Chapter 27 Animals diversity

Which of the following statements is false?

a Eumetazoans have specialized tissues and parazoans don’t.
b Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa are both Bilataria.
c Acoela and Cnidaria both possess radial symmetry.
d Arthropods are more closely related to nematodes than they are to
annelids.

3. Figure 27.9 Which of the following statements about diploblasts and

triploblasts is false?
a Animals that display radial symmetry are diploblasts.
b Animals that display bilateral symmetry are triploblasts.
c The endoderm gives rise to the lining of the digestive tract and the
respiratory tract.
d The mesoderm gives rise to the central nervous system.

Which of the following is not a feature common to most animals?

a development into a fixed body plan
b asexual reproduction
c specialized tissues
d heterotrophic nutrient sourcing

5. During embryonic development, unique cell layers develop into specific

groups of tissues or organs during a stage called ________.
a the blastula stage
b the germ layer stage
c the gastrula stage
d the organogenesis stage

6. Which of the following phenotypes would most likely be the result of a

Hox gene mutation?
a abnormal body length or height
b two different eye colors
c the contraction of a genetic illness
d two fewer appendages than normal

Which of the following statements is false?

 a Eumetazoans have specialized tissues and parazoans don’t.
b Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa are both Bilataria.
c Acoela and Cnidaria both possess radial symmetry.
d Arthropods are more closely related to nematodes than they
are to annelids.

Which of the following statements about diploblasts and

triploblasts is false?
a Animals that display radial symmetry are diploblasts.
b Animals that display bilateral symmetry are triploblasts.
c The endoderm gives rise to the lining of the digestive tract
and the respiratory tract.
d The mesoderm gives rise to the central nervous system.

7. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be a diploblast?

a sea star
b shrimp
c jellyfish
d insect

8. Which of the following is not possible?

a radially symmetrical diploblast
b diploblastic eucoelomate
c protostomic coelomate
d bilaterally symmetrical deuterostome

9. An animal whose development is marked by radial cleavage and entero-

coely is ________.
a a deuterostome
b an annelid or mollusk
c either an acoelomate or eucoelomate
d none of the above

Humans have body plans that are bilaterally symmetrical and are
characterized by the development of three germ layers, making
them triploblasts. Humans have true coeloms and are thus eu-
coelomates. As deuterostomes, humans are characterized by ra-
dial and indeterminate cleavage.
10. Consulting the modern phylogenetic tree of animals, which of the follow-
ing would not constitute a clade?
a deuterostomes
b lophotrochozoans
c Parazoa
d Bilateria

11. Which of the following is thought to be the most closely related to the
common animal ancestor?
a fungal cells
b protist cells
c plant cells
d bacterial cells

12. As with the emergence of the Acoelomorpha phylum, it is common for

____ data to misplace animals in close relation to other species, whereas
____ data often reveals a different and more accurate evolutionary relation-
ship.
a molecular : morphological
b molecular : fossil record
c fossil record : morphological
d morphological : molecular

Two new clades that comprise the two major groups of proto-
stomes are called the lophotrochozoans and the ecdysozoans. The
formation of these two clades came about through molecular re-
search from DNA and protein data. Also, the novel phylum of
worm called Acoelomorpha was determined due to molecular data
that distinguished them from other flatworms.

13. Which of the following periods is the earliest during which animals may
have appeared?
a Ordovician period
b Cambrian period
c Ediacaran period
d Cryogenian period
14. What type of data is primarily used to determine the existence and ap-
pearance of early animal species?
a molecular data
b fossil data
c morphological data
d embryological development data

15. The time between 542–488 million years ago marks which period?
a Cambrian period
b Silurian period
c Ediacaran period
d Devonian period

16. Until recent discoveries suggested otherwise, animals existing before

the Cambrian period were believed to be:
a small and ocean-dwelling
b small and nonmotile
c small and soft-bodied
d small and radially symmetrical or asymmetrical

17. Plant life first appeared on land during which of the following periods?
a Cambrian period
b Ordovician period
c Silurian period
d Devonian period

18. Approximately how many mass extinction events occurred throughout

the evolutionary history of animals?
a 3
b 4
c 5
d more than 5

Ch 28 Invertebrates
Which of the following statements is false?
a Choanocytes have flagella that propel water through the body.
b Pinacocytes can transform into any cell type.
 c Lophocytes secrete collagen.
d Porocytes control the flow of water through pores in the sponge body.

2. Figure 28.21 Which of the following statements about the anatomy of a

mollusk is false?
a Mollusks have a radula for grinding food.
b A digestive gland is connected to the stomach.
c The tissue beneath the shell is called the mantle.
d The digestive system includes a gizzard, a stomach, a digestive
gland, and the intestine.

3. Figure 28.45 Which of the following statements about insects is false?

a Insects have both dorsal and ventral blood vessels.
b Insects have spiracles, openings that allow air to enter into the tra-
cheal system.
c The trachea is part of the digestive system.
d Most insects have a well-developed digestive system with a mouth,
crop, and intestine.

Mesohyl contains:
a a polysaccharide gel and dead cells.
b a collagen-like gel and suspended cells for various functions.
c spicules composed of silica or calcium carbonate.
d multiple pores.

5. The large central opening in the parazoan body is called the:

a gemmule.
b spicule.
c ostia.
d osculum.

6. Most sponge body plans are slight variations on a simple tube-within-a-

tube design. Which of the following is a key limitation of sponge body
plans?
a Sponges lack the specialized cell types needed to produce more
complex body plans.
b The reliance on osmosis/diffusion requires a design that maximizes
the surface area to volume ratio of the sponge.
 c Choanocytes must be protected from the hostile exterior environment.
d Spongin cannot support heavy bodies.

7. Cnidocytes are found in _____.

a phylum Porifera
b phylum Nemertea
c phylum Nematoda
d phylum Cnidaria

8. Cubozoans are ________.

a polyps
b medusoids
c polymorphs
d sponges

Figure Which of the following statements about the anatomy of a

mollusk is false?
a Mollusks have a radula for grinding food.
b A digestive gland is connected to the stomach.
c The tissue beneath the shell is called the mantle.
d The digestive system includes a gizzard, a stomach, a di-
gestive gland, and the intestine.

9. While collecting specimens, a marine biologist finds a sessile Cnidarian.

The medusas that bud from it swim by contracting a ring of muscle in their
bells. To which class does this specimen belong?
a Class Hydrozoa
b Class Cubozoa
c Class Scyphozoa
d Class Anthozoa

10. Which group of flatworms are primarily ectoparasites of fish?

a monogeneans
b trematodes
c cestodes
d turbellarians

11. The rhynchocoel is a ________.

 a circulatory system
b fluid-filled cavity
c primitive excretory system
d proboscis

12. Annelids have (a):

a pseudocoelom.
b true coelom.
c no coelom.
d none of the above

A mantle and mantle cavity are present in:

a phylum Echinodermata
b phylum Adversoidea
c phylum Mollusca
d phylum Nemertea

13. A mantle and mantle cavity are present in:

a phylum Echinodermata.
b phylum Adversoidea.
c phylum Mollusca.
d phylum Nemertea.

14. How does segmentation enhance annelid locomotion?

a Segmentation creates repeating body structures so the entire organ-
ism functions in synchrony.
b Segmentation allows specialization of different body regions.
c Neural segmentation allows annelids to localize sensations.
d Muscle contractions can be localized to specific regions of the body to
coordinate movement.

15. The embryonic development in nematodes can have up to __________

larval stages.
a one
b two
c three
d four
16. The nematode cuticle contains _____.
a glucose
b skin cells
c chitin
d nerve cells

17. Crustaceans are _____.

a ecdysozoans
b nematodes
c arachnids
d parazoans

18. Flies are_______.

a chelicerates
b hexapods
c arachnids
d crustaceans

There are nematodes with separate sexes and hermaphrodites in

addition to species that reproduce parthenogentically. The nema-
tode Caenorhabditis elegans has a self-fertilizing hermaphrodite
sex and a pure male sex.

19. Which of the following is not a key advantage provided by the exoskele-
ton of terrestrial arthropods?
a Prevents dessication
b Protects internal tissue
c Provides mechanical support
d Grows with the arthropod throughout its life

20. Echinoderms have _____.

a triangular symmetry
b radial symmetry
c hexagonal symmetry
d pentaradial symmetry

21. The circulatory fluid in echinoderms is _____.

a blood
 b mesohyl
c water
d saline

22. Which of the following features does not distinguish humans as a mem-
ber of phylum Chordata?
a Human embryos undergo indeterminate cleavage.
b A spinal cord runs along an adult human’s dorsal side.
c Human embryos exhibit pharyngeal arches and gill slits.
d The human coccyx forms from an embryonic tail.

23. The sister taxon of the Chordata is the _____.

a Mollusca
b Arthropoda
c Ambulacraria
d Rotifera

Ch 29 Evolution of vertebrates

Which of the following statements about common features of chordates is

true?
a The dorsal hollow nerve cord is part of the chordate central nervous
system.
b In vertebrate fishes, the pharyngeal slits become the gills.
c Humans are not chordates because humans do not have a tail.
d Vertebrates do not have a notochord at any point in their develop-
ment; instead, they have a vertebral column.

2. Figure 29.22 Which of the following statements about the parts of an

amniotic egg are false?
a The allantois stores nitrogenous waste and facilitates respiration.
b The chorion facilitates gas exchange.
c The yolk provides food for the growing embryo.
d The amniotic cavity is filled with albumen.

3. Figure 29.24 Members of the order Testudines have an anapsid-like

skull without obvious temporal fenestrae. However, molecular studies indi-
cate that turtles descended from a diapsid ancestor. Why might this be the
case?

4. Which of the following is not contained in phylum Chordata?

a Cephalochordata
b Echinodermata
c Urochordata
d Vertebrata

5. Which group of invertebrates is most closely related to vertebrates?

a cephalochordates
b echinoderms
c arthropods
d urochordates

6. Hagfish, lampreys, sharks, and tuna are all chordates that can also be
classified into which group?
a Craniates
b Vertebrates
c Cartilaginous fish
d Cephalocordata

7. Members of Chondrichthyes differ from members of Osteichthyes by hav-

ing (a) ________.
a jaw
b bony skeleton
c cartilaginous skeleton
d two sets of paired fins

8. Members of Chondrichthyes are thought to be descended from fishes

that had ________.
a a cartilaginous skeleton
b a bony skeleton
c mucus glands
d slime glands
Comparison of hagfishes with lampreys shows that the cranium
evolved first in early vertebrates, as it is seen in hagfishes, which
evolved earlier than lampreys. This was followed by evolution of
the vertebral column, a primitive form of which is seen in lam-
preys and not in hagfishes.

9. A marine biologist catches a species of fish she has never seen before.
Upon examination, she determines that the species has a predominantly
cartilaginous skeleton and a swim bladder. If its pectoral fins are not fused
with its head, to which category of fish does the specimen belong?
a Rays
b Osteichthyes
c Sharks
d Hagfish

10. Which of the following is not true of Acanthostega?

a It was aquatic.
b It had gills.
c It had four limbs.
d It laid shelled eggs.

11. Frogs belong to which order?

a Anura
b Urodela
c Caudata
d Apoda

Which of the following statements about the parts of an egg are

false?
a The allantois stores nitrogenous waste and facilitates respira-
tion.
b The chorion facilitates gas exchange.
c The yolk provides food for the growing embryo.
d The amniotic cavity is filled with albumen.

12. During the Mesozoic period, diapsids diverged into_______.

a pterosaurs and dinosaurs
b mammals and reptiles
 c lepidosaurs and archosaurs
d Testudines and Sphenodontia

13. Squamata includes_______.

a crocodiles and alligators
b turtles
c tuataras
d lizards and snakes

14. Which of the following reptile groups gave rise to modern birds?
a Lepidosaurs
b Pterosaurs
c Anapsids
d Archosaurs

15. A bird or feathered dinosaur is ________.

a Neornithes
b Archaeopteryx
c Enantiornithes
d Paleognathae

16. Which of the following feather types helps to reduce drag produced by
wind resistance during flight?
a Flight feathers
b Primary feathers
c Secondary feathers
d Contour feathers

Skeletal adaption in birds for flight

The sternum of birds is larger than that of other vertebrates, which accom-
modates the force required for flapping. Another skeletal modification
is the fusion of the clavicles, forming the furcula or wishbone. The fur-
cula is flexible enough to bend during flapping and provides support
to the shoulder girdle during flapping. Birds also have pneumatic
bones that are hollow rather than filled with tissue.

17. Eccrine glands produce ________.

a sweat
 b lipids
c scents
d milk

18. Monotremes include:

a kangaroos.
b koalas.
c bandicoots.
d platypuses.

Mammalian brain
In some mammals, the cerebral cortex is highly folded, al-
lowing for greater surface area than a smooth cortex. The
optic lobes are divided into two parts in mammals. Euthe-
rian mammals also possess a specialized structure that
links the two cerebral hemispheres, called the corpus cal-
losum.

19. The evolution of which of the following features of mammals is hardest

to trace through the fossil record?
a Jaw structure
b Mammary glands
c Middle ear structure
d Development of hair

20. Which of the following is not an anthropoid?

a Lemurs
b Monkeys
c Apes
d Humans

21. Which of the following is part of a clade believed to have died out, leav-
ing no descendants?
a Paranthropus robustus
b Australopithecus africanus
c Homo erectus
d Homo sapiens sapiens
22. Which of the following human traits is not a shared characteristic of pri-
mates?
a Hip structure supporting bipedalism
b Detection and processing of three-color vision
c Nails at the end of each digit
d Enlarged brain area associated with vision, and reduced area associ-
ated with smell

Ch 33 Form and function

Which type of animal maintains a constant internal body tempera-
ture?
a endotherm
b ectotherm
c coelomate
d mesoderm

The symmetry found in animals that move swiftly is ________.

a radial
b bilateral
c sequential
d interrupted

What term describes the condition of a desert mouse that lowers

its metabolic rate and “sleeps” during the hot day?
a turgid
b hibernation
c estivation
d normal sleep pattern

A plane that divides an animal into equal right and left portions is
________.
a diagonal
b midsagittal
c coronal
d transverse

A plane that divides an animal into dorsal and ventral portions is

________.
a sagittal
 b midsagittal
c coronal
d transverse

The pleural cavity is a part of which cavity?

a dorsal cavity
b thoracic cavity
c abdominal cavity
d pericardial cavity

How does diffusion limit the size of an organism? How is this

counteracted?
Diffusion is effective over a very short distance. If a cell exceeds
this distance in its size, the center of the cell cannot get adequate
nutrients nor can it expel enough waste to survive. To compen-
sate for this, cells can loosely adhere to each other in a liquid
medium, or develop into multi-celled organisms that use circula-
tory and respiratory systems to deliver nutrients and remove
wastes.

Which of the following statements about types of epithelial cells is

false?
a Simple columnar epithelial cells line the tissue of the lung.
b Simple cuboidal epithelial cells are involved in the filtering of
blood in the kidney.
c Pseudostratisfied columnar epithilia occur in a single layer,
but the arrangement of nuclei makes it appear that more
than one layer is present.
d Transitional epithelia change in thickness depending on how
full the bladder is.

Review Questions
Which type of epithelial cell is best adapted to aid diffusion?
a squamous
b cuboidal
c columnar
d transitional

Which type of epithelial cell is found in glands?

 a squamous
b cuboidal
c columnar
d transitional

Which type of epithelial cell is found in the urinary bladder?

a squamous
b cuboidal
c columnar
d transitional

Which type of connective tissue has the most fibers?

a loose connective tissue
b fibrous connective tissue
c cartilage
d bone

Which type of connective tissue has a mineralized different ma-

trix?
a loose connective tissue
b fibrous connective tissue
c cartilage
d bone

The cell found in bone that breaks it down is called an ________.

a osteoblast
b osteocyte
c osteoclast
d osteon

The cell found in bone that makes the bone is called an ________.
a osteoblast
b osteocyte
c osteoclast
d osteon

Plasma is the ________.

a fibers in blood
 b matrix of blood
c cell that phagocytizes bacteria
d cell fragment found in the tissue

The type of muscle cell under voluntary control is the ________.

a smooth muscle
b skeletal muscle
c cardiac muscle
d visceral muscle

The part of a neuron that contains the nucleus is the

a cell body
b dendrite
c axon
d glial

State whether each of the following processes are regulated by a

positive feedback loop or a negative feedback loop.
a A person feels satiated after eating a large meal.
b The blood has plenty of red blood cells. As a result, erythro-
poietin, a hormone that stimulates the production of new red
blood cells, is no longer released from the kidney.

Both processes are the result of negative feedback loops. Nega-

tive feedback loops, which tend to keep a system at equilibrium,
are more common than positive feedback loops.

When bacteria are destroyed by leuckocytes, pyrogens are re-

leased into the blood. Pyrogens reset the body’s thermostat to a
higher temperature, resulting in fever. How might pyrogens cause
the body temperature to rise?
Pyrogens increase body temperature by causing the blood ves-
sels to constrict, inducing shivering, and stopping sweat glands
from secreting fluid.

When faced with a sudden drop in environmental temperature, an

endothermic animal will:
a experience a drop in its body temperature
 b wait to see if it goes lower
c increase muscle activity to generate heat
d add fur or fat to increase insulation

Which is an example of negative feedback?

a lowering of blood glucose after a meal
b blood clotting after an injury
c lactation during nursing
d uterine contractions during labor

Which method of heat exchange occurs during direct contact be-

tween the source and animal?
a radiation
b evaporation
c convection
d conduction

The body’s thermostat is located in the ________.

a homeostatic receptor
b hypothalamus
c medulla
d vasodilation center

Why are negative feedback loops used to control body homeosta-

sis?
An adjustment to a change in the internal or external environment
requires a change in the direction of the stimulus. A negative
feedback loop accomplishes this, while a positive feedback loop
would continue the stimulus and result in harm to the animal.
Why is a fever a “good thing” during a bacterial infection?

How is a condition such as diabetes a good example of the failure

of a set point in humans?

Ch 34 animal nutrition and digestive systems

Which of the following statements about the digestive system is false?

a Chyme is a mixture of food and digestive juices that is produced in
the stomach.
 b Food enters the large intestine before the small intestine.
c In the small intestine, chyme mixes with bile, which emulsifies fats.
d The stomach is separated from the small intestine by the pyloric
sphincter.

Which of the following statements about the small intestine is false?

a Absorptive cells that line the small intestine have microvilli, small pro-
jections that increase surface area and aid in the absorption of food.
b The inside of the small intestine has many folds, called villi.
c Microvilli are lined with blood vessels as well as lymphatic vessels.
d The inside of the small intestine is called the lumen.

3. Figure 34.19 Which of the following statements about digestive pro-

cesses is true?
a Amylase, maltase, and lactase in the mouth digest carbohydrates.
b Trypsin and lipase in the stomach digest protein.
c Bile emulsifies lipids in the small intestine.
d No food is absorbed until the small intestine.

Which of the following is a pseudo-ruminant?

a cow
b pig
c crow
d horse

5. Which of the following statements is untrue?

a Roughage takes a long time to digest.
b Birds eat large quantities at one time so that they can fly long dis-
tances.
c Cows do not have upper teeth.
d In pseudo-ruminants, roughage is digested in the cecum.

6. The acidic nature of chyme is neutralized by ________.

a potassium hydroxide
b sodium hydroxide
c bicarbonates
d vinegar
7. The digestive juices from the liver are delivered to the ________.
a stomach
b liver
c duodenum
d colon

Explain how the villi and microvilli aid in absorption.

The villi and microvilli are folds on the surface of the small intes-
tine. These folds increase the surface area of the intestine and
provide more area for the absorption of nutrients.
8. A scientist dissects a new species of animal. If the animal’s digestive
system has a single stomach with an extended small intestine, to which ani-
mal could the dissected specimen be closely related?
a lion
b snowshoe hare
c earthworm
d eagle

9. Which of the following statements is not true?

a Essential nutrients can be synthesized by the body.
b Vitamins are required in small quantities for bodily function.
c Some amino acids can be synthesized by the body, while others need
to be obtained from diet.
d Vitamins come in two categories: fat-soluble and water-soluble.

10. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

a vitamin A
b vitamin E
c vitamin K
d vitamin C

11. What is the primary fuel for the body?

a carbohydrates
b lipids
 c protein
d glycogen

12. Excess glucose is stored as ________.

a fat
b glucagon
c glycogen
d it is not stored in the body

13. Many distance runners “carb load” the day before a big race. How does
this eating strategy provide an advantage to the runner?
a The carbohydrates cause the release of insulin.
b The excess carbohydrates are converted to fats, which have a higher
calorie density.
c The glucose from the carbohydrates lets the muscles make excess
ATP overnight.
d The excess carbohydrates can be stored in the muscles as glycogen.

14. Where does the majority of protein digestion take place?

a stomach
b duodenum
c mouth
d jejunum

15. Lipases are enzymes that breakdown ________.

a disaccharides
b lipids
c proteins
d cellulose

16. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause constipation?

a bacterial infection
b dehydration
c ulcer
d excessive cellulose consumption

17. Which hormone controls the release of bile from the gallbladder
a pepsin
 b amylase
c CCK
d gastrin

18. Which hormone stops acid secretion in the stomach?

a gastrin
b somatostatin
c gastric inhibitory peptide
d CCK
Describe one or more scenarios where loss of hormonal regulation
of digestion can lead to diseases.

There are many cases where loss of hormonal regulation can lead
to illnesses. For example, the bilirubin produced by the break-
down of red blood cells is converted to bile by the liver. When
there is malfunction of this process, there is excess bilirubin in the
blood and bile levels are low. As a result, the body struggles with
dealing with fatty food. This is why a patient suffering from jaun-
dice is asked to eat a diet with almost zero fat.

19. In the famous conditioning experiment, Pavlov demonstrated that his

dogs started drooling in response to a bell sounding. What part of the di-
gestive process did he stimulate?
a cephalic phase
b gastric phase
c intestinal phase
d elimination phase

Ch 40 Circulatory System

Which of the following statements about the circulatory system is false?

a Blood in the pulmonary vein is deoxygenated.
b Blood in the inferior vena cava is deoxygenated.
c Blood in the pulmonary artery is deoxygenated.
d Blood in the aorta is oxygenated.

2. Figure 40.11 Which of the following statements about the heart is false?
a The mitral valve separates the left ventricle from the left atrium.
 b Blood travels through the bicuspid valve to the left atrium.
c Both the aortic and the pulmonary valves are semilunar valves.
d The mitral valve is an atrioventricular valve.

4. Why are open circulatory systems advantageous to some animals?

a They use less metabolic energy.
b They help the animal move faster.
c They do not need a heart.
d They help large insects develop.

5. Some animals use diffusion instead of a circulatory system. Examples in-

clude:
a birds and jellyfish
b flatworms and arthropods
c mollusks and jellyfish
d none of the above

6. Blood flow that is directed through the lungs and back to the heart is
called ________.
a unidirectional circulation
b gill circulation
c pulmonary circulation
d pulmocutaneous circulation

Systemic circulation flows through the systems of the body. The

blood flows away from the heart to the brain, liver, kidneys, stom-
ach, and other organs, the limbs, and the muscles of the body; it
then returns to the heart.

A closed circulatory system is a closed-loop system, in which

blood is not free in a cavity. Blood is separate from the bodily in-
terstitial fluid and contained within blood vessels. In this type of
system, blood circulates unidirectionally from the heart around
the systemic circulatory route, and then returns to the heart.

7. White blood cells:

a can be classified as granulocytes or agranulocytes
b defend the body against bacteria and viruses
 c are also called leucocytes
d all of the above

8. Platelet plug formation occurs at which point?

a when large megakaryocytes break up into thousands of smaller frag-
ments
b when platelets are dispersed through the bloodstream
c when platelets are attracted to a site of blood vessel damage
d none of the above

9. In humans, the plasma comprises what percentage of the blood?

a 45 percent
b 55 percent
c 25 percent
d 90 percent

10. The red blood cells of birds differ from mammalian red blood cells be-
cause:
a they are white and have nuclei
b they do not have nuclei
c they have nuclei
d they fight disease

How does the lymphatic system work with blood flow?

Lymph capillaries take fluid from the blood to the lymph nodes.
The lymph nodes filter the lymph by percolation through connec-
tive tissue filled with white blood cells. The white blood cells re-
move infectious agents, such as bacteria and viruses, to clean the
lymph before it returns to the bloodstream.

11. The heart’s internal pacemaker beats by:

a an internal implant that sends an electrical impulse through the heart
b the excitation of cardiac muscle cells at the sinoatrial node followed
by the atrioventricular node
c the excitation of cardiac muscle cells at the atrioventricular node fol-
lowed by the sinoatrial node
d the action of the sinus
12. During the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle, the heart is ________.
a contracting
b relaxing
c contracting and relaxing
d filling with blood

13. Cardiomyocytes are similar to skeletal muscle because:

a they beat involuntarily
b they are used for weight lifting
c they pulse rhythmically
d they are striated

14. How do arteries differ from veins?

a Arteries have thicker smooth muscle layers to accommodate the
changes in pressure from the heart.
b Arteries carry blood.
c Arteries have thinner smooth muscle layers and valves and move
blood by the action of skeletal muscle.
d Arteries are thin walled and are used for gas exchange.

What happens in capillaries?

The capillaries basically exchange materials with their surround-

ings. Their walls are very thin and are made of one or two layers
of cells, where gases, nutrients, and waste are diffused. They are
distributed as beds, complex networks that link arteries as well as
veins.

15. High blood pressure would be a result of ________.

a a high cardiac output and high peripheral resistance
b a high cardiac output and low peripheral resistance
c a low cardiac output and high peripheral resistance
d a low cardiac output and low peripheral resistance

Ch 39 Respiratory System
Which of the following statements about the mammalian respiratory system
is false?
 a When we breathe in, air travels from the pharynx to the trachea.
b The bronchioles branch into bronchi.
c Alveolar ducts connect to alveolar sacs.
d Gas exchange between the lung and blood takes place in the alveo-
lus.

2. Figure 39.13 Which of the following statements is false?

a In the tissues, P o2 drops as blood passes from the arteries to the
veins, while P CO2 increases.
b Blood travels from the lungs to the heart to body tissues, then back to
the heart, then the lungs.
c Blood travels from the lungs to the heart to body tissues, then back
to the lungs, then the heart.

D P O2is higher in air than in the lungs.

4. The respiratory system ________.

a provides body tissues with oxygen
b provides body tissues with oxygen and carbon dioxide
c establishes how many breaths are taken per minute
d provides the body with carbon dioxide

5. Air is warmed and humidified in the nasal passages. This helps to

________.
a ward off infection
b decrease sensitivity during breathing
c prevent damage to the lungs
d all of the above

6. Which is the order of airflow during inhalation?

a nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
b nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
c nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli
d nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli

7. The inspiratory reserve volume measures the ________.

a amount of air remaining in the lung after a maximal exhalation
 b amount of air that the lung holds
c amount of air that can be further exhaled after a normal breath
d amount of air that can be further inhaled after a normal breath

8. Of the following, which does not explain why the partial pressure of oxy-
gen is lower in the lung than in the external air?
a Air in the lung is humidified; therefore, water vapor pressure alters the
pressure.
b Carbon dioxide mixes with oxygen.
c Oxygen is moved into the blood and is headed to the tissues.
d Lungs exert a pressure on the air to reduce the oxygen pressure.

9. The total lung capacity is calculated using which of the following formu-
las?
a residual volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
b residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + inspiratory reserve vol-
ume
c expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
d residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + in-
spiratory reserve volume

10. How would paralysis of the diaphragm alter inspiration?

a It would prevent contraction of the intercostal muscles.
b It would prevent inhalation because the intrapleural pressure would
not change.
c It would decrease the intrapleural pressure and allow more air to en-
ter the lungs.
d It would slow expiration because the lung would not relax.

11. Restrictive airway diseases ________.

a increase the compliance of the lung
b decrease the compliance of the lung
c increase the lung volume
d decrease the work of breathing

12. Alveolar ventilation remains constant when ________.

a the respiratory rate is increased while the volume of air per breath is
decreased
 b the respiratory rate and the volume of air per breath are increased
c the respiratory rate is decreased while increasing the volume per
breath
d both a and c

13. Which of the following will NOT facilitate the transfer of oxygen to tis-
sues?
a decreased body temperature
b decreased pH of the blood
c increased carbon dioxide
d increased exercise

14. The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is transported by ________.

a binding to hemoglobin
b dissolution in the blood
c conversion to bicarbonate
d binding to plasma proteins

15. The majority of oxygen in the blood is transported by ________.

a dissolution in the blood
b being carried as bicarbonate ions
c binding to blood plasma
d binding to hemoglobin

Ch 42 Immune system

Which of the following statements about T cells is false?

MHC II is a receptor found on most body cells and t cells kills in-
fected cell

Which of the following is a barrier against pathogens provided by the skin?

a high pH
b mucus
c tears
d desiccation

5. Although interferons have several effects, they are particularly useful

against infections with which type of pathogen?
 a bacteria
b viruses
c fungi
d helminths

6. Which organelle do phagocytes use to digest engulfed particles?

a lysosome
b nucleus
c endoplasmic reticulum
d mitochondria

7. Which innate immune system component uses MHC I molecules directly

in its defense strategy?
a macrophages
b neutrophils
c NK cells
d interferon

8. Which of the following is both a phagocyte and an antigen-presenting

cell?
a NK cell
b eosinophil
c neutrophil
d macrophage

9. Which immune cells bind MHC molecules on APCs via CD8 coreceptors
on their cell surfaces?
a TH cells
b CTLs
c mast cells
d basophils

10. What “self” pattern is identified by NK cells?

a altered self
b missing self
c normal self
d non-self
11. The acquired ability to prevent an unnecessary or destructive immune
reaction to a harmless foreign particle, such as a food protein, is called
________.
a the TH2 response
b allergy
c immune tolerance
d autoimmunity

A memory B cell can differentiate upon re-exposure to a pathogen

of which cell type?
a CTL
b naïve B cell
c memory T cell
d plasma cell

12. Upon reexposure to a pathogen, a memory B cell can differentiate to

which cell type?
a CTL
b naïve B cell
c memory T cell
d plasma cell

13. Foreign particles circulating in the blood are filtered by the ________.
a spleen
b lymph nodes
c MALT
d lymph

Explain the difference between an epitope and an antigen.

An antigen is a molecule that reacts with some component of the

immune response (antibody, B cell receptor, T cell receptor). An
epitope is the region on the antigen through which binding with
the immune component actually occurs.

14. The structure of an antibody is similar to the extracellular component of

which receptor?
a MHC I
 b MHC II
c BCR
d none of the above

15. The first antibody class to appear in the serum in response to a newly
encountered pathogen is ________.
a IgM
b IgA
c IgG
d IgE

16. What is the most abundant antibody class detected in the serum upon
reexposure to a pathogen or in reaction to a vaccine?
a IgM
b IgA
c IgG
d IgE

17. Breastfed infants typically are resistant to disease because of

________.
a active immunity
b passive immunity
c immune tolerance
d immune memory

18. Allergy to pollen is classified as:

a an autoimmune reaction
b immunodeficiency
c delayed hypersensitivity
d immediate hypersensitivity

19. A potential cause of acquired autoimmunity is ________.

a tissue hypersensitivity
b molecular mimicry
c histamine release
d radiation exposure

20. Autoantibodies are probably involved in:

 a reactions to poison ivy
b pollen allergies
c systemic lupus erythematosus
d HIV/AIDS

21. Which of the following diseases is not due to autoimmunity?

a rheumatic fever
b systemic lupus erythematosus
c diabetes mellitus
d HIV/AIDS

Ch 41 Osmotic regulation and excretion

Which of the following statements about the kidney is false?

a The renal pelvis drains into the ureter.
b The renal pyramids are in the medulla.
c The cortex covers the capsule.
d Nephrons are in the renal cortex.

2. Figure 41.6 Which of the following statements about the nephron is

false?
a The collecting duct empties into the distal convoluted tubule.
b The Bowman’s capsule surrounds the glomerulus.
c The loop of Henle is between the proximal and distal convoluted
tubules.
d The loop of Henle empties into the distal convoluted tubule.

4. When a dehydrated human patient needs to be given fluids intra-

venously, he or she is given:
a water, which is hypotonic with respect to body fluids
b saline at a concentration that is isotonic with respect to body fluids
c glucose because it is a non-electrolyte
d blood

5. The sodium ion is at the highest concentration in:

a intracellular fluid
 b extracellular fluid
c blood plasma
d none of the above

6. Cells in a hypertonic solution tend to:

a shrink due to water loss
b swell due to water gain
c stay the same size due to water moving into and out of the cell at the
same rate
d none of the above

Why do electrolyte ions move across membranes by active trans-

port?

Electrolyte ions often require special mechanisms to cross the

semi-permeable membranes in the body. Active transport is the
movement against a concentration gradient.

Why is excretion important in order to achieve osmotic balance?

Excretion allows an organism to rid itself of waste molecules that

could be toxic if allowed to accumulate. It also allows the organ-
ism to keep the amount of water and dissolved solutes in balance.

7. The macula densa is/are:

a present in the renal medulla.
b dense tissue present in the outer layer of the kidney.
c cells present in the DCT and collecting tubules.
d present in blood capillaries.

8. The osmolarity of body fluids is maintained at ________.

a 100 mOsm
b 300 mOsm
c 1000 mOsm
d it is not constantly maintained

9. The gland located at the top of the kidney is the ________ gland.
a adrenal
 b pituitary
c thyroid
d thymus

Why are the loop of Henle and vasa recta important for the forma-
tion of concentrated urine?

The loop of Henle is part of the renal tubule that loops into the re-
nal medulla. In the loop of Henle, the filtrate exchanges solutes
and water with the renal medulla and the vasa recta (the per-
itubular capillary network). The vasa recta acts as the countercur-
rent exchanger. The kidneys maintain the osmolality of the rest of
the body at a constant 300 mOsm by concentrating the filtrate as
it passes through the loop of Henle.

10. Active transport of K+ in Malpighian tubules ensures that:

a water follows K+ to make urine
b osmotic balance is maintained between waste matter and bodily fluids
c both a and b
d neither a nor b

11. Contractile vacuoles in microorganisms:

a exclusively perform an excretory function
b can perform many functions, one of which is excretion of metabolic
wastes
c originate from the cell membrane
d both b and c

12. Flame cells are primitive excretory organs found in ________.

a arthropods
b annelids
c mammals
d flatworms

13. BUN is ________.

a blood urea nitrogen
b blood uric acid nitrogen
c an indicator of blood volume
 d an indicator of blood pressure

14. Human beings accumulate ________ before excreting nitrogenous

waste.
a nitrogen
b ammonia
c urea
d uric acid

15. Renin is made by ________.

a granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus
b the kidneys
c the nephrons
d all of the above

16. Patients with Addison's disease ________.

a retain water
b retain salts
c lose salts and water
d have too much aldosterone

17. Which hormone elicits the “fight or flight” response?

a epinephrine
b mineralcorticoids
c anti-diuretic hormone
d thyroxine

Describe how hormones regulate blood pressure, blood volume,

and kidney function.

Hormones are small molecules that act as messengers within the

body. Different regions of the nephron bear specialized cells,
which have receptors to respond to chemical messengers and
hormones. The hormones carry messages to the kidney. These
hormonal cues help the kidneys synchronize the osmotic needs of
the body. Hormones like epinephrine, norepinephrine, renin-an-
giotensin, aldosterone, anti-diuretic hormone, and atrial natri-
uretic peptide help regulate the needs of the body as well as the
communication between the different organ systems.