RPM Fuel flow are indicated on the
(a) Upper ECAM
(b) Lower ECAM
(c) EADI
(d) EHSI

Q.Engine RPM, Fuel flow indication shown on

(a) Primary EICAS
(b) Secondary EICAS
(c) PFD

Q. Movable maps in IFE

---Obtain real time flight information on a video channel & interface
with aircrafts navigational system.

Q. Moving Map shown in IFE

(a) Takes from A/C Nav
(b) Separate sensor available
(c) Does not infere with A/C Nav

Q. Rigidity of gyroscope depends on --

1.the mass of the rotor & the speed of rotation,
2.radius of gyration.
4.Both 1 & 2

Q .Gyro rigidity depends on

(a) Rotor speed and mass
(b) Inertia moment of rotor
(c) Both a & b

Q. The pressure sensing element used in altimeter---Evacuated metal

capsule.

Q. Altimeter have most sensitive

(a) Evacuated capsule
(b) Sealed Capsule
(c) Bordorn tube

Q. In addition to magnetic heading, deviation shows in EHSI from

1.ILS receiver 2. VOR radial 3. ADF

Q. The max. deviation (during level flight) permitted in a compensated

magnetic direction indicator installed on a/c is -----10 deg.
Q. what defines Temporary heading deviation. ----Direction indicator.
Q. The horizontal angle contained between the true and magnetic
meridian
at any place) is known as the----- magnetic variation or declination.

Q. A plane passing through the magnet and the centre of the earth would
trace on the earth's surface an imaginary line called the magnetic
meridian

Q. short-term heading changes during turns given by

(a) Horizon gyro
(b) Compass
(c) Direction gyro
--- Direction indicator (horizontal-axis gyroscope, and, being non-
magnetic, is used in conjunction) with the magnetic compass

Q. Secondary Heading information is obtained from

(a) Gyro
(b) Compass
(c) Pitot Static System

Q. Change of heading in aircraft which instrument shows real heading

----Direction indicator

Q. long-term heading reference as in sustained straight and level flight

given by
---Magnetic compass

Q. Soft magnetism
a) Based on heading
b) Based on altitude & position.
c) All the above.
(The effect of soft type of magnetism is dependent on the heading
and attitude of the aircraft and its geographical position)

Q. For long range navigation which instrument is used

(a) Magnetic compass
(b) Gyro
(c) ASI

Q. Lines are drawn on the charts, and those which join places having
equal variation are called -----isogonal lines.

Q. The angle at which the line of force makes with the earth’s surface at
any given place
------Angle of dip or magnetic inclination.

Q. Alternating-Current Synchronous Systems-. Autosy n, Selsyn

Q. MTCS regarding compass

1. Provided with temperature expansion & precision compensation
2.Bowl filled with silicon fluid to make compass aperiodic.
3.Both 1 & 2

Q. The primary reason for filling compass bowls with silicon fluid is
1. to make the compass aperiodic.
2. reducing the weight on the pivot
3.Both 1 & 2

Q. Altimeter setting to read zero at airport

(a) QFE
(b) QNH
(c) QNE

Q. Autopilot fault tolerance achieved by

(a) Sensor
(b) Command
(c) Actuator
(d) All the above
Q. In modern aircraft display unit---Duplicated for FO & Capt.

Q.In modern A/C the data signal to the display unit are
(a) Independent for capt and F/O
(b) Common for capt and F/O

Q. Nav data is uploaded with help of

(a) Magnetic tape
(b) Floppy disk.
(c) CD- ROM

Q.QNH--- Setting the pressure scale to make the altimeter read

airfield height above sea-level on landing and take-off

Q. QNE Setting the standard sea-level pressure of 1,013.25 mbar

(29.92 in Hg) to make the altimeter read the airfield
elevation.

Q. Purpose of “BITE”
(a) Detecting and indicating specific equipment faults
(b) Monitoring equipment performance
(c) Storing fault data
(d) All the above

Q. Operational faults in FMS can be detected by

(a) Automatically comparing outputs on a continuous basis
(b) Routine maintenance inspection of the aircraft
(c) Pre-flight check.

Q. FMC data is uploaded every

(a) Month
(b) 28 days
(c) 14 days

Q. Decision height & radio altitude is indicated on

a) EADI/PFD
b) EHSI/ND
c) Both a and b

Q. Colour change of decision height----white to amber

Q. In ESHI, Aircraft symbol is displayed on

------Middle of EHSI
Q. Vertical & lateral deviation from normal flight is displayed on
-----EADI

Q. colour of EADI display-----cyan & yellow

Q. Most danger area due lightning strike----Exit area

Q.CRT converts
----Electrical to visual

Q. The three beams in a colour CRT are

associated with the colours:
(a) red, yellow and blue
(b) red, green and blue
(c) green, blue and yellow.

Q. Mark the correct statement regarding IME

(a) It is less expensive
(b) It is easier to manufacture
(c) It is lighter
(d) All the above.

Q.AC Generator – induction Rotor + AC stator DC motor, AC motor

Q. Galley equipment are connected in

(a) Series
(b) Parallel

Q.HSI is provided with—magnetic compass or directional gyro indicator.

Q. GPS uses:
(a) 12 satellites in three orbital planes
(b) 24 satellites in six orbital planes
(c) 48 satellites in 12 orbital planes

Q. Flags on Nav ,VOR ,ILS shows- serves the dual function of

warning of VOR radial signal and localizer signal malfunction

Q. Static electricity
1.Generated when a/c flies through dust, sand, air & other foreign
materials.
2.It is also known as P-static
3.It is causing P
4.

Q.VOR/DME deviation is shown in

1.PFD
2.ND

Q.AICB Special property-Bi-directional

Q.Transistor---

Q.ATSU—All

Q. Which one is the rate gyro?

Similar to turn n bank indicator
For the detection of rates of turn, direct use is made of gyroscopic
precession, and in order to do this the gyroscope is arranged in the
manner shown in Fig 5.23. Such an arrangement is known as a
rate gyroscope

Q.DC GENERATOR WINDING 2 CIRCUIT/SERIES

1.GEN EMF IS EQUAL TO INDIVIDUAL EMF
2.NO. OF PARALLEL PATH IN ARMATURE IS TWO IRESPECTIVE OF NO. OF
GEN. POLES